9th Class Biology — MCQs & Practice Questions

80 multiple-choice questions and 60 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

New to a topic? Read the 9th Class Biology notes first, then come back to practise.

01

The Science of Biology

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The basic unit of life is the:

  1. Atissue
  2. Bcell
  3. Corgan
  4. Dorganism
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cell

The cell is the smallest unit that shows all the characteristics of life.

Q2In an experiment, the variable you deliberately change is the:

  1. Adependent variable
  2. Bindependent variable
  3. Ccontrolled variable
  4. Dcontrol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — independent variable

The independent variable is the one changed; the dependent variable is measured in response.

Q3Which sequence shows increasing levels of organisation?

  1. Aorgan → tissue → cell
  2. Bcell → tissue → organ
  3. Corganism → organ → cell
  4. Dtissue → cell → organ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cell → tissue → organ

Cells build tissues, which build organs, then organ systems and the organism.

Q4'MRS GREN' is a way to remember the:

  1. Alevels of organisation
  2. Bcharacteristics of living things
  3. Csteps of the method
  4. Dkingdoms of life
Show answer

Correct answer: B — characteristics of living things

It stands for movement, respiration, sensitivity, growth, reproduction, excretion and nutrition.

Q5A fair test requires that you change:

  1. Aseveral variables at once
  2. Bonly the independent variable
  3. Cthe dependent variable
  4. Dnothing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — only the independent variable

Changing only one variable lets you attribute any effect to that variable alone.

Q6A tentative, testable explanation is called a:

  1. Atheory
  2. Blaw
  3. Chypothesis
  4. Dconclusion
Show answer

Correct answer: C — hypothesis

A hypothesis is a testable proposed explanation; it may become a theory after repeated testing.

Q7A cell image is 50 mm wide and the real cell is 0.05 mm wide. The magnification is:

  1. A×10
  2. B×100
  3. C×1000
  4. D×0.001
Show answer

Correct answer: C — ×1000

Magnification = image ÷ actual = 50 ÷ 0.05 = 1000.

Q8An electron microscope can magnify more than a light microscope because it uses:

  1. Astronger light
  2. Bbeams of electrons
  3. Cbigger lenses
  4. Dliving cells
Show answer

Correct answer: B — beams of electrons

Electron microscopes use electron beams, giving much higher magnification and resolution than light.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State four of the seven characteristics shared by all living organisms.
Answer

Any four of: movement, respiration, sensitivity, growth, reproduction, excretion, nutrition.

Q2[3 marks]
Define independent variable, dependent variable and controlled variable.
Answer

Independent variable: the factor deliberately changed. Dependent variable: the factor measured in response. Controlled variable: a factor kept constant so it does not affect the result.

Q3[6 marks]
A student wants to find out whether temperature affects how fast bread dough rises.
  1. State a suitable hypothesis. [1]
  2. Identify the independent and dependent variables. [2]
  3. Describe how to make it a fair, reliable test. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Hypothesis: dough rises faster at higher temperatures (up to an optimum)[1]
  2. Independent variable: temperature[1]
  3. Dependent variable: rise in height (or volume) in a fixed time[1]
  4. Keep controlled variables constant: same dough recipe, mass, container, time[1]
  5. Measure the rise for each temperature[1]
  6. Repeat each temperature several times and average for reliability[1]

Hypothesis that warmth speeds rising; IV = temperature, DV = rise; keep recipe/mass/time constant and repeat for reliability.

Q4[2 marks]
A structure appears 40 mm long under a microscope at a magnification of ×2000. Calculate its actual length in millimetres.
Answer

Actual size = image size ÷ magnification = 40 ÷ 2000 = 0.02 mm.

Q5[2 marks]
State one advantage and one limitation of the electron microscope compared with the light microscope.
Answer

Advantage: it magnifies far more and shows much finer detail (higher resolution). Limitation: it cannot be used on living specimens, which must be dead and specially prepared.

Q6[5 marks]
A student investigates how caffeine affects the heart rate of water fleas (Daphnia).
  1. State the independent and dependent variables. [2]
  2. State two variables that should be controlled. [2]
  3. State why the readings should be repeated. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Independent variable: the concentration of caffeine[1]
  2. dependent variable: the heart rate of the water flea[1]
  3. Control the temperature[1]
  4. and the size/age of the water fleas (or same species)[1]
  5. Repeating gives an average and reduces the effect of random error, improving reliability[1]

IV = caffeine concentration, DV = heart rate; control temperature and flea size; repeat for a reliable average.

02

Biodiversity

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The basic unit of classification is the:

  1. Agenus
  2. Bspecies
  3. Ckingdom
  4. Dphylum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — species

A species — organisms that can breed to give fertile offspring — is the basic unit.

Q2In the name Escherichia coli, 'Escherichia' is the:

  1. Aspecies
  2. Bgenus
  3. Cfamily
  4. Dkingdom
Show answer

Correct answer: B — genus

The first, capitalised word of a binomial name is the genus.

Q3Which kingdom has cell walls of chitin and absorbs nutrients?

  1. APlantae
  2. BAnimalia
  3. CFungi
  4. DProtista
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Fungi

Fungi absorb their nutrients and have chitin cell walls.

Q4Which orders the hierarchy from largest to smallest?

  1. Aspecies → genus → kingdom
  2. Bkingdom → phylum → species
  3. Cgenus → family → order
  4. Dclass → kingdom → order
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kingdom → phylum → species

Kingdom is largest and species smallest.

Q5Bacteria are placed in the kingdom:

  1. AProtista
  2. BFungi
  3. CProkaryotae
  4. DPlantae
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Prokaryotae

Bacteria are prokaryotic single cells, placed in Prokaryotae.

Q6Cross-breeding to fertile offspring defines members of one:

  1. Agenus
  2. Bspecies
  3. Cfamily
  4. Dphylum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — species

A species is defined by the ability to interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

Q7A dichotomous key identifies an organism using:

  1. Aits DNA sequence
  2. Bpaired either/or questions about features
  3. Cits Latin name
  4. Drandom guessing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — paired either/or questions about features

A dichotomous key uses a series of two-way questions about observable features.

Q8A polar bear's thick fur and fat are examples of:

  1. Aclassification
  2. Badaptation to its environment
  3. Cbinomial naming
  4. Da dichotomous key
Show answer

Correct answer: B — adaptation to its environment

They are adaptations that help it survive the cold.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State the rules for writing an organism's scientific (binomial) name.
Answer

Two Latin words: the genus first (capital letter) and the species second (lower case); the whole name is italicised (or underlined), e.g. Homo sapiens.

Q2[3 marks]
Name three of the five kingdoms and give one distinguishing feature of each.
Answer

Any three, e.g. Prokaryotae — no nucleus; Plantae — photosynthesise; Animalia — multicellular, feed on other organisms; Fungi — absorb nutrients, chitin walls.

Q3[6 marks]
Classification organises the diversity of life.
  1. Define the term species. [2]
  2. List the classification hierarchy from kingdom to species. [2]
  3. Explain one advantage of the binomial naming system. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A group of similar organisms[1]
  2. that can breed together to produce fertile offspring[1]
  3. Kingdom, phylum, class, order,[1]
  4. family, genus, species[1]
  5. Each species has one unique, universal name[1]
  6. understood worldwide, avoiding the ambiguity of common names[1]

Species = organisms that interbreed to give fertile offspring; hierarchy kingdom→…→species; binomial names are unique and universal.

Q4[2 marks]
Explain what a dichotomous key is and how it is used.
Answer

A dichotomous key is a set of paired statements or questions, each offering two choices about an observable feature. At each step you pick the option that matches the organism, which directs you to the next pair, until you reach the organism's name.

Q5[2 marks]
State two adaptations of a named organism to its habitat.
Answer

For example a cactus: a thick waxy cuticle to reduce water loss, and spines (reduced leaves) that lower water loss and deter herbivores. (Any organism with two valid habitat adaptations is acceptable.)

Q6[5 marks]
Classification and identification help biologists study biodiversity.
  1. State two reasons biologists classify organisms. [2]
  2. Explain why a scientific (binomial) name is more useful than a common name. [2]
  3. Name the smallest group in the classification hierarchy. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. To identify organisms and organise the diversity of life[1]
  2. and to study their relationships / shared ancestry[1]
  3. A binomial name is unique to one species[1]
  4. and is understood worldwide, avoiding the ambiguity of common names[1]
  5. Species[1]

Classify to identify/organise and show relationships; binomial names are unique and universal; the smallest group is the species.

03

The Cell

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Which structure is found in a plant cell but NOT an animal cell?

  1. Anucleus
  2. Bmitochondrion
  3. Cchloroplast
  4. Dcell membrane
Show answer

Correct answer: C — chloroplast

Chloroplasts (for photosynthesis) are found in plant cells, along with a cell wall and large vacuole; animal cells lack all three.

Q2The net movement of water across a partially permeable membrane is:

  1. Adiffusion
  2. Bosmosis
  3. Cactive transport
  4. Drespiration
Show answer

Correct answer: B — osmosis

Osmosis is specifically the diffusion of water across a partially permeable membrane.

Q3Which process requires energy from respiration?

  1. Adiffusion
  2. Bosmosis
  3. Cactive transport
  4. Dall of them
Show answer

Correct answer: C — active transport

Active transport moves substances against their gradient, which needs energy; diffusion and osmosis are passive.

Q4A bacterial cell is described as prokaryotic because it:

  1. Ahas a nucleus
  2. Bhas no true nucleus or membrane-bound organelles
  3. Chas chloroplasts
  4. Dis very large
Show answer

Correct answer: B — has no true nucleus or membrane-bound organelles

Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles; their DNA lies free in the cytoplasm.

Q5Cells stay small mainly because a small cell has a high:

  1. Avolume
  2. Bsurface-area-to-volume ratio
  3. Cnumber of organelles
  4. DDNA content
Show answer

Correct answer: B — surface-area-to-volume ratio

A high surface-area-to-volume ratio keeps exchange across the membrane fast enough.

Q6The organelle that controls the cell and stores DNA is the:

  1. Amitochondrion
  2. Bribosome
  3. Cnucleus
  4. Dvacuole
Show answer

Correct answer: C — nucleus

The nucleus stores the genetic material and controls the cell's activities.

Q7Which organelle is too small to see clearly with a light microscope?

  1. Anucleus
  2. Bribosome
  3. Cchloroplast
  4. Dcell wall
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ribosome

Ribosomes are tiny and need an electron microscope; the nucleus, chloroplasts and cell wall are visible under light.

Q8Villi and alveoli are both folded in order to increase their:

  1. Avolume
  2. Bsurface area for exchange
  3. Cnumber of nuclei
  4. Dtemperature
Show answer

Correct answer: B — surface area for exchange

Folding increases the surface area, speeding diffusion across the exchange surface.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[3 marks]
State three structures found in a plant cell that are absent from an animal cell, and give the function of each.
Answer

Cell wall — support and shape (cellulose); chloroplasts — photosynthesis; large permanent vacuole — stores cell sap and keeps the cell turgid.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain the difference between diffusion and active transport.
Answer

Diffusion is the passive net movement of particles from high to low concentration (no energy needed). Active transport moves particles against the gradient, from low to high concentration, and needs energy from respiration.

Q3[6 marks]
Cubes of the same size were cut from potato and placed in different solutions to investigate osmosis.
  1. Define osmosis. [2]
  2. Predict and explain the change in mass of a cube left in pure water. [2]
  3. Predict and explain the change in mass of a cube left in concentrated sugar solution. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Osmosis is the movement of water[1]
  2. across a partially permeable membrane from a dilute to a more concentrated solution[1]
  3. In pure water the cube gains mass[1]
  4. because water enters the cells by osmosis (cells more concentrated than pure water)[1]
  5. In concentrated sugar solution the cube loses mass[1]
  6. because water leaves the cells by osmosis toward the more concentrated solution[1]

Osmosis = water moving across a partially permeable membrane to the more concentrated side; cube gains mass in water, loses mass in concentrated sugar.

Q4[2 marks]
Explain why active transport, but not diffusion, can move a substance into a cell against its concentration gradient.
Answer

Diffusion only moves substances down a concentration gradient (high to low) and needs no energy. Active transport uses energy from respiration to move substances against the gradient, from low to high concentration.

Q5[2 marks]
State two structures a plant cell has that an animal cell does not, and give the function of one.
Answer

A cell wall and chloroplasts (also a large permanent vacuole). The cell wall (cellulose) supports and shapes the cell; chloroplasts carry out photosynthesis; the vacuole stores cell sap and keeps the cell turgid.

Q6[5 marks]
Potato cylinders were placed in sugar solutions of different concentrations and their change in mass measured.
  1. Name the process responsible for the mass changes. [1]
  2. Explain why a cylinder in pure water gains mass. [2]
  3. Explain why a cylinder in a very concentrated solution loses mass. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Osmosis[1]
  2. In pure water the solution is more dilute than the cell contents[1]
  3. so water enters the cells by osmosis and the mass increases[1]
  4. In a concentrated solution the outside is more concentrated than the cells[1]
  5. so water leaves the cells by osmosis and the mass decreases[1]

Osmosis; gains mass in water (water enters), loses mass in concentrated solution (water leaves).

04

Cell Cycle

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Mitosis produces daughter cells that are:

  1. Agenetically different and haploid
  2. Bgenetically identical and diploid
  3. Calways gametes
  4. Dhalf the size
Show answer

Correct answer: B — genetically identical and diploid

Mitosis gives two identical diploid cells — used for growth, repair and asexual reproduction.

Q2Meiosis is used to make:

  1. Askin cells
  2. Bgametes (sex cells)
  3. Cred blood cells
  4. Dmuscle cells
Show answer

Correct answer: B — gametes (sex cells)

Meiosis produces the haploid gametes needed for sexual reproduction.

Q3A human gamete contains how many chromosomes?

  1. A23
  2. B46
  3. C92
  4. D12
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 23

Gametes are haploid, with half the diploid number — 23 in humans.

Q4DNA is copied during which stage of the cell cycle?

  1. Amitosis
  2. Bmeiosis
  3. Cinterphase
  4. Dfertilisation
Show answer

Correct answer: C — interphase

DNA is replicated during interphase, before division begins.

Q5Cancer results from:

  1. Atoo little cell division
  2. Buncontrolled cell division
  3. Cmeiosis
  4. Ddenaturing enzymes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — uncontrolled cell division

Loss of control of the cell cycle leads to uncontrolled division and tumour formation.

Q6Compared with mitosis, meiosis produces:

  1. Atwo identical cells
  2. Bfour genetically different cells
  3. Cone large cell
  4. Dno new cells
Show answer

Correct answer: B — four genetically different cells

Meiosis gives four haploid daughter cells that are all genetically different.

Q7A human body (diploid) cell contains how many chromosomes?

  1. A23
  2. B46
  3. C92
  4. D22
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 46

Diploid human cells have 23 pairs = 46 chromosomes; gametes are haploid with 23.

Q8An unspecialised cell that can divide and become different cell types is a:

  1. Agamete
  2. Bstem cell
  3. Cred blood cell
  4. Dnerve cell
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stem cell

Stem cells are unspecialised and can differentiate into many cell types.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[3 marks]
State three differences between mitosis and meiosis.
Answer

Mitosis makes 2 cells, meiosis makes 4; mitosis keeps the chromosome number the same (diploid), meiosis halves it (haploid); mitosis gives identical cells, meiosis gives genetically different cells.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why mitosis is important for a multicellular organism.
Answer

Mitosis produces genetically identical cells for growth (increasing cell number) and for the repair and replacement of damaged or worn-out tissue.

Q3[6 marks]
In humans the diploid number is 46.
  1. State how many chromosomes are in a cell after mitosis, and explain why. [2]
  2. State how many are in a gamete, and explain why meiosis halves the number. [3]
  3. Name the process that restores the diploid number. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. 46 chromosomes[1]
  2. mitosis copies the DNA and gives each cell an identical full (diploid) set[1]
  3. 23 chromosomes in a gamete[1]
  4. meiosis halves the number to make haploid gametes[1]
  5. so that fertilisation does not double the number each generation[1]
  6. Fertilisation restores the diploid number (46)[1]

Mitosis → 46 (identical diploid); gametes → 23 (meiosis halves it so fertilisation keeps 46 constant); fertilisation restores the diploid number.

Q4[2 marks]
Explain the difference between a diploid cell and a haploid cell.
Answer

A diploid cell has the full set of chromosomes in matching pairs (46 in humans); a haploid cell has only one chromosome of each pair (23 in humans), as in gametes.

Q5[3 marks]
Explain why stem cells are useful in medicine, and give one concern about their use.
Answer

Stem cells are unspecialised and can divide and differentiate into many cell types, so they could be used to replace damaged or diseased tissue (for example nerve or blood cells). A concern is the ethical objection to using embryonic stem cells (or risks such as rejection or uncontrolled division).

Q6[5 marks]
Mitosis and meiosis are two types of cell division.
  1. State two roles of mitosis in the body. [2]
  2. Explain why gametes must be produced by meiosis rather than mitosis. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Growth (increasing the number of cells)[1]
  2. repair/replacement of damaged or worn-out tissue (or asexual reproduction)[1]
  3. Meiosis halves the chromosome number to make haploid gametes[1]
  4. so that at fertilisation the two gametes restore the normal diploid number[1]
  5. if gametes were diploid, the chromosome number would double each generation[1]

Mitosis: growth and repair; gametes need meiosis to halve the number so fertilisation restores the diploid number.

05

Tissues, Organs and Organ Systems

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A group of similar cells working together forms a(n):

  1. Aorgan
  2. Btissue
  3. Corgan system
  4. Dorganism
Show answer

Correct answer: B — tissue

Similar specialised cells form a tissue.

Q2Xylem tissue in a plant:

  1. Acarries food
  2. Bcarries water up
  3. Cphotosynthesises
  4. Dprotects the surface
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carries water up

Xylem transports water and minerals upward.

Q3A red blood cell has no nucleus so it can:

  1. Adivide faster
  2. Bcarry more haemoglobin
  3. Cmove faster
  4. Dmake proteins
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carry more haemoglobin

Losing the nucleus leaves more room for haemoglobin.

Q4The heart is a(n):

  1. Atissue
  2. Borgan
  3. Ccell
  4. Dsystem
Show answer

Correct answer: B — organ

The heart is an organ — several tissues working together.

Q5Which system carries out gas exchange?

  1. Adigestive
  2. Brespiratory
  3. Cnervous
  4. Dcirculatory
Show answer

Correct answer: B — respiratory

The respiratory system exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Q6A root hair cell's extension increases its:

  1. Aspeed
  2. Bsurface area for absorption
  3. Cnuclei
  4. Dphotosynthesis
Show answer

Correct answer: B — surface area for absorption

It increases surface area, speeding absorption.

Q7An unspecialised cell becomes specialised by:

  1. Aosmosis
  2. Bdifferentiation
  3. Cdiffusion
  4. Drespiration
Show answer

Correct answer: B — differentiation

Differentiation is how a stem cell develops into a particular specialised cell type.

Q8Delivering absorbed nutrients to every cell is the job of the:

  1. Adigestive system
  2. Bcirculatory system
  3. Crespiratory system
  4. Dnervous system
Show answer

Correct answer: B — circulatory system

The circulatory system transports absorbed nutrients around the body.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Put these in order of increasing complexity: organ, cell, organism, tissue, organ system.
Answer

Cell → tissue → organ → organ system → organism.

Q2[3 marks]
Explain how a red blood cell is adapted to its function.
Answer

A biconcave disc gives a large surface area for absorbing oxygen; it is packed with haemoglobin to carry oxygen; and it has no nucleus, leaving more room for haemoglobin.

Q3[6 marks]
Multicellular organisms rely on specialised cells and division of labour.
  1. Explain what is meant by a specialised cell. [2]
  2. Name two specialised cells and one adaptation of each. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. A cell whose structure/shape[1]
  2. is adapted to carry out one particular function[1]
  3. Nerve cell — long and thin to carry impulses[1]
  4. (valid adaptation)[1]
  5. Root hair cell — long extension for a large absorbing area[1]
  6. (or red blood cell — biconcave/haemoglobin)[1]

A specialised cell is shaped for one job; e.g. nerve cell (long, carries impulses) and root hair cell (large area, absorbs water).

Q4[2 marks]
Explain the role of stem cells in growth and repair.
Answer

Stem cells are unspecialised and can keep dividing; their daughter cells differentiate into the specialised cells a tissue needs, allowing the organism to grow and to repair or replace damaged tissue.

Q5[3 marks]
Describe how three organ systems work together when you digest and use a meal.
Answer

The digestive system breaks the food into small soluble molecules and absorbs them; the circulatory system carries these nutrients (and oxygen) to the cells; the respiratory system supplies the oxygen needed to release the food's energy in respiration.

Q6[5 marks]
Multicellular organisms are organised into levels.
  1. List the levels of organisation from cell to organism. [2]
  2. Explain why cells specialise (division of labour). [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Cell → tissue → organ[1]
  2. → organ system → organism[1]
  3. Different cells become specialised for particular jobs[1]
  4. each doing its task efficiently[1]
  5. so the organism as a whole can do far more than a single unspecialised cell could[1]

Cell→tissue→organ→organ system→organism; specialisation (division of labour) lets each cell do its job efficiently so the organism achieves more.

06

Biomolecules

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The monomer of proteins is the:

  1. Aglucose molecule
  2. Bamino acid
  3. Cfatty acid
  4. Dnucleotide
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amino acid

Proteins are polymers of amino acids joined by peptide bonds.

Q2Starch and glycogen are both:

  1. Aproteins
  2. Benergy-storage polysaccharides
  3. Clipids
  4. Dnucleic acids
Show answer

Correct answer: B — energy-storage polysaccharides

Both are polysaccharides used to store glucose — starch in plants, glycogen in animals.

Q3A cloudy white emulsion in the emulsion test shows the presence of a:

  1. Areducing sugar
  2. Bprotein
  3. Clipid
  4. Dstarch
Show answer

Correct answer: C — lipid

The ethanol emulsion test gives a cloudy emulsion with lipids.

Q4Heating a protein can destroy its function by:

  1. Aadding amino acids
  2. Bdenaturing it (changing its shape)
  3. Cturning it into a lipid
  4. Dpolymerising it
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denaturing it (changing its shape)

Heat unravels the protein's precise 3-D shape, denaturing it so it no longer works.

Q5Biological polymers are broken down in digestion by:

  1. Acondensation
  2. Bhydrolysis
  3. Ccombustion
  4. Doxidation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hydrolysis

Hydrolysis adds water to split a polymer into its monomers — what digestion does.

Q6Which molecule forms the main structure of cell membranes?

  1. Acellulose
  2. Bphospholipids
  3. Cstarch
  4. Dglycogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — phospholipids

Phospholipids (a type of lipid) form the bilayer of every cell membrane.

Q7Water is important in cells largely because it is a good:

  1. Afuel
  2. Bsolvent
  3. Cgas
  4. Dacid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — solvent

As a solvent, water lets reactions happen in solution and carries dissolved substances around the body.

Q8Starch is better than glucose for storage because starch is:

  1. Asmaller
  2. Blarge and insoluble
  3. Csweeter
  4. Da protein
Show answer

Correct answer: B — large and insoluble

Being large and insoluble, starch stores compactly without affecting the cell's water balance.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[3 marks]
Describe the tests for starch and for reducing sugar, giving the positive result of each.
Answer

Starch: add iodine solution — a blue-black colour is positive. Reducing sugar: warm with Benedict's solution — a change from blue to a brick-red precipitate is positive.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why the precise shape of a protein matters, and what happens if it is heated strongly.
Answer

A protein's function depends on its specific 3-D shape (e.g. an enzyme's active site). Strong heating denatures it — changes its shape — so it can no longer carry out its function.

Q3[6 marks]
Biomolecules are the building blocks of living organisms.
  1. Name the monomer of carbohydrates and of proteins. [2]
  2. Explain the difference between condensation and hydrolysis. [2]
  3. State the role of lipids in the body (any two). [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Carbohydrate monomer: a monosaccharide (e.g. glucose)[1]
  2. Protein monomer: an amino acid[1]
  3. Condensation joins monomers and releases water[1]
  4. hydrolysis splits polymers by adding water[1]
  5. Lipids store energy / insulate the body[1]
  6. cushion organs / form cell membranes (any two)[1]

Carbohydrate monomer = monosaccharide, protein monomer = amino acid; condensation joins (releases water), hydrolysis splits (adds water); lipids store energy, insulate, cushion and build membranes.

Q4[2 marks]
State two properties of water that make it important to living organisms, and why each matters.
Answer

It is a good solvent, so reactions occur in solution and substances are transported dissolved in it; and it has a high heat capacity, so it resists temperature change and helps keep organisms at a steady temperature.

Q5[3 marks]
Explain why lipids are used for long-term energy storage while carbohydrates are used for short-term energy.
Answer

Lipids contain about twice as much energy per gram as carbohydrates, so they store a lot of energy compactly for the long term (and also insulate). Carbohydrates like glucose are soluble and quickly broken down, making them ideal for immediate, short-term energy.

Q6[6 marks]
A student tests a food sample for its nutrient content.
  1. Describe the test and positive result for a reducing sugar and for protein. [4]
  2. The sample gives a blue-black colour with iodine. What nutrient is present and why does this matter for storage? [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Reducing sugar: warm with Benedict's solution[1]
  2. a positive result is blue changing to a brick-red precipitate[1]
  3. Protein: add biuret solution[1]
  4. a positive result is blue changing to purple[1]
  5. Iodine blue-black shows starch is present[1]
  6. starch is an insoluble energy store, so it does not affect the cell's water balance[1]

Benedict's (blue→brick-red) for reducing sugar; biuret (blue→purple) for protein; iodine blue-black shows starch, a compact insoluble store.

07

Enzymes

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Enzymes speed up reactions by:

  1. Araising the temperature
  2. Blowering the activation energy
  3. Cadding energy
  4. Dbeing used up
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lowering the activation energy

Like all catalysts, enzymes provide a route with lower activation energy.

Q2The part of an enzyme where the substrate binds is the:

  1. Aactive site
  2. Bnucleus
  3. Ccell wall
  4. Dribosome
Show answer

Correct answer: A — active site

The active site is the specifically shaped pocket where the substrate binds.

Q3Above its optimum temperature, an enzyme's activity falls because it:

  1. Aspeeds up too much
  2. Bis denatured
  3. Cruns out of substrate
  4. Dbecomes a lipid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — is denatured

Heat breaks the bonds holding the enzyme's shape, destroying the active site — denaturing.

Q4Enzyme specificity is due to the:

  1. Atemperature
  2. Bshape of the active site
  3. Camount of substrate
  4. DpH
Show answer

Correct answer: B — shape of the active site

Only a substrate complementary to the active site's shape can bind, making the enzyme specific.

Q5As substrate concentration increases, the rate eventually levels off because:

  1. Athe enzyme denatures
  2. Ball active sites are occupied
  3. Cthe pH changes
  4. Dthe substrate runs out
Show answer

Correct answer: B — all active sites are occupied

When every active site is busy (saturation), extra substrate cannot increase the rate.

Q6Pepsin in the stomach has an optimum pH of about:

  1. A2
  2. B7
  3. C9
  4. D11
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 2

Pepsin works best in the strongly acidic conditions of the stomach, around pH 2.

Q7Lipase digests fats into:

  1. Aamino acids
  2. Bsugars
  3. Cfatty acids and glycerol
  4. Dglucose
Show answer

Correct answer: C — fatty acids and glycerol

Lipase breaks fats down into fatty acids and glycerol.

Q8If a denatured enzyme is cooled back to its optimum temperature, it will:

  1. Awork normally again
  2. Bstill not work — denaturing is permanent
  3. Cwork faster
  4. Dbecome a substrate
Show answer

Correct answer: B — still not work — denaturing is permanent

Denaturing permanently destroys the active site's shape; cooling cannot restore it.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[3 marks]
Explain, using the lock-and-key model, why an enzyme catalyses only one reaction.
Answer

An enzyme has a specifically shaped active site. Only a substrate whose shape is complementary to the active site can fit and bind, forming an enzyme–substrate complex. Because only one substrate fits, the enzyme catalyses only that one reaction.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why enzyme activity falls to almost zero at high temperatures.
Answer

High temperature breaks the bonds that hold the enzyme's 3-D shape, denaturing it. The active site changes shape so the substrate can no longer bind, and the reaction almost stops.

Q3[6 marks]
A student measures how the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction changes with pH.
  1. Describe and explain the effect of increasing pH up to the enzyme's optimum. [2]
  2. Explain what happens beyond the optimum pH. [2]
  3. State two other factors that affect the rate of an enzyme reaction. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. As pH rises toward the optimum, the rate increases[1]
  2. conditions increasingly suit the enzyme's active site[1]
  3. Beyond the optimum the rate falls[1]
  4. the enzyme is denatured — the active site changes shape and substrate no longer binds[1]
  5. Temperature[1]
  6. substrate (or enzyme) concentration[1]

Rate rises to an optimum pH then falls as the enzyme denatures; other factors: temperature and substrate/enzyme concentration.

Q4[3 marks]
Name the enzymes that digest carbohydrate, protein and fat, and give the products of each.
Answer

Amylase digests starch (carbohydrate) to sugars; protease digests protein to amino acids; lipase digests fats to fatty acids and glycerol.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why cooling slows an enzyme reaction but does not denature the enzyme.
Answer

Cooling gives particles less kinetic energy, so there are fewer, less energetic collisions between enzyme and substrate — the reaction slows. But it does not break the bonds holding the enzyme's shape, so the active site is unchanged and the enzyme works normally again when warmed.

Q6[6 marks]
A student measures the volume of gas produced as catalase breaks down hydrogen peroxide at different temperatures.
  1. Describe and explain the results expected from 10 °C up to the optimum. [3]
  2. Describe and explain the results above the optimum. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. As temperature rises to the optimum, the rate (gas produced) increases[1]
  2. molecules have more kinetic energy and collide more often[1]
  3. so more enzyme–substrate complexes form[1]
  4. Above the optimum the rate falls sharply[1]
  5. the heat breaks the bonds holding the enzyme's shape (denaturing)[1]
  6. the active site changes shape so the substrate no longer fits and the reaction stops[1]

Rate rises to an optimum (more successful collisions), then falls as the enzyme denatures and its active site is destroyed.

08

Bioenergetics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The products of photosynthesis are:

  1. Acarbon dioxide and water
  2. Bglucose and oxygen
  3. Clactic acid
  4. Dstarch and CO₂
Show answer

Correct answer: B — glucose and oxygen

Photosynthesis makes glucose and oxygen from CO₂ and water.

Q2Anaerobic respiration in human muscle produces:

  1. Aethanol
  2. Blactic acid
  3. CCO₂ and water
  4. Doxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lactic acid

Without oxygen, human cells produce lactic acid.

Q3Which releases the most energy per glucose?

  1. Aaerobic respiration
  2. Banaerobic (human)
  3. Canaerobic (yeast)
  4. Dphotosynthesis
Show answer

Correct answer: A — aerobic respiration

Aerobic respiration releases far more energy than anaerobic.

Q4The pigment that absorbs light for photosynthesis is:

  1. Ahaemoglobin
  2. Bchlorophyll
  3. Cmelanin
  4. Dcarotene
Show answer

Correct answer: B — chlorophyll

Chlorophyll in chloroplasts absorbs light energy.

Q5Yeast respiring anaerobically produces ethanol and:

  1. Aoxygen
  2. Bcarbon dioxide
  3. Clactic acid
  4. Dwater
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbon dioxide

Fermentation gives ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Q6If more light no longer speeds photosynthesis, the rate is limited by:

  1. Alight
  2. BCO₂ or temperature
  3. Coxygen
  4. Dchlorophyll
Show answer

Correct answer: B — CO₂ or temperature

Another factor (CO₂ or temperature) becomes limiting.

Q7A leaf is broad and flat mainly to:

  1. Areduce water loss
  2. Bgive a large surface area for light
  3. Cstore starch
  4. Dsupport the plant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — give a large surface area for light

A broad flat shape maximises the surface area for absorbing light.

Q8In the starch test, iodine turns blue-black to show the leaf has made:

  1. Aglucose
  2. Bstarch
  3. Coxygen
  4. Dchlorophyll
Show answer

Correct answer: B — starch

Iodine gives a blue-black colour with starch, the store made from glucose.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Write the word equation for aerobic respiration and state where most of it occurs.
Answer

Glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water (+ energy). Most aerobic respiration occurs in the mitochondria.

Q2[3 marks]
Compare aerobic and anaerobic respiration in humans (oxygen, energy, products).
Answer

Aerobic uses oxygen, releases a lot of energy, and gives carbon dioxide and water. Anaerobic uses no oxygen, releases little energy, and gives lactic acid.

Q3[6 marks]
A student measures photosynthesis of pondweed by counting oxygen bubbles.
  1. State the three limiting factors of photosynthesis. [3]
  2. Explain the effect of increasing light intensity, and why it levels off. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Light intensity[1]
  2. carbon dioxide concentration[1]
  3. temperature[1]
  4. Increasing light increases the rate[1]
  5. while light is the limiting factor[1]
  6. it levels off when another factor (CO₂ or temperature) becomes limiting[1]

Limiting factors: light, CO₂, temperature; rate rises with light then plateaus when another factor limits it.

Q4[3 marks]
Describe how to test a leaf to show it has been photosynthesising, and the positive result.
Answer

Boil the leaf to kill it, then decolourise it in hot ethanol (away from a flame) and rinse it. Add iodine solution: a blue-black colour shows starch has been made, indicating photosynthesis.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why a leaf is thin and has many stomata.
Answer

Being thin gives a short diffusion distance so gases and light reach the inner cells quickly; the many stomata allow carbon dioxide to diffuse in (and oxygen out) fast enough for photosynthesis.

Q6[6 marks]
A student investigates the effect of light intensity on photosynthesis using pondweed.
  1. Give the word equation for photosynthesis. [1]
  2. State the three factors that can limit the rate. [3]
  3. Explain the shape of a graph of rate against light intensity. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen (light energy, chlorophyll)[1]
  2. Light intensity[1]
  3. carbon dioxide concentration[1]
  4. temperature[1]
  5. As light increases the rate rises (light is limiting)[1]
  6. then levels off when another factor becomes limiting[1]

CO₂ + water → glucose + oxygen; limiting factors light/CO₂/temperature; rate rises with light then plateaus when another factor limits it.

09

Plant Physiology

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Water travels up a plant in the:

  1. Aphloem
  2. Bxylem
  3. Cstomata
  4. Dguard cells
Show answer

Correct answer: B — xylem

Xylem carries water and minerals upward.

Q2Transpiration mainly occurs through the:

  1. Aroots
  2. Bstomata
  3. Cxylem
  4. Dflowers
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stomata

Water vapour is lost mostly through the stomata.

Q3Which condition slows transpiration?

  1. Ahigh temperature
  2. Bhigh humidity
  3. Cwind
  4. Dbright light
Show answer

Correct answer: B — high humidity

High humidity reduces evaporation from the leaf.

Q4Phloem transports:

  1. Awater only
  2. Bdissolved food (sucrose)
  3. Coxygen
  4. Dminerals only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — dissolved food (sucrose)

Phloem carries dissolved food around the plant.

Q5A plant short of magnesium cannot make enough:

  1. Aprotein
  2. Bchlorophyll
  3. CDNA
  4. Dcellulose
Show answer

Correct answer: B — chlorophyll

Magnesium is needed to make chlorophyll.

Q6Mineral ions enter roots against a gradient by:

  1. Aosmosis
  2. Bdiffusion
  3. Cactive transport
  4. Dtranspiration
Show answer

Correct answer: C — active transport

Absorbing ions against the gradient requires active transport.

Q7A firm, swollen plant cell full of water is described as:

  1. Aflaccid
  2. Bturgid
  3. Cplasmolysed
  4. Ddenatured
Show answer

Correct answer: B — turgid

A cell full of water and firm against its wall is turgid.

Q8Turgor pressure is important because it:

  1. Akills bacteria
  2. Bsupports non-woody plants
  3. Cmakes chlorophyll
  4. Dcarries food
Show answer

Correct answer: B — supports non-woody plants

Turgor pressure keeps the cells firm, supporting the stems and leaves of non-woody plants.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State two differences between xylem and phloem.
Answer

Xylem carries water and minerals upward in dead tubes; phloem carries dissolved food (sucrose) in living cells, in both directions.

Q2[3 marks]
Explain why a plant transpires more on a hot, windy, dry day than a cool, still, humid one.
Answer

Higher temperature and wind speed evaporation, and dry air gives a steeper water-vapour gradient out of the leaf, so more water is lost. On a cool, still, humid day all these are reduced.

Q3[6 marks]
A student investigates transpiration with a leafy shoot in a potometer.
  1. Define transpiration and name where most water is lost. [2]
  2. Explain the effect of wind on the rate. [2]
  3. Name one mineral ion a plant needs and its use. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Transpiration is the loss of water vapour from a plant[1]
  2. mostly through the stomata[1]
  3. Wind increases the rate[1]
  4. it removes water vapour, keeping a steep gradient so evaporation continues[1]
  5. Nitrate (or magnesium)[1]
  6. for proteins (or chlorophyll)[1]

Transpiration = water-vapour loss via stomata; wind speeds it; nitrate is needed for proteins (magnesium for chlorophyll).

Q4[2 marks]
Explain why a plant wilts when it loses more water than it takes up.
Answer

The cells lose water and become flaccid, so they lose their turgor pressure. Without turgor to support them, the stems and leaves droop — the plant wilts.

Q5[2 marks]
A potometer shows faster water uptake when a fan is switched on. Explain why.
Answer

The moving air blows away water vapour from around the leaves, keeping a steep water-vapour gradient, so transpiration (and therefore water uptake) speeds up.

Q6[5 marks]
Water moves through a plant from soil to air.
  1. Describe how water enters the roots and travels up the plant. [3]
  2. State two conditions that would increase the rate of transpiration. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Water enters root hair cells by osmosis[1]
  2. it travels up the xylem[1]
  3. in the transpiration stream, pulled up as water evaporates from the leaves[1]
  4. Higher temperature (or lower humidity)[1]
  5. more wind (or brighter light)[1]

Water enters roots by osmosis, rises in the xylem (transpiration stream); faster in warm, dry, windy or bright conditions.

10

Reproduction in Plants and Biostatistics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The part of a flower that makes pollen is the:

  1. Astigma
  2. Banther
  3. Covary
  4. Dsepal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — anther

The anther, part of the stamen, produces pollen.

Q2Pollination transfers pollen from an anther to a:

  1. Aovule
  2. Bstigma
  3. Cpetal
  4. Droot
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stigma

Pollination moves pollen from anther to stigma.

Q3Which is a wind-pollinated feature?

  1. Abright petals
  2. Bfeathery stigma outside
  3. Csticky pollen
  4. Dnectar
Show answer

Correct answer: B — feathery stigma outside

A feathery stigma catches airborne pollen.

Q4After fertilisation, the ovary becomes the:

  1. Aseed
  2. Bfruit
  3. Cflower
  4. Droot
Show answer

Correct answer: B — fruit

The ovary becomes the fruit; the ovule becomes the seed.

Q5A seed needs water, warmth and:

  1. Alight
  2. Boxygen
  3. Csoil
  4. DCO₂
Show answer

Correct answer: B — oxygen

Germinating seeds respire, needing oxygen; light is not required to start.

Q6Cross-pollination increases:

  1. Awater uptake
  2. Bgenetic variation
  3. Cseed size
  4. Dpetal number
Show answer

Correct answer: B — genetic variation

Mixing genes from two plants increases variation.

Q7A dandelion seed with a parachute of hairs is adapted for dispersal by:

  1. Awater
  2. Bwind
  3. Canimals eating it
  4. Dexplosion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — wind

Light seeds with hairs or wings are carried by the wind.

Q8A strawberry plant growing new plants from runners is reproducing:

  1. Asexually
  2. Basexually
  3. Cby pollination
  4. Dby seeds
Show answer

Correct answer: B — asexually

Runners are a form of asexual (vegetative) reproduction — one parent, identical offspring.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[3 marks]
State three features of an insect-pollinated flower and how each helps pollination.
Answer

Bright/scented petals attract insects; nectar draws them in; sticky pollen and a sticky stigma ensure pollen sticks to and is transferred by the insect.

Q2[2 marks]
State the three conditions for germination and why oxygen is needed.
Answer

Water, oxygen and a suitable temperature. Oxygen is needed for aerobic respiration, which releases the energy the seedling needs.

Q3[6 marks]
Flowering plants reproduce sexually.
  1. Describe fertilisation in a flowering plant. [3]
  2. Explain why seed dispersal is important and name two methods. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. After pollination a pollen tube grows down the style[1]
  2. to reach the ovule in the ovary[1]
  3. the male nucleus fuses with the female nucleus[1]
  4. Dispersal spreads seeds from the parent[1]
  5. reducing competition for light, water and minerals[1]
  6. methods: wind and animals (also water)[1]

A pollen tube grows to the ovule and nuclei fuse; dispersal (wind, animals, water) reduces competition.

Q4[2 marks]
Describe how a fleshy fruit is adapted to disperse its seeds by animals.
Answer

It is brightly coloured and tasty so animals eat it; the seeds have tough coats that survive digestion and are deposited, in droppings, far from the parent plant.

Q5[2 marks]
Give one advantage and one disadvantage of asexual reproduction in plants.
Answer

Advantage: it is fast and needs no mate or pollinator, and the offspring are identical to a successful parent. Disadvantage: there is no genetic variation, so the whole population is vulnerable if the environment changes or a disease strikes.

Q6[5 marks]
Plants can reproduce sexually and asexually.
  1. State two differences between sexual and asexual reproduction. [2]
  2. A grower wants many identical copies of a prize plant. State which method they should use and why. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Sexual needs two parents/gametes; asexual needs one parent[1]
  2. sexual gives varied offspring; asexual gives identical offspring[1]
  3. They should use asexual reproduction (e.g. cuttings)[1]
  4. because it produces genetically identical offspring (clones)[1]
  5. so every new plant has the same prized characteristics as the parent[1]

Sexual: two parents, varied offspring; asexual: one parent, identical offspring; use cuttings (asexual) to get identical copies of the prize plant.

These questions come from the 9th Class Biology lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.