Q1The basic unit of life is the:
- Atissue
- Bcell
- Corgan
- Dorganism
Show answer
Correct answer: B — cell
The cell is the smallest unit that shows all the characteristics of life.
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Q1The basic unit of life is the:
Correct answer: B — cell
The cell is the smallest unit that shows all the characteristics of life.
Q2In an experiment, the variable you deliberately change is the:
Correct answer: B — independent variable
The independent variable is the one changed; the dependent variable is measured in response.
Q3Which sequence shows increasing levels of organisation?
Correct answer: B — cell → tissue → organ
Cells build tissues, which build organs, then organ systems and the organism.
Q4'MRS GREN' is a way to remember the:
Correct answer: B — characteristics of living things
It stands for movement, respiration, sensitivity, growth, reproduction, excretion and nutrition.
Q5A fair test requires that you change:
Correct answer: B — only the independent variable
Changing only one variable lets you attribute any effect to that variable alone.
Q6A tentative, testable explanation is called a:
Correct answer: C — hypothesis
A hypothesis is a testable proposed explanation; it may become a theory after repeated testing.
Q7A cell image is 50 mm wide and the real cell is 0.05 mm wide. The magnification is:
Correct answer: C — ×1000
Magnification = image ÷ actual = 50 ÷ 0.05 = 1000.
Q8An electron microscope can magnify more than a light microscope because it uses:
Correct answer: B — beams of electrons
Electron microscopes use electron beams, giving much higher magnification and resolution than light.
Any four of: movement, respiration, sensitivity, growth, reproduction, excretion, nutrition.
Independent variable: the factor deliberately changed. Dependent variable: the factor measured in response. Controlled variable: a factor kept constant so it does not affect the result.
Hypothesis that warmth speeds rising; IV = temperature, DV = rise; keep recipe/mass/time constant and repeat for reliability.
Actual size = image size ÷ magnification = 40 ÷ 2000 = 0.02 mm.
Advantage: it magnifies far more and shows much finer detail (higher resolution). Limitation: it cannot be used on living specimens, which must be dead and specially prepared.
IV = caffeine concentration, DV = heart rate; control temperature and flea size; repeat for a reliable average.
Q1The basic unit of classification is the:
Correct answer: B — species
A species — organisms that can breed to give fertile offspring — is the basic unit.
Q2In the name Escherichia coli, 'Escherichia' is the:
Correct answer: B — genus
The first, capitalised word of a binomial name is the genus.
Q3Which kingdom has cell walls of chitin and absorbs nutrients?
Correct answer: C — Fungi
Fungi absorb their nutrients and have chitin cell walls.
Q4Which orders the hierarchy from largest to smallest?
Correct answer: B — kingdom → phylum → species
Kingdom is largest and species smallest.
Q5Bacteria are placed in the kingdom:
Correct answer: C — Prokaryotae
Bacteria are prokaryotic single cells, placed in Prokaryotae.
Q6Cross-breeding to fertile offspring defines members of one:
Correct answer: B — species
A species is defined by the ability to interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
Q7A dichotomous key identifies an organism using:
Correct answer: B — paired either/or questions about features
A dichotomous key uses a series of two-way questions about observable features.
Q8A polar bear's thick fur and fat are examples of:
Correct answer: B — adaptation to its environment
They are adaptations that help it survive the cold.
Two Latin words: the genus first (capital letter) and the species second (lower case); the whole name is italicised (or underlined), e.g. Homo sapiens.
Any three, e.g. Prokaryotae — no nucleus; Plantae — photosynthesise; Animalia — multicellular, feed on other organisms; Fungi — absorb nutrients, chitin walls.
Species = organisms that interbreed to give fertile offspring; hierarchy kingdom→…→species; binomial names are unique and universal.
A dichotomous key is a set of paired statements or questions, each offering two choices about an observable feature. At each step you pick the option that matches the organism, which directs you to the next pair, until you reach the organism's name.
For example a cactus: a thick waxy cuticle to reduce water loss, and spines (reduced leaves) that lower water loss and deter herbivores. (Any organism with two valid habitat adaptations is acceptable.)
Classify to identify/organise and show relationships; binomial names are unique and universal; the smallest group is the species.
Q1Which structure is found in a plant cell but NOT an animal cell?
Correct answer: C — chloroplast
Chloroplasts (for photosynthesis) are found in plant cells, along with a cell wall and large vacuole; animal cells lack all three.
Q2The net movement of water across a partially permeable membrane is:
Correct answer: B — osmosis
Osmosis is specifically the diffusion of water across a partially permeable membrane.
Q3Which process requires energy from respiration?
Correct answer: C — active transport
Active transport moves substances against their gradient, which needs energy; diffusion and osmosis are passive.
Q4A bacterial cell is described as prokaryotic because it:
Correct answer: B — has no true nucleus or membrane-bound organelles
Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; their DNA lies free in the cytoplasm.
Q5Cells stay small mainly because a small cell has a high:
Correct answer: B — surface-area-to-volume ratio
A high surface-area-to-volume ratio keeps exchange across the membrane fast enough.
Q6The organelle that controls the cell and stores DNA is the:
Correct answer: C — nucleus
The nucleus stores the genetic material and controls the cell's activities.
Q7Which organelle is too small to see clearly with a light microscope?
Correct answer: B — ribosome
Ribosomes are tiny and need an electron microscope; the nucleus, chloroplasts and cell wall are visible under light.
Q8Villi and alveoli are both folded in order to increase their:
Correct answer: B — surface area for exchange
Folding increases the surface area, speeding diffusion across the exchange surface.
Cell wall — support and shape (cellulose); chloroplasts — photosynthesis; large permanent vacuole — stores cell sap and keeps the cell turgid.
Diffusion is the passive net movement of particles from high to low concentration (no energy needed). Active transport moves particles against the gradient, from low to high concentration, and needs energy from respiration.
Osmosis = water moving across a partially permeable membrane to the more concentrated side; cube gains mass in water, loses mass in concentrated sugar.
Diffusion only moves substances down a concentration gradient (high to low) and needs no energy. Active transport uses energy from respiration to move substances against the gradient, from low to high concentration.
A cell wall and chloroplasts (also a large permanent vacuole). The cell wall (cellulose) supports and shapes the cell; chloroplasts carry out photosynthesis; the vacuole stores cell sap and keeps the cell turgid.
Osmosis; gains mass in water (water enters), loses mass in concentrated solution (water leaves).
Q1Mitosis produces daughter cells that are:
Correct answer: B — genetically identical and diploid
Mitosis gives two identical diploid cells — used for growth, repair and asexual reproduction.
Q2Meiosis is used to make:
Correct answer: B — gametes (sex cells)
Meiosis produces the haploid gametes needed for sexual reproduction.
Q3A human gamete contains how many chromosomes?
Correct answer: A — 23
Gametes are haploid, with half the diploid number — 23 in humans.
Q4DNA is copied during which stage of the cell cycle?
Correct answer: C — interphase
DNA is replicated during interphase, before division begins.
Q5Cancer results from:
Correct answer: B — uncontrolled cell division
Loss of control of the cell cycle leads to uncontrolled division and tumour formation.
Q6Compared with mitosis, meiosis produces:
Correct answer: B — four genetically different cells
Meiosis gives four haploid daughter cells that are all genetically different.
Q7A human body (diploid) cell contains how many chromosomes?
Correct answer: B — 46
Diploid human cells have 23 pairs = 46 chromosomes; gametes are haploid with 23.
Q8An unspecialised cell that can divide and become different cell types is a:
Correct answer: B — stem cell
Stem cells are unspecialised and can differentiate into many cell types.
Mitosis makes 2 cells, meiosis makes 4; mitosis keeps the chromosome number the same (diploid), meiosis halves it (haploid); mitosis gives identical cells, meiosis gives genetically different cells.
Mitosis produces genetically identical cells for growth (increasing cell number) and for the repair and replacement of damaged or worn-out tissue.
Mitosis → 46 (identical diploid); gametes → 23 (meiosis halves it so fertilisation keeps 46 constant); fertilisation restores the diploid number.
A diploid cell has the full set of chromosomes in matching pairs (46 in humans); a haploid cell has only one chromosome of each pair (23 in humans), as in gametes.
Stem cells are unspecialised and can divide and differentiate into many cell types, so they could be used to replace damaged or diseased tissue (for example nerve or blood cells). A concern is the ethical objection to using embryonic stem cells (or risks such as rejection or uncontrolled division).
Mitosis: growth and repair; gametes need meiosis to halve the number so fertilisation restores the diploid number.
Q1A group of similar cells working together forms a(n):
Correct answer: B — tissue
Similar specialised cells form a tissue.
Q2Xylem tissue in a plant:
Correct answer: B — carries water up
Xylem transports water and minerals upward.
Q3A red blood cell has no nucleus so it can:
Correct answer: B — carry more haemoglobin
Losing the nucleus leaves more room for haemoglobin.
Q4The heart is a(n):
Correct answer: B — organ
The heart is an organ — several tissues working together.
Q5Which system carries out gas exchange?
Correct answer: B — respiratory
The respiratory system exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Q6A root hair cell's extension increases its:
Correct answer: B — surface area for absorption
It increases surface area, speeding absorption.
Q7An unspecialised cell becomes specialised by:
Correct answer: B — differentiation
Differentiation is how a stem cell develops into a particular specialised cell type.
Q8Delivering absorbed nutrients to every cell is the job of the:
Correct answer: B — circulatory system
The circulatory system transports absorbed nutrients around the body.
Cell → tissue → organ → organ system → organism.
A biconcave disc gives a large surface area for absorbing oxygen; it is packed with haemoglobin to carry oxygen; and it has no nucleus, leaving more room for haemoglobin.
A specialised cell is shaped for one job; e.g. nerve cell (long, carries impulses) and root hair cell (large area, absorbs water).
Stem cells are unspecialised and can keep dividing; their daughter cells differentiate into the specialised cells a tissue needs, allowing the organism to grow and to repair or replace damaged tissue.
The digestive system breaks the food into small soluble molecules and absorbs them; the circulatory system carries these nutrients (and oxygen) to the cells; the respiratory system supplies the oxygen needed to release the food's energy in respiration.
Cell→tissue→organ→organ system→organism; specialisation (division of labour) lets each cell do its job efficiently so the organism achieves more.
Q1The monomer of proteins is the:
Correct answer: B — amino acid
Proteins are polymers of amino acids joined by peptide bonds.
Q2Starch and glycogen are both:
Correct answer: B — energy-storage polysaccharides
Both are polysaccharides used to store glucose — starch in plants, glycogen in animals.
Q3A cloudy white emulsion in the emulsion test shows the presence of a:
Correct answer: C — lipid
The ethanol emulsion test gives a cloudy emulsion with lipids.
Q4Heating a protein can destroy its function by:
Correct answer: B — denaturing it (changing its shape)
Heat unravels the protein's precise 3-D shape, denaturing it so it no longer works.
Q5Biological polymers are broken down in digestion by:
Correct answer: B — hydrolysis
Hydrolysis adds water to split a polymer into its monomers — what digestion does.
Q6Which molecule forms the main structure of cell membranes?
Correct answer: B — phospholipids
Phospholipids (a type of lipid) form the bilayer of every cell membrane.
Q7Water is important in cells largely because it is a good:
Correct answer: B — solvent
As a solvent, water lets reactions happen in solution and carries dissolved substances around the body.
Q8Starch is better than glucose for storage because starch is:
Correct answer: B — large and insoluble
Being large and insoluble, starch stores compactly without affecting the cell's water balance.
Starch: add iodine solution — a blue-black colour is positive. Reducing sugar: warm with Benedict's solution — a change from blue to a brick-red precipitate is positive.
A protein's function depends on its specific 3-D shape (e.g. an enzyme's active site). Strong heating denatures it — changes its shape — so it can no longer carry out its function.
Carbohydrate monomer = monosaccharide, protein monomer = amino acid; condensation joins (releases water), hydrolysis splits (adds water); lipids store energy, insulate, cushion and build membranes.
It is a good solvent, so reactions occur in solution and substances are transported dissolved in it; and it has a high heat capacity, so it resists temperature change and helps keep organisms at a steady temperature.
Lipids contain about twice as much energy per gram as carbohydrates, so they store a lot of energy compactly for the long term (and also insulate). Carbohydrates like glucose are soluble and quickly broken down, making them ideal for immediate, short-term energy.
Benedict's (blue→brick-red) for reducing sugar; biuret (blue→purple) for protein; iodine blue-black shows starch, a compact insoluble store.
Q1Enzymes speed up reactions by:
Correct answer: B — lowering the activation energy
Like all catalysts, enzymes provide a route with lower activation energy.
Q2The part of an enzyme where the substrate binds is the:
Correct answer: A — active site
The active site is the specifically shaped pocket where the substrate binds.
Q3Above its optimum temperature, an enzyme's activity falls because it:
Correct answer: B — is denatured
Heat breaks the bonds holding the enzyme's shape, destroying the active site — denaturing.
Q4Enzyme specificity is due to the:
Correct answer: B — shape of the active site
Only a substrate complementary to the active site's shape can bind, making the enzyme specific.
Q5As substrate concentration increases, the rate eventually levels off because:
Correct answer: B — all active sites are occupied
When every active site is busy (saturation), extra substrate cannot increase the rate.
Q6Pepsin in the stomach has an optimum pH of about:
Correct answer: A — 2
Pepsin works best in the strongly acidic conditions of the stomach, around pH 2.
Q7Lipase digests fats into:
Correct answer: C — fatty acids and glycerol
Lipase breaks fats down into fatty acids and glycerol.
Q8If a denatured enzyme is cooled back to its optimum temperature, it will:
Correct answer: B — still not work — denaturing is permanent
Denaturing permanently destroys the active site's shape; cooling cannot restore it.
An enzyme has a specifically shaped active site. Only a substrate whose shape is complementary to the active site can fit and bind, forming an enzyme–substrate complex. Because only one substrate fits, the enzyme catalyses only that one reaction.
High temperature breaks the bonds that hold the enzyme's 3-D shape, denaturing it. The active site changes shape so the substrate can no longer bind, and the reaction almost stops.
Rate rises to an optimum pH then falls as the enzyme denatures; other factors: temperature and substrate/enzyme concentration.
Amylase digests starch (carbohydrate) to sugars; protease digests protein to amino acids; lipase digests fats to fatty acids and glycerol.
Cooling gives particles less kinetic energy, so there are fewer, less energetic collisions between enzyme and substrate — the reaction slows. But it does not break the bonds holding the enzyme's shape, so the active site is unchanged and the enzyme works normally again when warmed.
Rate rises to an optimum (more successful collisions), then falls as the enzyme denatures and its active site is destroyed.
Q1The products of photosynthesis are:
Correct answer: B — glucose and oxygen
Photosynthesis makes glucose and oxygen from CO₂ and water.
Q2Anaerobic respiration in human muscle produces:
Correct answer: B — lactic acid
Without oxygen, human cells produce lactic acid.
Q3Which releases the most energy per glucose?
Correct answer: A — aerobic respiration
Aerobic respiration releases far more energy than anaerobic.
Q4The pigment that absorbs light for photosynthesis is:
Correct answer: B — chlorophyll
Chlorophyll in chloroplasts absorbs light energy.
Q5Yeast respiring anaerobically produces ethanol and:
Correct answer: B — carbon dioxide
Fermentation gives ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Q6If more light no longer speeds photosynthesis, the rate is limited by:
Correct answer: B — CO₂ or temperature
Another factor (CO₂ or temperature) becomes limiting.
Q7A leaf is broad and flat mainly to:
Correct answer: B — give a large surface area for light
A broad flat shape maximises the surface area for absorbing light.
Q8In the starch test, iodine turns blue-black to show the leaf has made:
Correct answer: B — starch
Iodine gives a blue-black colour with starch, the store made from glucose.
Glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water (+ energy). Most aerobic respiration occurs in the mitochondria.
Aerobic uses oxygen, releases a lot of energy, and gives carbon dioxide and water. Anaerobic uses no oxygen, releases little energy, and gives lactic acid.
Limiting factors: light, CO₂, temperature; rate rises with light then plateaus when another factor limits it.
Boil the leaf to kill it, then decolourise it in hot ethanol (away from a flame) and rinse it. Add iodine solution: a blue-black colour shows starch has been made, indicating photosynthesis.
Being thin gives a short diffusion distance so gases and light reach the inner cells quickly; the many stomata allow carbon dioxide to diffuse in (and oxygen out) fast enough for photosynthesis.
CO₂ + water → glucose + oxygen; limiting factors light/CO₂/temperature; rate rises with light then plateaus when another factor limits it.
Q1Water travels up a plant in the:
Correct answer: B — xylem
Xylem carries water and minerals upward.
Q2Transpiration mainly occurs through the:
Correct answer: B — stomata
Water vapour is lost mostly through the stomata.
Q3Which condition slows transpiration?
Correct answer: B — high humidity
High humidity reduces evaporation from the leaf.
Q4Phloem transports:
Correct answer: B — dissolved food (sucrose)
Phloem carries dissolved food around the plant.
Q5A plant short of magnesium cannot make enough:
Correct answer: B — chlorophyll
Magnesium is needed to make chlorophyll.
Q6Mineral ions enter roots against a gradient by:
Correct answer: C — active transport
Absorbing ions against the gradient requires active transport.
Q7A firm, swollen plant cell full of water is described as:
Correct answer: B — turgid
A cell full of water and firm against its wall is turgid.
Q8Turgor pressure is important because it:
Correct answer: B — supports non-woody plants
Turgor pressure keeps the cells firm, supporting the stems and leaves of non-woody plants.
Xylem carries water and minerals upward in dead tubes; phloem carries dissolved food (sucrose) in living cells, in both directions.
Higher temperature and wind speed evaporation, and dry air gives a steeper water-vapour gradient out of the leaf, so more water is lost. On a cool, still, humid day all these are reduced.
Transpiration = water-vapour loss via stomata; wind speeds it; nitrate is needed for proteins (magnesium for chlorophyll).
The cells lose water and become flaccid, so they lose their turgor pressure. Without turgor to support them, the stems and leaves droop — the plant wilts.
The moving air blows away water vapour from around the leaves, keeping a steep water-vapour gradient, so transpiration (and therefore water uptake) speeds up.
Water enters roots by osmosis, rises in the xylem (transpiration stream); faster in warm, dry, windy or bright conditions.
Q1The part of a flower that makes pollen is the:
Correct answer: B — anther
The anther, part of the stamen, produces pollen.
Q2Pollination transfers pollen from an anther to a:
Correct answer: B — stigma
Pollination moves pollen from anther to stigma.
Q3Which is a wind-pollinated feature?
Correct answer: B — feathery stigma outside
A feathery stigma catches airborne pollen.
Q4After fertilisation, the ovary becomes the:
Correct answer: B — fruit
The ovary becomes the fruit; the ovule becomes the seed.
Q5A seed needs water, warmth and:
Correct answer: B — oxygen
Germinating seeds respire, needing oxygen; light is not required to start.
Q6Cross-pollination increases:
Correct answer: B — genetic variation
Mixing genes from two plants increases variation.
Q7A dandelion seed with a parachute of hairs is adapted for dispersal by:
Correct answer: B — wind
Light seeds with hairs or wings are carried by the wind.
Q8A strawberry plant growing new plants from runners is reproducing:
Correct answer: B — asexually
Runners are a form of asexual (vegetative) reproduction — one parent, identical offspring.
Bright/scented petals attract insects; nectar draws them in; sticky pollen and a sticky stigma ensure pollen sticks to and is transferred by the insect.
Water, oxygen and a suitable temperature. Oxygen is needed for aerobic respiration, which releases the energy the seedling needs.
A pollen tube grows to the ovule and nuclei fuse; dispersal (wind, animals, water) reduces competition.
It is brightly coloured and tasty so animals eat it; the seeds have tough coats that survive digestion and are deposited, in droppings, far from the parent plant.
Advantage: it is fast and needs no mate or pollinator, and the offspring are identical to a successful parent. Disadvantage: there is no genetic variation, so the whole population is vulnerable if the environment changes or a disease strikes.
Sexual: two parents, varied offspring; asexual: one parent, identical offspring; use cuttings (asexual) to get identical copies of the prize plant.
These questions come from the 9th Class Biology lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.