2nd Year Chemistry — MCQs & Practice Questions

156 multiple-choice questions and 114 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

New to a topic? Read the 2nd Year Chemistry notes first, then come back to practise.

01

Group 2 Elements

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The s-block consists of:

  1. AGroups 1 and 2
  2. BGroups 17 and 18
  3. Cthe transition metals
  4. DGroups 13–16
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Groups 1 and 2

The s-block is Groups 1 (alkali metals) and 2 (alkaline earth metals) — outer electrons in s orbitals.

Q2Reactivity of Group 1 metals down the group:

  1. Adecreases
  2. Bincreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Dbecomes zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — increases

The outer electron is further out and more shielded lower down, so it is lost more easily — more reactive.

Q3Group 1 more reactive than Group 2 (same period) because it:

  1. Ahas more electrons
  2. Bloses one electron rather than two
  3. Cis denser
  4. Dhas coloured ions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — loses one electron rather than two

Losing a single outer electron requires less energy than losing two, so Group 1 reacts more readily.

Q4Sodium in water produces:

  1. Asodium oxide only
  2. Bsodium hydroxide + hydrogen
  3. Csodium chloride
  4. Dno reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sodium hydroxide + hydrogen

Group 1 metals react with water to give a hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

Q5A lilac flame colour indicates the presence of:

  1. Asodium
  2. Bpotassium
  3. Ccalcium
  4. Dcopper
Show answer

Correct answer: B — potassium

Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow and calcium brick-red.

Q6The diagonal relationship links lithium most closely with:

  1. Asodium
  2. Bmagnesium
  3. Cpotassium
  4. Dfluorine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — magnesium

Lithium resembles magnesium (diagonally below-right) because of their similar charge densities.

Q7The flame colour of potassium is:

  1. Ayellow
  2. Blilac
  3. Cbrick-red
  4. Dgreen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lilac

Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow, calcium brick-red, barium green.

Q8Down Group 2, the carbonates become:

  1. Aless thermally stable
  2. Bmore thermally stable
  3. Cmore coloured
  4. Dgaseous
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more thermally stable

Larger cations polarise the carbonate ion less, so the carbonates need more heat to decompose — more stable.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe the trend in reactivity down Group 1 (the alkali metals) and explain it.
Answer

Reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe what is observed when a small piece of sodium is added to water, and give the equation.
Answer

It floats, melts into a ball, fizzes and moves around, giving off hydrogen: 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain the trend in thermal stability of the Group 2 carbonates down the group.
Answer

Thermal stability increases down the group. The cations get larger with less charge density, so they polarise/distort the carbonate ion less, making it harder to decompose.

Q4[6 marks]
The Group 2 elements magnesium and calcium react with water.
  1. Describe the difference in how magnesium and calcium react with water. [2]
  2. Write the equation for the reaction of calcium with cold water. [2]
  3. Explain the trend in reactivity down Group 2. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Magnesium reacts very slowly with cold water (faster with steam)[1]
  2. Calcium reacts readily with cold water, fizzing[1]
  3. Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂[1]
  4. balanced equation[1]
  5. Reactivity increases down the group[1]
  6. because the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more easily lost[1]

Mg very slow with cold water, Ca reacts readily; Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂; reactivity rises down the group (electrons lost more easily).

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why the thermal stability of the Group 2 nitrates increases down the group.
Answer

Down the group the cations get larger and have lower charge density, so they polarise (distort) the nitrate ion less. The nitrate is therefore harder to break down, so a higher temperature is needed and thermal stability increases.

Q6[6 marks]
The Group 2 elements and their compounds show clear trends.
  1. Describe and explain the trend in reactivity of the Group 2 metals with water down the group. [3]
  2. State the trends in solubility of the Group 2 hydroxides and sulfates down the group. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Reactivity increases down the group[1]
  2. the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
  3. so they are lost more easily, making the metal more reactive[1]
  4. Hydroxides become more soluble down the group[1]
  5. sulfates become less soluble down the group[1]
  6. so barium sulfate is highly insoluble (used in the sulfate test)[1]

Reactivity rises down Group 2 (outer electrons lost more easily); hydroxides get more soluble, sulfates less soluble.

02

Transition Metals

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A transition element is best defined as one that:

  1. Ais in the s-block
  2. Bforms an ion with a partially filled d subshell
  3. Chas one outer electron
  4. Dis a non-metal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — forms an ion with a partially filled d subshell

The defining feature is a partially filled d subshell in at least one of its ions.

Q2Transition metals show variable oxidation states because their:

  1. A4s and 3d electrons are close in energy
  2. Bnuclei are unstable
  3. Catoms are very small
  4. Dions are colourless
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 4s and 3d electrons are close in energy

The small 4s/3d energy gap lets different numbers of electrons be lost, giving several stable ions.

Q3Transition-metal compounds are usually coloured because the d orbitals:

  1. Aemit radioactivity
  2. Babsorb specific visible wavelengths
  3. Care empty
  4. Dare full
Show answer

Correct answer: B — absorb specific visible wavelengths

Partly filled d orbitals absorb particular wavelengths of visible light (d–d transitions), so the compound looks coloured.

Q4A ligand in a complex ion is a species that:

  1. Aremoves the metal
  2. Bdonates a lone pair to the central metal ion
  3. Cis always a metal
  4. Dcarries no charge ever
Show answer

Correct answer: B — donates a lone pair to the central metal ion

Ligands (e.g. water, ammonia, chloride) bond to the central metal ion by donating a lone pair.

Q5Iron acts as a catalyst in the:

  1. AContact process
  2. BHaber process
  3. CSolvay process
  4. Dchlor-alkali process
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Haber process

Iron catalyses the Haber process; vanadium(V) oxide catalyses the Contact process.

Q6Sodium forms only Na⁺ but iron forms Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ because iron:

  1. Ais radioactive
  2. Bhas 4s and 3d electrons of similar energy
  3. Cis a non-metal
  4. Dhas one outer electron
Show answer

Correct answer: B — has 4s and 3d electrons of similar energy

The close energies of iron's 4s and 3d electrons make more than one oxidation state accessible.

Q7In a complex ion, the bond between a ligand and the central metal is a:

  1. Aionic bond
  2. Bdative (coordinate) covalent bond
  3. Cmetallic bond
  4. Dhydrogen bond
Show answer

Correct answer: B — dative (coordinate) covalent bond

The ligand donates a lone pair to the metal, forming a dative (coordinate) covalent bond.

Q8Transition-metal compounds are coloured because of:

  1. Aionic bonding
  2. Bd–d electron transitions
  3. Chydrogen bonding
  4. Dtheir high density
Show answer

Correct answer: B — d–d electron transitions

Splitting of the d-orbitals lets a d-electron absorb visible light (a d–d transition), producing colour.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State three characteristic properties of transition elements.
Answer

They form ions with more than one oxidation state, form coloured compounds, and act as catalysts (any three; also high melting points/densities).

Q2[2 marks]
Give one example of a transition metal used as a catalyst and the process it catalyses.
Answer

Iron in the Haber process (or vanadium(V) oxide in the Contact process, or nickel in hydrogenation).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why transition metal compounds are often coloured.
Answer

The d-orbitals split into different energy levels; a d-electron absorbs certain wavelengths of visible light to move between them, and the transmitted/reflected light gives the colour.

Q4[6 marks]
Copper shows typical transition-metal behaviour.
  1. State the two common oxidation states of copper and the colour of each aqueous ion. [2]
  2. Explain what is meant by a complex ion. [2]
  3. State what is observed when excess aqueous ammonia is added to copper(II) sulfate solution. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. +1 (Cu⁺) and +2 (Cu²⁺)[1]
  2. Cu²⁺(aq) is blue (Cu⁺ compounds often white/colourless)[1]
  3. A complex ion is a central metal ion[1]
  4. surrounded by ligands bonded by coordinate (dative) bonds[1]
  5. A pale blue precipitate forms first[1]
  6. which dissolves in excess ammonia to give a deep blue solution[1]

Cu⁺ and Cu²⁺ (Cu²⁺ blue); complex = metal ion + ligands (dative bonds); excess NH₃ gives pale blue ppt then deep blue solution.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain what is observed when excess aqueous ammonia is added to copper(II) sulfate solution, in terms of ligand exchange.
Answer

A pale blue precipitate of copper(II) hydroxide forms first, then dissolves in excess ammonia to give a deep blue solution as water ligands are replaced by ammonia ligands (ligand exchange), changing the colour.

Q6[6 marks]
Transition elements have several characteristic properties.
  1. Explain why transition metals show variable oxidation states. [2]
  2. Explain why their compounds are coloured. [2]
  3. Explain why they act as good catalysts, with one named example. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Their 3d and 4s sub-shells are close in energy[1]
  2. so different numbers of electrons can be lost, giving several stable oxidation states[1]
  3. In a complex the d-orbitals split into two energy levels[1]
  4. a d-electron absorbs visible light to jump the gap (d–d transition); the transmitted light is the colour[1]
  5. They can change oxidation state easily / provide a surface for reaction[1]
  6. e.g. iron in the Haber process (or V₂O₅ in the Contact process)[1]

Variable states: close 3d/4s energies; colour: d–d transitions absorbing visible light; catalysis: easy change of oxidation state, e.g. iron in the Haber process.

03

Basics of Organic Chemistry

Multiple choice · 10

Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:

  1. Acolour
  2. Bfunctional group and general formula
  3. Cmelting point
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula

Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.

Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:

  1. Acarbon skeleton length
  2. Bfunctional group
  3. Ccolour
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group

The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.

Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:

  1. Athe same compound
  2. Bstructural isomers
  3. Cgeometric isomers
  4. Ddifferent elements
Show answer

Correct answer: B — structural isomers

Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.

Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:

  1. Atwo ions
  2. Bfree radicals
  3. Ca nucleophile only
  4. Dno products
Show answer

Correct answer: B — free radicals

An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.

Q5A nucleophile is a species that:

  1. Aaccepts an electron pair
  2. Bdonates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
  3. Cis always positively charged
  4. Dcontains no electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres

Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.

Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Baddition
  3. Celimination
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition

Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.

Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:

  1. Aelectron-poor and attacks C=C
  2. Belectron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Dalways positively charged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon

A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.

Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:

  1. Aa chiral centre
  2. Ba C=C double bond with no rotation
  3. Ca benzene ring
  4. Dan ionic bond
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation

Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.

Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?

  1. AKCN in ethanol
  2. Bwarm aqueous NaOH
  3. Cacidified dichromate
  4. Dconcentrated H₂SO₄
Show answer

Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH

Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.

Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:

  1. Asodium hydroxide
  2. Bpotassium cyanide
  3. Cammonia
  4. Dwater
Show answer

Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide

Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Define the terms structural isomers.
Answer

Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.

Q2[2 marks]
Give the IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH₂CH₂OH and state its functional group.
Answer

Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).

Q3[3 marks]
Distinguish between homolytic and heterolytic bond fission, naming the species formed.
Answer

In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.

Q4[6 marks]
Organic reactions are classified by the type of change and the attacking species.
  1. Explain the difference between an electrophile and a nucleophile. [2]
  2. State the type of reaction (addition, substitution or elimination) when: bromine reacts with ethene; and a haloalkane forms an alkene with hot alcoholic KOH. [2]
  3. Explain what is meant by a functional group. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. An electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor species)[1]
  2. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich species)[1]
  3. Bromine + ethene is an addition reaction[1]
  4. Haloalkane with hot alcoholic KOH is an elimination reaction[1]
  5. A functional group is the atom or group of atoms[1]
  6. that gives a molecule its characteristic chemical properties[1]

Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why but-2-ene shows cis–trans isomerism but butane does not.
Answer

But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.

Q6[6 marks]
Organic reactions can be classified by mechanism.
  1. Define the terms nucleophile and electrophile. [2]
  2. State the type of species that attacks, and the reaction type, when: (i) bromine reacts with ethene; (ii) hydroxide reacts with bromoethane. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich)[1]
  2. an electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor)[1]
  3. (i) Bromine acts as an electrophile[1]
  4. in an electrophilic addition to the C=C double bond[1]
  5. (ii) Hydroxide acts as a nucleophile[1]
  6. in a nucleophilic substitution of the haloalkane[1]

Nucleophile = electron-pair donor, electrophile = acceptor; Br₂/ethene = electrophilic addition; OH⁻/bromoethane = nucleophilic substitution.

Q7[6 marks]
Show how you would carry out the following conversions, giving the reagents and conditions for each step.
  1. Ethene into ethanoic acid (two steps). [4]
  2. Bromoethane into propanenitrile, and state why this conversion is useful. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Step 1: hydrate ethene with steam and an acid catalyst to give ethanol[1]
  2. (~300 °C, ~60 atm, phosphoric acid)[1]
  3. Step 2: oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate[1]
  4. under reflux, to give ethanoic acid[1]
  5. React bromoethane with potassium cyanide in ethanol to give propanenitrile[1]
  6. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]

Ethene → ethanol (steam + acid catalyst) → ethanoic acid (oxidise with acidified dichromate, reflux); bromoethane + KCN → propanenitrile (adds a carbon).

04

Aromatic Hydrocarbons

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The carbon–carbon bonds in benzene are:

  1. Aalternating single and double
  2. Ball identical, between single and double
  3. Call triple
  4. Dionic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — all identical, between single and double

Delocalisation makes all six C–C bonds equivalent, intermediate between single and double.

Q2Benzene is more stable than expected because its electrons are:

  1. Aremoved
  2. Bdelocalised around the ring
  3. Cin the nucleus
  4. Dionic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — delocalised around the ring

The delocalised ring of electrons lowers benzene's energy — aromatic stability.

Q3Benzene's characteristic reaction is electrophilic:

  1. Aaddition
  2. Bsubstitution
  3. Celimination
  4. Dcombustion only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — substitution

Substitution replaces a hydrogen and keeps the stable aromatic ring intact.

Q4Nitration of benzene uses:

  1. Adilute HCl
  2. Bconcentrated HNO₃ and H₂SO₄
  3. CNaOH
  4. Dbromine water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — concentrated HNO₃ and H₂SO₄

Concentrated nitric and sulfuric acids generate the NO₂⁺ electrophile, giving nitrobenzene.

Q5Benzene resists addition reactions because addition would:

  1. Arelease too much energy
  2. Bdestroy its stable delocalised ring
  3. Cmake it ionic
  4. Dnot change anything
Show answer

Correct answer: B — destroy its stable delocalised ring

Adding across the ring would break the aromatic delocalisation, which is energetically unfavourable.

Q6Compared with an alkene, benzene is:

  1. Afar more reactive toward addition
  2. Bless reactive toward addition
  3. Cunable to react at all
  4. Dionic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — less reactive toward addition

Its aromatic stability makes benzene much less prone to addition than a reactive alkene double bond.

Q7The driving force for benzene undergoing substitution rather than addition is:

  1. Aforming a stronger electrophile
  2. Brestoring the stable delocalised ring
  3. Creleasing hydrogen gas
  4. Dgaining electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — restoring the stable delocalised ring

Substitution keeps (restores) the stable aromatic ring; addition would destroy it.

Q8Compared with benzene, phenol is:

  1. Aless reactive toward electrophiles
  2. Bmore reactive toward electrophiles
  3. Cunable to react
  4. Didentical in reactivity
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more reactive toward electrophiles

The –OH lone pair feeds electron density into the ring, making phenol more reactive than benzene.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe the bonding in a benzene molecule.
Answer

A ring of six carbons with six delocalised electrons spread above and below the ring; all six C–C bonds are identical, between single and double.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why benzene undergoes substitution rather than addition reactions.
Answer

Addition would destroy the stable delocalised ring; substitution replaces a hydrogen and preserves the aromatic stability.

Q3[3 marks]
State the reagents and product for the nitration of benzene, and name the type of mechanism.
Answer

Concentrated nitric acid with concentrated sulfuric acid (generating NO₂⁺) gives nitrobenzene, by electrophilic substitution.

Q4[6 marks]
Benzene reacts by electrophilic substitution.
  1. Explain why benzene is more stable than the hypothetical molecule cyclohexatriene (with three separate double bonds). [2]
  2. Give the reagents and conditions for the chlorination of benzene. [2]
  3. State why benzene does not decolourise bromine water, unlike an alkene. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Benzene's electrons are delocalised around the ring[1]
  2. which lowers its energy / makes it more stable than isolated double bonds[1]
  3. Chlorine (Cl₂) with a halogen carrier catalyst[1]
  4. such as anhydrous AlCl₃ or FeCl₃[1]
  5. Benzene has no localised C=C double bond to undergo addition[1]
  6. its delocalised, stable ring does not react with bromine water[1]

Delocalisation lowers benzene's energy (extra stability); chlorination needs Cl₂ + AlCl₃/FeCl₃; no localised C=C means no addition, so bromine water is not decolourised.

Q5[3 marks]
Describe how the electrophile is generated in the nitration of benzene, and state the overall reaction type.
Answer

Concentrated sulfuric acid protonates concentrated nitric acid, which loses water to form the nitronium ion, NO₂⁺. This electrophile substitutes onto the ring, so the reaction is electrophilic substitution.

Q6[6 marks]
Benzene and phenol both react with electrophiles.
  1. Explain why benzene undergoes substitution rather than addition. [3]
  2. Explain why phenol is more reactive than benzene, and state what you would see when phenol is added to bromine water. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Benzene has a stable delocalised ring of electrons[1]
  2. addition would destroy that stability, which is unfavourable[1]
  3. substitution replaces an H and restores the stable ring[1]
  4. In phenol the –OH lone pair delocalises into the ring[1]
  5. making the ring more electron-rich / more reactive to electrophiles[1]
  6. with bromine water the orange colour disappears and a white precipitate (2,4,6-tribromophenol) forms[1]

Benzene substitutes to keep its stable ring; phenol is more reactive (–OH lone pair enriches the ring) and decolourises bromine water, forming a white precipitate.

05

Halogenoalkanes

Multiple choice · 10

Q1The reactive site of a haloalkane is the carbon bonded to the halogen because it is:

  1. Aslightly negative
  2. Bslightly positive (δ+)
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Daromatic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slightly positive (δ+)

The polar C–X bond leaves that carbon electron-poor (δ+), attracting nucleophiles.

Q2Reacting bromoethane with warm aqueous NaOH gives:

  1. Aethene
  2. Bethanol
  3. Cethane
  4. Dethanoic acid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethanol

Aqueous hydroxide substitutes for the bromine — nucleophilic substitution to ethanol.

Q3Hot ethanolic NaOH with a haloalkane favours:

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Belimination (to an alkene)
  3. Cno reaction
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — elimination (to an alkene)

Hot alcoholic base removes HX, forming a double bond — elimination.

Q4A secondary amine has how many carbon groups on nitrogen?

  1. Aone
  2. Btwo
  3. Cthree
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — two

Primary = 1, secondary = 2, tertiary = 3 carbon groups on the nitrogen.

Q5Amines act as bases because the nitrogen:

  1. Ais positively charged
  2. Bhas a lone pair that accepts H⁺
  3. Chas no electrons
  4. Dis a halogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — has a lone pair that accepts H⁺

Nitrogen's lone pair accepts a proton, so amines are proton acceptors — bases.

Q6Reacting a haloalkane with ammonia produces a(n):

  1. Aalkene
  2. Bamine
  3. Ccarboxylic acid
  4. Dalcohol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amine

Ammonia's lone pair substitutes onto the carbon, displacing the halogen to form an amine.

Q7Reacting a haloalkane with potassium cyanide produces a nitrile, which is useful because it:

  1. Ashortens the chain
  2. Badds a carbon atom to the chain
  3. Cremoves the halogen only
  4. Dforms a ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — adds a carbon atom to the chain

The CN group adds one carbon, lengthening the carbon chain.

Q8Which haloalkane undergoes nucleophilic substitution fastest?

  1. Achloroethane
  2. Bbromoethane
  3. Ciodoethane
  4. Dthey react equally
Show answer

Correct answer: C — iodoethane

The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.

Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:

  1. ASN1
  2. BSN2
  3. Celimination only
  4. Daddition
Show answer

Correct answer: B — SN2

The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.

Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:

  1. Afree radical
  2. Bcarbocation intermediate
  3. Ccarbanion
  4. Dsingle concerted step
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate

In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the carbon–halogen bond in a haloalkane is the site of attack by nucleophiles.
Answer

The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.

Q2[2 marks]
State the product and reaction type when bromoethane is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Answer

Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases.
Answer

The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).

Q4[6 marks]
Bromoethane can react in two different ways depending on conditions.
  1. State the reagent and conditions for converting bromoethane to ethene, and name the reaction type. [3]
  2. State the reagent for converting bromoethane to ethylamine, and name the reaction type. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Hot ethanolic (alcoholic) potassium hydroxide[1]
  2. under reflux / heat[1]
  3. This is elimination (loss of HBr forms the C=C)[1]
  4. Excess ammonia[1]
  5. (in a sealed tube / ethanolic solution)[1]
  6. This is nucleophilic substitution[1]

→ ethene: hot alcoholic KOH, elimination; → ethylamine: excess ammonia, nucleophilic substitution.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases, and give the product when ethylamine reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Answer

The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).

Q6[6 marks]
Bromoethane can be converted into several products by nucleophilic substitution.
  1. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to ethanol. [2]
  2. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to a nitrile, and why this is useful. [2]
  3. Explain why iodoethane reacts faster than bromoethane. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide (or water)[1]
  2. gives ethanol[1]
  3. Potassium cyanide (in ethanol) gives propanenitrile[1]
  4. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]
  5. The C–I bond is weaker than C–Br[1]
  6. so it breaks more easily, making iodoethane react faster[1]

OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.

Q7[6 marks]
Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkanes can follow an SN1 or an SN2 mechanism.
  1. Describe the SN2 mechanism and the type of haloalkane it favours. [3]
  2. Describe the SN1 mechanism and explain why tertiary haloalkanes favour it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. In SN2 the nucleophile attacks the δ+ carbon as the halogen leaves[1]
  2. in a single concerted step[1]
  3. favoured by primary haloalkanes (the carbon is easy to approach)[1]
  4. In SN1 the halogen leaves first to form a carbocation[1]
  5. then the nucleophile attacks the carbocation[1]
  6. tertiary haloalkanes form a stable tertiary carbocation, so this route is favoured[1]

SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).

06

Hydroxy Compounds

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A primary alcohol is fully oxidised to a:

  1. Aketone
  2. Bcarboxylic acid
  3. Calkene
  4. Dnothing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carboxylic acid

Primary → aldehyde → carboxylic acid; secondary stops at a ketone; tertiary does not oxidise.

Q2A secondary alcohol oxidises to a:

  1. Acarboxylic acid
  2. Bketone
  3. Caldehyde only, then stops
  4. Dphenol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ketone

Secondary alcohols oxidise to ketones and no further.

Q3A tertiary alcohol warmed with acidified dichromate:

  1. Aturns it green
  2. Bdoes not react (stays orange)
  3. Cexplodes
  4. Dforms an ester
Show answer

Correct answer: B — does not react (stays orange)

There is no hydrogen on the OH carbon to remove, so it resists oxidation and the dichromate stays orange.

Q4Alcohols have relatively high boiling points because they:

  1. Aare ionic
  2. Bhydrogen-bond
  3. Care large
  4. Dcontain metals
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hydrogen-bond

The O–H group forms hydrogen bonds between molecules, raising the boiling point.

Q5Phenol differs from an ordinary alcohol in that it is:

  1. Abasic
  2. Bweakly acidic
  3. Cunreactive
  4. Da gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — weakly acidic

The benzene ring stabilises the anion, so phenol loses H⁺ and is weakly acidic (reacts with NaOH).

Q6An alcohol reacting with a carboxylic acid forms an:

  1. Aether
  2. Bester (+ water)
  3. Camine
  4. Dalkane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ester (+ water)

Esterification gives a sweet-smelling ester and water.

Q7Dehydrating ethanol over a hot catalyst produces:

  1. Aethane
  2. Bethene
  3. Cethanoic acid
  4. Dan ester
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethene

Dehydration removes water from the alcohol, forming the alkene ethene by elimination.

Q8Which reagent reacts with a carboxylic acid but NOT with phenol?

  1. Asodium hydroxide
  2. Bsodium carbonate
  3. Cwater
  4. Dbromine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sodium carbonate

A carboxylic acid is strong enough to fizz with a carbonate; phenol is too weak, so carbonate distinguishes them.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Classify butan-2-ol as a primary, secondary or tertiary alcohol and justify your answer.
Answer

Secondary — the carbon bearing the –OH group is attached to two other carbon atoms.

Q2[2 marks]
State the products of oxidising a primary alcohol with acidified potassium dichromate.
Answer

First an aldehyde, then on further oxidation a carboxylic acid; the dichromate turns from orange to green.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why phenol is acidic but ethanol is essentially neutral.
Answer

When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring, stabilising the ion, so H⁺ is released. Ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺.

Q4[6 marks]
Three alcohols — propan-1-ol, propan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol — are each warmed with acidified potassium dichromate.
  1. State the product (if any) from each alcohol. [3]
  2. Describe the colour change seen for those that react. [1]
  3. Explain why the tertiary alcohol does not react. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Propan-1-ol (primary) → propanal then propanoic acid[1]
  2. Propan-2-ol (secondary) → propanone (a ketone)[1]
  3. 2-methylpropan-2-ol (tertiary) → no reaction[1]
  4. Those that react turn the dichromate from orange to green[1]
  5. The tertiary alcohol has no hydrogen on the carbon bearing the –OH[1]
  6. so there is nothing for the oxidising agent to remove[1]

1° → aldehyde/acid, 2° → ketone, 3° → no reaction (orange→green for the first two); tertiary resists because there is no H on the OH carbon.

Q5[2 marks]
Give one advantage of making ethanol by hydration of ethene rather than by fermentation.
Answer

Hydration is a fast, continuous process that gives pure ethanol directly, whereas fermentation is slow, works in batches and produces a dilute impure mixture that must be distilled.

Q6[6 marks]
Phenol and ethanol both contain an –OH group but behave differently.
  1. Explain why phenol is weakly acidic while ethanol is essentially neutral. [3]
  2. Describe a chemical test, with results, that distinguishes phenol from a carboxylic acid. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring[1]
  2. this stabilises the phenoxide ion, so H⁺ is released — weakly acidic[1]
  3. ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺[1]
  4. Add sodium carbonate solution to each[1]
  5. the carboxylic acid fizzes, releasing CO₂[1]
  6. phenol shows no reaction (too weak an acid)[1]

Phenol is acidic because the ring stabilises the phenoxide ion; ethanol's is not. Sodium carbonate fizzes with a carboxylic acid but not with phenol.

07

Carbonyl Compounds and Carboxylic Acids

Multiple choice · 16

Q1In a ketone, the carbonyl group is:

  1. Aat the end of the chain
  2. Bin the middle, between two carbon groups
  3. Cabsent
  4. Dbonded to a halogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — in the middle, between two carbon groups

A ketone has C=O in the middle (R–CO–R); an aldehyde has it at the end (–CHO).

Q2The characteristic reaction of aldehydes and ketones is nucleophilic:

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Baddition
  3. Celimination
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition

The polar C=O has a δ+ carbon that nucleophiles add to — nucleophilic addition.

Q3Which is readily oxidised to a carboxylic acid?

  1. Aa ketone
  2. Ban aldehyde
  3. Cboth equally
  4. Dneither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — an aldehyde

Aldehydes have a terminal C–H and oxidise to acids; ketones resist oxidation.

Q4A silver mirror with Tollens' reagent indicates a(n):

  1. Aketone
  2. Baldehyde
  3. Calcohol
  4. Dalkane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — aldehyde

Only an aldehyde reduces the silver ions to a silver mirror.

Q5Fehling's solution with a ketone:

  1. Aturns brick-red
  2. Bstays blue
  3. Cturns green
  4. Dforms a mirror
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stays blue

Ketones do not reduce Fehling's, so it stays blue; aldehydes give a brick-red precipitate.

Q6Reducing a ketone gives a:

  1. Aprimary alcohol
  2. Bsecondary alcohol
  3. Ccarboxylic acid
  4. Daldehyde
Show answer

Correct answer: B — secondary alcohol

A ketone reduces to a secondary alcohol (the reverse of secondary-alcohol oxidation).

Q7Adding HCN to propanone is an example of:

  1. Aoxidation
  2. Bnucleophilic addition
  3. Celectrophilic substitution
  4. Delimination
Show answer

Correct answer: B — nucleophilic addition

The cyanide nucleophile adds to the δ+ carbonyl carbon — nucleophilic addition, giving a hydroxynitrile.

Q8An orange precipitate with 2,4-DNPH but no reaction with Tollens' reagent indicates a:

  1. Acarboxylic acid
  2. Bketone
  3. Caldehyde
  4. Dalcohol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ketone

2,4-DNPH confirms a carbonyl; no silver mirror with Tollens' means it is a ketone, not an aldehyde.

Q9The functional group of a carboxylic acid is:

  1. A–OH
  2. B–CHO
  3. C–COOH
  4. D–NH₂
Show answer

Correct answer: C — –COOH

The carboxyl group –COOH (a carbonyl plus a hydroxyl on one carbon) defines carboxylic acids.

Q10Carboxylic acids are:

  1. Astrong acids
  2. Bweak acids
  3. Cbases
  4. Dneutral
Show answer

Correct answer: B — weak acids

They only partly ionise in water — weak acids — though the stabilised carboxylate makes them acidic at all.

Q11A carboxylic acid added to a carbonate produces:

  1. Asalt + hydrogen
  2. Bsalt + water + carbon dioxide
  3. Can ester
  4. Dno reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — salt + water + carbon dioxide

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + CO₂; the fizz (CO₂) confirms a carboxylic acid.

Q12Esterification combines a carboxylic acid with a(n):

  1. Ametal
  2. Balcohol
  3. Ccarbonate
  4. Dhalogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — alcohol

Acid + alcohol (with an acid catalyst) → ester + water.

Q13Esters are best known for their:

  1. Ahigh acidity
  2. Bsweet, fruity smells
  3. Cmetallic conductivity
  4. Dexplosiveness
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sweet, fruity smells

Esters have pleasant fruity smells and are used as flavourings and perfumes.

Q14Why is a carboxylic acid acidic but an alcohol is not?

  1. Ait has more carbons
  2. Bthe carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation
  3. Cit contains a metal
  4. Dit is a gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation

Spreading the negative charge over both oxygens stabilises the ion, so the H⁺ is lost more readily.

Q15The most reactive derivative of a carboxylic acid, used to make the others, is the:

  1. Aester
  2. Bamide
  3. Cacyl chloride
  4. Dsalt
Show answer

Correct answer: C — acyl chloride

Acyl chlorides are the most reactive derivative and are used to prepare esters and amides.

Q16Boiling a fat with sodium hydroxide to make soap is called:

  1. Aesterification
  2. Bsaponification
  3. Chydrogenation
  4. Dpolymerisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — saponification

Alkaline hydrolysis of a fat (an ester) to make soap is saponification.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[2 marks]
State the difference in structure between an aldehyde and a ketone.
Answer

Both contain the carbonyl group C=O; in an aldehyde it is at the end of the chain (–CHO), in a ketone it is in the middle, bonded to two carbon groups.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test that distinguishes an aldehyde from a ketone.
Answer

Warm with Tollens' reagent: an aldehyde forms a silver mirror; a ketone gives no change.

Q3[3 marks]
State the type of reaction and the product when propanal is reduced.
Answer

Reduction (e.g. with NaBH₄) gives propan-1-ol; the carbonyl C=O is reduced to a C–OH group (a primary alcohol).

Q4[6 marks]
A student has two unlabelled bottles, one containing propanal and one containing propanone.
  1. Describe the result of adding Fehling's solution to each, on warming. [3]
  2. State the characteristic reaction type of the carbonyl group and why the carbon is attacked. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Propanal (aldehyde) gives a positive result[1]
  2. the blue solution forms a brick-red precipitate[1]
  3. Propanone (ketone) gives no change (stays blue)[1]
  4. The characteristic reaction is nucleophilic addition[1]
  5. The C=O bond is polar with a δ+ carbon[1]
  6. so nucleophiles are attracted to and attack the carbonyl carbon[1]

Aldehyde → brick-red precipitate with Fehling's; ketone → stays blue; carbonyl undergoes nucleophilic addition at its δ+ carbon.

Q5[2 marks]
State the reagent and the products when propanal and propanone are each reduced.
Answer

Reduction (e.g. with NaBH₄): propanal (an aldehyde) gives propan-1-ol (a primary alcohol); propanone (a ketone) gives propan-2-ol (a secondary alcohol).

Q6[6 marks]
A student has two unlabelled liquids: one is an aldehyde, the other a ketone.
  1. Describe a test that shows both are carbonyl compounds. [2]
  2. Describe a test, with results, that distinguishes the aldehyde from the ketone. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Add 2,4-DNPH (Brady's reagent) to each[1]
  2. both give an orange precipitate, confirming a carbonyl group[1]
  3. Warm each with Tollens' reagent (ammoniacal silver nitrate)[1]
  4. the aldehyde forms a silver mirror[1]
  5. the ketone gives no change[1]
  6. (alternatively Fehling's: aldehyde gives a brick-red precipitate, ketone stays blue)[1]

2,4-DNPH gives an orange precipitate with both (carbonyl present); Tollens' gives a silver mirror only with the aldehyde.

Q7[2 marks]
Name the functional group in a carboxylic acid and state whether such acids are strong or weak.
Answer

The carboxyl group, –COOH; carboxylic acids are weak acids (only partly ionised in water).

Q8[2 marks]
Give the products and observation when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
Answer

Sodium ethanoate, water and carbon dioxide are formed; effervescence (fizzing) is seen.

Q9[3 marks]
Explain why a carboxylic acid is more acidic than the corresponding alcohol.
Answer

When a carboxylic acid loses H⁺, the negative charge on the carboxylate ion is delocalised over both oxygen atoms, stabilising it; an alcohol's anion is not stabilised in this way.

Q10[6 marks]
Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of a little concentrated sulfuric acid.
  1. Name the type of reaction and the organic product. [2]
  2. Write the equation for the reaction. [2]
  3. State the role of the concentrated sulfuric acid, and one use of the product. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The reaction is esterification (condensation)[1]
  2. The product is ethyl ethanoate (an ester)[1]
  3. CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
  4. balanced with water as the other product[1]
  5. The sulfuric acid is a catalyst (and dehydrating agent)[1]
  6. Esters are used as flavourings / perfumes / solvents (any one)[1]

Esterification → ethyl ethanoate; CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O; H₂SO₄ is the catalyst; esters used as flavourings/perfumes/solvents.

Q11[2 marks]
Name the ester formed from ethanoic acid and propan-1-ol, and state the catalyst used.
Answer

Propyl ethanoate, formed with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst (which also removes water).

Q12[6 marks]
Esters can be made from carboxylic acids and hydrolysed back again.
  1. Write the equation and conditions for making ethyl ethanoate from ethanoic acid and ethanol. [3]
  2. State the products of hydrolysing ethyl ethanoate with (i) dilute acid and (ii) sodium hydroxide. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
  2. conditions: warm with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]
  3. the reaction is reversible[1]
  4. (i) with dilute acid: ethanoic acid + ethanol[1]
  5. (ii) with sodium hydroxide: sodium ethanoate[1]
  6. plus ethanol[1]

CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O (conc. H₂SO₄); acid hydrolysis → acid + alcohol; alkaline hydrolysis → sodium ethanoate + ethanol.

08

Organic Nitrogen Compounds

Multiple choice · 10

Q1The reactive site of a haloalkane is the carbon bonded to the halogen because it is:

  1. Aslightly negative
  2. Bslightly positive (δ+)
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Daromatic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slightly positive (δ+)

The polar C–X bond leaves that carbon electron-poor (δ+), attracting nucleophiles.

Q2Reacting bromoethane with warm aqueous NaOH gives:

  1. Aethene
  2. Bethanol
  3. Cethane
  4. Dethanoic acid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethanol

Aqueous hydroxide substitutes for the bromine — nucleophilic substitution to ethanol.

Q3Hot ethanolic NaOH with a haloalkane favours:

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Belimination (to an alkene)
  3. Cno reaction
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — elimination (to an alkene)

Hot alcoholic base removes HX, forming a double bond — elimination.

Q4A secondary amine has how many carbon groups on nitrogen?

  1. Aone
  2. Btwo
  3. Cthree
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — two

Primary = 1, secondary = 2, tertiary = 3 carbon groups on the nitrogen.

Q5Amines act as bases because the nitrogen:

  1. Ais positively charged
  2. Bhas a lone pair that accepts H⁺
  3. Chas no electrons
  4. Dis a halogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — has a lone pair that accepts H⁺

Nitrogen's lone pair accepts a proton, so amines are proton acceptors — bases.

Q6Reacting a haloalkane with ammonia produces a(n):

  1. Aalkene
  2. Bamine
  3. Ccarboxylic acid
  4. Dalcohol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amine

Ammonia's lone pair substitutes onto the carbon, displacing the halogen to form an amine.

Q7Reacting a haloalkane with potassium cyanide produces a nitrile, which is useful because it:

  1. Ashortens the chain
  2. Badds a carbon atom to the chain
  3. Cremoves the halogen only
  4. Dforms a ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — adds a carbon atom to the chain

The CN group adds one carbon, lengthening the carbon chain.

Q8Which haloalkane undergoes nucleophilic substitution fastest?

  1. Achloroethane
  2. Bbromoethane
  3. Ciodoethane
  4. Dthey react equally
Show answer

Correct answer: C — iodoethane

The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.

Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:

  1. ASN1
  2. BSN2
  3. Celimination only
  4. Daddition
Show answer

Correct answer: B — SN2

The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.

Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:

  1. Afree radical
  2. Bcarbocation intermediate
  3. Ccarbanion
  4. Dsingle concerted step
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate

In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the carbon–halogen bond in a haloalkane is the site of attack by nucleophiles.
Answer

The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.

Q2[2 marks]
State the product and reaction type when bromoethane is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Answer

Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases.
Answer

The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).

Q4[6 marks]
Bromoethane can react in two different ways depending on conditions.
  1. State the reagent and conditions for converting bromoethane to ethene, and name the reaction type. [3]
  2. State the reagent for converting bromoethane to ethylamine, and name the reaction type. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Hot ethanolic (alcoholic) potassium hydroxide[1]
  2. under reflux / heat[1]
  3. This is elimination (loss of HBr forms the C=C)[1]
  4. Excess ammonia[1]
  5. (in a sealed tube / ethanolic solution)[1]
  6. This is nucleophilic substitution[1]

→ ethene: hot alcoholic KOH, elimination; → ethylamine: excess ammonia, nucleophilic substitution.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases, and give the product when ethylamine reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Answer

The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).

Q6[6 marks]
Bromoethane can be converted into several products by nucleophilic substitution.
  1. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to ethanol. [2]
  2. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to a nitrile, and why this is useful. [2]
  3. Explain why iodoethane reacts faster than bromoethane. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide (or water)[1]
  2. gives ethanol[1]
  3. Potassium cyanide (in ethanol) gives propanenitrile[1]
  4. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]
  5. The C–I bond is weaker than C–Br[1]
  6. so it breaks more easily, making iodoethane react faster[1]

OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.

Q7[6 marks]
Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkanes can follow an SN1 or an SN2 mechanism.
  1. Describe the SN2 mechanism and the type of haloalkane it favours. [3]
  2. Describe the SN1 mechanism and explain why tertiary haloalkanes favour it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. In SN2 the nucleophile attacks the δ+ carbon as the halogen leaves[1]
  2. in a single concerted step[1]
  3. favoured by primary haloalkanes (the carbon is easy to approach)[1]
  4. In SN1 the halogen leaves first to form a carbocation[1]
  5. then the nucleophile attacks the carbocation[1]
  6. tertiary haloalkanes form a stable tertiary carbocation, so this route is favoured[1]

SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).

09

Organic Synthesis

Multiple choice · 10

Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:

  1. Acolour
  2. Bfunctional group and general formula
  3. Cmelting point
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula

Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.

Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:

  1. Acarbon skeleton length
  2. Bfunctional group
  3. Ccolour
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group

The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.

Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:

  1. Athe same compound
  2. Bstructural isomers
  3. Cgeometric isomers
  4. Ddifferent elements
Show answer

Correct answer: B — structural isomers

Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.

Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:

  1. Atwo ions
  2. Bfree radicals
  3. Ca nucleophile only
  4. Dno products
Show answer

Correct answer: B — free radicals

An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.

Q5A nucleophile is a species that:

  1. Aaccepts an electron pair
  2. Bdonates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
  3. Cis always positively charged
  4. Dcontains no electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres

Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.

Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Baddition
  3. Celimination
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition

Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.

Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:

  1. Aelectron-poor and attacks C=C
  2. Belectron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Dalways positively charged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon

A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.

Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:

  1. Aa chiral centre
  2. Ba C=C double bond with no rotation
  3. Ca benzene ring
  4. Dan ionic bond
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation

Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.

Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?

  1. AKCN in ethanol
  2. Bwarm aqueous NaOH
  3. Cacidified dichromate
  4. Dconcentrated H₂SO₄
Show answer

Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH

Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.

Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:

  1. Asodium hydroxide
  2. Bpotassium cyanide
  3. Cammonia
  4. Dwater
Show answer

Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide

Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Define the terms structural isomers.
Answer

Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.

Q2[2 marks]
Give the IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH₂CH₂OH and state its functional group.
Answer

Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).

Q3[3 marks]
Distinguish between homolytic and heterolytic bond fission, naming the species formed.
Answer

In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.

Q4[6 marks]
Organic reactions are classified by the type of change and the attacking species.
  1. Explain the difference between an electrophile and a nucleophile. [2]
  2. State the type of reaction (addition, substitution or elimination) when: bromine reacts with ethene; and a haloalkane forms an alkene with hot alcoholic KOH. [2]
  3. Explain what is meant by a functional group. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. An electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor species)[1]
  2. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich species)[1]
  3. Bromine + ethene is an addition reaction[1]
  4. Haloalkane with hot alcoholic KOH is an elimination reaction[1]
  5. A functional group is the atom or group of atoms[1]
  6. that gives a molecule its characteristic chemical properties[1]

Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why but-2-ene shows cis–trans isomerism but butane does not.
Answer

But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.

Q6[6 marks]
Organic reactions can be classified by mechanism.
  1. Define the terms nucleophile and electrophile. [2]
  2. State the type of species that attacks, and the reaction type, when: (i) bromine reacts with ethene; (ii) hydroxide reacts with bromoethane. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich)[1]
  2. an electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor)[1]
  3. (i) Bromine acts as an electrophile[1]
  4. in an electrophilic addition to the C=C double bond[1]
  5. (ii) Hydroxide acts as a nucleophile[1]
  6. in a nucleophilic substitution of the haloalkane[1]

Nucleophile = electron-pair donor, electrophile = acceptor; Br₂/ethene = electrophilic addition; OH⁻/bromoethane = nucleophilic substitution.

Q7[6 marks]
Show how you would carry out the following conversions, giving the reagents and conditions for each step.
  1. Ethene into ethanoic acid (two steps). [4]
  2. Bromoethane into propanenitrile, and state why this conversion is useful. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Step 1: hydrate ethene with steam and an acid catalyst to give ethanol[1]
  2. (~300 °C, ~60 atm, phosphoric acid)[1]
  3. Step 2: oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate[1]
  4. under reflux, to give ethanoic acid[1]
  5. React bromoethane with potassium cyanide in ethanol to give propanenitrile[1]
  6. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]

Ethene → ethanol (steam + acid catalyst) → ethanoic acid (oxidise with acidified dichromate, reflux); bromoethane + KCN → propanenitrile (adds a carbon).

10

Polymers

Multiple choice · 10

Q1The building blocks of proteins are:

  1. Amonosaccharides
  2. Bamino acids
  3. Cfatty acids
  4. Dnucleotides
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amino acids

Amino acids join by peptide bonds into protein chains; monosaccharides build carbohydrates and fatty acids build lipids.

Q2Which is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?

  1. AGlucose
  2. BStarch
  3. CCellulose
  4. DGlycerol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Starch

Starch stores energy in plants; cellulose (also a polysaccharide) is structural, and glucose is the monosaccharide unit.

Q3A protein loses its function when heated strongly because it:

  1. Agains energy
  2. Bdenatures (loses its shape)
  3. Cturns into a carbohydrate
  4. Ddissolves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures (loses its shape)

Heat unfolds the protein's precise shape — denaturing — and the shape is what its function depends on.

Q4Lipids differ from carbohydrates in that they:

  1. Astore more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
  2. Bare made of amino acids
  3. Cdissolve easily in water
  4. Dcannot store energy
Show answer

Correct answer: A — store more energy per gram and are insoluble in water

Fats and oils pack more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are water-insoluble; they also form membranes and insulation.

Q5An enzyme is best described as a:

  1. Acarbohydrate that stores energy
  2. Bbiological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
  3. Ctype of lipid
  4. Dsource of quick energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — biological catalyst that is specific to its substrate

Enzymes are protein catalysts, each shaped to fit one substrate (lock and key), speeding a reaction without being used up.

Q6Enzyme activity falls sharply far from its optimum pH because the enzyme:

  1. Aruns out
  2. Bdenatures
  3. Cbecomes a substrate
  4. Dgains energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures

As a protein, an extreme pH unfolds (denatures) the enzyme, destroying the shape it needs to work.

Q7Monomers join to form a polymer in a reaction that releases water. This is:

  1. Ahydrolysis
  2. Bcondensation
  3. Ccombustion
  4. Doxidation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — condensation

Condensation joins monomers and releases a small molecule such as water; hydrolysis is the reverse.

Q8A brick-red precipitate on warming with Benedict's solution shows the presence of:

  1. Astarch
  2. Bprotein
  3. Ca reducing sugar
  4. Da lipid
Show answer

Correct answer: C — a reducing sugar

Benedict's solution turns from blue to brick-red with a reducing sugar such as glucose.

Q9An amino acid normally exists as a zwitterion because:

  1. Ait has two amino groups
  2. Ba proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
  3. Cit is non-polar
  4. Dit contains a benzene ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂

The acidic –COOH donates a proton to the basic –NH₂, giving a species with + and − charges but no net charge.

Q10At a pH below its isoelectric point, an amino acid will be:

  1. Anegatively charged
  2. Bpositively charged
  3. Cneutral zwitterion only
  4. Duncharged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — positively charged

In more acidic conditions it gains H⁺ on the –COO⁻, giving an overall positive charge.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Name the three main classes of nutrients that are large biological molecules, and the smaller units each is built from.
Answer

Carbohydrates (from simple sugars), proteins (from amino acids) and fats/lipids (from fatty acids and glycerol).

Q2[2 marks]
Describe the test for a protein and its positive result.
Answer

Add biuret reagent (sodium hydroxide then copper(II) sulfate solution); a positive result is a colour change from blue to purple/violet.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain what happens when a carbohydrate such as starch is digested, and why enzymes are needed.
Answer

Starch is broken down (hydrolysed) into simple sugars such as glucose. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up this reaction at body temperature, which would otherwise be far too slow.

Q4[6 marks]
Enzymes control the reactions in living organisms.
  1. Explain what is meant by an enzyme being a catalyst. [2]
  2. Describe and explain the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity up to and beyond the optimum. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. It speeds up a reaction[1]
  2. without being used up / by lowering the activation energy[1]
  3. As temperature rises up to the optimum, activity increases[1]
  4. because particles collide more frequently and with more energy[1]
  5. Above the optimum, activity falls sharply[1]
  6. because the enzyme is denatured — its shape (active site) changes so substrate no longer fits[1]

Catalyst = speeds a reaction without being used up; activity rises to an optimum then falls as the enzyme denatures (active site changes shape).

Q5[2 marks]
Explain the difference between condensation and hydrolysis reactions in biological molecules.
Answer

Condensation joins two monomers together and releases a small molecule (usually water), building a polymer. Hydrolysis is the reverse: it adds water to split a polymer back into its monomers, as in digestion.

Q6[6 marks]
A student is given an unknown food sample to analyse.
  1. Describe the tests for starch and for protein, with their positive results. [4]
  2. The sample gives a cloudy emulsion in the emulsion test. What does this show, and how is the test carried out? [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Starch: add iodine solution[1]
  2. a blue-black colour is a positive result[1]
  3. Protein: add biuret solution[1]
  4. a purple/violet colour is a positive result[1]
  5. A cloudy emulsion shows a lipid (fat) is present[1]
  6. dissolve the sample in ethanol then add water — a cloudy white emulsion forms[1]

Starch → iodine blue-black; protein → biuret purple; lipid → cloudy emulsion (ethanol then water).

Q7[3 marks]
Explain what a zwitterion is and why amino acids can act as buffers.
Answer

A zwitterion is an amino acid that has transferred a proton internally from its –COOH to its –NH₂, giving –NH₃⁺ and –COO⁻ ends and no overall charge. It can accept H⁺ (onto –COO⁻) in acid and donate H⁺ (from –NH₃⁺) in alkali, so it resists pH change — acting as a buffer.

11

Biochemistry

Multiple choice · 10

Q1The building blocks of proteins are:

  1. Amonosaccharides
  2. Bamino acids
  3. Cfatty acids
  4. Dnucleotides
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amino acids

Amino acids join by peptide bonds into protein chains; monosaccharides build carbohydrates and fatty acids build lipids.

Q2Which is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?

  1. AGlucose
  2. BStarch
  3. CCellulose
  4. DGlycerol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Starch

Starch stores energy in plants; cellulose (also a polysaccharide) is structural, and glucose is the monosaccharide unit.

Q3A protein loses its function when heated strongly because it:

  1. Agains energy
  2. Bdenatures (loses its shape)
  3. Cturns into a carbohydrate
  4. Ddissolves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures (loses its shape)

Heat unfolds the protein's precise shape — denaturing — and the shape is what its function depends on.

Q4Lipids differ from carbohydrates in that they:

  1. Astore more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
  2. Bare made of amino acids
  3. Cdissolve easily in water
  4. Dcannot store energy
Show answer

Correct answer: A — store more energy per gram and are insoluble in water

Fats and oils pack more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are water-insoluble; they also form membranes and insulation.

Q5An enzyme is best described as a:

  1. Acarbohydrate that stores energy
  2. Bbiological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
  3. Ctype of lipid
  4. Dsource of quick energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — biological catalyst that is specific to its substrate

Enzymes are protein catalysts, each shaped to fit one substrate (lock and key), speeding a reaction without being used up.

Q6Enzyme activity falls sharply far from its optimum pH because the enzyme:

  1. Aruns out
  2. Bdenatures
  3. Cbecomes a substrate
  4. Dgains energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures

As a protein, an extreme pH unfolds (denatures) the enzyme, destroying the shape it needs to work.

Q7Monomers join to form a polymer in a reaction that releases water. This is:

  1. Ahydrolysis
  2. Bcondensation
  3. Ccombustion
  4. Doxidation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — condensation

Condensation joins monomers and releases a small molecule such as water; hydrolysis is the reverse.

Q8A brick-red precipitate on warming with Benedict's solution shows the presence of:

  1. Astarch
  2. Bprotein
  3. Ca reducing sugar
  4. Da lipid
Show answer

Correct answer: C — a reducing sugar

Benedict's solution turns from blue to brick-red with a reducing sugar such as glucose.

Q9An amino acid normally exists as a zwitterion because:

  1. Ait has two amino groups
  2. Ba proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
  3. Cit is non-polar
  4. Dit contains a benzene ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂

The acidic –COOH donates a proton to the basic –NH₂, giving a species with + and − charges but no net charge.

Q10At a pH below its isoelectric point, an amino acid will be:

  1. Anegatively charged
  2. Bpositively charged
  3. Cneutral zwitterion only
  4. Duncharged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — positively charged

In more acidic conditions it gains H⁺ on the –COO⁻, giving an overall positive charge.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Name the three main classes of nutrients that are large biological molecules, and the smaller units each is built from.
Answer

Carbohydrates (from simple sugars), proteins (from amino acids) and fats/lipids (from fatty acids and glycerol).

Q2[2 marks]
Describe the test for a protein and its positive result.
Answer

Add biuret reagent (sodium hydroxide then copper(II) sulfate solution); a positive result is a colour change from blue to purple/violet.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain what happens when a carbohydrate such as starch is digested, and why enzymes are needed.
Answer

Starch is broken down (hydrolysed) into simple sugars such as glucose. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up this reaction at body temperature, which would otherwise be far too slow.

Q4[6 marks]
Enzymes control the reactions in living organisms.
  1. Explain what is meant by an enzyme being a catalyst. [2]
  2. Describe and explain the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity up to and beyond the optimum. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. It speeds up a reaction[1]
  2. without being used up / by lowering the activation energy[1]
  3. As temperature rises up to the optimum, activity increases[1]
  4. because particles collide more frequently and with more energy[1]
  5. Above the optimum, activity falls sharply[1]
  6. because the enzyme is denatured — its shape (active site) changes so substrate no longer fits[1]

Catalyst = speeds a reaction without being used up; activity rises to an optimum then falls as the enzyme denatures (active site changes shape).

Q5[2 marks]
Explain the difference between condensation and hydrolysis reactions in biological molecules.
Answer

Condensation joins two monomers together and releases a small molecule (usually water), building a polymer. Hydrolysis is the reverse: it adds water to split a polymer back into its monomers, as in digestion.

Q6[6 marks]
A student is given an unknown food sample to analyse.
  1. Describe the tests for starch and for protein, with their positive results. [4]
  2. The sample gives a cloudy emulsion in the emulsion test. What does this show, and how is the test carried out? [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Starch: add iodine solution[1]
  2. a blue-black colour is a positive result[1]
  3. Protein: add biuret solution[1]
  4. a purple/violet colour is a positive result[1]
  5. A cloudy emulsion shows a lipid (fat) is present[1]
  6. dissolve the sample in ethanol then add water — a cloudy white emulsion forms[1]

Starch → iodine blue-black; protein → biuret purple; lipid → cloudy emulsion (ethanol then water).

Q7[3 marks]
Explain what a zwitterion is and why amino acids can act as buffers.
Answer

A zwitterion is an amino acid that has transferred a proton internally from its –COOH to its –NH₂, giving –NH₃⁺ and –COO⁻ ends and no overall charge. It can accept H⁺ (onto –COO⁻) in acid and donate H⁺ (from –NH₃⁺) in alkali, so it resists pH change — acting as a buffer.

12

Chromatography

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A pure substance, unlike a mixture, melts:

  1. Aover a wide range
  2. Bsharply at one fixed temperature
  3. Conly when dissolved
  4. Dwithout any heat
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sharply at one fixed temperature

A sharp, fixed melting point is the practical test of purity; mixtures melt over a range.

Q2To separate sand from water you would use:

  1. Adistillation
  2. Bfiltration
  3. Cchromatography
  4. Dcrystallisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — filtration

Sand is insoluble, so filtration catches it on the paper while the water passes through.

Q3To get pure water from seawater you would use:

  1. Afiltration
  2. Bsimple distillation
  3. Ccrystallisation
  4. Dchromatography
Show answer

Correct answer: B — simple distillation

Distillation boils off the water and condenses it, leaving the dissolved salts behind.

Q4An Rf value is always:

  1. Agreater than 1
  2. Bbetween 0 and 1
  3. Ca whole number
  4. Dnegative
Show answer

Correct answer: B — between 0 and 1

A substance cannot travel further than the solvent, so distance ratio Rf lies between 0 and 1.

Q5Which gas relights a glowing splint?

  1. AHydrogen
  2. BCarbon dioxide
  3. COxygen
  4. DAmmonia
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Oxygen

Oxygen relights a glowing splint; hydrogen gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint.

Q6Limewater turning milky is the test for:

  1. Aoxygen
  2. Bhydrogen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dchlorine
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky — the standard CO₂ test.

Q7A white precipitate forms when barium chloride and dilute acid are added to a solution. The ion present is:

  1. Achloride
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Csulfate
  4. Dnitrate
Show answer

Correct answer: C — sulfate

Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate — the test for a sulfate ion.

Q8A cream precipitate with silver nitrate indicates a:

  1. Achloride
  2. Bbromide
  3. Ciodide
  4. Dsulfate
Show answer

Correct answer: B — bromide

Silver bromide is cream (chloride is white, iodide is yellow).

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe how you would obtain pure water from a mixture of water and salt.
Answer

By simple distillation: heat the solution so water boils off, then condense the vapour back to liquid; the salt remains behind.

Q2[2 marks]
State how a chromatogram can be used to tell whether a dye is a pure substance.
Answer

A pure substance produces a single spot on the chromatogram; a mixture separates into two or more spots.

Q3[3 marks]
Define the term Rf value and state how it is calculated.
Answer

The Rf value is the ratio of the distance moved by the spot to the distance moved by the solvent front. Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent.

Q4[6 marks]
A student is given a mixture of sand and copper(II) sulfate.
  1. Describe how to obtain a dry sample of sand from the mixture. [3]
  2. Describe how to obtain pure copper(II) sulfate crystals from the remaining solution. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Add water and stir to dissolve the copper(II) sulfate[1]
  2. Filter — sand is the residue in the filter paper[1]
  3. Wash and dry the sand[1]
  4. Heat the filtrate to evaporate water to the point of crystallisation[1]
  5. Leave to cool so crystals form[1]
  6. Filter off and dry the crystals[1]

Dissolve, filter (sand = residue), wash and dry it; evaporate the filtrate to crystallisation, cool, filter and dry the crystals.

Q5[2 marks]
Describe how you would use flame tests to distinguish a sodium salt from a potassium salt.
Answer

Dip a clean wire in the salt and hold it in a blue flame: sodium gives a yellow flame, potassium gives a lilac flame.

Q6[6 marks]
An unknown solid is thought to be iron(II) sulfate.
  1. Describe the test and result that would confirm the iron(II) ion. [3]
  2. Describe the test and result that would confirm the sulfate ion. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Dissolve the solid and add sodium hydroxide solution[1]
  2. a green precipitate forms[1]
  3. confirming the iron(II) ion, Fe²⁺[1]
  4. To a fresh sample add dilute (hydrochloric or nitric) acid, then barium chloride solution[1]
  5. a white precipitate forms[1]
  6. confirming the sulfate ion, SO₄²⁻[1]

Fe²⁺: NaOH gives a green precipitate. SO₄²⁻: acid + barium chloride gives a white precipitate.

13

Spectroscopy I (IR & Mass Spectrometry)

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In a mass spectrum, the relative molecular mass is given by the:

  1. Atallest peak
  2. Bmolecular ion peak (highest m/z)
  3. Cfirst fragment
  4. Dfingerprint region
Show answer

Correct answer: B — molecular ion peak (highest m/z)

The molecular ion M⁺, at the highest m/z ignoring isotope peaks, equals the relative molecular mass.

Q2Two peaks two m/z units apart in a roughly 3:1 ratio indicate the presence of:

  1. Abromine
  2. Bchlorine
  3. Cnitrogen
  4. Doxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — chlorine

Chlorine's ³⁵Cl and ³⁷Cl isotopes (about 3:1) give M and M+2 peaks in that ratio; bromine gives ~1:1.

Q3A strong infrared absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a:

  1. AC–H bond
  2. BC=O group
  3. CC–C bond
  4. Dlone pair
Show answer

Correct answer: B — C=O group

The carbonyl group C=O absorbs strongly around 1680–1750 cm⁻¹.

Q4A broad infrared absorption around 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ suggests a(n):

  1. AC=C bond
  2. BO–H group
  3. Cmetal
  4. Dnoble gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — O–H group

A broad band at 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ is characteristic of the O–H of alcohols and carboxylic acids.

Q5The number of peaks in a ¹H NMR spectrum tells you the number of:

  1. Acarbon atoms
  2. Bdifferent hydrogen environments
  3. Cdouble bonds
  4. Disotopes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — different hydrogen environments

Each set of equivalent hydrogens (one environment) gives one signal.

Q6A ¹H NMR peak split into a triplet indicates how many hydrogens on the neighbouring carbon?

  1. Aone
  2. Btwo
  3. Cthree
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — two

By the n+1 rule, a triplet (3 lines) means n = 2 neighbouring hydrogens.

Q7In thin-layer chromatography, the Rf value is:

  1. Aalways greater than 1
  2. Bdistance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent
  3. Cthe retention time
  4. Dthe boiling point
Show answer

Correct answer: B — distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent

Rf compares how far the spot moved with how far the solvent front moved; it is between 0 and 1.

Q8To identify an unknown organic compound fully, a chemist typically uses:

  1. Amass spectrometry alone
  2. BIR alone
  3. CNMR alone
  4. Dmass spec, IR and NMR together
Show answer

Correct answer: D — mass spec, IR and NMR together

Each technique gives different information; combined, they pin down the structure.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what the molecular ion peak in a mass spectrum tells you.
Answer

The mass/charge value of the molecular ion peak (highest m/z, ignoring isotope peaks) gives the relative molecular mass of the compound.

Q2[2 marks]
State what an infrared spectrum is used to identify, giving one example absorption.
Answer

It identifies bonds/functional groups present; for example a strong absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a C=O group (or a broad band ~3300 cm⁻¹ indicates O–H).

Q3[3 marks]
In a ¹H NMR spectrum, state what the number of peaks, the integration, and the splitting each tell you.
Answer

Number of peaks = number of different hydrogen environments; integration (area) = the ratio of hydrogens in each environment; splitting = the number of hydrogens on neighbouring carbons (n+1 lines for n neighbours).

Q4[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 46, a broad IR absorption around 3300 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows three peaks.
  1. State the relative molecular mass of X. [1]
  2. State what the broad IR absorption at 3300 cm⁻¹ suggests. [1]
  3. Explain what "three peaks" in the ¹H NMR tells you, and deduce the identity of X. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Relative molecular mass = 46[1]
  2. The broad ~3300 cm⁻¹ band suggests an O–H group (alcohol)[1]
  3. Three peaks means three different hydrogen environments[1]
  4. Ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH, has Mr 46[1]
  5. It has three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH)[1]
  6. so X is ethanol[1]

Mr = 46; O–H group present; three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH) → X is ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH.

Q5[2 marks]
In a TLC experiment, a spot moves 3.6 cm while the solvent front moves 4.8 cm. Calculate its Rf value.
Answer

Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent = 3.6 ÷ 4.8 = 0.75.

Q6[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 60, a strong IR absorption at 1710 cm⁻¹ and a broad one at 3000 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows two peaks.
  1. State the relative molecular mass and the functional group(s) suggested by the IR. [2]
  2. State what two ¹H NMR peaks tell you. [1]
  3. Deduce the identity of X and justify it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Relative molecular mass = 60[1]
  2. 1710 cm⁻¹ suggests C=O and the broad 3000 cm⁻¹ suggests the O–H of a carboxylic acid[1]
  3. Two peaks means two hydrogen environments[1]
  4. A carboxylic acid of Mr 60 is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH[1]
  5. it has two H environments (CH₃ and COOH)[1]
  6. and contains both C=O and O–H, matching the IR — so X is ethanoic acid[1]

Mr = 60; C=O + O–H (carboxylic acid); two H environments → X is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH.

14

Spectroscopy II (NMR)

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In a mass spectrum, the relative molecular mass is given by the:

  1. Atallest peak
  2. Bmolecular ion peak (highest m/z)
  3. Cfirst fragment
  4. Dfingerprint region
Show answer

Correct answer: B — molecular ion peak (highest m/z)

The molecular ion M⁺, at the highest m/z ignoring isotope peaks, equals the relative molecular mass.

Q2Two peaks two m/z units apart in a roughly 3:1 ratio indicate the presence of:

  1. Abromine
  2. Bchlorine
  3. Cnitrogen
  4. Doxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — chlorine

Chlorine's ³⁵Cl and ³⁷Cl isotopes (about 3:1) give M and M+2 peaks in that ratio; bromine gives ~1:1.

Q3A strong infrared absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a:

  1. AC–H bond
  2. BC=O group
  3. CC–C bond
  4. Dlone pair
Show answer

Correct answer: B — C=O group

The carbonyl group C=O absorbs strongly around 1680–1750 cm⁻¹.

Q4A broad infrared absorption around 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ suggests a(n):

  1. AC=C bond
  2. BO–H group
  3. Cmetal
  4. Dnoble gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — O–H group

A broad band at 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ is characteristic of the O–H of alcohols and carboxylic acids.

Q5The number of peaks in a ¹H NMR spectrum tells you the number of:

  1. Acarbon atoms
  2. Bdifferent hydrogen environments
  3. Cdouble bonds
  4. Disotopes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — different hydrogen environments

Each set of equivalent hydrogens (one environment) gives one signal.

Q6A ¹H NMR peak split into a triplet indicates how many hydrogens on the neighbouring carbon?

  1. Aone
  2. Btwo
  3. Cthree
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — two

By the n+1 rule, a triplet (3 lines) means n = 2 neighbouring hydrogens.

Q7In thin-layer chromatography, the Rf value is:

  1. Aalways greater than 1
  2. Bdistance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent
  3. Cthe retention time
  4. Dthe boiling point
Show answer

Correct answer: B — distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent

Rf compares how far the spot moved with how far the solvent front moved; it is between 0 and 1.

Q8To identify an unknown organic compound fully, a chemist typically uses:

  1. Amass spectrometry alone
  2. BIR alone
  3. CNMR alone
  4. Dmass spec, IR and NMR together
Show answer

Correct answer: D — mass spec, IR and NMR together

Each technique gives different information; combined, they pin down the structure.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what the molecular ion peak in a mass spectrum tells you.
Answer

The mass/charge value of the molecular ion peak (highest m/z, ignoring isotope peaks) gives the relative molecular mass of the compound.

Q2[2 marks]
State what an infrared spectrum is used to identify, giving one example absorption.
Answer

It identifies bonds/functional groups present; for example a strong absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a C=O group (or a broad band ~3300 cm⁻¹ indicates O–H).

Q3[3 marks]
In a ¹H NMR spectrum, state what the number of peaks, the integration, and the splitting each tell you.
Answer

Number of peaks = number of different hydrogen environments; integration (area) = the ratio of hydrogens in each environment; splitting = the number of hydrogens on neighbouring carbons (n+1 lines for n neighbours).

Q4[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 46, a broad IR absorption around 3300 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows three peaks.
  1. State the relative molecular mass of X. [1]
  2. State what the broad IR absorption at 3300 cm⁻¹ suggests. [1]
  3. Explain what "three peaks" in the ¹H NMR tells you, and deduce the identity of X. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Relative molecular mass = 46[1]
  2. The broad ~3300 cm⁻¹ band suggests an O–H group (alcohol)[1]
  3. Three peaks means three different hydrogen environments[1]
  4. Ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH, has Mr 46[1]
  5. It has three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH)[1]
  6. so X is ethanol[1]

Mr = 46; O–H group present; three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH) → X is ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH.

Q5[2 marks]
In a TLC experiment, a spot moves 3.6 cm while the solvent front moves 4.8 cm. Calculate its Rf value.
Answer

Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent = 3.6 ÷ 4.8 = 0.75.

Q6[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 60, a strong IR absorption at 1710 cm⁻¹ and a broad one at 3000 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows two peaks.
  1. State the relative molecular mass and the functional group(s) suggested by the IR. [2]
  2. State what two ¹H NMR peaks tell you. [1]
  3. Deduce the identity of X and justify it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Relative molecular mass = 60[1]
  2. 1710 cm⁻¹ suggests C=O and the broad 3000 cm⁻¹ suggests the O–H of a carboxylic acid[1]
  3. Two peaks means two hydrogen environments[1]
  4. A carboxylic acid of Mr 60 is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH[1]
  5. it has two H environments (CH₃ and COOH)[1]
  6. and contains both C=O and O–H, matching the IR — so X is ethanoic acid[1]

Mr = 60; C=O + O–H (carboxylic acid); two H environments → X is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH.

15

Materials and Energy

Multiple choice · 8

Q1ΔH for an exothermic reaction is:

  1. Apositive
  2. Bnegative
  3. Czero
  4. Dalways 1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — negative

Exothermic reactions release heat, so the enthalpy change is negative.

Q2Hess's law works because enthalpy is:

  1. Aalways positive
  2. Ba state function (route-independent)
  3. Cmeasured directly
  4. Dthe same as temperature
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a state function (route-independent)

Enthalpy depends only on start and end states, so the total ΔH is independent of the path.

Q3The standard enthalpy of formation of O₂(g) is:

  1. Aa large negative number
  2. Bzero
  3. Cpositive
  4. Dunknown
Show answer

Correct answer: B — zero

An element in its standard state has ΔHf° = 0 by definition.

Q4In q = mcΔT, c is the:

  1. Anumber of moles
  2. Bspecific heat capacity
  3. Cconcentration
  4. Dspeed of the reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — specific heat capacity

c is the specific heat capacity — the heat needed to raise 1 g of the substance by 1 °C.

Q5If a reaction has ΔH = −200 kJ, the reverse reaction has ΔH =

  1. A−200 kJ
  2. B+200 kJ
  3. C0
  4. D−400 kJ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — +200 kJ

Reversing a reaction reverses the sign of its enthalpy change.

Q6Heat released warms 200 g of water by 10 °C (c = 4.18). The heat is about:

  1. A0.84 kJ
  2. B8.4 kJ
  3. C84 kJ
  4. D0.42 kJ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 8.4 kJ

q = mcΔT = 200 × 4.18 × 10 = 8360 J ≈ 8.4 kJ.

Q7Using ΔH = Σ(bonds broken) − Σ(bonds made), a reaction is exothermic when:

  1. Amore energy is absorbed breaking bonds than released making them
  2. Bmore energy is released making bonds than absorbed breaking them
  3. Cno bonds break
  4. Dthe temperature falls
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more energy is released making bonds than absorbed breaking them

If bond-making releases more than bond-breaking absorbs, ΔH is negative — exothermic.

Q8Which ionic compound has the most exothermic lattice energy?

  1. ANaCl
  2. BKCl
  3. CMgO
  4. DKBr
Show answer

Correct answer: C — MgO

MgO has doubly-charged, small ions (Mg²⁺, O²⁻), giving the strongest electrostatic attraction and largest lattice energy.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define the standard enthalpy change of reaction, ΔH.
Answer

The heat energy change for a reaction measured at standard conditions (298 K, 1 atm), with substances in their standard states.

Q2[3 marks]
State Hess's law and explain why it is useful.
Answer

The total enthalpy change of a reaction is independent of the route taken, provided the initial and final conditions are the same. It lets us calculate enthalpy changes that cannot be measured directly.

Q3[2 marks]
Write the expression used to calculate heat energy released when a solution's temperature changes (q = mcΔT), defining each term.
Answer

q = mcΔT, where q = heat energy, m = mass of solution, c = specific heat capacity, ΔT = temperature change.

Q4[7 marks]
Burning 0.50 g of ethanol raises the temperature of 100 g of water by 30 °C. (c of water = 4.2 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹; Mr ethanol = 46)
  1. Calculate the heat energy released to the water. [2]
  2. Calculate the number of moles of ethanol burned. [1]
  3. Calculate the enthalpy change of combustion of ethanol in kJ/mol. [3]
  4. Suggest why the experimental value is smaller in magnitude than the data-book value. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. q = mcΔT = 100 × 4.2 × 30[1]
  2. = 12600 J = 12.6 kJ[1]
  3. Moles ethanol = 0.50 ÷ 46 = 0.0109 mol[1]
  4. ΔH = energy ÷ moles = 12.6 ÷ 0.0109[1]
  5. = 1156 kJ/mol (magnitude)[1]
  6. ΔH is negative (exothermic): ≈ −1160 kJ/mol[1]
  7. Heat is lost to the surroundings / incomplete combustion[1]

q = 12.6 kJ; 0.0109 mol; ΔH ≈ −1160 kJ/mol; lower magnitude due to heat loss / incomplete combustion.

Q5[3 marks]
For the reaction H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl, use the bond enthalpies H–H = 436, Cl–Cl = 242, H–Cl = 431 kJ/mol to calculate ΔH.
Answer

Bonds broken = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Bonds made = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 − 862 = −184 kJ/mol (exothermic).

Q6[6 marks]
Magnesium oxide and sodium chloride are both ionic solids.
  1. Define the term lattice energy. [2]
  2. Explain why the lattice energy of magnesium oxide is much more exothermic than that of sodium chloride. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. The energy released when gaseous ions[1]
  2. combine to form one mole of solid ionic lattice[1]
  3. MgO contains Mg²⁺ and O²⁻ ions with 2+ and 2− charges[1]
  4. NaCl contains only 1+ and 1− ions[1]
  5. the ions in MgO are also smaller[1]
  6. higher charges and smaller radii give stronger electrostatic attraction, so a much larger (more exothermic) lattice energy[1]

Lattice energy = energy released forming a mole of lattice from gaseous ions; MgO's higher charges and smaller ions give much stronger attraction than NaCl.

16

Medicine, Agriculture and Industry

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Industrial processes choose conditions to balance yield, cost and:

  1. Acolour
  2. Brate
  3. Ctaste
  4. Dweight
Show answer

Correct answer: B — rate

A usable rate matters as much as yield — a high-yield process that is too slow is useless.

Q2The Haber process makes:

  1. Asodium carbonate
  2. Bammonia
  3. Csulfuric acid
  4. Dpetrol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ammonia

N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ — ammonia, mostly used for fertiliser.

Q3The Haber process uses ~450 °C rather than a lower temperature because a lower temperature would:

  1. Agive less ammonia
  2. Bmake the reaction too slow
  3. Ccost nothing
  4. Dstop the catalyst working
Show answer

Correct answer: B — make the reaction too slow

Low temperature favours more ammonia (exothermic) but the rate becomes impractically slow, so a compromise is used.

Q4The Solvay process makes sodium carbonate from:

  1. Acrude oil
  2. Bsalt and limestone
  3. Cammonia and hydrogen
  4. Dair and water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — salt and limestone

Brine (salt) and limestone are the raw materials; the ammonia and CO₂ used are recycled.

Q5Cracking in an oil refinery is done to:

  1. Ajoin small molecules into big ones
  2. Bbreak long fractions into petrol and alkenes
  3. Cremove sulfur
  4. Dmake crude oil
Show answer

Correct answer: B — break long fractions into petrol and alkenes

Cracking breaks large, less useful hydrocarbons into smaller ones — more petrol and the alkenes for plastics.

Q6Ammonia is turned into fertiliser mainly by:

  1. Aburning it
  2. Bmaking it into ammonium salts and nitrates
  3. Ccracking it
  4. Delectrolysing it
Show answer

Correct answer: B — making it into ammonium salts and nitrates

Ammonia is oxidised to nitric acid and reacted with acids to form ammonium salts/nitrates — the nitrogen source for crops.

Q7The catalyst used in the Contact process is:

  1. Airon
  2. Bvanadium(V) oxide
  3. Cnickel
  4. Dplatinum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — vanadium(V) oxide

The Contact process uses vanadium(V) oxide to catalyse 2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃.

Q8Eutrophication is caused by:

  1. Aburning fossil fuels
  2. Bfertiliser run-off into water
  3. Cacid rain
  4. Dchlorinating water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — fertiliser run-off into water

Excess fertiliser washing into water causes algal blooms; their decay removes oxygen and kills aquatic life.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Name the raw materials for the Haber process and give the equation.
Answer

Nitrogen (from air) and hydrogen (from natural gas / methane): N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃.

Q2[2 marks]
State the catalyst and the approximate temperature used in the Haber process.
Answer

An iron catalyst at about 450 °C (and about 200 atm pressure).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why a compromise temperature of about 450 °C is used in the Haber process, even though the forward reaction is exothermic.
Answer

A low temperature would favour a higher yield of ammonia (exothermic forward reaction) but the reaction would be far too slow; a high temperature would be fast but give a low yield. 450 °C is a compromise giving an acceptable yield at a workable rate.

Q4[6 marks]
Ammonia from the Haber process is used to make nitrogen fertilisers.
  1. State why nitrogen fertilisers are added to soil. [1]
  2. Ammonia is neutralised by nitric acid to make a fertiliser. Name the salt formed and write the equation. [3]
  3. Describe one environmental problem caused by the overuse of nitrogen fertilisers. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. To provide nitrogen for plant growth / to increase crop yield[1]
  2. The salt is ammonium nitrate[1]
  3. NH₃ + HNO₃ → NH₄NO₃ (correct formulae)[1]
  4. balanced equation[1]
  5. Fertiliser washes into rivers/lakes (leaching)[1]
  6. causing eutrophication — algal growth, then oxygen depletion killing aquatic life[1]

Fertilisers supply nitrogen for growth; NH₃ + HNO₃ → NH₄NO₃ (ammonium nitrate); overuse causes eutrophication in waterways.

Q5[3 marks]
Ammonia from the Haber process is used to make ammonium nitrate fertiliser. Outline how, and name the acid required.
Answer

Some ammonia is oxidised (the Ostwald process) to make nitric acid; the nitric acid is then neutralised with more ammonia: NH₃ + HNO₃ → NH₄NO₃, giving ammonium nitrate.

Q6[6 marks]
The Haber process makes ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen.
  1. State the source of each reactant and give the equation. [3]
  2. Explain why unreacted nitrogen and hydrogen are recycled. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Nitrogen from the air[1]
  2. hydrogen from natural gas (methane) / steam[1]
  3. N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃[1]
  4. The reaction reaches equilibrium, so only some reactants convert each pass[1]
  5. recycling unreacted gases avoids wasting them[1]
  6. which raises the overall yield and lowers cost[1]

N₂ (air) + H₂ (natural gas) ⇌ 2NH₃; unreacted gases are recycled because equilibrium limits each pass, improving overall yield and cutting waste.

17

Water

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The approximate percentage of oxygen in clean dry air is:

  1. A78%
  2. B21%
  3. C1%
  4. D0.04%
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 21%

Air is about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with ~1% argon and ~0.04% CO₂.

Q2Carbon monoxide is dangerous because it:

  1. Acauses acid rain
  2. Bstops the blood carrying oxygen
  3. Cis highly flammable only
  4. Ddepletes ozone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stops the blood carrying oxygen

CO binds to the blood in place of oxygen, so the body is starved of it — and it comes from incomplete combustion.

Q3Which pollutant is the main cause of acid rain?

  1. ACarbon dioxide
  2. BSulfur dioxide
  3. CArgon
  4. DMethane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Sulfur dioxide

Sulfur dioxide (with oxides of nitrogen) dissolves in atmospheric water to form acids — acid rain.

Q4The enhanced greenhouse effect is mainly driven by rising:

  1. Aoxygen
  2. Bnitrogen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dargon
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Extra CO₂ (and methane) from burning fossil fuels traps more radiated heat, warming the climate.

Q5Chlorination is a step in water treatment to:

  1. Aremove solid particles
  2. Bkill bacteria
  3. Cadd minerals
  4. Dsoften the water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kill bacteria

Filtration removes solids; chlorination kills bacteria to make the water safe to drink.

Q6A catalytic converter changes CO and NOₓ into:

  1. ASO₂ and soot
  2. BCO₂ and N₂
  3. Cmore CO
  4. Dozone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — CO₂ and N₂

It converts the toxic exhaust gases into harmless carbon dioxide and nitrogen.

Q7Oxides of nitrogen form in car engines because:

  1. Anitrogen is in the fuel
  2. Bthe high temperature makes N₂ and O₂ combine
  3. Cof incomplete combustion
  4. Dthe catalyst produces them
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the high temperature makes N₂ and O₂ combine

The intense heat of combustion makes atmospheric nitrogen and oxygen react to form NOₓ.

Q8Chlorination is used in water treatment to:

  1. Aremove dissolved salts
  2. Bkill microbes
  3. Cremove solids
  4. Dsoften the water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kill microbes

Chlorine sterilises the water by killing harmful microorganisms; solids are removed earlier by filtration.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State the approximate percentages of the two main gases in clean, dry air.
Answer

About 78% nitrogen and about 21% oxygen (the remaining ~1% is mostly argon with a little carbon dioxide).

Q2[2 marks]
Name a chemical test for water and its positive result.
Answer

Add anhydrous copper(II) sulfate — it turns from white to blue in the presence of water (or blue cobalt chloride paper turns pink).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain how the carbon dioxide produced by burning fossil fuels contributes to climate change.
Answer

Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas; it absorbs and re-emits heat (infrared radiation) that would otherwise escape, so the extra CO₂ traps more heat and raises average global temperatures.

Q4[6 marks]
Rusting is a serious problem for iron structures.
  1. State the two substances needed for iron to rust. [2]
  2. Describe how galvanising protects iron and how it works even if the coating is scratched. [3]
  3. Name one other method of rust prevention. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Water (moisture)[1]
  2. Oxygen (air)[1]
  3. Galvanising coats the iron with a layer of zinc[1]
  4. The zinc is more reactive than iron, so it corrodes/loses electrons in preference (sacrificial protection)[1]
  5. so the iron is protected even where the coating is scratched[1]
  6. Painting / oiling / greasing / coating with plastic (any one)[1]

Water + oxygen needed; galvanising = zinc coating that sacrificially protects (zinc more reactive) even if scratched; also painting/oiling.

Q5[3 marks]
Explain how the sulfur dioxide released by burning coal leads to acid rain and one of its effects.
Answer

Sulfur impurities in the coal burn to sulfur dioxide, which dissolves in rainwater to form an acidic solution (sulfurous/sulfuric acid). This acid rain damages plants and forests, acidifies lakes killing fish, or corrodes limestone buildings and metals.

Q6[6 marks]
Burning fossil fuels releases several gases into the atmosphere.
  1. Explain how carbon monoxide is formed and why it is harmful. [3]
  2. Explain how a catalytic converter reduces harmful emissions, giving one equation. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Carbon monoxide forms by incomplete combustion[1]
  2. when there is not enough oxygen to make CO₂[1]
  3. it is toxic because it prevents the blood from carrying oxygen[1]
  4. The converter provides a catalyst surface where pollutants react[1]
  5. carbon monoxide is oxidised to carbon dioxide[1]
  6. 2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂ (and NOₓ is reduced to N₂)[1]

CO from incomplete combustion, toxic (stops blood carrying O₂); catalytic converter oxidises CO to CO₂ (2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂) and reduces NOₓ to N₂.

These questions come from the 2nd Year Chemistry lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.