2nd Year Physics — MCQs & Practice Questions

94 multiple-choice questions and 70 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

New to a topic? Read the 2nd Year Physics notes first, then come back to practise.

01

Thermal Physics

Multiple choice · 16

Q1Temperature is a measure of:

  1. AThe total energy of all the particles
  2. BThe average kinetic energy of the particles
  3. CThe mass of the substance
  4. DThe rate of heat flow
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The average kinetic energy of the particles

Temperature is the average per particle. The total energy of all the particles is thermal energy, which also depends on how many there are — which is why a spark and a bath differ so completely.

Q2−273 °C in kelvin is:

  1. A0 K
  2. B273 K
  3. C−273 K
  4. D546 K
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0 K

T(K) = θ + 273, so −273 + 273 = 0 K. This is absolute zero, the point at which particle motion is at its minimum.

Q3Which expands most for a given temperature rise?

  1. ASolids
  2. BLiquids
  3. CGases
  4. DAll expand equally
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gases

Gases expand most, then liquids, then solids. The more freely the particles already move, the more space the additional motion requires.

Q4A bimetallic strip bends when heated because:

  1. AOne metal melts
  2. BThe two metals expand by different amounts
  3. CThe strip absorbs latent heat
  4. DThe metals contract
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The two metals expand by different amounts

Different expansion rates force the strip to curve, toward the metal that expands less. This is the basis of a simple thermostat.

Q5In E = mcΔθ, Δθ represents:

  1. AThe final temperature
  2. BThe starting temperature
  3. CThe change in temperature
  4. DThe temperature in kelvin
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The change in temperature

The change — subtract the initial from the final before substituting. Using the final temperature alone is the single most common error in this topic.

Q6During melting, the temperature of a substance:

  1. ARises steadily
  2. BFalls
  3. CStays constant
  4. DRises then falls
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays constant

The energy supplied breaks bonds between particles rather than raising their kinetic energy, so the thermometer does not move until all the solid has melted.

Q7Water is used as a coolant in car engines mainly because it:

  1. AIs cheap
  2. BHas a high specific heat capacity
  3. CHas a low boiling point
  4. DExpands when heated
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Has a high specific heat capacity

About 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ means it absorbs a great deal of energy for a small temperature rise. Being cheap and available is a real practical advantage, but not the physics being examined.

Q8Ponds freeze from the surface downward because:

  1. AIce is denser than water
  2. BWater expands between 4 °C and 0 °C, so ice floats
  3. CCold air only touches the top
  4. DThe bottom is insulated by mud
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Water expands between 4 °C and 0 °C, so ice floats

Water is anomalous below 4 °C: it expands as it cools further, so ice is less dense and floats. Cold air does only touch the top, but that alone would not stop the ice sinking once formed.

Q9Gas law calculations must use temperature in:

  1. ACelsius
  2. BKelvin
  3. CFahrenheit
  4. DEither Celsius or kelvin
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Kelvin

The proportionalities only hold from absolute zero. Using Celsius is the single most common error in this topic.

Q10At constant temperature, halving the volume of a fixed mass of gas:

  1. AHalves the pressure
  2. BDoubles the pressure
  3. CLeaves it unchanged
  4. DQuadruples it
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Doubles the pressure

Boyle's law: p ∝ 1/V. The same particles strike a smaller area more often.

Q11The absolute temperature of a gas is proportional to:

  1. AThe pressure
  2. BThe mean kinetic energy of its particles
  3. CThe volume
  4. DThe number of particles
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The mean kinetic energy of its particles

½mc̄² = (3/2)kT. This is what gives temperature a mechanical meaning.

Q12In ΔU = Q + W, W is positive when:

  1. AThe gas expands
  2. BWork is done on the gas
  3. CHeat leaves the gas
  4. DThe temperature falls
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Work is done on the gas

Compression does work on the gas and raises its internal energy. An expanding gas does work on its surroundings, so W is negative.

Q13During an isothermal change, the change in internal energy is:

  1. APositive
  2. BZero
  3. CNegative
  4. DEqual to Q + W and non-zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

Temperature is constant, so ΔU = 0 and therefore Q = −W. Heat and work still flow; they just cancel.

Q14A heat engine works between 600 K and 300 K. Its maximum possible efficiency is:

  1. A100%
  2. B50%
  3. C30%
  4. D200%
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 50%

1 − 300/600 = 0.50. A real engine will be well below this because it is not reversible.

Q15The second law of thermodynamics states that heat flows spontaneously:

  1. AFrom cold to hot
  2. BFrom hot to cold
  3. CIn either direction equally
  4. DOnly in a vacuum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — From hot to cold

Hot to cold. Reversing it requires work, which is exactly what a refrigerator does.

Q16Why must a heat engine reject heat to a cold sink?

  1. ABecause of friction
  2. BBecause the second law requires it
  3. CBecause of poor design
  4. DIt need not
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because the second law requires it

Even a perfect, frictionless engine must dump heat. It is a law, not an engineering shortcoming.

Exam-style questions · 13

Q1[5 marks]
An electric heater of power 2.0 kW is used to heat 1.5 kg of water. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the energy needed to raise the temperature of the water from 18 °C to 88 °C.
  2. Calculate the minimum time this would take.
  3. In practice the heater takes longer than your answer to (b). Give one reason.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = mcΔθ with Δθ = 70 °C88 − 18, not 88[1]
  2. E = 1.5 × 4200 × 70 = 4.41 × 10⁵ J[1]
  3. Uses t = E/P with P = 2000 Wconverting kW to W[1]
  4. t = 441000 / 2000 = 220 saccept 220.5 s[1]
  5. Energy is lost to the surroundings / the container is also heatedeither reason accepted[1]

(a) 4.4 × 10⁵ J (b) 220 s (c) heat lost to surroundings

Q2[5 marks]
A student heats a block of ice at −10 °C steadily until it becomes steam. Sketch and describe the shape of the temperature–time graph.
Mark scheme
  1. Temperature rises from −10 °C to 0 °C[1]
  2. Horizontal section at 0 °C while the ice melts[1]
  3. Temperature rises from 0 °C to 100 °C[1]
  4. Longer horizontal section at 100 °C while the water boilsthe boiling plateau must be longer than the melting one[1]
  5. During the flat sections the energy supplied breaks bonds between particles rather than raising kinetic energythe explanation mark[1]
Q3[4 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why a bimetallic strip bends when heated, and state one use for it.
Mark scheme
  1. Heating makes particles vibrate more and push further apart, so each metal expands[1]
  2. The two metals expand by different amounts for the same temperature risethis is the essential point[1]
  3. The strip bends toward the metal that expands less[1]
  4. Used in a thermostat / fire alarm / oven switchany valid use[1]
Q4[2 marks]
Differentiate between heat and temperature.
Answer

Temperature is the average kinetic energy of the particles, measured in °C or K. Heat is the total thermal energy of all the particles, measured in joules, and depends on how many there are.

Q5[2 marks]
Why does a bimetallic strip bend on heating?
Answer

The two metals expand by different amounts for the same temperature rise, so the strip curves toward the metal that expands less.

Q6[2 marks]
Why does the temperature remain constant while ice is melting?
Answer

The energy supplied is used to break the bonds holding the particles in the lattice, not to increase their kinetic energy. Since temperature measures kinetic energy, it does not change.

Q7[5 marks]
Calculate the energy needed to convert 0.20 kg of ice at 0 °C completely into water at 20 °C. Take the specific latent heat of fusion of ice as 3.34 × 10⁵ J kg⁻¹ and the specific heat capacity of water as 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises two stages: melting, then warminga single-stage answer cannot score more than two[1]
  2. Melting: E₁ = mL = 0.20 × 3.34 × 10⁵ = 6.68 × 10⁴ J[1]
  3. Warming: E₂ = mcΔθ = 0.20 × 4200 × 20[1]
  4. E₂ = 1.68 × 10⁴ J[1]
  5. Total = 6.68 × 10⁴ + 1.68 × 10⁴ = 8.36 × 10⁴ Jadding the two stages[1]

8.36 × 10⁴ J

Q8[2 marks]
State Boyle's law and the conditions under which it applies.
Answer

For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, the pressure is inversely proportional to the volume. Both the mass and the temperature must be constant.

Q9[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why the pressure of a gas rises when it is heated at constant volume.
Answer

The particles gain kinetic energy and move faster, so they strike the walls harder and more frequently. With the same wall area, the force per unit area increases.

Q10[2 marks]
Explain why a gas cools when it expands rapidly without heat entering it.
Answer

The gas does work pushing back the surroundings, so W is negative. With Q = 0, ΔU is negative, the internal energy falls and the temperature drops.

Q11[5 marks]
A gas at 2.0 × 10⁵ Pa occupies 0.015 m³ at 17 °C. It is heated at constant pressure to 137 °C. Find the new volume.
Mark scheme
  1. Convert: 17 °C = 290 K, 137 °C = 410 K[1]
  2. Constant pressure, so V₁/T₁ = V₂/T₂Charles's law[1]
  3. 0.015 / 290 = V₂ / 410[1]
  4. V₂ = 0.015 × 410 / 290[1]
  5. V₂ = 0.021 m³a 41% rise in kelvin gives a 41% rise in volume[1]

0.021 m³

Q12[8 marks]
A heat engine takes 6000 J from a source at 500 K and rejects heat to a sink at 300 K.
  1. Calculate the maximum possible efficiency. [2]
  2. Calculate the maximum work it could do, and the heat it must reject. [3]
  3. The real engine delivers 1800 J of work. Calculate its actual efficiency and explain the difference. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses 1 − T_c/T_h with kelvin[1]
  2. 1 − 300/500 = 0.40, so 40%[1]
  3. Maximum work = 0.40 × 6000 = 2400 J[1]
  4. Heat rejected = 6000 − 2400[1]
  5. = 3600 Jthis cannot be avoided — the second law requires it[1]
  6. Actual efficiency = 1800/6000 = 0.30, or 30%[1]
  7. Lower than the maximum because the real engine is not reversible[1]
  8. Friction, turbulence and heat lost to the surroundings all reduce the work obtained[1]

(a) 40% (b) 2400 J of work, 3600 J rejected (c) 30%

Q13[6 marks]
A gas is compressed, and 250 J of work is done on it. At the same time it loses 100 J of heat to the surroundings.
  1. State the first law of thermodynamics. [2]
  2. Calculate the change in internal energy. [2]
  3. State whether the temperature rises or falls, with a reason. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The increase in internal energy equals the heat supplied plus the work done on the system[1]
  2. ΔU = Q + W[1]
  3. W = +250 J (work done ON the gas), Q = −100 J (heat lost)the signs are the difficult part[1]
  4. ΔU = −100 + 250 = +150 J[1]
  5. The temperature rises[1]
  6. Internal energy has increased, and for a gas that means greater mean kinetic energy[1]

ΔU = +150 J, so the temperature rises

02

Simple Harmonic Motion

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The defining equation of SHM is:

  1. Aa = ω²x
  2. Ba = −ω²x
  3. Cv = −ω²x
  4. Da = −ωx
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a = −ω²x

The acceleration is proportional to displacement and directed back towards equilibrium, which the minus sign expresses. Without it the motion would run away rather than oscillate.

Q2In SHM, the acceleration is zero when:

  1. Athe displacement is maximum
  2. Bthe object is at equilibrium
  3. Cthe speed is zero
  4. Dthe energy is all potential
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the object is at equilibrium

At equilibrium there is no net restoring force, so acceleration is zero — even though the speed is at its maximum there.

Q3Doubling the amplitude of an oscillator changes the period by:

  1. Adoubling it
  2. Bhalving it
  3. Cquadrupling it
  4. Dnot at all
Show answer

Correct answer: D — not at all

Neither T = 2π√(m/k) nor T = 2π√(L/g) contains the amplitude. This independence is called isochronism.

Q4Doubling the amplitude changes the total energy by a factor of:

  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C½
  4. D1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

E = ½mω²x₀² is proportional to the square of the amplitude, so doubling x₀ multiplies the energy by 4.

Q5For SHM with ω = 10 rad s⁻¹ and amplitude 0.05 m, the maximum speed is:

  1. A0.5 m s⁻¹
  2. B5 m s⁻¹
  3. C0.005 m s⁻¹
  4. D2 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0.5 m s⁻¹

v_max = ωx₀ = 10 × 0.05 = 0.5 m s⁻¹. Using ω²x₀ would give the maximum acceleration instead.

Q6Critical damping is used in car suspension because it:

  1. Amakes the car oscillate longer
  2. Breturns to equilibrium fastest without overshoot
  3. Cremoves all friction
  4. Dincreases the natural frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — returns to equilibrium fastest without overshoot

A car that oscillates after a bump is uncomfortable and unsafe; critical damping settles it in the shortest possible time without bouncing past equilibrium.

Q7Resonance occurs when:

  1. Adamping is greatest
  2. Bthe driving frequency equals the natural frequency
  3. Camplitude is zero
  4. Dthe object is at equilibrium
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the driving frequency equals the natural frequency

Matching the driving frequency to the natural frequency transfers energy most efficiently, producing the maximum amplitude.

Q8Increasing damping makes the resonance peak:

  1. Ahigher and narrower
  2. Blower and broader
  3. Chigher and broader
  4. Dunchanged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lower and broader

Damping removes energy, capping the amplitude, and it makes the system respond over a wider band of frequencies rather than sharply at one.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
State the two conditions required for a body to perform simple harmonic motion.
Answer

The acceleration must be proportional to the displacement from a fixed equilibrium point, and it must be directed towards that point. Together these give a = −ω²x.

Q2[2 marks]
State where in the oscillation the speed is greatest and where the acceleration is greatest, giving a reason for each.
Answer

Speed is greatest at the equilibrium position, because all the energy is kinetic there and the net force is zero. Acceleration is greatest at maximum displacement, because the restoring force is largest there — although the body is momentarily at rest.

Q3[4 marks]
A mass on a spring oscillates with amplitude 4.0 cm and period 0.80 s. Calculate the maximum speed and the maximum acceleration.
Mark scheme
  1. ω = 2π/T = 2π/0.80 = 7.854 rad s⁻¹Angular frequency comes first; everything else is built on it.[1]
  2. v_max = ωx₀ = 7.854 × 0.040The amplitude must be converted to metres.[1]
  3. v_max = 0.314 m s⁻¹Occurring at the equilibrium position.[1]
  4. a_max = ω²x₀ = 61.68 × 0.040 = 2.47 m s⁻²Occurring at maximum displacement, where the speed is zero.[1]

v_max = 0.314 m s⁻¹, a_max = 2.47 m s⁻²

Q4[7 marks]
A simple pendulum of length 1.2 m oscillates with amplitude 5.0 cm. Take g = 9.81 m s⁻².
(a) Calculate its period.
(b) Calculate the maximum speed of the bob.
(c) The amplitude is doubled. State the effect on the period and on the total energy, justifying each.
(d) Explain what is meant by critical damping and give one application.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) T = 2π√(L/g) = 2π√(1.2/9.81) = 2π√0.12232The standard pendulum formula.[1]
  2. T = 2.20 sClose to 2 s, as expected for a metre-scale pendulum.[1]
  3. (b) ω = 2π/2.20 = 2.856 rad s⁻¹; v_max = ωx₀ = 2.856 × 0.050Converting 5.0 cm to 0.050 m.[1]
  4. v_max = 0.143 m s⁻¹At the lowest point of the swing.[1]
  5. (c) The period is unchanged, because T = 2π√(L/g) contains no amplitude termIsochronism — the property that made pendulum clocks possible.[1]
  6. The total energy is quadrupled, since E ∝ x₀² and the amplitude has doubledThe squared dependence is the point of the part.[1]
  7. (d) Critical damping returns the system to equilibrium in the shortest time without overshooting — used in car suspension or door closers.Definition plus a named application.[1]

(a) 2.20 s; (b) 0.143 m s⁻¹; (c) period unchanged, energy ×4; (d) fastest return without overshoot

Q5[3 marks]
Explain what is meant by resonance, and describe the effect of increasing the damping on the resonance curve.
Answer

Resonance occurs when the frequency of a driving force equals the natural frequency of the system, producing a maximum amplitude and the most efficient transfer of energy. Increasing the damping makes the peak lower and broader, and shifts it slightly to a lower frequency.

03

Physical Optics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Two sources are coherent if they have:

  1. AThe same amplitude
  2. BThe same frequency and a constant phase difference
  3. CThe same intensity
  4. DDifferent wavelengths
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The same frequency and a constant phase difference

Amplitude affects how complete the cancellation is, but coherence is about frequency and a steady phase relationship.

Q2Constructive interference occurs when the path difference is:

  1. A(n + ½)λ
  2. Bnλ
  3. Cλ/4
  4. DAlways zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — nλ

A whole number of wavelengths means the waves arrive in step. Odd half-wavelengths give cancellation.

Q3In a double slit experiment, moving the screen further away makes the fringes:

  1. ACloser together
  2. BFurther apart
  3. CUnchanged
  4. DDisappear
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Further apart

x = λD/a, so spacing is proportional to D. This is why the screen is placed well back.

Q4Which colour produces the widest fringe spacing?

  1. ABlue
  2. BRed
  3. CGreen
  4. DAll the same
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Red

Red has the longest wavelength, and x ∝ λ.

Q5Diffraction through a gap is greatest when the gap is:

  1. AMuch wider than the wavelength
  2. BAbout equal to the wavelength
  3. CMuch narrower than the wavelength
  4. DPerfectly square
Show answer

Correct answer: B — About equal to the wavelength

A gap comparable to the wavelength spreads the wave most. It is why sound bends round doorways and light does not.

Q6A grating has 500 lines per mm. The slit spacing d is:

  1. A500 m
  2. B2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m
  3. C5.0 × 10⁻⁴ m
  4. D500 × 10⁻⁹ m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m

500 per mm is 5 × 10⁵ per metre, and d = 1/N = 2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m.

Q7That light can be polarised shows that light is:

  1. ALongitudinal
  2. BTransverse
  3. CA particle
  4. DMonochromatic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Transverse

Only transverse waves have vibrations perpendicular to travel that can be restricted to a plane. Sound cannot be polarised.

Q8LIGO detects gravitational waves by measuring:

  1. AA change in the colour of light
  2. BA tiny difference in the lengths of two perpendicular arms
  3. CThe mass of a black hole directly
  4. DA change in gravity with a pendulum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A tiny difference in the lengths of two perpendicular arms

It is an interferometer. The arms are set to cancel; a passing wave upsets that cancellation and light reaches the detector.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what is meant by coherent sources, and why they are needed for interference.
Answer

Sources with the same frequency and a constant phase difference. Without that, the phase relationship changes randomly and no stable pattern of fringes is seen.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why light can be polarised but sound cannot.
Answer

Light is a transverse wave, so its vibrations are perpendicular to the direction of travel and one plane can be selected. Sound is longitudinal, vibrating along the direction of travel, so there is no plane to select.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why sound diffracts round a doorway but light does not.
Answer

Diffraction is greatest when the gap is comparable to the wavelength. Sound wavelengths are around a metre, similar to a doorway, while visible light is about 5 × 10⁻⁷ m — far too small to spread noticeably.

Q4[5 marks]
A diffraction grating has 300 lines per millimetre. Light of wavelength 590 nm falls on it normally. Find the angle of the first order maximum, and the highest order visible.
Mark scheme
  1. d = 1 / (300 × 10³) = 3.33 × 10⁻⁶ m300 per mm is 3 × 10⁵ per metre[1]
  2. Uses d sin θ = nλ with n = 1[1]
  3. sin θ = 590 × 10⁻⁹ / 3.33 × 10⁻⁶ = 0.177[1]
  4. θ = 10.2°[1]
  5. Highest order: n ≤ d/λ = 5.6, so n = 5sin θ cannot exceed 1[1]

θ = 10.2° for the first order; 5 orders visible

Q5[8 marks]
In a double slit experiment, slits 0.40 mm apart are illuminated with light of wavelength 5.9 × 10⁻⁷ m. The screen is 2.4 m away.
  1. Explain why a bright fringe appears at the centre of the screen. [2]
  2. Calculate the fringe spacing. [3]
  3. State and explain what happens to the pattern if the slit separation is halved. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The two paths to the centre are equal in length[1]
  2. So the path difference is zero, the waves arrive in phase and interfere constructively[1]
  3. Uses x = λD/a[1]
  4. x = (5.9 × 10⁻⁷ × 2.4) / 4.0 × 10⁻⁴[1]
  5. x = 3.5 × 10⁻³ m, about 3.5 mm[1]
  6. The fringe spacing doubles[1]
  7. Because x is inversely proportional to a[1]
  8. The fringes become more widely separated and easier to measure[1]

(b) 3.5 mm (c) spacing doubles

Q6[5 marks]
Gravitational waves were first detected in 2015 by LIGO, an instrument built on the interference of laser light.
  1. Explain how an interferometer detects an extremely small change in length. [3]
  2. State one reason gravitational wave astronomy sees events that telescopes cannot. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A laser beam is split down two perpendicular arms and recombined[1]
  2. The arms are set so the returning beams cancel by destructive interference[1]
  3. A tiny change in one arm's length upsets the cancellation, so light appears at the detectora fraction of a wavelength is enough[1]
  4. Events such as black hole mergers emit almost no light[1]
  5. But they do radiate gravitational waves, which also pass through intervening dust and gas unimpeded[1]
04

Electrostatics

Multiple choice · 6

Q1The separation between two point charges is tripled. The force between them becomes:

  1. AOne third
  2. BOne sixth
  3. COne ninth
  4. DThree times larger
Show answer

Correct answer: C — One ninth

F ∝ 1/r², so tripling r divides the force by 3² = 9. Answer A is the trap for anyone who treats it as a simple inverse rather than an inverse square.

Q2Electric field lines can never cross because:

  1. AThey would cancel out
  2. BThe field would have two directions at one point, which is meaningless
  3. CCharges would be destroyed
  4. DIt would violate conservation of energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The field would have two directions at one point, which is meaningless

The field at a point has one definite direction — the direction of the force on a positive test charge there. Two crossing lines would assign it two directions at once, which is a contradiction rather than a physical possibility.

Q3Which quantity is a scalar?

  1. AElectric field strength
  2. BElectric potential
  3. CElectrostatic force
  4. DDisplacement of a charge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Electric potential

Potential is energy per unit charge — a plain number, which is exactly why potentials from several charges can be added arithmetically. Field strength and force both carry direction and need vector addition.

Q4Two identical positive charges are held a fixed distance apart. At the midpoint between them, the electric field is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BZero
  3. CHalf of its value at either charge
  4. DDirected toward the nearer charge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The two fields at the midpoint are equal in size and opposite in direction, so they cancel exactly. Note that the potential at that same point is not zero — it is the sum of two positive numbers, which is a distinction examiners like to probe.

Q5A charge of 2 μC is placed in a uniform field of 500 N C⁻¹. The force on it is:

  1. A1 × 10⁻³ N
  2. B250 N
  3. C1000 N
  4. D2.5 × 10⁻³ N
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 × 10⁻³ N

F = qE = 2 × 10⁻⁶ × 500 = 1 × 10⁻³ N. The commonest error is mishandling the micro prefix — μ means 10⁻⁶, so 2 μC is a very small charge and the resulting force is correspondingly small.

Q6Charge is described as "quantised". This means:

  1. ACharge can take any value
  2. BCharge exists only in whole multiples of the elementary charge e
  3. CCharge is always conserved
  4. DCharge decreases with distance
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Charge exists only in whole multiples of the elementary charge e

Quantisation is about coming in indivisible lumps of e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C. Conservation is a separate and equally important principle — both are true, but the question asks specifically about quantisation.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of electrons, how a polythene rod becomes negatively charged when rubbed with a cloth.
Answer

Electrons are transferred from the cloth onto the rod. The rod gains electrons and becomes negative; the cloth is left with a positive charge.

Q2[2 marks]
State what is meant by an electric field and how its direction is defined.
Answer

A region in which a charge experiences a force. The direction of the field is the direction of the force on a small positive test charge.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why a charged rod attracts small uncharged pieces of paper.
Answer

The rod induces a separation of charge in the paper, drawing the opposite charge to the near side. That near charge is closer to the rod, so its attraction outweighs the repulsion of the far side.

Q4[4 marks]
A potential difference of 5000 V is applied across two parallel plates separated by 25 mm. Calculate the electric field strength between them, and the force on a charge of 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ C placed in that field.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts 25 mm = 0.025 m[1]
  2. Uses E = V/d = 5000 / 0.025[1]
  3. E = 2.0 × 10⁵ V m⁻¹[1]
  4. F = QE = 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 2.0 × 10⁵ = 6.4 × 10⁻¹⁴ N[1]

E = 2.0 × 10⁵ V m⁻¹, F = 6.4 × 10⁻¹⁴ N

Q5[8 marks]
A fuel tanker is fitted with a conducting strip that touches the ground, and is earthed with a metal wire before fuel is transferred.
  1. Explain how charge builds up on the tanker as it drives. [2]
  2. Explain why this build-up is dangerous during refuelling. [3]
  3. Explain how earthing the tanker removes the danger. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Friction between the tanker and the air, and between the fuel and the tank walls, transfers electrons[1]
  2. The tanker is insulated by its rubber tyres, so the charge cannot escape and accumulates[1]
  3. The charge raises the potential of the tanker[1]
  4. Eventually a spark jumps to a nearby earthed object[1]
  5. The spark could ignite the fuel vapour and cause an explosion[1]
  6. The wire provides a conducting path to earth[1]
  7. Electrons flow along it until the tanker is at the same potential as the earth[1]
  8. So charge leaks away steadily instead of building to a spark[1]
Q6[6 marks]
Two parallel metal plates are connected to a high-voltage supply, the upper plate positive.
  1. Describe the pattern of the field lines between the plates, away from the edges. [2]
  2. A small negatively charged oil drop is placed between the plates. State the direction of the electric force on it and explain your answer. [2]
  3. State two changes that would increase the force on the drop. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The lines are parallel and equally spaced, showing a uniform field[1]
  2. They run from the positive plate to the negative plate[1]
  3. The force is upward, towards the positive plate[1]
  4. Because the drop is negative, so the force is opposite to the field direction[1]
  5. Increase the potential difference across the plates[1]
  6. Move the plates closer together, or increase the charge on the dropany one[1]

(b) upward, towards the positive plate

05

Alternating Current

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The average value of a sinusoidal current over one complete cycle is:

  1. AThe peak value
  2. BZero
  3. CThe RMS value
  4. DHalf the peak
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The halves cancel. This is precisely why RMS is used instead of the ordinary mean.

Q2A supply is quoted as 230 V. Its peak voltage is about:

  1. A163 V
  2. B325 V
  3. C230 V
  4. D460 V
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 325 V

Quoted values are RMS, so the peak is 230 × √2 ≈ 325 V.

Q3The RMS value is defined as the steady current that would:

  1. AHave the same peak
  2. BDeliver the same average power
  3. CFlow for the same time
  4. DHave the same frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Deliver the same average power

It is defined by the power it delivers to a resistor, which is what makes it the useful number.

Q4As frequency increases, the reactance of a capacitor:

  1. AIncreases
  2. BDecreases
  3. CStays the same
  4. DBecomes zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decreases

X_C = 1/(2πfC). Faster reversals leave less time for charge to build up and oppose the flow.

Q5A component that blocks d.c. but passes a.c. is a:

  1. AResistor
  2. BCapacitor
  3. CInductor
  4. DDiode
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Capacitor

No charge crosses the gap, but repeated charging and discharging keeps current flowing in the circuit.

Q6At resonance in a series LCR circuit, the impedance is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BMinimum
  3. CZero
  4. DInfinite
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Minimum

The reactances cancel, leaving only R. Minimum impedance means maximum current.

Q7Electricity is transmitted at high voltage because:

  1. AHigh voltage is safer
  2. BIt means low current, and loss goes as I²R
  3. CCables need high voltage
  4. DIt travels faster
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It means low current, and loss goes as I²R

For a fixed power, raising V lowers I, and heating loss depends on the square of the current.

Q8A transformer will not work on direct current because:

  1. AThe current is too small
  2. BA steady field induces no e.m.f.
  3. CThe core melts
  4. DD.C. has no voltage
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A steady field induces no e.m.f.

Induction requires a changing magnetic field. Steady current gives a steady field and nothing is induced.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the average value of an alternating current over a complete cycle is zero, yet it still heats a resistor.
Answer

The negative half of the cycle cancels the positive half, so the mean current is zero. Heating depends on I²R, and squaring makes the negative half positive, so energy is dissipated throughout.

Q2[2 marks]
Define the RMS value of an alternating current.
Answer

The steady direct current that would deliver the same average power to a resistor as the alternating current does.

Q3[2 marks]
State how the reactance of a capacitor and of an inductor each change as the frequency increases.
Answer

Capacitive reactance decreases, since X_C = 1/(2πfC). Inductive reactance increases, since X_L = 2πfL.

Q4[5 marks]
An a.c. supply has a peak voltage of 170 V and is connected to a 40 Ω resistor. Find the RMS voltage, the RMS current and the average power dissipated.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses V_rms = V_peak/√2[1]
  2. V_rms = 170 / 1.414 = 120 V[1]
  3. I_rms = V_rms/R = 120/40[1]
  4. I_rms = 3.0 A[1]
  5. P = V_rms I_rms = 120 × 3.0 = 360 Wusing peak values would double this[1]

120 V, 3.0 A, 360 W

Q5[8 marks]
Electricity is generated at a power station and transmitted at high voltage.
  1. Explain why transformers only work with alternating current. [2]
  2. A station delivers 40 MW at 400 kV through cables of resistance 3.0 Ω. Calculate the current and the power lost as heat. [4]
  3. Calculate the power that would be lost if the same power were sent at 40 kV instead. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A transformer works by a changing magnetic field inducing an e.m.f. in the secondary[1]
  2. Direct current gives a steady field, so nothing is induced[1]
  3. I = P/V = 40 × 10⁶ / 400 × 10³[1]
  4. I = 100 A[1]
  5. P_lost = I²R = 100² × 3.0[1]
  6. = 30 kW, less than 0.1% of the output[1]
  7. At 40 kV: I = 1000 Aten times the current[1]
  8. P_lost = 1000² × 3.0 = 3.0 MW — a hundred times more, and 7.5% of the output[1]

(b) 100 A, 30 kW (c) 3.0 MW

Q6[5 marks]
A series circuit contains a resistor, a capacitor and an inductor connected to a variable-frequency supply.
  1. State the condition for resonance. [1]
  2. Describe what happens to the current at the resonant frequency, and explain why. [2]
  3. Give one practical use of a resonant circuit. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The inductive and capacitive reactances are equal, X_L = X_C[1]
  2. The current reaches its maximum[1]
  3. The two reactances cancel, so the impedance falls to just the resistance — its minimum value[1]
  4. Tuning a radio receiver[1]
  5. Adjusting the capacitance shifts the resonant frequency to match one station, so only that signal produces a large current[1]

X_L = X_C; current is maximum; used for tuning a radio

06

Quantum Physics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Below the threshold frequency, increasing the intensity of the light causes:

  1. AMore electrons
  2. BFaster electrons
  3. CNo emission at all
  4. DDelayed emission
Show answer

Correct answer: C — No emission at all

No photon carries enough energy to free an electron, so more of them changes nothing. This is what a wave model cannot explain.

Q2The energy of a photon depends on:

  1. AThe intensity
  2. BThe frequency
  3. CThe distance travelled
  4. DThe metal it hits
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The frequency

E = hf. Intensity sets how many photons arrive, not how much energy each carries.

Q3The work function of a metal is:

  1. AThe energy of one photon
  2. BThe minimum energy to remove an electron
  3. CThe kinetic energy of the electron
  4. DThe threshold wavelength
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The minimum energy to remove an electron

It is a property of the metal, which is why different metals have different threshold frequencies.

Q4Doubling the intensity of light above the threshold frequency doubles:

  1. AThe kinetic energy of each electron
  2. BThe number of electrons emitted
  3. CThe threshold frequency
  4. DThe work function
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The number of electrons emitted

Twice as many photons means twice as many electrons, each with the same maximum kinetic energy.

Q5The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by:

  1. Aλ = hf
  2. Bλ = h/p
  3. Cλ = hc
  4. Dλ = p/h
Show answer

Correct answer: B — λ = h/p

Wavelength is inversely proportional to momentum — more momentum, shorter wavelength.

Q6Electron diffraction demonstrates that:

  1. AElectrons have no mass
  2. BParticles can behave as waves
  3. CLight is a particle
  4. DElectrons are photons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Particles can behave as waves

Electrons are unquestionably particles, yet they produce a diffraction pattern — the direct evidence for de Broglie.

Q7A cricket ball shows no observable wave behaviour because:

  1. AIt is too heavy to move
  2. BIts de Broglie wavelength is far too small
  3. CIt has no momentum
  4. DIt is not charged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Its de Broglie wavelength is far too small

Around 10⁻³⁴ m — far smaller than any gap it could diffract through.

Q8Emission in the photoelectric effect is instantaneous because:

  1. ALight travels fast
  2. BOne photon transfers all its energy to one electron at once
  3. CThe metal is already hot
  4. DElectrons are very light
Show answer

Correct answer: B — One photon transfers all its energy to one electron at once

There is no waiting for energy to accumulate, which is exactly what a wave model would predict for dim light.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State two observations of the photoelectric effect that cannot be explained by a wave model of light.
Answer

No emission occurs below a threshold frequency, whatever the intensity. And emission is instantaneous even in very dim light, rather than requiring time for energy to build up.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why increasing the intensity of light above the threshold frequency does not increase the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons.
Answer

Greater intensity means more photons per second, but each photon still carries the same energy hf. One photon is absorbed by one electron, so the energy per electron is unchanged — only the number emitted rises.

Q3[2 marks]
State what is meant by the work function of a metal.
Answer

The minimum energy needed to remove an electron from the surface of the metal.

Q4[5 marks]
A metal has a work function of 3.2 eV. Light of frequency 1.2 × 10¹⁵ Hz falls on it. Find the photon energy in eV and the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons. Take h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s.
Mark scheme
  1. E = hf = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ × 1.2 × 10¹⁵[1]
  2. E = 7.96 × 10⁻¹⁹ J[1]
  3. Converts: 7.96 × 10⁻¹⁹ / 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ = 4.97 eV[1]
  4. Uses KE_max = hf − φ = 4.97 − 3.2[1]
  5. KE_max = 1.8 eV[1]

photon 4.97 eV, electrons up to 1.8 eV

Q5[8 marks]
Electrons are accelerated through a potential difference of 2500 V and directed at a thin graphite film.
  1. Calculate the kinetic energy gained by each electron, in joules. [2]
  2. Calculate their speed, taking the electron mass as 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg. [3]
  3. Calculate their de Broglie wavelength. [2]
  4. State what is observed on a screen beyond the film, and what it shows. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses KE = eV = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 2500[1]
  2. KE = 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁶ J[1]
  3. Uses KE = ½mv²[1]
  4. v² = 2 × 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁶ / 9.11 × 10⁻³¹[1]
  5. v = 3.0 × 10⁷ m s⁻¹[1]
  6. λ = h/mv = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ / (9.11 × 10⁻³¹ × 3.0 × 10⁷)[1]
  7. λ = 2.4 × 10⁻¹¹ mcomparable to atomic spacing, which is why diffraction is observable[1]
  8. A diffraction pattern of rings, showing that electrons behave as waves[1]

4.0 × 10⁻¹⁶ J, 3.0 × 10⁷ m s⁻¹, 2.4 × 10⁻¹¹ m, rings

Q6[5 marks]
Light is described as having a dual nature.
  1. State one phenomenon that shows light behaving as a wave, and one that shows it behaving as particles. [2]
  2. Explain why a cricket ball does not show observable wave behaviour. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Wave: interference or diffraction (for example the double-slit experiment)[1]
  2. Particle: the photoelectric effect, or line spectra[1]
  3. Its de Broglie wavelength is λ = h/mv[1]
  4. Its mass and speed are enormous compared with h, so λ is around 10⁻³⁴ m[1]
  5. That is far smaller than any gap it could pass through, so no diffraction is observable[1]

interference/diffraction for waves; photoelectric effect for particles

07

Nuclear and Particle Physics

Multiple choice · 24

Q1Which particle has no charge?

  1. AProton
  2. BNeutron
  3. CElectron
  4. DAlpha particle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Neutron

The neutron is neutral, with a relative mass of 1. Protons are +1, electrons −1, and alpha particles +2.

Q2The nucleon number of an atom is the number of:

  1. AProtons
  2. BNeutrons
  3. CProtons and neutrons
  4. DElectrons
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Protons and neutrons

A counts everything in the nucleus. The proton number Z counts only protons, and neutrons are the difference A − Z.

Q3An atom is ²⁷₁₃Al. How many neutrons does it have?

  1. A13
  2. B14
  3. C27
  4. D40
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 14

Neutrons = A − Z = 27 − 13 = 14. Answer D adds the two numbers instead of subtracting.

Q4Isotopes of an element have the same number of:

  1. ANeutrons
  2. BProtons
  3. CNucleons
  4. DNothing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Protons

Same protons, different neutrons. The proton number is what makes it the same element in the first place.

Q5Isotopes of an element react chemically in the same way because they have the same:

  1. AMass
  2. BNumber of neutrons
  3. CElectron arrangement
  4. DDensity
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Electron arrangement

Chemistry is governed by electrons, and isotopes have identical electron arrangements. Their masses differ, which is why they can be separated physically.

Q6In the alpha-scattering experiment, most alpha particles passing straight through showed that:

  1. AThe nucleus is negative
  2. BThe atom is mostly empty space
  3. CElectrons are heavy
  4. DGold is transparent
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The atom is mostly empty space

If the atom were solid throughout, almost nothing would get past. Free passage means most of the atom is empty.

Q7A small number of alpha particles bounced almost straight back. This showed the nucleus is:

  1. ALarge and light
  2. BSmall, dense and positively charged
  3. CNegatively charged
  4. DMade of electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Small, dense and positively charged

Only a concentrated positive charge with most of the mass could repel a fast, heavy, positive alpha particle back the way it came.

Q8Almost all the mass of an atom is located in the:

  1. AElectron shells
  2. BNucleus
  3. CSpace between shells
  4. DOuter surface
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nucleus

Protons and neutrons each have relative mass 1; an electron has about 1/1840. The nucleus holds essentially all of it.

Q9An alpha particle is:

  1. AA fast electron
  2. BA helium nucleus
  3. CAn electromagnetic wave
  4. DA neutron
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A helium nucleus

Two protons and two neutrons, so charge +2 and relative mass 4. The fast electron is a beta particle.

Q10Which radiation is stopped by a few millimetres of aluminium?

  1. AAlpha
  2. BBeta
  3. CGamma
  4. DAll three
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Beta

Alpha is stopped by paper, gamma needs centimetres of lead. Beta sits between them.

Q11In alpha decay the nucleon number:

  1. AIncreases by 4
  2. BDecreases by 4
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDecreases by 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decreases by 4

An alpha particle carries away 2 protons and 2 neutrons, so A falls by 4 and Z falls by 2.

Q12In beta decay the proton number:

  1. ADecreases by 1
  2. BIncreases by 1
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDecreases by 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increases by 1

A neutron becomes a proton and an emitted electron, so Z rises by 1 while A is unchanged.

Q13Half-life is affected by:

  1. ATemperature
  2. BPressure
  3. CChemical state
  4. DNone of these
Show answer

Correct answer: D — None of these

Half-life is a fixed property of the isotope. No chemical or physical treatment changes the rate of nuclear decay.

Q14A sample has a half-life of 2 days. After 6 days the fraction remaining is:

  1. A1/2
  2. B1/4
  3. C1/8
  4. D1/6
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/8

Six days is three half-lives: 1 → ½ → ¼ → ⅛. Dividing 1 by 6 is the error the last option is there to catch.

Q15Which radiation is NOT deflected by a magnetic field?

  1. AAlpha
  2. BBeta
  3. CGamma
  4. DAll are deflected
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gamma

Gamma has no charge, so a magnetic field has no effect on it. Alpha and beta are deflected in opposite directions because their charges are opposite.

Q16An alpha source is most dangerous when it is:

  1. AHeld at arm's length
  2. BBehind lead shielding
  3. CInside the body
  4. DIn a sealed container
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Inside the body

Outside the body alpha cannot even pass through skin. Swallowed or inhaled, its very strong ionising power acts directly on living tissue.

Q17The mass of a nucleus compared with the total mass of its separate nucleons is:

  1. AGreater
  2. BLess
  3. CThe same
  4. DSometimes greater, sometimes less
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Less

Energy was released when it formed, and by E = mc² that came out of the mass.

Q18The binding energy of a nucleus is the energy:

  1. AReleased when it decays
  2. BNeeded to separate it into individual nucleons
  3. COf one emitted photon
  4. DStored in its electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Needed to separate it into individual nucleons

Equivalently, the energy released when it formed from separate nucleons.

Q19The nucleus with the highest binding energy per nucleon is:

  1. AHydrogen
  2. BIron-56
  3. CUranium-235
  4. DHelium-4
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Iron-56

Iron sits at the peak of the curve, which is why it is the most stable nucleus and why stellar fusion stops there.

Q20Fusion releases energy for nuclei that are:

  1. AHeavier than iron
  2. BLighter than iron
  3. CExactly iron
  4. DAny nucleus
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Lighter than iron

Joining light nuclei moves the product up the curve. Above iron it is fission that releases energy.

Q21The moderator in a fission reactor:

  1. AAbsorbs neutrons
  2. BSlows neutrons down
  3. CProvides the fuel
  4. DCools the reactor
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Slows neutrons down

Slow neutrons are much more readily absorbed by uranium-235. Absorbing neutrons is the control rods' job.

Q22Control rods are made of boron or cadmium because these materials:

  1. ASlow neutrons
  2. BAbsorb neutrons
  3. CReflect neutrons
  4. DProduce neutrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Absorb neutrons

Pushing them in absorbs more neutrons and slows the reaction; withdrawing them speeds it up.

Q23A typical fission of uranium-235 releases about:

  1. A2 eV
  2. B200 MeV
  3. C200 eV
  4. D2 J
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 200 MeV

About 200 MeV — some hundred million times a chemical reaction per atom.

Q24The main obstacle to fusion power is:

  1. ALack of fuel
  2. BContaining a plasma at millions of kelvin
  3. CRadioactive waste
  4. DIt releases too little energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Containing a plasma at millions of kelvin

Fuel is abundant and the waste is helium. The difficulty is overcoming electrostatic repulsion and confining the plasma.

Exam-style questions · 18

Q1[6 marks]
An atom is represented as ²³⁵₉₂U.
  1. State the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in a neutral atom of this isotope.
  2. Another isotope is ²³⁸₉₂U. State what is the same and what is different about it.
  3. Explain why the two isotopes behave identically in chemical reactions.
Mark scheme
  1. 92 protonsthe proton number[1]
  2. 235 − 92 = 143 neutrons[1]
  3. 92 electrons, since the atom is neutral[1]
  4. Same number of protons (92); different number of neutrons (146 instead of 143)[1]
  5. Chemical behaviour depends on the electrons[1]
  6. Both have 92 electrons arranged identically, so they react in the same way[1]

(a) 92 p, 143 n, 92 e (b) same Z, different A (c) identical electron arrangement

Q2[6 marks]
In the alpha-scattering experiment, alpha particles were directed at a thin gold foil.
  1. State the three main observations.
  2. State the conclusion drawn from each.
Mark scheme
  1. Most alpha particles passed straight through[1]
  2. So the atom is mostly empty space[1]
  3. Some were deflected through large angles[1]
  4. So there is a concentrated positive charge repelling them[1]
  5. A very few were reflected almost straight back[1]
  6. So the nucleus is very small and contains most of the atom's mass[1]
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why the plum-pudding model could not account for the results of the alpha-scattering experiment.
Mark scheme
  1. In that model the positive charge is spread thinly throughout the atom[1]
  2. So the repulsive force on an alpha particle anywhere would be small[1]
  3. It could not produce the large-angle deflections or backscattering that were observed[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State what is meant by the nucleon number and the proton number of a nuclide.
Answer

The nucleon number A is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. The proton number Z is the number of protons alone.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties.
Answer

They have the same number of protons and therefore the same number of electrons in the same arrangement. Chemical behaviour is decided by the electrons, not by the number of neutrons.

Q6[8 marks]
In the Geiger–Marsden experiment, alpha particles were fired at a very thin gold foil.
  1. State the two observations that were made. [2]
  2. Explain what each observation shows about the structure of the atom. [4]
  3. Explain why the foil had to be extremely thin. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Almost all the alpha particles passed straight through[1]
  2. A very small fraction were deflected through large angles, some straight back[1]
  3. Passing straight through shows the atom is mostly empty space[1]
  4. Large deflections show a concentrated region of positive charge[1]
  5. Which repels the positive alpha particle[1]
  6. Backward scattering shows that region is also very massive, and very small[1]
  7. So each alpha particle meets at most one nucleus[1]
  8. A thicker foil would cause multiple scattering and the result could not be interpreted[1]
Q7[6 marks]
A radioactive source has a half-life of 6.0 hours. The initial count rate, corrected for background, is 800 counts per minute.
  1. Calculate the corrected count rate after 18 hours.
  2. Explain why the count rate never reaches exactly zero.
  3. State two factors that do not affect the half-life.
Mark scheme
  1. 18 hours is 3 half-lives18 ÷ 6[1]
  2. Halves three times: 800 → 400 → 200 → 100[1]
  3. 100 counts per minute[1]
  4. Each half-life removes only half of what remains, so some always remains[1]
  5. Temperature or pressure[1]
  6. Chemical state or physical form of the sampleany second valid factor[1]

(a) 100 counts/min (b) halving never reaches zero (c) temperature, pressure, chemical state

Q8[5 marks]
Polonium-218 has proton number 84 and decays by alpha emission to lead. The lead isotope then decays by beta emission.
  1. Write the nucleon and proton numbers of the lead isotope formed.
  2. Write the nucleon and proton numbers of the nucleus formed after the beta decay.
  3. State what happens inside the nucleus during beta decay.
Mark scheme
  1. Alpha: A = 218 − 4 = 214[1]
  2. Z = 84 − 2 = 82lead[1]
  3. Beta: A unchanged at 214[1]
  4. Z = 82 + 1 = 83bismuth[1]
  5. A neutron changes into a proton and an electron, and the electron is emitted[1]

(a) ²¹⁴₈₂Pb (b) ²¹⁴₈₃ (c) a neutron becomes a proton plus an emitted electron

Q9[4 marks]
A source is to be used as a medical tracer, injected into a patient and detected from outside the body.
  1. State which type of radiation is most suitable and why.
  2. State why the half-life should be short but not too short.
Mark scheme
  1. Gamma[1]
  2. It is penetrating enough to leave the body and be detected, and least ionising so it does least damageboth halves wanted[1]
  3. Short, so the activity falls quickly and the patient is not exposed for long[1]
  4. But not so short that it decays away before the scan can be completedthe balance is the point of the question[1]
Q10[2 marks]
State two safety precautions when handling a radioactive source in a school laboratory.
Answer

Handle it with long tongs to increase the distance from the body, and return it to its lead-lined container immediately after use. (Also acceptable: never point it at anyone; minimise exposure time.)

Q11[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by background radiation and name two of its sources.
Answer

The low level of ionising radiation always present in the environment. Sources include radon gas from rocks, cosmic rays, medical X-rays and food.

Q12[9 marks]
A sample of a radioactive isotope gives a corrected count rate of 640 counts per minute. Its half-life is 8.0 days.
  1. Explain what is meant by half-life. [2]
  2. Calculate the corrected count rate after 32 days. [3]
  3. A detector near the sample reads 655 counts per minute at the start. Explain the difference and how it is dealt with. [2]
  4. The isotope emits beta particles. State what happens to the proton number and nucleon number of the nucleus. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The time taken for the number of undecayed nuclei in the sample to halve[1]
  2. Equivalently, the time for the count rate to fall to half its value; the process is random so this is an average[1]
  3. 32 days is 4 half-lives[1]
  4. Uses 640 ÷ 2⁴[1]
  5. = 40 counts per minute[1]
  6. The extra 15 counts per minute is background radiation[1]
  7. It is measured with the source removed and subtracted from every reading[1]
  8. The proton number increases by 1[1]
  9. The nucleon number is unchangeda neutron becomes a proton plus an electron[1]

(b) 40 counts per minute

Q13[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by the mass defect of a nucleus.
Answer

The difference between the total mass of the separate nucleons and the mass of the assembled nucleus. The nucleus is lighter, because energy was released when it formed.

Q14[2 marks]
Explain why binding energy per nucleon, rather than total binding energy, is used to compare nuclei.
Answer

Total binding energy simply grows with the number of nucleons. Dividing by that number gives a fair measure of how tightly each nucleon is held, and therefore of stability.

Q15[2 marks]
State the purpose of the moderator and of the control rods in a fission reactor.
Answer

The moderator slows fast neutrons down, because slow neutrons are much more readily absorbed and sustain the chain reaction. The control rods absorb neutrons, and are moved to keep the reaction steady.

Q16[5 marks]
A helium-4 nucleus has a mass defect of 0.0304 u. Calculate its total binding energy in MeV and the binding energy per nucleon. Take 1 u = 931.5 MeV.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = Δm × 931.5[1]
  2. E = 0.0304 × 931.5[1]
  3. E = 28.3 MeV[1]
  4. Divides by the 4 nucleons[1]
  5. = 7.1 MeV per nucleonhigh for such a light nucleus, which is why helium is so stable[1]

28.3 MeV total, 7.1 MeV per nucleon

Q17[8 marks]
The graph of binding energy per nucleon against nucleon number rises to a peak near iron-56 and then falls.
  1. Explain what the peak tells you about iron-56. [2]
  2. Explain, using the graph, why fusion releases energy for light nuclei and fission for heavy ones. [4]
  3. Explain why fusion in a star stops once the core is iron. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Iron-56 has the greatest binding energy per nucleon[1]
  2. So it is the most stable nucleus[1]
  3. Joining light nuclei produces a nucleus higher on the curve[1]
  4. The products are more tightly bound, so energy is released[1]
  5. Splitting a heavy nucleus produces fragments higher on the curve[1]
  6. Again the products are more tightly bound, so energy is released[1]
  7. Fusing iron would produce nuclei lower on the curve, which absorbs energy rather than releasing it[1]
  8. With no energy released, the outward pressure supporting the star fails and the core collapses[1]

iron is most stable; both processes move products up the curve; fusing iron would absorb energy

Q18[6 marks]
Compare nuclear fission and nuclear fusion as sources of electrical power.
  1. State one advantage of fusion over fission. [2]
  2. Explain the main difficulty in building a fusion reactor. [3]
  3. State which process is used in power stations today. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Fusion produces no long-lived radioactive waste — the product is helium[1]
  2. And its fuel, hydrogen isotopes, is effectively unlimitedeither point, developed[1]
  3. Both nuclei are positively charged and repel strongly[1]
  4. They must be brought close enough for the strong nuclear force to act, needing temperatures of millions of kelvin[1]
  5. At those temperatures the plasma cannot touch any container, so it must be confined magnetically, and holding it stable long enough to gain net energy is unsolved[1]
  6. Fission[1]

fusion: no long-lived waste, unlimited fuel; difficulty is containment at millions of kelvin; fission is used today

08

Medical Physics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Acoustic impedance is given by:

  1. Aρ/c
  2. Bρc
  3. Cc/ρ
  4. Dρc²
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ρc

Z = ρc, density multiplied by the speed of sound in the medium.

Q2Coupling gel is used because air and skin have very different:

  1. Adensities only
  2. Bacoustic impedances
  3. Ctemperatures
  4. Drefractive indices
Show answer

Correct answer: B — acoustic impedances

The large impedance mismatch would reflect nearly all the ultrasound at the surface. The gel matches the impedance of skin.

Q3An echo returns after time t. The depth of the reflecting boundary is:

  1. Act
  2. Bct/2
  3. C2ct
  4. Dc/t
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ct/2

The pulse travels to the boundary and back, so the one-way distance is half the total path.

Q4X-ray intensity through a material follows:

  1. AI = I₀(1 − µx)
  2. BI = I₀e^(−µx)
  3. CI = I₀/x²
  4. DI = I₀µx
Show answer

Correct answer: B — I = I₀e^(−µx)

Attenuation is exponential — equal thicknesses remove equal fractions of the intensity.

Q5A material has µ = 0.35 cm⁻¹. Its half-value thickness is:

  1. A0.35 cm
  2. B1.98 cm
  3. C2.86 cm
  4. D0.24 cm
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1.98 cm

x½ = ln2/µ = 0.693/0.35 = 1.98 cm. The answer 2.86 cm would come from 1/µ, which is the mean free path, not the half-value thickness.

Q6Each photon from electron-positron annihilation has energy:

  1. A0.51 MeV
  2. B1.02 MeV
  3. C0.26 MeV
  4. D511 J
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0.51 MeV

The combined rest energy of 1.02 MeV is shared between the two photons, giving 0.51 MeV each.

Q7The two annihilation photons travel in opposite directions because of:

  1. Aenergy conservation
  2. Bmomentum conservation
  3. Ccharge conservation
  4. Dthe magnetic field
Show answer

Correct answer: B — momentum conservation

The pair has almost zero momentum before annihilation, so the photons must carry equal and opposite momenta afterwards.

Q8Which imaging method is non-ionising and therefore preferred for a fetus?

  1. AX-ray
  2. BPET
  3. Cultrasound
  4. DCT
Show answer

Correct answer: C — ultrasound

Ultrasound uses sound waves, which do not ionise tissue. X-ray, CT and PET all involve ionising radiation.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why a coupling gel is used between an ultrasound transducer and the skin.
Answer

Air has a far lower acoustic impedance than skin, so at an air–skin boundary almost all the ultrasound would be reflected and very little would enter the body. The gel has an impedance close to that of skin, which removes the air gap and allows the pulse to be transmitted.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why two gamma photons, rather than one, are produced when a positron and an electron annihilate.
Answer

Momentum must be conserved. The electron and positron have almost no momentum before the event, so the total afterwards must be near zero. A single photon would carry momentum in one direction, which is impossible — so two photons are emitted in almost exactly opposite directions.

Q3[4 marks]
An ultrasound pulse returns from a boundary after 65 µs. The speed of sound in the tissue is 1540 m s⁻¹. Find the depth of the boundary. Also calculate the acoustic impedance of tissue of density 1060 kg m⁻³.
Mark scheme
  1. Distance travelled = ct = 1540 × 65 × 10⁻⁶ = 0.1001 mThe total path length, there and back.[1]
  2. Depth = 0.1001/2 = 0.050 m = 5.0 cmHalving for the round trip is the step most often forgotten.[1]
  3. Z = ρc = 1060 × 1540Acoustic impedance is density times speed.[1]
  4. Z = 1.63 × 10⁶ kg m⁻² s⁻¹Typical of soft tissue, and far greater than air.[1]

Depth 5.0 cm; Z = 1.63 × 10⁶ kg m⁻² s⁻¹

Q4[7 marks]
(a) State one advantage and one disadvantage of ultrasound compared with X-ray imaging.
(b) X-rays of intensity I₀ pass through 4.0 cm of bone with µ = 0.60 cm⁻¹. Calculate the fraction transmitted.
(c) Calculate the half-value thickness of the bone.
(d) Explain why PET is described as a functional rather than a structural scan.
(e) Calculate the energy in MeV of each annihilation photon, given the electron mass is 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) Advantage: ultrasound is non-ionising, so it is safe for a fetus. Disadvantage: it gives poorer resolution and cannot image through bone or gas.One of each is required; both must be genuine comparisons.[1]
  2. (b) I/I₀ = e^(−0.60 × 4.0) = e^(−2.4)Units of µ and x are consistent in cm.[1]
  3. = 0.0907, about 9.1%Bone attenuates strongly, which is why it appears white on a radiograph.[1]
  4. (c) x½ = ln2/µ = 0.693/0.60 = 1.16 cm4.0 cm is nearly 3.5 half-value thicknesses, consistent with roughly 9% transmitted.[1]
  5. (d) The tracer accumulates where metabolic activity is highest, so the image shows how tissue is functioning rather than its shape.The contrast with structural imaging must be explicit.[1]
  6. (e) E = mc² = 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ × (3.00 × 10⁸)² = 8.20 × 10⁻¹⁴ JEach photon carries the rest energy of one electron.[1]
  7. E = 8.20 × 10⁻¹⁴ / 1.60 × 10⁻¹³ = 0.51 MeVConverting joules to MeV by dividing by 1.60 × 10⁻¹³.[1]

(b) 9.1%; (c) 1.16 cm; (e) 0.51 MeV

Q5[2 marks]
State what is meant by the half-value thickness, and explain why it does not depend on the initial intensity.
Answer

The half-value thickness is the thickness of a material that reduces the transmitted intensity to half its incident value. It is independent of the initial intensity because the attenuation is exponential: equal thicknesses remove equal fractions, not equal amounts.

09

Space and Environment

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A standard candle is useful because its:

  1. Adistance is known
  2. Bluminosity is known
  3. Ctemperature is constant
  4. Dradius is known
Show answer

Correct answer: B — luminosity is known

Knowing the true output lets the observed brightness be converted into a distance. If the distance were already known, no candle would be needed.

Q2Radiant flux intensity from a star of luminosity L at distance d is:

  1. AL/(4πd²)
  2. BL/(4πd)
  3. C4πd²L
  4. DL/d
Show answer

Correct answer: A — L/(4πd²)

The light spreads over the surface of a sphere of area 4πd², which is the origin of the inverse square law.

Q3A star with a shorter peak wavelength than another is:

  1. Acooler
  2. Bhotter
  3. Clarger
  4. Dcloser
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hotter

Wien's law is an inverse relationship, so a shorter peak wavelength means a higher surface temperature.

Q4In Stefan's law, luminosity depends on temperature to the power:

  1. A1
  2. B2
  3. C3
  4. D4
Show answer

Correct answer: D — 4

L = 4πr²σT⁴. The fourth power means small temperature differences produce very large differences in output.

Q5Two stars have equal temperature, but one has twice the radius. Its luminosity is:

  1. Atwice
  2. Bfour times
  3. Ceight times
  4. Dsixteen times
Show answer

Correct answer: B — four times

L is proportional to r², so doubling the radius quadruples the luminosity. The fourth power applies to temperature, not radius.

Q6Red shift z is given by:

  1. Aλ/Δλ
  2. BΔλ/λ
  3. CcΔλ
  4. DΔλ·c
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Δλ/λ

z is the fractional change in wavelength, Δλ/λ, and equals v/c for speeds well below the speed of light.

Q7Hubble's law states that recession speed is proportional to:

  1. Abrightness
  2. Bdistance
  3. Ctemperature
  4. Dmass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — distance

v = H₀d. More distant galaxies recede faster, which is the signature of an expanding space.

Q8Galaxies receding in all directions shows that:

  1. AEarth is the centre of the universe
  2. Bspace itself is expanding
  3. Cthe universe is contracting
  4. Dlight slows with distance
Show answer

Correct answer: B — space itself is expanding

Every observer sees the same pattern, which is what expansion of space produces. An ordinary explosion would single out one centre.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by a standard candle and why it is needed.
Answer

A standard candle is an astronomical object whose luminosity is known independently of its distance — Type Ia supernovae are the standard example. It is needed because a faint appearance could mean either a dim object or a distant one; knowing the true output allows the two to be separated and the distance calculated.

Q2[2 marks]
State Wien's displacement law and explain what it tells you about a blue star compared with a red one.
Answer

λ_max × T = 2.90 × 10⁻³ m K — the peak wavelength is inversely proportional to the surface temperature. A blue star peaks at a shorter wavelength, so it is hotter than a red star.

Q3[4 marks]
A star of luminosity 8.0 × 10²⁶ W is at a distance of 4.0 × 10¹⁷ m. Calculate the radiant flux intensity at Earth. Its peak wavelength is 550 nm; find its surface temperature.
Mark scheme
  1. F = L/(4πd²) = 8.0 × 10²⁶ / (4π × (4.0 × 10¹⁷)²)The distance must be squared inside the bracket.[1]
  2. 4π(1.6 × 10³⁵) = 2.011 × 10³⁶Evaluating the denominator separately reduces errors.[1]
  3. F = 3.98 × 10⁻¹⁰ W m⁻²Very small, as expected at interstellar distances.[1]
  4. T = 2.90 × 10⁻³ / 550 × 10⁻⁹ = 5270 KConverting nanometres to metres first.[1]

F = 3.98 × 10⁻¹⁰ W m⁻², T = 5270 K

Q4[6 marks]
A hydrogen line measured at 656.3 nm in the laboratory is observed at 672.1 nm in light from a distant galaxy.
(a) Calculate the red shift z.
(b) Calculate the recession speed.
(c) Using H₀ = 2.2 × 10⁻¹⁸ s⁻¹, estimate the distance to the galaxy.
(d) Explain how observations of this kind support the Big Bang theory.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) Δλ = 672.1 − 656.3 = 15.8 nmObserved minus laboratory wavelength.[1]
  2. z = Δλ/λ = 15.8/656.3 = 0.0241A dimensionless ratio, so the nm units cancel and need not be converted.[1]
  3. (b) v = zc = 0.0241 × 3.00 × 10⁸ = 7.22 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹Well below c, so the approximation z = v/c is valid.[1]
  4. (c) d = v/H₀ = 7.22 × 10⁶ / 2.2 × 10⁻¹⁸Rearranging Hubble's law.[1]
  5. d = 3.28 × 10²⁴ mRoughly 350 million light years.[1]
  6. (d) Galaxies recede in every direction with speed proportional to distance, so space itself is expanding rather than us sitting at the centre. Extrapolating that expansion backwards implies everything was once together — the Big Bang.The all-directions point is essential; without it the data could be read as an ordinary explosion with us at its centre.[1]

(a) 0.0241; (b) 7.22 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹; (c) 3.28 × 10²⁴ m; (d) expansion in all directions run backwards

Q5[2 marks]
Two stars have the same radius, but one is twice the temperature of the other. Compare their luminosities.
Answer

Stefan's law gives L = 4πr²σT⁴, so with the radius unchanged the luminosity depends on T⁴. Doubling the temperature multiplies the luminosity by 2⁴ = 16.

These questions come from the 2nd Year Physics lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.