2nd Year Physics — MCQs & Practice Questions

74 multiple-choice questions and 60 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

New to a topic? Read the 2nd Year Physics notes first, then come back to practise.

12

Electrostatics

Multiple choice · 6

Q1The separation between two point charges is tripled. The force between them becomes:

  1. AOne third
  2. BOne sixth
  3. COne ninth
  4. DThree times larger
Show answer

Correct answer: C — One ninth

F ∝ 1/r², so tripling r divides the force by 3² = 9. Answer A is the trap for anyone who treats it as a simple inverse rather than an inverse square.

Q2Electric field lines can never cross because:

  1. AThey would cancel out
  2. BThe field would have two directions at one point, which is meaningless
  3. CCharges would be destroyed
  4. DIt would violate conservation of energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The field would have two directions at one point, which is meaningless

The field at a point has one definite direction — the direction of the force on a positive test charge there. Two crossing lines would assign it two directions at once, which is a contradiction rather than a physical possibility.

Q3Which quantity is a scalar?

  1. AElectric field strength
  2. BElectric potential
  3. CElectrostatic force
  4. DDisplacement of a charge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Electric potential

Potential is energy per unit charge — a plain number, which is exactly why potentials from several charges can be added arithmetically. Field strength and force both carry direction and need vector addition.

Q4Two identical positive charges are held a fixed distance apart. At the midpoint between them, the electric field is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BZero
  3. CHalf of its value at either charge
  4. DDirected toward the nearer charge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The two fields at the midpoint are equal in size and opposite in direction, so they cancel exactly. Note that the potential at that same point is not zero — it is the sum of two positive numbers, which is a distinction examiners like to probe.

Q5A charge of 2 μC is placed in a uniform field of 500 N C⁻¹. The force on it is:

  1. A1 × 10⁻³ N
  2. B250 N
  3. C1000 N
  4. D2.5 × 10⁻³ N
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 × 10⁻³ N

F = qE = 2 × 10⁻⁶ × 500 = 1 × 10⁻³ N. The commonest error is mishandling the micro prefix — μ means 10⁻⁶, so 2 μC is a very small charge and the resulting force is correspondingly small.

Q6Charge is described as "quantised". This means:

  1. ACharge can take any value
  2. BCharge exists only in whole multiples of the elementary charge e
  3. CCharge is always conserved
  4. DCharge decreases with distance
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Charge exists only in whole multiples of the elementary charge e

Quantisation is about coming in indivisible lumps of e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C. Conservation is a separate and equally important principle — both are true, but the question asks specifically about quantisation.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of electrons, how a polythene rod becomes negatively charged when rubbed with a cloth.
Answer

Electrons are transferred from the cloth onto the rod. The rod gains electrons and becomes negative; the cloth is left with a positive charge.

Q2[2 marks]
State what is meant by an electric field and how its direction is defined.
Answer

A region in which a charge experiences a force. The direction of the field is the direction of the force on a small positive test charge.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why a charged rod attracts small uncharged pieces of paper.
Answer

The rod induces a separation of charge in the paper, drawing the opposite charge to the near side. That near charge is closer to the rod, so its attraction outweighs the repulsion of the far side.

Q4[4 marks]
A potential difference of 5000 V is applied across two parallel plates separated by 25 mm. Calculate the electric field strength between them, and the force on a charge of 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ C placed in that field.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts 25 mm = 0.025 m[1]
  2. Uses E = V/d = 5000 / 0.025[1]
  3. E = 2.0 × 10⁵ V m⁻¹[1]
  4. F = QE = 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 2.0 × 10⁵ = 6.4 × 10⁻¹⁴ N[1]

E = 2.0 × 10⁵ V m⁻¹, F = 6.4 × 10⁻¹⁴ N

Q5[8 marks]
A fuel tanker is fitted with a conducting strip that touches the ground, and is earthed with a metal wire before fuel is transferred.
  1. Explain how charge builds up on the tanker as it drives. [2]
  2. Explain why this build-up is dangerous during refuelling. [3]
  3. Explain how earthing the tanker removes the danger. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Friction between the tanker and the air, and between the fuel and the tank walls, transfers electrons[1]
  2. The tanker is insulated by its rubber tyres, so the charge cannot escape and accumulates[1]
  3. The charge raises the potential of the tanker[1]
  4. Eventually a spark jumps to a nearby earthed object[1]
  5. The spark could ignite the fuel vapour and cause an explosion[1]
  6. The wire provides a conducting path to earth[1]
  7. Electrons flow along it until the tanker is at the same potential as the earth[1]
  8. So charge leaks away steadily instead of building to a spark[1]
Q6[6 marks]
Two parallel metal plates are connected to a high-voltage supply, the upper plate positive.
  1. Describe the pattern of the field lines between the plates, away from the edges. [2]
  2. A small negatively charged oil drop is placed between the plates. State the direction of the electric force on it and explain your answer. [2]
  3. State two changes that would increase the force on the drop. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The lines are parallel and equally spaced, showing a uniform field[1]
  2. They run from the positive plate to the negative plate[1]
  3. The force is upward, towards the positive plate[1]
  4. Because the drop is negative, so the force is opposite to the field direction[1]
  5. Increase the potential difference across the plates[1]
  6. Move the plates closer together, or increase the charge on the dropany one[1]

(b) upward, towards the positive plate

13

Current Electricity

Multiple choice · 6

Q1A 12 V supply drives 0.5 A through a resistor. What is its resistance?

  1. A6 Ω
  2. B24 Ω
  3. C12.5 Ω
  4. D0.042 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 24 Ω

Rearrange V = IR to R = V/I = 12 / 0.5 = 24 Ω. Sanity check with power: P = VI = 6 W, and I²R = 0.25 × 24 = 6 W. Consistent.

Q2Two 10 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. The total resistance is:

  1. A20 Ω
  2. B10 Ω
  3. C5 Ω
  4. D0.2 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5 Ω

1/R = 1/10 + 1/10 = 2/10, so R = 5 Ω. Identical resistors in parallel always halve. Adding a second path makes it easier for charge to flow, so total resistance must fall below either individual value.

Q3In a series circuit, which quantity is the same through every component?

  1. AVoltage
  2. BCurrent
  3. CResistance
  4. DPower
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Current

One path means charge has nowhere else to go, so the current is identical everywhere. It is the voltage that divides, in proportion to each resistance. In parallel the situation is exactly reversed.

Q4Why are household appliances wired in parallel?

  1. AIt uses less copper
  2. BEach gets the full supply voltage and can be switched independently
  3. CIt reduces the total current
  4. DSeries wiring is illegal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Each gets the full supply voltage and can be switched independently

Parallel branches all sit across the full mains voltage, so every appliance works at its rated value and one failure does not break the others' circuit. It does increase total current, which is why the circuit is protected by a breaker.

Q5Electric field lines never cross. Why?

  1. AThey would break the inverse square law
  2. BAt a crossing point the field would need two directions at once, which is impossible
  3. CCrossing lines cancel to zero
  4. DThey do cross for like charges
Show answer

Correct answer: B — At a crossing point the field would need two directions at once, which is impossible

The field at any point has one definite direction — the direction a positive test charge would be pushed. Two lines crossing would specify two different directions at the same place, which is a contradiction.

Q6You double the distance from a point charge. The field strength becomes:

  1. AHalf
  2. BA quarter
  3. CDouble
  4. DUnchanged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A quarter

E = kQ/r² is an inverse square law. Doubling r multiplies the denominator by 4, so E drops to one quarter. Geometrically the same field lines are spread over four times the surface area.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define electric current and state its unit.
Answer

The rate of flow of electric charge, I = Q/t. Its unit is the ampere (A), where one ampere is one coulomb per second.

Q2[2 marks]
State Ohm's law and the condition under which it holds.
Answer

The current through a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across it, provided the temperature stays constant.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why the resistance of a metal wire increases as it gets hotter.
Answer

The metal ions vibrate more strongly, so the moving electrons collide with them more often. Each collision impedes the flow, so the resistance rises.

Q4[5 marks]
A wire of length 2.0 m and cross-sectional area 0.50 mm² has a resistance of 0.068 Ω. Calculate the resistivity of the metal, and state the resistance of a 4.0 m length of the same wire.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts the area: 0.50 mm² = 0.50 × 10⁻⁶ m²the step most often dropped[1]
  2. Uses ρ = RA/L[1]
  3. ρ = (0.068 × 0.50 × 10⁻⁶) / 2.0[1]
  4. ρ = 1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ω mcopper[1]
  5. Doubling the length doubles the resistance: 0.136 Ω[1]

ρ = 1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ω m; R = 0.14 Ω

Q5[8 marks]
A student connects a 6.0 V battery to a filament lamp and records the current for a range of potential differences.
  1. Sketch and describe the shape of the I–V graph obtained. [3]
  2. Explain the shape in terms of what happens inside the filament. [3]
  3. At 6.0 V the current is 0.50 A. Calculate the resistance and the power at that point. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The graph passes through the origin[1]
  2. It is a straight line at low potential difference[1]
  3. It then curves towards the V axis, so the gradient falls[1]
  4. A larger current heats the filament[1]
  5. The ions vibrate more and the electrons collide with them more often[1]
  6. So the resistance increases and the current no longer rises in proportion[1]
  7. R = V/I = 6.0 / 0.50 = 12 Ω[1]
  8. P = VI = 6.0 × 0.50 = 3.0 W[1]

(c) 12 Ω and 3.0 W

Q6[7 marks]
A 9.0 V supply is connected in series with a 20 Ω resistor and a thermistor. At room temperature the thermistor has a resistance of 25 Ω.
  1. Calculate the current in the circuit at room temperature. [3]
  2. Calculate the potential difference across the thermistor. [2]
  3. State and explain what happens to that potential difference as the thermistor is warmed. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Total resistance = 20 + 25 = 45 Ω[1]
  2. Uses I = V/R[1]
  3. I = 9.0 / 45 = 0.20 A[1]
  4. Uses V = IR for the thermistor[1]
  5. V = 0.20 × 25 = 5.0 V[1]
  6. The potential difference across the thermistor decreases[1]
  7. Its resistance falls as it warms, so it takes a smaller share of the supply voltage[1]

(a) 0.20 A (b) 5.0 V (c) it falls

14

Electromagnetism

Multiple choice · 7

Q1The unit of magnetic flux density is the:

  1. Aweber
  2. Btesla
  3. Chenry
  4. Dnewton
Show answer

Correct answer: B — tesla

The tesla, equal to 1 N A⁻¹ m⁻¹. The weber is the unit of magnetic flux, which is B multiplied by area.

Q2A wire lies parallel to a magnetic field. The force on it is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BZero
  3. CHalf the maximum
  4. DReversed
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

F = BIL sin θ and sin 0° = 0. Only the perpendicular component produces a force.

Q3Fleming's left-hand rule is used to find:

  1. AThe current induced by motion
  2. BThe force on a current in a field
  3. CThe field around a wire
  4. DThe charge on a particle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The force on a current in a field

Left for the motor effect. The right hand is for induction, where motion produces a current.

Q4A magnetic field acting on a moving charge cannot change its:

  1. ADirection
  2. BSpeed
  3. CMomentum
  4. DPath
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Speed

The force is always perpendicular to the velocity, so it does no work. Direction, momentum and path all change; speed does not.

Q5Doubling the speed of a charged particle in a fixed field changes the radius of its path by a factor of:

  1. A½
  2. B2
  3. C4
  4. Dno change
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2

r = mv/(qB), so r is proportional to v. Doubling the speed doubles the radius.

Q6Two parallel wires carrying current in the same direction:

  1. ARepel
  2. BAttract
  3. CFeel no force
  4. DRotate
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Attract

They attract. Each sits in the other's field, and the grip rule plus the left-hand rule give an inward force.

Q7The field inside a long solenoid is:

  1. AZero
  2. BNearly uniform
  3. CStrongest at the centre only
  4. DCircular
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nearly uniform

Nearly uniform along the inside, spreading out at the ends — much like a bar magnet.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define magnetic flux density and state its unit.
Answer

The force per unit current per unit length on a conductor placed at right angles to the field, B = F/(IL). Its unit is the tesla (T), equal to 1 N A⁻¹ m⁻¹.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why a magnetic field cannot change the speed of a charged particle.
Answer

The force qvB always acts at right angles to the velocity. A perpendicular force does no work, so the kinetic energy and therefore the speed are unchanged — only the direction alters.

Q3[2 marks]
A wire carrying a current lies parallel to a magnetic field. State and explain the force on it.
Answer

The force is zero, because F = BIL sin θ and sin 0° = 0. Only the component of the wire perpendicular to the field experiences a force.

Q4[5 marks]
A wire of length 0.25 m carries a current of 4.0 A at right angles to a field of 0.15 T. Find the force. Then find the force if the wire is turned to 30° to the field.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses F = BIL with sin 90° = 1[1]
  2. F = 0.15 × 4.0 × 0.25[1]
  3. F = 0.15 N[1]
  4. At 30°: F = BIL sin 30° = 0.15 × 0.5[1]
  5. F = 0.075 Nhalf, because sin 30° = 0.5[1]

0.15 N, then 0.075 N

Q5[8 marks]
A proton of mass 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg and charge 1.60 × 10⁻¹⁹ C moves at 2.0 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹ perpendicular to a uniform field of 0.35 T.
  1. Calculate the force on the proton. [2]
  2. Explain why it moves in a circle. [3]
  3. Calculate the radius of that circle. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses F = qvB[1]
  2. F = 1.60 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 2.0 × 10⁶ × 0.35 = 1.12 × 10⁻¹³ N[1]
  3. The force is always perpendicular to the velocity[1]
  4. So it changes the direction of motion but not the speed[1]
  5. A constant force at right angles to a constant speed is centripetal, giving circular motion[1]
  6. Sets qvB = mv²/r[1]
  7. r = mv/(qB) = (1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ × 2.0 × 10⁶) / (1.60 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 0.35)[1]
  8. r = 0.060 m, about 6 cm[1]

(a) 1.12 × 10⁻¹³ N (c) 0.060 m

Q6[5 marks]
Two long parallel wires 5.0 cm apart carry currents in the same direction.
  1. State whether they attract or repel. [1]
  2. Explain your answer using the field of one wire and the force on the other. [3]
  3. State what happens if one current is reversed. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. They attractthe opposite of what most people expect[1]
  2. Each wire sits in the magnetic field produced by the other[1]
  3. The field of the first wire at the second is perpendicular to that wireright-hand grip rule[1]
  4. Fleming's left-hand rule then gives a force on the second wire directed towards the first[1]
  5. Reversing one current makes them repel[1]

attract; reversing one current makes them repel

15

Electromagnetic Induction

Multiple choice · 7

Q1An e.m.f. is induced in a coil only when:

  1. AA magnet is nearby
  2. BThe flux through it is changing
  3. CThe coil is warm
  4. DA current already flows
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The flux through it is changing

A stationary magnet inside a coil induces nothing, however strong it is. Change is what matters.

Q2In Φ = BA cos θ, θ is measured between the field and:

  1. AThe plane of the loop
  2. BThe normal to the loop
  3. CThe vertical
  4. DThe current
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The normal to the loop

The normal. Face-on gives θ = 0 and maximum flux; edge-on gives θ = 90° and zero.

Q3Lenz's law is a consequence of the conservation of:

  1. ACharge
  2. BEnergy
  3. CMomentum
  4. DMass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Energy

If the induced current aided the change, the system would accelerate itself and produce energy from nothing.

Q4Doubling the speed at which a magnet is pushed into a coil changes the induced e.m.f. by a factor of:

  1. A½
  2. B2
  3. C4
  4. Dno change
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2

The e.m.f. depends on the rate of change of flux. Twice the speed means twice the rate.

Q5In an a.c. generator the induced e.m.f. is a maximum when the coil is:

  1. AFace-on to the field
  2. BEdge-on to the field
  3. CStationary
  4. DAt 45° to the field
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Edge-on to the field

Edge-on the flux is zero but changing fastest. Face-on the flux is greatest but momentarily unchanging, so the e.m.f. is zero.

Q6Slip rings are used in an a.c. generator to:

  1. AReverse the connections every half turn
  2. BMaintain contact without reversing the connections
  3. CIncrease the field strength
  4. DSmooth the output
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Maintain contact without reversing the connections

Reversing every half turn is what a split-ring commutator does, and that gives d.c. instead.

Q7A rod slides along a magnetic field line rather than across it. The induced e.m.f. is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BZero
  3. CHalf the maximum
  4. DReversed
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

No field lines are cut, so no flux change occurs. e.m.f. = BLv sin θ with θ = 0.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define magnetic flux and state its unit.
Answer

The product of the magnetic flux density and the area perpendicular to the field, Φ = BA cos θ. Its unit is the weber (Wb).

Q2[2 marks]
A magnet is held stationary inside a coil. Explain why no e.m.f. is induced.
Answer

The flux through the coil is not changing. An e.m.f. depends on the rate of change of flux linkage, and that rate is zero — the strength of the magnet is irrelevant.

Q3[2 marks]
State Lenz's law and explain what physical principle it follows from.
Answer

The induced current always opposes the change producing it. It follows from conservation of energy — if the current aided the change, energy would be created from nothing.

Q4[5 marks]
A straight rod 0.40 m long moves at 6.0 m s⁻¹ perpendicular to a field of 0.25 T. Find the induced e.m.f. Then find it if the rod moves at 30° to the field instead.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses e.m.f. = BLv[1]
  2. = 0.25 × 0.40 × 6.0[1]
  3. = 0.60 V[1]
  4. At 30°: e.m.f. = BLv sin 30°only the perpendicular component cuts field lines[1]
  5. = 0.30 V[1]

0.60 V, then 0.30 V

Q5[8 marks]
A bar magnet is dropped north-pole-first through a vertical coil connected to a sensitive meter.
  1. Describe the meter reading as the magnet approaches, passes through, and leaves. [3]
  2. Use Lenz's law to explain the direction of the induced current as the magnet approaches. [3]
  3. Explain why the magnet falls more slowly than it would with the coil disconnected. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Deflects one way as the magnet approaches[1]
  2. Falls to zero at the instant the magnet is centred, where the flux is momentarily not changing[1]
  3. Deflects the opposite way as it leaves[1]
  4. The flux through the coil is increasing as the magnet approaches[1]
  5. The induced current flows so as to oppose that increase[1]
  6. So the near face of the coil becomes a north pole, repelling the magnet[1]
  7. With a complete circuit an induced current flows and opposes the motion[1]
  8. Work is done against that force, converting gravitational energy into electrical energy rather than kinetic[1]

deflect, zero at the centre, deflect the other way

Q6[6 marks]
A simple a.c. generator has a rectangular coil rotating in a uniform magnetic field.
  1. Explain why the induced e.m.f. is zero when the coil is face-on to the field. [2]
  2. State the position at which the e.m.f. is a maximum. [1]
  3. State the purpose of the slip rings. [1]
  4. State two changes that would increase the peak output. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Face-on, the flux through the coil is at its maximum[1]
  2. At a maximum the flux is momentarily not changing, and e.m.f. depends on the rate of change[1]
  3. When the coil is edge-on to the field, a quarter turn laterflux is zero but changing fastest[1]
  4. They maintain electrical contact with the rotating coil without reversing the connections, preserving the a.c. output[1]
  5. Rotate the coil faster[1]
  6. Use a stronger field, more turns, or a larger coil areaany one[1]

zero face-on, maximum edge-on

16

Alternating Current

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The average value of a sinusoidal current over one complete cycle is:

  1. AThe peak value
  2. BZero
  3. CThe RMS value
  4. DHalf the peak
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The halves cancel. This is precisely why RMS is used instead of the ordinary mean.

Q2A supply is quoted as 230 V. Its peak voltage is about:

  1. A163 V
  2. B325 V
  3. C230 V
  4. D460 V
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 325 V

Quoted values are RMS, so the peak is 230 × √2 ≈ 325 V.

Q3The RMS value is defined as the steady current that would:

  1. AHave the same peak
  2. BDeliver the same average power
  3. CFlow for the same time
  4. DHave the same frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Deliver the same average power

It is defined by the power it delivers to a resistor, which is what makes it the useful number.

Q4As frequency increases, the reactance of a capacitor:

  1. AIncreases
  2. BDecreases
  3. CStays the same
  4. DBecomes zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decreases

X_C = 1/(2πfC). Faster reversals leave less time for charge to build up and oppose the flow.

Q5A component that blocks d.c. but passes a.c. is a:

  1. AResistor
  2. BCapacitor
  3. CInductor
  4. DDiode
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Capacitor

No charge crosses the gap, but repeated charging and discharging keeps current flowing in the circuit.

Q6At resonance in a series LCR circuit, the impedance is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BMinimum
  3. CZero
  4. DInfinite
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Minimum

The reactances cancel, leaving only R. Minimum impedance means maximum current.

Q7Electricity is transmitted at high voltage because:

  1. AHigh voltage is safer
  2. BIt means low current, and loss goes as I²R
  3. CCables need high voltage
  4. DIt travels faster
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It means low current, and loss goes as I²R

For a fixed power, raising V lowers I, and heating loss depends on the square of the current.

Q8A transformer will not work on direct current because:

  1. AThe current is too small
  2. BA steady field induces no e.m.f.
  3. CThe core melts
  4. DD.C. has no voltage
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A steady field induces no e.m.f.

Induction requires a changing magnetic field. Steady current gives a steady field and nothing is induced.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the average value of an alternating current over a complete cycle is zero, yet it still heats a resistor.
Answer

The negative half of the cycle cancels the positive half, so the mean current is zero. Heating depends on I²R, and squaring makes the negative half positive, so energy is dissipated throughout.

Q2[2 marks]
Define the RMS value of an alternating current.
Answer

The steady direct current that would deliver the same average power to a resistor as the alternating current does.

Q3[2 marks]
State how the reactance of a capacitor and of an inductor each change as the frequency increases.
Answer

Capacitive reactance decreases, since X_C = 1/(2πfC). Inductive reactance increases, since X_L = 2πfL.

Q4[5 marks]
An a.c. supply has a peak voltage of 170 V and is connected to a 40 Ω resistor. Find the RMS voltage, the RMS current and the average power dissipated.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses V_rms = V_peak/√2[1]
  2. V_rms = 170 / 1.414 = 120 V[1]
  3. I_rms = V_rms/R = 120/40[1]
  4. I_rms = 3.0 A[1]
  5. P = V_rms I_rms = 120 × 3.0 = 360 Wusing peak values would double this[1]

120 V, 3.0 A, 360 W

Q5[8 marks]
Electricity is generated at a power station and transmitted at high voltage.
  1. Explain why transformers only work with alternating current. [2]
  2. A station delivers 40 MW at 400 kV through cables of resistance 3.0 Ω. Calculate the current and the power lost as heat. [4]
  3. Calculate the power that would be lost if the same power were sent at 40 kV instead. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A transformer works by a changing magnetic field inducing an e.m.f. in the secondary[1]
  2. Direct current gives a steady field, so nothing is induced[1]
  3. I = P/V = 40 × 10⁶ / 400 × 10³[1]
  4. I = 100 A[1]
  5. P_lost = I²R = 100² × 3.0[1]
  6. = 30 kW, less than 0.1% of the output[1]
  7. At 40 kV: I = 1000 Aten times the current[1]
  8. P_lost = 1000² × 3.0 = 3.0 MW — a hundred times more, and 7.5% of the output[1]

(b) 100 A, 30 kW (c) 3.0 MW

Q6[5 marks]
A series circuit contains a resistor, a capacitor and an inductor connected to a variable-frequency supply.
  1. State the condition for resonance. [1]
  2. Describe what happens to the current at the resonant frequency, and explain why. [2]
  3. Give one practical use of a resonant circuit. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The inductive and capacitive reactances are equal, X_L = X_C[1]
  2. The current reaches its maximum[1]
  3. The two reactances cancel, so the impedance falls to just the resistance — its minimum value[1]
  4. Tuning a radio receiver[1]
  5. Adjusting the capacitance shifts the resonant frequency to match one station, so only that signal produces a large current[1]

X_L = X_C; current is maximum; used for tuning a radio

17

Physics of Solids

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Which solid has a sharp melting point?

  1. AGlass
  2. BA crystalline solid
  3. CRubber
  4. DAny amorphous solid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A crystalline solid

Every bond in a lattice is the same, so they break at the same temperature. Amorphous solids soften over a range.

Q2Strain is measured in:

  1. APascals
  2. BNo units
  3. CNewtons
  4. DMetres
Show answer

Correct answer: B — No units

It is an extension divided by a length. Stress and the Young modulus are both in pascals.

Q3The Young modulus is the gradient of:

  1. AA force-extension graph
  2. BThe straight part of a stress-strain graph
  3. CThe plastic region
  4. DA velocity-time graph
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The straight part of a stress-strain graph

The straight, elastic part. A force-extension gradient gives the spring constant, which depends on the sample.

Q4Deformation past the elastic limit is:

  1. AReversible
  2. BPermanent
  3. CImpossible
  4. DAlways fracture
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Permanent

Planes of atoms have slipped and do not slide back. It is what allows a metal to be shaped.

Q5A material that breaks with almost no plastic deformation is:

  1. ADuctile
  2. BBrittle
  3. CElastic
  4. DWeak
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Brittle

Brittle. It is not the same as weak — glass fibre is brittle and very strong.

Q6Copper is drawn into wire because it is:

  1. ABrittle
  2. BDuctile
  3. CAmorphous
  4. DAn insulator
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Ductile

Its long plastic region lets it be stretched permanently without breaking.

Q7A semiconductor has a band gap of roughly:

  1. AZero
  2. B1 eV
  3. C10 eV
  4. D100 eV
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 eV

Small enough that thermal energy lifts some electrons across at room temperature. An insulator gap is several eV.

Q8In a conductor, the valence and conduction bands:

  1. AAre far apart
  2. BOverlap or the upper band is part-filled
  3. CAre both empty
  4. DDo not exist
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Overlap or the upper band is part-filled

Electrons can reach free states with almost no energy, so current flows easily.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State two differences between a crystalline and an amorphous solid.
Answer

A crystalline solid has a regular repeating lattice and a sharp melting point. An amorphous solid has no long-range order and softens over a range of temperature.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain the difference between elastic and plastic deformation in terms of atoms.
Answer

In elastic deformation the atoms are pulled slightly further apart but keep the same neighbours, so the material returns to its original length. In plastic deformation planes of atoms slip permanently over one another, so it does not.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why the resistance of a semiconductor falls as its temperature rises, while a metal's rises.
Answer

In a semiconductor, thermal energy lifts more electrons across the small band gap into the conduction band, so there are more charge carriers. In a metal the number of carriers is fixed, and heating makes the ions vibrate more so the electrons collide with them more often.

Q4[5 marks]
A copper wire of length 2.0 m and cross-sectional area 3.5 × 10⁻⁷ m² stretches by 1.8 mm under a load of 38 N. Find the stress, the strain and the Young modulus.
Mark scheme
  1. σ = F/A = 38 / 3.5 × 10⁻⁷[1]
  2. σ = 1.09 × 10⁸ Pa[1]
  3. ε = e/L = 1.8 × 10⁻³ / 2.0convert mm to m[1]
  4. ε = 9.0 × 10⁻⁴no units[1]
  5. E = σ/ε = 1.2 × 10¹¹ Paabout right for copper[1]

σ = 1.09 × 10⁸ Pa, ε = 9.0 × 10⁻⁴, E = 1.2 × 10¹¹ Pa

Q5[8 marks]
A student stretches a copper wire and a glass fibre until each breaks, plotting stress against strain for both.
  1. Sketch and describe the shape of each graph. [4]
  2. Identify which material is ductile and which is brittle, giving a reason. [2]
  3. Explain what the gradient of the straight section represents. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Copper: straight line at first, then curving over into a long plastic region before breaking[1]
  2. Copper reaches a maximum stress and then extends considerably before failure[1]
  3. Glass: straight line all the way[1]
  4. Glass breaks abruptly at the end of the straight line, with no plastic region[1]
  5. Copper is ductile — it has a long plastic region and can be drawn into wire[1]
  6. Glass is brittle — it breaks with almost no plastic deformation[1]
  7. The gradient is the Young modulus[1]
  8. It measures the stiffness of the material and is independent of the sample dimensions[1]

copper ductile with a long plastic region; glass brittle; gradient = Young modulus

Q6[5 marks]
Solids are classified as conductors, semiconductors or insulators by their band structure.
  1. Explain what is meant by a band gap. [2]
  2. Describe the band gap in each of the three classes. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. A range of energies that electrons in the solid are not allowed to have[1]
  2. It separates the valence band from the conduction band[1]
  3. Conductor: no gap — the bands overlap or the upper band is part-filled[1]
  4. Semiconductor: a small gap, about 1 eV, which some electrons cross at room temperature[1]
  5. Insulator: a large gap of several eV that electrons cannot cross at ordinary temperatures[1]

no gap / small gap / large gap

18

Electronics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1What happens to the resistance of a semiconductor as its temperature rises?

  1. AIt increases
  2. BIt decreases
  3. CIt stays the same
  4. DIt falls to zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It decreases

Heating frees more charge carriers, so more current can flow. A metal does the opposite, because its carrier count is fixed and the ions vibrate more.

Q2In n-type silicon, the majority charge carriers are:

  1. AHoles
  2. BProtons
  3. CFree electrons
  4. DNeutrons
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Free electrons

The added element has five outer electrons, leaving one spare per atom. The n stands for the negative carriers.

Q3A diode conducts when:

  1. AIt is reverse biased
  2. BIt is forward biased above about 0.7 V
  3. CThe temperature is low
  4. DEither way round
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It is forward biased above about 0.7 V

Forward bias narrows the depletion layer, but the applied voltage must still exceed roughly 0.7 V for silicon before current flows.

Q4Passing a.c. through a single diode produces:

  1. AFull-wave rectification
  2. BHalf-wave rectification
  3. CAmplification
  4. DNo output at all
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Half-wave rectification

Only the halves of the cycle in the forward direction get through. Full-wave rectification needs four diodes in a bridge.

Q5A transistor switches on when the base voltage exceeds roughly:

  1. A0.06 V
  2. B0.6 V
  3. C6 V
  4. D60 V
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0.6 V

About 0.6 V for a silicon transistor. Below that essentially no collector current flows.

Q6An AND gate outputs 1 when:

  1. AEither input is 1
  2. BBoth inputs are 1
  3. CBoth inputs are 0
  4. DThe inputs differ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Both inputs are 1

Only the 1,1 row gives output 1. "Either" would describe an OR gate; "differ" describes XOR.

Q7The output of a NOR gate is 1 only when:

  1. ABoth inputs are 1
  2. BBoth inputs are 0
  3. COne input is 1
  4. DNever
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Both inputs are 0

NOR is OR followed by NOT. OR gives 0 only for 0,0, so inverting makes that the single row where NOR gives 1.

Q8An alarm must sound if either of two sensors triggers. Which gate is needed?

  1. AAND
  2. BOR
  3. CNOT
  4. DNAND
Show answer

Correct answer: B — OR

The word "either" means one input being 1 is enough. An AND gate would fail to warn when only one sensor detected the danger.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what is meant by doping, and name the two types of semiconductor it produces.
Answer

Adding a small amount of another element to a pure semiconductor to change its conductivity. It produces n-type, where the carriers are free electrons, and p-type, where they are holes.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why the resistance of a semiconductor falls when it is heated, while that of a metal rises.
Answer

In a semiconductor, heat frees more charge carriers, so more current can flow. In a metal the number of carriers is fixed, and heating makes the ions vibrate more so the electrons collide with them more often.

Q3[2 marks]
State what happens to a diode when it is reverse biased, and give one use of this property.
Answer

The depletion layer widens and essentially no current flows. This one-way behaviour is used to rectify alternating current into direct current.

Q4[8 marks]
A student builds an automatic light that switches on when it gets dark, using an LDR, a fixed resistor, a transistor and a lamp.
  1. Explain how the LDR and fixed resistor form a potential divider. [2]
  2. Explain what happens to the voltage at the base as darkness falls. [3]
  3. Explain how the transistor uses that voltage to switch the lamp on. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The two components are in series across the supply[1]
  2. They share the supply voltage in proportion to their resistances[1]
  3. As it gets darker the resistance of the LDR increases[1]
  4. So the LDR takes a larger share of the supply voltage[1]
  5. The base voltage, taken across the LDR, therefore rises[1]
  6. When the base voltage exceeds about 0.6 V the transistor switches on[1]
  7. A small base current then allows a much larger collector current[1]
  8. That current flows through the lamp, lighting ita relay would be used for a mains lamp[1]
Q5[7 marks]
A fire alarm must sound if either a smoke sensor or a heat sensor detects danger. Each sensor outputs 1 when triggered.
  1. Name the gate required and give its truth table. [4]
  2. The design is changed so the alarm sounds only if BOTH sensors trigger. State the gate now needed and give one disadvantage of this design. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. An OR gate is required[1]
  2. Inputs 0,0 give output 0[1]
  3. Inputs 0,1 and 1,0 both give output 1[1]
  4. Inputs 1,1 give output 1[1]
  5. An AND gate would now be needed[1]
  6. The alarm would not sound if only one sensor detected the fire[1]
  7. A real fire could therefore be missed, so the design is less safe[1]

(a) OR gate (b) AND gate — but it fails to warn when only one sensor triggers

Q6[5 marks]
A single diode is used with a 9.0 V a.c. supply and a resistor.
  1. Sketch the shape of the output voltage across the resistor. [2]
  2. Name this process. [1]
  3. Explain how the output could be made smoother. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Only the positive halves of each cycle appear[1]
  2. The negative halves are missing, leaving gaps along the axis[1]
  3. Half-wave rectification[1]
  4. Add a capacitor in parallel with the resistor[1]
  5. It charges during each pulse and discharges through the gaps, holding the voltage upa four-diode bridge would also give full-wave rectification[1]
19

Dawn of Modern Physics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Below the threshold frequency, increasing the intensity of the light causes:

  1. AMore electrons
  2. BFaster electrons
  3. CNo emission at all
  4. DDelayed emission
Show answer

Correct answer: C — No emission at all

No photon carries enough energy to free an electron, so more of them changes nothing. This is what a wave model cannot explain.

Q2The energy of a photon depends on:

  1. AThe intensity
  2. BThe frequency
  3. CThe distance travelled
  4. DThe metal it hits
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The frequency

E = hf. Intensity sets how many photons arrive, not how much energy each carries.

Q3The work function of a metal is:

  1. AThe energy of one photon
  2. BThe minimum energy to remove an electron
  3. CThe kinetic energy of the electron
  4. DThe threshold wavelength
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The minimum energy to remove an electron

It is a property of the metal, which is why different metals have different threshold frequencies.

Q4Doubling the intensity of light above the threshold frequency doubles:

  1. AThe kinetic energy of each electron
  2. BThe number of electrons emitted
  3. CThe threshold frequency
  4. DThe work function
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The number of electrons emitted

Twice as many photons means twice as many electrons, each with the same maximum kinetic energy.

Q5The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by:

  1. Aλ = hf
  2. Bλ = h/p
  3. Cλ = hc
  4. Dλ = p/h
Show answer

Correct answer: Bλ = h/p

Wavelength is inversely proportional to momentum — more momentum, shorter wavelength.

Q6Electron diffraction demonstrates that:

  1. AElectrons have no mass
  2. BParticles can behave as waves
  3. CLight is a particle
  4. DElectrons are photons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Particles can behave as waves

Electrons are unquestionably particles, yet they produce a diffraction pattern — the direct evidence for de Broglie.

Q7A cricket ball shows no observable wave behaviour because:

  1. AIt is too heavy to move
  2. BIts de Broglie wavelength is far too small
  3. CIt has no momentum
  4. DIt is not charged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Its de Broglie wavelength is far too small

Around 10⁻³⁴ m — far smaller than any gap it could diffract through.

Q8Emission in the photoelectric effect is instantaneous because:

  1. ALight travels fast
  2. BOne photon transfers all its energy to one electron at once
  3. CThe metal is already hot
  4. DElectrons are very light
Show answer

Correct answer: B — One photon transfers all its energy to one electron at once

There is no waiting for energy to accumulate, which is exactly what a wave model would predict for dim light.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State two observations of the photoelectric effect that cannot be explained by a wave model of light.
Answer

No emission occurs below a threshold frequency, whatever the intensity. And emission is instantaneous even in very dim light, rather than requiring time for energy to build up.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why increasing the intensity of light above the threshold frequency does not increase the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons.
Answer

Greater intensity means more photons per second, but each photon still carries the same energy hf. One photon is absorbed by one electron, so the energy per electron is unchanged — only the number emitted rises.

Q3[2 marks]
State what is meant by the work function of a metal.
Answer

The minimum energy needed to remove an electron from the surface of the metal.

Q4[5 marks]
A metal has a work function of 3.2 eV. Light of frequency 1.2 × 10¹⁵ Hz falls on it. Find the photon energy in eV and the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons. Take h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s.
Mark scheme
  1. E = hf = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ × 1.2 × 10¹⁵[1]
  2. E = 7.96 × 10⁻¹⁹ J[1]
  3. Converts: 7.96 × 10⁻¹⁹ / 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ = 4.97 eV[1]
  4. Uses KE_max = hf − φ = 4.97 − 3.2[1]
  5. KE_max = 1.8 eV[1]

photon 4.97 eV, electrons up to 1.8 eV

Q5[8 marks]
Electrons are accelerated through a potential difference of 2500 V and directed at a thin graphite film.
  1. Calculate the kinetic energy gained by each electron, in joules. [2]
  2. Calculate their speed, taking the electron mass as 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg. [3]
  3. Calculate their de Broglie wavelength. [2]
  4. State what is observed on a screen beyond the film, and what it shows. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses KE = eV = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 2500[1]
  2. KE = 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁶ J[1]
  3. Uses KE = ½mv²[1]
  4. v² = 2 × 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁶ / 9.11 × 10⁻³¹[1]
  5. v = 3.0 × 10⁷ m s⁻¹[1]
  6. λ = h/mv = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ / (9.11 × 10⁻³¹ × 3.0 × 10⁷)[1]
  7. λ = 2.4 × 10⁻¹¹ mcomparable to atomic spacing, which is why diffraction is observable[1]
  8. A diffraction pattern of rings, showing that electrons behave as waves[1]

4.0 × 10⁻¹⁶ J, 3.0 × 10⁷ m s⁻¹, 2.4 × 10⁻¹¹ m, rings

Q6[5 marks]
Light is described as having a dual nature.
  1. State one phenomenon that shows light behaving as a wave, and one that shows it behaving as particles. [2]
  2. Explain why a cricket ball does not show observable wave behaviour. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Wave: interference or diffraction (for example the double-slit experiment)[1]
  2. Particle: the photoelectric effect, or line spectra[1]
  3. Its de Broglie wavelength is λ = h/mv[1]
  4. Its mass and speed are enormous compared with h, so λ is around 10⁻³⁴ m[1]
  5. That is far smaller than any gap it could pass through, so no diffraction is observable[1]

interference/diffraction for waves; photoelectric effect for particles

20

Atomic Spectra

Multiple choice · 8

Q1An electron in an atom can have:

  1. AAny energy
  2. BOnly certain discrete energies
  3. COnly positive energies
  4. DZero energy only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Only certain discrete energies

Discrete levels, with nothing in between. Continuous energies would give a continuous spectrum rather than lines.

Q2Energy levels are given negative values because:

  1. AElectrons have negative charge
  2. BZero is taken as the electron being free of the atom
  3. CThe nucleus is positive
  4. DOf a sign convention with no meaning
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero is taken as the electron being free of the atom

A bound electron has less energy than a free one, so its value is below zero.

Q3An emission spectrum consists of:

  1. ADark lines on a continuous background
  2. BBright lines on a dark background
  3. CA continuous rainbow
  4. DA single line
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Bright lines on a dark background

Excited electrons fall between fixed levels, emitting photons of fixed energies.

Q4A larger energy jump produces a photon of:

  1. ALonger wavelength
  2. BShorter wavelength
  3. CThe same wavelength
  4. DLower frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Shorter wavelength

ΔE = hf and λ = c/f. More energy means higher frequency and shorter wavelength.

Q5Dark lines in a star's spectrum are caused by:

  1. ASunspots
  2. BAbsorption by cooler gases in its atmosphere
  3. CDust between us and the star
  4. DGaps in the star's output
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Absorption by cooler gases in its atmosphere

Atoms there absorb exactly the wavelengths matching their energy gaps, removing them from the continuous beam.

Q6The ionisation energy of hydrogen is 13.6 eV. This is the energy needed to:

  1. AExcite the electron to the next level
  2. BRemove the electron completely
  3. CSplit the nucleus
  4. DEmit a photon
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Remove the electron completely

It lifts the electron from the −13.6 eV ground state to zero, which means free of the atom.

Q7A photon whose energy matches no gap between levels will:

  1. ABe partly absorbed
  2. BPass straight through
  3. CIonise the atom
  4. DBe reflected
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Pass straight through

Absorption is all or nothing — the atom cannot take part of a photon's energy.

Q8Line spectra are evidence that:

  1. AAtoms are indivisible
  2. BEnergy levels in atoms are discrete
  3. CLight is only a wave
  4. DElectrons orbit like planets
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Energy levels in atoms are discrete

Sharp lines require sharp levels. Continuous energies would give a continuous spectrum.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by an energy level in an atom.
Answer

One of a set of discrete energies that an electron in the atom is allowed to have. It cannot possess any energy between two levels.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why the emission spectrum of an element consists of sharp lines rather than a continuous band.
Answer

Electrons fall between fixed energy levels, so the energy differences take only certain values. Since ΔE = hf, only certain frequencies are emitted.

Q3[2 marks]
State why the dark lines in an absorption spectrum appear at the same wavelengths as the bright lines in the emission spectrum of the same element.
Answer

Both arise from the same set of energy gaps. Absorption lifts an electron across a gap and emission drops it back across the same gap, so the photon energies — and therefore the wavelengths — are identical.

Q4[5 marks]
An electron falls from an energy level of −1.5 eV to one of −5.4 eV. Calculate the energy of the emitted photon in joules, its frequency and its wavelength.
Mark scheme
  1. ΔE = −1.5 − (−5.4) = 3.9 eVpositive, since energy is released[1]
  2. Converts: 3.9 × 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ = 6.24 × 10⁻¹⁹ J[1]
  3. Uses f = ΔE/h = 6.24 × 10⁻¹⁹ / 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴[1]
  4. f = 9.4 × 10¹⁴ Hz[1]
  5. λ = c/f = 3.0 × 10⁸ / 9.4 × 10¹⁴ = 3.2 × 10⁻⁷ mjust into the ultraviolet[1]

6.24 × 10⁻¹⁹ J, 9.4 × 10¹⁴ Hz, 3.2 × 10⁻⁷ m

Q5[8 marks]
The spectrum of sunlight contains dark lines at particular wavelengths.
  1. Explain how these dark lines are produced. [4]
  2. Explain how they allow the elements present in the Sun to be identified. [2]
  3. State what the existence of line spectra shows about energy in atoms. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The hot interior of the Sun emits a continuous spectrum containing all wavelengths[1]
  2. This light passes outward through the cooler gases of the Sun's atmosphere[1]
  3. Atoms there absorb photons whose energy exactly matches a gap between their energy levels[1]
  4. Those wavelengths are removed from the beam, leaving dark lines[1]
  5. Each element has a unique set of energy levels and so a unique pattern of lines[1]
  6. Matching the observed pattern against laboratory spectra identifies the elements[1]
  7. That energy levels in atoms are discrete rather than continuous[1]
  8. And that light is emitted and absorbed in quanta of energy hf[1]

absorption by cooler outer gases; unique patterns identify elements

Q6[5 marks]
Hydrogen has a ground state at −13.6 eV and a first excited state at −3.4 eV.
  1. State what is meant by the ionisation energy of hydrogen and give its value. [2]
  2. Calculate the energy needed to excite an electron from the ground state to the first excited state. [1]
  3. Explain why a photon of 8.0 eV would not be absorbed by a hydrogen atom in the ground state. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The energy needed to remove the electron completely from the atom[1]
  2. 13.6 eV, since the level must be raised from −13.6 eV to zero[1]
  3. −3.4 − (−13.6) = 10.2 eV[1]
  4. Absorption occurs only if the photon energy matches a gap between levels exactly[1]
  5. 8.0 eV matches no gap from the ground state — the first is 10.2 eV — so the photon passes straight through[1]

13.6 eV; 10.2 eV; 8.0 eV matches no gap

21

Nuclear Physics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The mass of a nucleus compared with the total mass of its separate nucleons is:

  1. AGreater
  2. BLess
  3. CThe same
  4. DSometimes greater, sometimes less
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Less

Energy was released when it formed, and by E = mc² that came out of the mass.

Q2The binding energy of a nucleus is the energy:

  1. AReleased when it decays
  2. BNeeded to separate it into individual nucleons
  3. COf one emitted photon
  4. DStored in its electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Needed to separate it into individual nucleons

Equivalently, the energy released when it formed from separate nucleons.

Q3The nucleus with the highest binding energy per nucleon is:

  1. AHydrogen
  2. BIron-56
  3. CUranium-235
  4. DHelium-4
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Iron-56

Iron sits at the peak of the curve, which is why it is the most stable nucleus and why stellar fusion stops there.

Q4Fusion releases energy for nuclei that are:

  1. AHeavier than iron
  2. BLighter than iron
  3. CExactly iron
  4. DAny nucleus
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Lighter than iron

Joining light nuclei moves the product up the curve. Above iron it is fission that releases energy.

Q5The moderator in a fission reactor:

  1. AAbsorbs neutrons
  2. BSlows neutrons down
  3. CProvides the fuel
  4. DCools the reactor
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Slows neutrons down

Slow neutrons are much more readily absorbed by uranium-235. Absorbing neutrons is the control rods' job.

Q6Control rods are made of boron or cadmium because these materials:

  1. ASlow neutrons
  2. BAbsorb neutrons
  3. CReflect neutrons
  4. DProduce neutrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Absorb neutrons

Pushing them in absorbs more neutrons and slows the reaction; withdrawing them speeds it up.

Q7A typical fission of uranium-235 releases about:

  1. A2 eV
  2. B200 MeV
  3. C200 eV
  4. D2 J
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 200 MeV

About 200 MeV — some hundred million times a chemical reaction per atom.

Q8The main obstacle to fusion power is:

  1. ALack of fuel
  2. BContaining a plasma at millions of kelvin
  3. CRadioactive waste
  4. DIt releases too little energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Containing a plasma at millions of kelvin

Fuel is abundant and the waste is helium. The difficulty is overcoming electrostatic repulsion and confining the plasma.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by the mass defect of a nucleus.
Answer

The difference between the total mass of the separate nucleons and the mass of the assembled nucleus. The nucleus is lighter, because energy was released when it formed.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why binding energy per nucleon, rather than total binding energy, is used to compare nuclei.
Answer

Total binding energy simply grows with the number of nucleons. Dividing by that number gives a fair measure of how tightly each nucleon is held, and therefore of stability.

Q3[2 marks]
State the purpose of the moderator and of the control rods in a fission reactor.
Answer

The moderator slows fast neutrons down, because slow neutrons are much more readily absorbed and sustain the chain reaction. The control rods absorb neutrons, and are moved to keep the reaction steady.

Q4[5 marks]
A helium-4 nucleus has a mass defect of 0.0304 u. Calculate its total binding energy in MeV and the binding energy per nucleon. Take 1 u = 931.5 MeV.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = Δm × 931.5[1]
  2. E = 0.0304 × 931.5[1]
  3. E = 28.3 MeV[1]
  4. Divides by the 4 nucleons[1]
  5. = 7.1 MeV per nucleonhigh for such a light nucleus, which is why helium is so stable[1]

28.3 MeV total, 7.1 MeV per nucleon

Q5[8 marks]
The graph of binding energy per nucleon against nucleon number rises to a peak near iron-56 and then falls.
  1. Explain what the peak tells you about iron-56. [2]
  2. Explain, using the graph, why fusion releases energy for light nuclei and fission for heavy ones. [4]
  3. Explain why fusion in a star stops once the core is iron. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Iron-56 has the greatest binding energy per nucleon[1]
  2. So it is the most stable nucleus[1]
  3. Joining light nuclei produces a nucleus higher on the curve[1]
  4. The products are more tightly bound, so energy is released[1]
  5. Splitting a heavy nucleus produces fragments higher on the curve[1]
  6. Again the products are more tightly bound, so energy is released[1]
  7. Fusing iron would produce nuclei lower on the curve, which absorbs energy rather than releasing it[1]
  8. With no energy released, the outward pressure supporting the star fails and the core collapses[1]

iron is most stable; both processes move products up the curve; fusing iron would absorb energy

Q6[6 marks]
Compare nuclear fission and nuclear fusion as sources of electrical power.
  1. State one advantage of fusion over fission. [2]
  2. Explain the main difficulty in building a fusion reactor. [3]
  3. State which process is used in power stations today. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Fusion produces no long-lived radioactive waste — the product is helium[1]
  2. And its fuel, hydrogen isotopes, is effectively unlimitedeither point, developed[1]
  3. Both nuclei are positively charged and repel strongly[1]
  4. They must be brought close enough for the strong nuclear force to act, needing temperatures of millions of kelvin[1]
  5. At those temperatures the plasma cannot touch any container, so it must be confined magnetically, and holding it stable long enough to gain net energy is unsolved[1]
  6. Fission[1]

fusion: no long-lived waste, unlimited fuel; difficulty is containment at millions of kelvin; fission is used today

These questions come from the 2nd Year Physics lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.