Q1The s-block consists of:
- AGroups 1 and 2
- BGroups 17 and 18
- Cthe transition metals
- DGroups 13–16
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Groups 1 and 2
The s-block is Groups 1 (alkali metals) and 2 (alkaline earth metals) — outer electrons in s orbitals.
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Q1The s-block consists of:
Correct answer: A — Groups 1 and 2
The s-block is Groups 1 (alkali metals) and 2 (alkaline earth metals) — outer electrons in s orbitals.
Q2Reactivity of Group 1 metals down the group:
Correct answer: B — increases
The outer electron is further out and more shielded lower down, so it is lost more easily — more reactive.
Q3Group 1 more reactive than Group 2 (same period) because it:
Correct answer: B — loses one electron rather than two
Losing a single outer electron requires less energy than losing two, so Group 1 reacts more readily.
Q4Sodium in water produces:
Correct answer: B — sodium hydroxide + hydrogen
Group 1 metals react with water to give a hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Q5A lilac flame colour indicates the presence of:
Correct answer: B — potassium
Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow and calcium brick-red.
Q6The diagonal relationship links lithium most closely with:
Correct answer: B — magnesium
Lithium resembles magnesium (diagonally below-right) because of their similar charge densities.
Q7The flame colour of potassium is:
Correct answer: B — lilac
Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow, calcium brick-red, barium green.
Q8Down Group 2, the carbonates become:
Correct answer: B — more thermally stable
Larger cations polarise the carbonate ion less, so the carbonates need more heat to decompose — more stable.
Reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.
It floats, melts into a ball, fizzes and moves around, giving off hydrogen: 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂.
Thermal stability increases down the group. The cations get larger with less charge density, so they polarise/distort the carbonate ion less, making it harder to decompose.
Mg very slow with cold water, Ca reacts readily; Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂; reactivity rises down the group (electrons lost more easily).
Down the group the cations get larger and have lower charge density, so they polarise (distort) the nitrate ion less. The nitrate is therefore harder to break down, so a higher temperature is needed and thermal stability increases.
Reactivity rises down Group 2 (outer electrons lost more easily); hydroxides get more soluble, sulfates less soluble.
Q1A transition element is best defined as one that:
Correct answer: B — forms an ion with a partially filled d subshell
The defining feature is a partially filled d subshell in at least one of its ions.
Q2Transition metals show variable oxidation states because their:
Correct answer: A — 4s and 3d electrons are close in energy
The small 4s/3d energy gap lets different numbers of electrons be lost, giving several stable ions.
Q3Transition-metal compounds are usually coloured because the d orbitals:
Correct answer: B — absorb specific visible wavelengths
Partly filled d orbitals absorb particular wavelengths of visible light (d–d transitions), so the compound looks coloured.
Q4A ligand in a complex ion is a species that:
Correct answer: B — donates a lone pair to the central metal ion
Ligands (e.g. water, ammonia, chloride) bond to the central metal ion by donating a lone pair.
Q5Iron acts as a catalyst in the:
Correct answer: B — Haber process
Iron catalyses the Haber process; vanadium(V) oxide catalyses the Contact process.
Q6Sodium forms only Na⁺ but iron forms Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ because iron:
Correct answer: B — has 4s and 3d electrons of similar energy
The close energies of iron's 4s and 3d electrons make more than one oxidation state accessible.
Q7In a complex ion, the bond between a ligand and the central metal is a:
Correct answer: B — dative (coordinate) covalent bond
The ligand donates a lone pair to the metal, forming a dative (coordinate) covalent bond.
Q8Transition-metal compounds are coloured because of:
Correct answer: B — d–d electron transitions
Splitting of the d-orbitals lets a d-electron absorb visible light (a d–d transition), producing colour.
They form ions with more than one oxidation state, form coloured compounds, and act as catalysts (any three; also high melting points/densities).
Iron in the Haber process (or vanadium(V) oxide in the Contact process, or nickel in hydrogenation).
The d-orbitals split into different energy levels; a d-electron absorbs certain wavelengths of visible light to move between them, and the transmitted/reflected light gives the colour.
Cu⁺ and Cu²⁺ (Cu²⁺ blue); complex = metal ion + ligands (dative bonds); excess NH₃ gives pale blue ppt then deep blue solution.
A pale blue precipitate of copper(II) hydroxide forms first, then dissolves in excess ammonia to give a deep blue solution as water ligands are replaced by ammonia ligands (ligand exchange), changing the colour.
Variable states: close 3d/4s energies; colour: d–d transitions absorbing visible light; catalysis: easy change of oxidation state, e.g. iron in the Haber process.
Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:
Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula
Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.
Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:
Correct answer: B — functional group
The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.
Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:
Correct answer: B — structural isomers
Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.
Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:
Correct answer: B — free radicals
An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.
Q5A nucleophile is a species that:
Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.
Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.
Correct answer: B — addition
Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.
Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:
Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.
Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:
Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation
Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.
Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?
Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH
Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.
Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:
Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide
Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.
Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.
Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).
In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.
Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.
But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.
Nucleophile = electron-pair donor, electrophile = acceptor; Br₂/ethene = electrophilic addition; OH⁻/bromoethane = nucleophilic substitution.
Ethene → ethanol (steam + acid catalyst) → ethanoic acid (oxidise with acidified dichromate, reflux); bromoethane + KCN → propanenitrile (adds a carbon).
Q1The carbon–carbon bonds in benzene are:
Correct answer: B — all identical, between single and double
Delocalisation makes all six C–C bonds equivalent, intermediate between single and double.
Q2Benzene is more stable than expected because its electrons are:
Correct answer: B — delocalised around the ring
The delocalised ring of electrons lowers benzene's energy — aromatic stability.
Q3Benzene's characteristic reaction is electrophilic:
Correct answer: B — substitution
Substitution replaces a hydrogen and keeps the stable aromatic ring intact.
Q4Nitration of benzene uses:
Correct answer: B — concentrated HNO₃ and H₂SO₄
Concentrated nitric and sulfuric acids generate the NO₂⁺ electrophile, giving nitrobenzene.
Q5Benzene resists addition reactions because addition would:
Correct answer: B — destroy its stable delocalised ring
Adding across the ring would break the aromatic delocalisation, which is energetically unfavourable.
Q6Compared with an alkene, benzene is:
Correct answer: B — less reactive toward addition
Its aromatic stability makes benzene much less prone to addition than a reactive alkene double bond.
Q7The driving force for benzene undergoing substitution rather than addition is:
Correct answer: B — restoring the stable delocalised ring
Substitution keeps (restores) the stable aromatic ring; addition would destroy it.
Q8Compared with benzene, phenol is:
Correct answer: B — more reactive toward electrophiles
The –OH lone pair feeds electron density into the ring, making phenol more reactive than benzene.
A ring of six carbons with six delocalised electrons spread above and below the ring; all six C–C bonds are identical, between single and double.
Addition would destroy the stable delocalised ring; substitution replaces a hydrogen and preserves the aromatic stability.
Concentrated nitric acid with concentrated sulfuric acid (generating NO₂⁺) gives nitrobenzene, by electrophilic substitution.
Delocalisation lowers benzene's energy (extra stability); chlorination needs Cl₂ + AlCl₃/FeCl₃; no localised C=C means no addition, so bromine water is not decolourised.
Concentrated sulfuric acid protonates concentrated nitric acid, which loses water to form the nitronium ion, NO₂⁺. This electrophile substitutes onto the ring, so the reaction is electrophilic substitution.
Benzene substitutes to keep its stable ring; phenol is more reactive (–OH lone pair enriches the ring) and decolourises bromine water, forming a white precipitate.
Q1The reactive site of a haloalkane is the carbon bonded to the halogen because it is:
Correct answer: B — slightly positive (δ+)
The polar C–X bond leaves that carbon electron-poor (δ+), attracting nucleophiles.
Q2Reacting bromoethane with warm aqueous NaOH gives:
Correct answer: B — ethanol
Aqueous hydroxide substitutes for the bromine — nucleophilic substitution to ethanol.
Q3Hot ethanolic NaOH with a haloalkane favours:
Correct answer: B — elimination (to an alkene)
Hot alcoholic base removes HX, forming a double bond — elimination.
Q4A secondary amine has how many carbon groups on nitrogen?
Correct answer: B — two
Primary = 1, secondary = 2, tertiary = 3 carbon groups on the nitrogen.
Q5Amines act as bases because the nitrogen:
Correct answer: B — has a lone pair that accepts H⁺
Nitrogen's lone pair accepts a proton, so amines are proton acceptors — bases.
Q6Reacting a haloalkane with ammonia produces a(n):
Correct answer: B — amine
Ammonia's lone pair substitutes onto the carbon, displacing the halogen to form an amine.
Q7Reacting a haloalkane with potassium cyanide produces a nitrile, which is useful because it:
Correct answer: B — adds a carbon atom to the chain
The CN group adds one carbon, lengthening the carbon chain.
Q8Which haloalkane undergoes nucleophilic substitution fastest?
Correct answer: C — iodoethane
The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.
Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:
Correct answer: B — SN2
The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.
Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:
Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate
In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.
The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.
Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).
The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).
→ ethene: hot alcoholic KOH, elimination; → ethylamine: excess ammonia, nucleophilic substitution.
The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).
OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.
SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).
Q1A primary alcohol is fully oxidised to a:
Correct answer: B — carboxylic acid
Primary → aldehyde → carboxylic acid; secondary stops at a ketone; tertiary does not oxidise.
Q2A secondary alcohol oxidises to a:
Correct answer: B — ketone
Secondary alcohols oxidise to ketones and no further.
Q3A tertiary alcohol warmed with acidified dichromate:
Correct answer: B — does not react (stays orange)
There is no hydrogen on the OH carbon to remove, so it resists oxidation and the dichromate stays orange.
Q4Alcohols have relatively high boiling points because they:
Correct answer: B — hydrogen-bond
The O–H group forms hydrogen bonds between molecules, raising the boiling point.
Q5Phenol differs from an ordinary alcohol in that it is:
Correct answer: B — weakly acidic
The benzene ring stabilises the anion, so phenol loses H⁺ and is weakly acidic (reacts with NaOH).
Q6An alcohol reacting with a carboxylic acid forms an:
Correct answer: B — ester (+ water)
Esterification gives a sweet-smelling ester and water.
Q7Dehydrating ethanol over a hot catalyst produces:
Correct answer: B — ethene
Dehydration removes water from the alcohol, forming the alkene ethene by elimination.
Q8Which reagent reacts with a carboxylic acid but NOT with phenol?
Correct answer: B — sodium carbonate
A carboxylic acid is strong enough to fizz with a carbonate; phenol is too weak, so carbonate distinguishes them.
Secondary — the carbon bearing the –OH group is attached to two other carbon atoms.
First an aldehyde, then on further oxidation a carboxylic acid; the dichromate turns from orange to green.
When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring, stabilising the ion, so H⁺ is released. Ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺.
1° → aldehyde/acid, 2° → ketone, 3° → no reaction (orange→green for the first two); tertiary resists because there is no H on the OH carbon.
Hydration is a fast, continuous process that gives pure ethanol directly, whereas fermentation is slow, works in batches and produces a dilute impure mixture that must be distilled.
Phenol is acidic because the ring stabilises the phenoxide ion; ethanol's is not. Sodium carbonate fizzes with a carboxylic acid but not with phenol.
Q1In a ketone, the carbonyl group is:
Correct answer: B — in the middle, between two carbon groups
A ketone has C=O in the middle (R–CO–R); an aldehyde has it at the end (–CHO).
Q2The characteristic reaction of aldehydes and ketones is nucleophilic:
Correct answer: B — addition
The polar C=O has a δ+ carbon that nucleophiles add to — nucleophilic addition.
Q3Which is readily oxidised to a carboxylic acid?
Correct answer: B — an aldehyde
Aldehydes have a terminal C–H and oxidise to acids; ketones resist oxidation.
Q4A silver mirror with Tollens' reagent indicates a(n):
Correct answer: B — aldehyde
Only an aldehyde reduces the silver ions to a silver mirror.
Q5Fehling's solution with a ketone:
Correct answer: B — stays blue
Ketones do not reduce Fehling's, so it stays blue; aldehydes give a brick-red precipitate.
Q6Reducing a ketone gives a:
Correct answer: B — secondary alcohol
A ketone reduces to a secondary alcohol (the reverse of secondary-alcohol oxidation).
Q7Adding HCN to propanone is an example of:
Correct answer: B — nucleophilic addition
The cyanide nucleophile adds to the δ+ carbonyl carbon — nucleophilic addition, giving a hydroxynitrile.
Q8An orange precipitate with 2,4-DNPH but no reaction with Tollens' reagent indicates a:
Correct answer: B — ketone
2,4-DNPH confirms a carbonyl; no silver mirror with Tollens' means it is a ketone, not an aldehyde.
Q9The functional group of a carboxylic acid is:
Correct answer: C — –COOH
The carboxyl group –COOH (a carbonyl plus a hydroxyl on one carbon) defines carboxylic acids.
Q10Carboxylic acids are:
Correct answer: B — weak acids
They only partly ionise in water — weak acids — though the stabilised carboxylate makes them acidic at all.
Q11A carboxylic acid added to a carbonate produces:
Correct answer: B — salt + water + carbon dioxide
Acid + carbonate → salt + water + CO₂; the fizz (CO₂) confirms a carboxylic acid.
Q12Esterification combines a carboxylic acid with a(n):
Correct answer: B — alcohol
Acid + alcohol (with an acid catalyst) → ester + water.
Q13Esters are best known for their:
Correct answer: B — sweet, fruity smells
Esters have pleasant fruity smells and are used as flavourings and perfumes.
Q14Why is a carboxylic acid acidic but an alcohol is not?
Correct answer: B — the carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation
Spreading the negative charge over both oxygens stabilises the ion, so the H⁺ is lost more readily.
Q15The most reactive derivative of a carboxylic acid, used to make the others, is the:
Correct answer: C — acyl chloride
Acyl chlorides are the most reactive derivative and are used to prepare esters and amides.
Q16Boiling a fat with sodium hydroxide to make soap is called:
Correct answer: B — saponification
Alkaline hydrolysis of a fat (an ester) to make soap is saponification.
Both contain the carbonyl group C=O; in an aldehyde it is at the end of the chain (–CHO), in a ketone it is in the middle, bonded to two carbon groups.
Warm with Tollens' reagent: an aldehyde forms a silver mirror; a ketone gives no change.
Reduction (e.g. with NaBH₄) gives propan-1-ol; the carbonyl C=O is reduced to a C–OH group (a primary alcohol).
Aldehyde → brick-red precipitate with Fehling's; ketone → stays blue; carbonyl undergoes nucleophilic addition at its δ+ carbon.
Reduction (e.g. with NaBH₄): propanal (an aldehyde) gives propan-1-ol (a primary alcohol); propanone (a ketone) gives propan-2-ol (a secondary alcohol).
2,4-DNPH gives an orange precipitate with both (carbonyl present); Tollens' gives a silver mirror only with the aldehyde.
The carboxyl group, –COOH; carboxylic acids are weak acids (only partly ionised in water).
Sodium ethanoate, water and carbon dioxide are formed; effervescence (fizzing) is seen.
When a carboxylic acid loses H⁺, the negative charge on the carboxylate ion is delocalised over both oxygen atoms, stabilising it; an alcohol's anion is not stabilised in this way.
Esterification → ethyl ethanoate; CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O; H₂SO₄ is the catalyst; esters used as flavourings/perfumes/solvents.
Propyl ethanoate, formed with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst (which also removes water).
CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O (conc. H₂SO₄); acid hydrolysis → acid + alcohol; alkaline hydrolysis → sodium ethanoate + ethanol.
Q1The reactive site of a haloalkane is the carbon bonded to the halogen because it is:
Correct answer: B — slightly positive (δ+)
The polar C–X bond leaves that carbon electron-poor (δ+), attracting nucleophiles.
Q2Reacting bromoethane with warm aqueous NaOH gives:
Correct answer: B — ethanol
Aqueous hydroxide substitutes for the bromine — nucleophilic substitution to ethanol.
Q3Hot ethanolic NaOH with a haloalkane favours:
Correct answer: B — elimination (to an alkene)
Hot alcoholic base removes HX, forming a double bond — elimination.
Q4A secondary amine has how many carbon groups on nitrogen?
Correct answer: B — two
Primary = 1, secondary = 2, tertiary = 3 carbon groups on the nitrogen.
Q5Amines act as bases because the nitrogen:
Correct answer: B — has a lone pair that accepts H⁺
Nitrogen's lone pair accepts a proton, so amines are proton acceptors — bases.
Q6Reacting a haloalkane with ammonia produces a(n):
Correct answer: B — amine
Ammonia's lone pair substitutes onto the carbon, displacing the halogen to form an amine.
Q7Reacting a haloalkane with potassium cyanide produces a nitrile, which is useful because it:
Correct answer: B — adds a carbon atom to the chain
The CN group adds one carbon, lengthening the carbon chain.
Q8Which haloalkane undergoes nucleophilic substitution fastest?
Correct answer: C — iodoethane
The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.
Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:
Correct answer: B — SN2
The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.
Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:
Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate
In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.
The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.
Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).
The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).
→ ethene: hot alcoholic KOH, elimination; → ethylamine: excess ammonia, nucleophilic substitution.
The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).
OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.
SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).
Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:
Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula
Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.
Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:
Correct answer: B — functional group
The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.
Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:
Correct answer: B — structural isomers
Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.
Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:
Correct answer: B — free radicals
An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.
Q5A nucleophile is a species that:
Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.
Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.
Correct answer: B — addition
Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.
Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:
Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.
Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:
Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation
Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.
Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?
Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH
Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.
Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:
Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide
Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.
Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.
Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).
In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.
Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.
But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.
Nucleophile = electron-pair donor, electrophile = acceptor; Br₂/ethene = electrophilic addition; OH⁻/bromoethane = nucleophilic substitution.
Ethene → ethanol (steam + acid catalyst) → ethanoic acid (oxidise with acidified dichromate, reflux); bromoethane + KCN → propanenitrile (adds a carbon).
Q1The building blocks of proteins are:
Correct answer: B — amino acids
Amino acids join by peptide bonds into protein chains; monosaccharides build carbohydrates and fatty acids build lipids.
Q2Which is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?
Correct answer: B — Starch
Starch stores energy in plants; cellulose (also a polysaccharide) is structural, and glucose is the monosaccharide unit.
Q3A protein loses its function when heated strongly because it:
Correct answer: B — denatures (loses its shape)
Heat unfolds the protein's precise shape — denaturing — and the shape is what its function depends on.
Q4Lipids differ from carbohydrates in that they:
Correct answer: A — store more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
Fats and oils pack more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are water-insoluble; they also form membranes and insulation.
Q5An enzyme is best described as a:
Correct answer: B — biological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
Enzymes are protein catalysts, each shaped to fit one substrate (lock and key), speeding a reaction without being used up.
Q6Enzyme activity falls sharply far from its optimum pH because the enzyme:
Correct answer: B — denatures
As a protein, an extreme pH unfolds (denatures) the enzyme, destroying the shape it needs to work.
Q7Monomers join to form a polymer in a reaction that releases water. This is:
Correct answer: B — condensation
Condensation joins monomers and releases a small molecule such as water; hydrolysis is the reverse.
Q8A brick-red precipitate on warming with Benedict's solution shows the presence of:
Correct answer: C — a reducing sugar
Benedict's solution turns from blue to brick-red with a reducing sugar such as glucose.
Q9An amino acid normally exists as a zwitterion because:
Correct answer: B — a proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
The acidic –COOH donates a proton to the basic –NH₂, giving a species with + and − charges but no net charge.
Q10At a pH below its isoelectric point, an amino acid will be:
Correct answer: B — positively charged
In more acidic conditions it gains H⁺ on the –COO⁻, giving an overall positive charge.
Carbohydrates (from simple sugars), proteins (from amino acids) and fats/lipids (from fatty acids and glycerol).
Add biuret reagent (sodium hydroxide then copper(II) sulfate solution); a positive result is a colour change from blue to purple/violet.
Starch is broken down (hydrolysed) into simple sugars such as glucose. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up this reaction at body temperature, which would otherwise be far too slow.
Catalyst = speeds a reaction without being used up; activity rises to an optimum then falls as the enzyme denatures (active site changes shape).
Condensation joins two monomers together and releases a small molecule (usually water), building a polymer. Hydrolysis is the reverse: it adds water to split a polymer back into its monomers, as in digestion.
Starch → iodine blue-black; protein → biuret purple; lipid → cloudy emulsion (ethanol then water).
A zwitterion is an amino acid that has transferred a proton internally from its –COOH to its –NH₂, giving –NH₃⁺ and –COO⁻ ends and no overall charge. It can accept H⁺ (onto –COO⁻) in acid and donate H⁺ (from –NH₃⁺) in alkali, so it resists pH change — acting as a buffer.
Q1The building blocks of proteins are:
Correct answer: B — amino acids
Amino acids join by peptide bonds into protein chains; monosaccharides build carbohydrates and fatty acids build lipids.
Q2Which is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?
Correct answer: B — Starch
Starch stores energy in plants; cellulose (also a polysaccharide) is structural, and glucose is the monosaccharide unit.
Q3A protein loses its function when heated strongly because it:
Correct answer: B — denatures (loses its shape)
Heat unfolds the protein's precise shape — denaturing — and the shape is what its function depends on.
Q4Lipids differ from carbohydrates in that they:
Correct answer: A — store more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
Fats and oils pack more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are water-insoluble; they also form membranes and insulation.
Q5An enzyme is best described as a:
Correct answer: B — biological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
Enzymes are protein catalysts, each shaped to fit one substrate (lock and key), speeding a reaction without being used up.
Q6Enzyme activity falls sharply far from its optimum pH because the enzyme:
Correct answer: B — denatures
As a protein, an extreme pH unfolds (denatures) the enzyme, destroying the shape it needs to work.
Q7Monomers join to form a polymer in a reaction that releases water. This is:
Correct answer: B — condensation
Condensation joins monomers and releases a small molecule such as water; hydrolysis is the reverse.
Q8A brick-red precipitate on warming with Benedict's solution shows the presence of:
Correct answer: C — a reducing sugar
Benedict's solution turns from blue to brick-red with a reducing sugar such as glucose.
Q9An amino acid normally exists as a zwitterion because:
Correct answer: B — a proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
The acidic –COOH donates a proton to the basic –NH₂, giving a species with + and − charges but no net charge.
Q10At a pH below its isoelectric point, an amino acid will be:
Correct answer: B — positively charged
In more acidic conditions it gains H⁺ on the –COO⁻, giving an overall positive charge.
Carbohydrates (from simple sugars), proteins (from amino acids) and fats/lipids (from fatty acids and glycerol).
Add biuret reagent (sodium hydroxide then copper(II) sulfate solution); a positive result is a colour change from blue to purple/violet.
Starch is broken down (hydrolysed) into simple sugars such as glucose. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up this reaction at body temperature, which would otherwise be far too slow.
Catalyst = speeds a reaction without being used up; activity rises to an optimum then falls as the enzyme denatures (active site changes shape).
Condensation joins two monomers together and releases a small molecule (usually water), building a polymer. Hydrolysis is the reverse: it adds water to split a polymer back into its monomers, as in digestion.
Starch → iodine blue-black; protein → biuret purple; lipid → cloudy emulsion (ethanol then water).
A zwitterion is an amino acid that has transferred a proton internally from its –COOH to its –NH₂, giving –NH₃⁺ and –COO⁻ ends and no overall charge. It can accept H⁺ (onto –COO⁻) in acid and donate H⁺ (from –NH₃⁺) in alkali, so it resists pH change — acting as a buffer.
Q1A pure substance, unlike a mixture, melts:
Correct answer: B — sharply at one fixed temperature
A sharp, fixed melting point is the practical test of purity; mixtures melt over a range.
Q2To separate sand from water you would use:
Correct answer: B — filtration
Sand is insoluble, so filtration catches it on the paper while the water passes through.
Q3To get pure water from seawater you would use:
Correct answer: B — simple distillation
Distillation boils off the water and condenses it, leaving the dissolved salts behind.
Q4An Rf value is always:
Correct answer: B — between 0 and 1
A substance cannot travel further than the solvent, so distance ratio Rf lies between 0 and 1.
Q5Which gas relights a glowing splint?
Correct answer: C — Oxygen
Oxygen relights a glowing splint; hydrogen gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint.
Q6Limewater turning milky is the test for:
Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide
Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky — the standard CO₂ test.
Q7A white precipitate forms when barium chloride and dilute acid are added to a solution. The ion present is:
Correct answer: C — sulfate
Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate — the test for a sulfate ion.
Q8A cream precipitate with silver nitrate indicates a:
Correct answer: B — bromide
Silver bromide is cream (chloride is white, iodide is yellow).
By simple distillation: heat the solution so water boils off, then condense the vapour back to liquid; the salt remains behind.
A pure substance produces a single spot on the chromatogram; a mixture separates into two or more spots.
The Rf value is the ratio of the distance moved by the spot to the distance moved by the solvent front. Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent.
Dissolve, filter (sand = residue), wash and dry it; evaporate the filtrate to crystallisation, cool, filter and dry the crystals.
Dip a clean wire in the salt and hold it in a blue flame: sodium gives a yellow flame, potassium gives a lilac flame.
Fe²⁺: NaOH gives a green precipitate. SO₄²⁻: acid + barium chloride gives a white precipitate.
Q1In a mass spectrum, the relative molecular mass is given by the:
Correct answer: B — molecular ion peak (highest m/z)
The molecular ion M⁺, at the highest m/z ignoring isotope peaks, equals the relative molecular mass.
Q2Two peaks two m/z units apart in a roughly 3:1 ratio indicate the presence of:
Correct answer: B — chlorine
Chlorine's ³⁵Cl and ³⁷Cl isotopes (about 3:1) give M and M+2 peaks in that ratio; bromine gives ~1:1.
Q3A strong infrared absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a:
Correct answer: B — C=O group
The carbonyl group C=O absorbs strongly around 1680–1750 cm⁻¹.
Q4A broad infrared absorption around 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ suggests a(n):
Correct answer: B — O–H group
A broad band at 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ is characteristic of the O–H of alcohols and carboxylic acids.
Q5The number of peaks in a ¹H NMR spectrum tells you the number of:
Correct answer: B — different hydrogen environments
Each set of equivalent hydrogens (one environment) gives one signal.
Q6A ¹H NMR peak split into a triplet indicates how many hydrogens on the neighbouring carbon?
Correct answer: B — two
By the n+1 rule, a triplet (3 lines) means n = 2 neighbouring hydrogens.
Q7In thin-layer chromatography, the Rf value is:
Correct answer: B — distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent
Rf compares how far the spot moved with how far the solvent front moved; it is between 0 and 1.
Q8To identify an unknown organic compound fully, a chemist typically uses:
Correct answer: D — mass spec, IR and NMR together
Each technique gives different information; combined, they pin down the structure.
The mass/charge value of the molecular ion peak (highest m/z, ignoring isotope peaks) gives the relative molecular mass of the compound.
It identifies bonds/functional groups present; for example a strong absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a C=O group (or a broad band ~3300 cm⁻¹ indicates O–H).
Number of peaks = number of different hydrogen environments; integration (area) = the ratio of hydrogens in each environment; splitting = the number of hydrogens on neighbouring carbons (n+1 lines for n neighbours).
Mr = 46; O–H group present; three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH) → X is ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH.
Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent = 3.6 ÷ 4.8 = 0.75.
Mr = 60; C=O + O–H (carboxylic acid); two H environments → X is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH.
Q1In a mass spectrum, the relative molecular mass is given by the:
Correct answer: B — molecular ion peak (highest m/z)
The molecular ion M⁺, at the highest m/z ignoring isotope peaks, equals the relative molecular mass.
Q2Two peaks two m/z units apart in a roughly 3:1 ratio indicate the presence of:
Correct answer: B — chlorine
Chlorine's ³⁵Cl and ³⁷Cl isotopes (about 3:1) give M and M+2 peaks in that ratio; bromine gives ~1:1.
Q3A strong infrared absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a:
Correct answer: B — C=O group
The carbonyl group C=O absorbs strongly around 1680–1750 cm⁻¹.
Q4A broad infrared absorption around 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ suggests a(n):
Correct answer: B — O–H group
A broad band at 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ is characteristic of the O–H of alcohols and carboxylic acids.
Q5The number of peaks in a ¹H NMR spectrum tells you the number of:
Correct answer: B — different hydrogen environments
Each set of equivalent hydrogens (one environment) gives one signal.
Q6A ¹H NMR peak split into a triplet indicates how many hydrogens on the neighbouring carbon?
Correct answer: B — two
By the n+1 rule, a triplet (3 lines) means n = 2 neighbouring hydrogens.
Q7In thin-layer chromatography, the Rf value is:
Correct answer: B — distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent
Rf compares how far the spot moved with how far the solvent front moved; it is between 0 and 1.
Q8To identify an unknown organic compound fully, a chemist typically uses:
Correct answer: D — mass spec, IR and NMR together
Each technique gives different information; combined, they pin down the structure.
The mass/charge value of the molecular ion peak (highest m/z, ignoring isotope peaks) gives the relative molecular mass of the compound.
It identifies bonds/functional groups present; for example a strong absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a C=O group (or a broad band ~3300 cm⁻¹ indicates O–H).
Number of peaks = number of different hydrogen environments; integration (area) = the ratio of hydrogens in each environment; splitting = the number of hydrogens on neighbouring carbons (n+1 lines for n neighbours).
Mr = 46; O–H group present; three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH) → X is ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH.
Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent = 3.6 ÷ 4.8 = 0.75.
Mr = 60; C=O + O–H (carboxylic acid); two H environments → X is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH.
Q1ΔH for an exothermic reaction is:
Correct answer: B — negative
Exothermic reactions release heat, so the enthalpy change is negative.
Q2Hess's law works because enthalpy is:
Correct answer: B — a state function (route-independent)
Enthalpy depends only on start and end states, so the total ΔH is independent of the path.
Q3The standard enthalpy of formation of O₂(g) is:
Correct answer: B — zero
An element in its standard state has ΔHf° = 0 by definition.
Q4In q = mcΔT, c is the:
Correct answer: B — specific heat capacity
c is the specific heat capacity — the heat needed to raise 1 g of the substance by 1 °C.
Q5If a reaction has ΔH = −200 kJ, the reverse reaction has ΔH =
Correct answer: B — +200 kJ
Reversing a reaction reverses the sign of its enthalpy change.
Q6Heat released warms 200 g of water by 10 °C (c = 4.18). The heat is about:
Correct answer: B — 8.4 kJ
q = mcΔT = 200 × 4.18 × 10 = 8360 J ≈ 8.4 kJ.
Q7Using ΔH = Σ(bonds broken) − Σ(bonds made), a reaction is exothermic when:
Correct answer: B — more energy is released making bonds than absorbed breaking them
If bond-making releases more than bond-breaking absorbs, ΔH is negative — exothermic.
Q8Which ionic compound has the most exothermic lattice energy?
Correct answer: C — MgO
MgO has doubly-charged, small ions (Mg²⁺, O²⁻), giving the strongest electrostatic attraction and largest lattice energy.
The heat energy change for a reaction measured at standard conditions (298 K, 1 atm), with substances in their standard states.
The total enthalpy change of a reaction is independent of the route taken, provided the initial and final conditions are the same. It lets us calculate enthalpy changes that cannot be measured directly.
q = mcΔT, where q = heat energy, m = mass of solution, c = specific heat capacity, ΔT = temperature change.
q = 12.6 kJ; 0.0109 mol; ΔH ≈ −1160 kJ/mol; lower magnitude due to heat loss / incomplete combustion.
Bonds broken = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Bonds made = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 − 862 = −184 kJ/mol (exothermic).
Lattice energy = energy released forming a mole of lattice from gaseous ions; MgO's higher charges and smaller ions give much stronger attraction than NaCl.
Q1Industrial processes choose conditions to balance yield, cost and:
Correct answer: B — rate
A usable rate matters as much as yield — a high-yield process that is too slow is useless.
Q2The Haber process makes:
Correct answer: B — ammonia
N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ — ammonia, mostly used for fertiliser.
Q3The Haber process uses ~450 °C rather than a lower temperature because a lower temperature would:
Correct answer: B — make the reaction too slow
Low temperature favours more ammonia (exothermic) but the rate becomes impractically slow, so a compromise is used.
Q4The Solvay process makes sodium carbonate from:
Correct answer: B — salt and limestone
Brine (salt) and limestone are the raw materials; the ammonia and CO₂ used are recycled.
Q5Cracking in an oil refinery is done to:
Correct answer: B — break long fractions into petrol and alkenes
Cracking breaks large, less useful hydrocarbons into smaller ones — more petrol and the alkenes for plastics.
Q6Ammonia is turned into fertiliser mainly by:
Correct answer: B — making it into ammonium salts and nitrates
Ammonia is oxidised to nitric acid and reacted with acids to form ammonium salts/nitrates — the nitrogen source for crops.
Q7The catalyst used in the Contact process is:
Correct answer: B — vanadium(V) oxide
The Contact process uses vanadium(V) oxide to catalyse 2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃.
Q8Eutrophication is caused by:
Correct answer: B — fertiliser run-off into water
Excess fertiliser washing into water causes algal blooms; their decay removes oxygen and kills aquatic life.
Nitrogen (from air) and hydrogen (from natural gas / methane): N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃.
An iron catalyst at about 450 °C (and about 200 atm pressure).
A low temperature would favour a higher yield of ammonia (exothermic forward reaction) but the reaction would be far too slow; a high temperature would be fast but give a low yield. 450 °C is a compromise giving an acceptable yield at a workable rate.
Fertilisers supply nitrogen for growth; NH₃ + HNO₃ → NH₄NO₃ (ammonium nitrate); overuse causes eutrophication in waterways.
Some ammonia is oxidised (the Ostwald process) to make nitric acid; the nitric acid is then neutralised with more ammonia: NH₃ + HNO₃ → NH₄NO₃, giving ammonium nitrate.
N₂ (air) + H₂ (natural gas) ⇌ 2NH₃; unreacted gases are recycled because equilibrium limits each pass, improving overall yield and cutting waste.
Q1The approximate percentage of oxygen in clean dry air is:
Correct answer: B — 21%
Air is about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with ~1% argon and ~0.04% CO₂.
Q2Carbon monoxide is dangerous because it:
Correct answer: B — stops the blood carrying oxygen
CO binds to the blood in place of oxygen, so the body is starved of it — and it comes from incomplete combustion.
Q3Which pollutant is the main cause of acid rain?
Correct answer: B — Sulfur dioxide
Sulfur dioxide (with oxides of nitrogen) dissolves in atmospheric water to form acids — acid rain.
Q4The enhanced greenhouse effect is mainly driven by rising:
Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide
Extra CO₂ (and methane) from burning fossil fuels traps more radiated heat, warming the climate.
Q5Chlorination is a step in water treatment to:
Correct answer: B — kill bacteria
Filtration removes solids; chlorination kills bacteria to make the water safe to drink.
Q6A catalytic converter changes CO and NOₓ into:
Correct answer: B — CO₂ and N₂
It converts the toxic exhaust gases into harmless carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
Q7Oxides of nitrogen form in car engines because:
Correct answer: B — the high temperature makes N₂ and O₂ combine
The intense heat of combustion makes atmospheric nitrogen and oxygen react to form NOₓ.
Q8Chlorination is used in water treatment to:
Correct answer: B — kill microbes
Chlorine sterilises the water by killing harmful microorganisms; solids are removed earlier by filtration.
About 78% nitrogen and about 21% oxygen (the remaining ~1% is mostly argon with a little carbon dioxide).
Add anhydrous copper(II) sulfate — it turns from white to blue in the presence of water (or blue cobalt chloride paper turns pink).
Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas; it absorbs and re-emits heat (infrared radiation) that would otherwise escape, so the extra CO₂ traps more heat and raises average global temperatures.
Water + oxygen needed; galvanising = zinc coating that sacrificially protects (zinc more reactive) even if scratched; also painting/oiling.
Sulfur impurities in the coal burn to sulfur dioxide, which dissolves in rainwater to form an acidic solution (sulfurous/sulfuric acid). This acid rain damages plants and forests, acidifies lakes killing fish, or corrodes limestone buildings and metals.
CO from incomplete combustion, toxic (stops blood carrying O₂); catalytic converter oxidises CO to CO₂ (2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂) and reduces NOₓ to N₂.
These questions come from the 2nd Year Chemistry lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.