2nd Year Biology — MCQs & Practice Questions

96 multiple-choice questions and 58 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

New to a topic? Read the 2nd Year Biology notes first, then come back to practise.

13

Homeostasis

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Homeostasis is the maintenance of a constant:

  1. Aexternal environment
  2. Binternal environment
  3. Cbody size
  4. Dheart rate only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — internal environment

Homeostasis keeps the internal environment steady despite outside changes.

Q2The nitrogenous waste removed by the kidneys is:

  1. Aglucose
  2. Burea
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dprotein
Show answer

Correct answer: B — urea

The kidneys remove urea, made in the liver from excess amino acids.

Q3When you are too hot, the skin blood vessels:

  1. Anarrow (vasoconstriction)
  2. Bwiden (vasodilation)
  3. Cdisappear
  4. Dstop flowing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — widen (vasodilation)

Vasodilation brings more blood near the surface to lose heat.

Q4Insulin lowers blood glucose by making the liver:

  1. Arelease glucose
  2. Bstore glucose as glycogen
  3. Cmake urea
  4. Dsweat
Show answer

Correct answer: B — store glucose as glycogen

Insulin causes glucose to be taken up and stored as glycogen.

Q5Most homeostatic control works by:

  1. Apositive feedback
  2. Bnegative feedback
  3. Cdiffusion only
  4. Dactive transport only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — negative feedback

Negative feedback opposes a change, returning the level to normal.

Q6When short of water, the kidneys produce urine that is:

  1. Adilute and plentiful
  2. Bconcentrated and small in volume
  3. Cfull of glucose
  4. Dfull of protein
Show answer

Correct answer: B — concentrated and small in volume

ADH makes the kidneys reabsorb more water, giving small volumes of concentrated urine.

Q7In dialysis, wastes leave the blood by:

  1. Aactive transport
  2. Bdiffusion across a partially permeable membrane
  3. Cosmosis of glucose
  4. Dboiling
Show answer

Correct answer: B — diffusion across a partially permeable membrane

Wastes diffuse from the blood into the dialysis fluid across a partially permeable membrane.

Q8Type 1 diabetes is caused by the pancreas producing:

  1. Atoo much insulin
  2. Blittle or no insulin
  3. Ctoo much glucagon
  4. Durea
Show answer

Correct answer: B — little or no insulin

In Type 1 diabetes the pancreas makes little or no insulin, so it must be injected.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Define homeostasis and give one example of a factor it keeps constant.
Answer

Homeostasis is the maintenance of a constant internal environment despite changes outside. An example is keeping body temperature (~37 °C), blood glucose, or water balance constant.

Q2[3 marks]
Describe how the body responds to being too cold.
Answer

It shivers — rapid muscle contractions release heat; the skin blood vessels narrow (vasoconstriction) to reduce heat loss; and hairs stand up to trap an insulating layer of air.

Q3[6 marks]
Blood glucose is controlled by hormones from the pancreas.
  1. Name the hormone released when blood glucose is high and describe its effect. [3]
  2. Name the hormone released when blood glucose is low and describe its effect. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Insulin is released when blood glucose is high[1]
  2. it makes the liver and muscles take up glucose[1]
  3. storing it as glycogen, so blood glucose falls[1]
  4. Glucagon is released when blood glucose is low[1]
  5. it makes the liver break down glycogen[1]
  6. releasing glucose so blood glucose rises[1]

High glucose → insulin → store as glycogen (falls); low glucose → glucagon → release glucose (rises).

Q4[3 marks]
Explain how a dialysis machine removes urea from the blood but does not remove useful glucose.
Answer

The blood flows next to a partially permeable membrane with dialysis fluid on the other side. Urea diffuses out into the fluid because there is none in the fluid (a concentration gradient). Glucose is kept in the dialysis fluid at the same concentration as normal blood, so there is no gradient and glucose does not diffuse out.

Q5[5 marks]
Blood glucose must be kept within safe limits.
  1. Describe how the body lowers blood glucose after a meal. [3]
  2. State one difference between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The rise in glucose is detected by the pancreas[1]
  2. which releases insulin[1]
  3. insulin makes the liver and muscles take up glucose and store it as glycogen, lowering blood glucose[1]
  4. Type 1: the pancreas makes little/no insulin (treated by injection)[1]
  5. Type 2: the body no longer responds well to insulin (managed by diet/exercise)[1]

Pancreas detects high glucose → insulin → liver stores glycogen (glucose falls); Type 1 = no insulin made, Type 2 = poor response to insulin.

14

Support and Movement

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Which is NOT a function of the skeleton?

  1. Asupport
  2. Bprotection
  3. Cphotosynthesis
  4. Dmovement
Show answer

Correct answer: C — photosynthesis

The skeleton supports, protects, allows movement and makes blood cells — photosynthesis is a plant process.

Q2The elbow is an example of a:

  1. Aball-and-socket joint
  2. Bhinge joint
  3. Cfixed joint
  4. Dgliding joint
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hinge joint

The elbow is a hinge joint, moving in one plane.

Q3A tendon attaches:

  1. Abone to bone
  2. Bmuscle to bone
  3. Cmuscle to muscle
  4. Dskin to bone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — muscle to bone

Tendons attach muscle to bone; ligaments attach bone to bone.

Q4Muscles work in antagonistic pairs because a muscle can only:

  1. Apush
  2. Bpull (contract)
  3. Ctwist
  4. Dgrow
Show answer

Correct answer: B — pull (contract)

Muscles contract (pull) but cannot push, so a partner returns the bone.

Q5To bend the arm at the elbow, the biceps:

  1. Arelaxes
  2. Bcontracts
  3. Cdisappears
  4. Dpushes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — contracts

The biceps contracts to bend the arm while the triceps relaxes.

Q6Synovial fluid in a joint:

  1. Aholds bones together
  2. Blubricates the joint
  3. Cmakes blood
  4. Dcontracts
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lubricates the joint

Synovial fluid lubricates the joint, reducing friction.

Q7Bone is strengthened mainly by:

  1. Aglucose
  2. Bcalcium and phosphate salts
  3. Cchlorophyll
  4. Durea
Show answer

Correct answer: B — calcium and phosphate salts

Calcium and phosphate salts around protein fibres make bone hard yet slightly flexible.

Q8In the arm acting as a lever, the joint is the:

  1. Aeffort
  2. Bload
  3. Cpivot
  4. Dmuscle
Show answer

Correct answer: C — pivot

The joint acts as the pivot (fulcrum); the bone is the lever and the muscle provides the effort.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
State two functions of the skeleton other than movement.
Answer

Any two of: support and shape, protection of vital organs, and making blood cells in the bone marrow.

Q2[3 marks]
Describe the roles of cartilage, synovial fluid and ligaments at a joint.
Answer

Cartilage cushions the bone ends and reduces friction; synovial fluid lubricates the joint so it moves smoothly; ligaments hold the bones together.

Q3[6 marks]
The arm is moved by an antagonistic pair of muscles.
  1. Explain why muscles must work in antagonistic pairs. [2]
  2. Describe how the biceps and triceps bend and then straighten the arm. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. A muscle can only contract (pull), not push[1]
  2. so a second muscle is needed to move the bone back[1]
  3. To bend the arm the biceps contracts[1]
  4. while the triceps relaxes[1]
  5. to straighten the arm the triceps contracts[1]
  6. while the biceps relaxes[1]

Muscles only pull, so they need a partner; biceps contracts (triceps relaxes) to bend, triceps contracts (biceps relaxes) to straighten.

Q4[2 marks]
Give two pieces of evidence that bone is living tissue.
Answer

A broken bone can heal (it grows and repairs), and bone marrow makes blood cells — both show bone has living cells and a blood supply.

Q5[5 marks]
The skeleton, joints and muscles work together to produce movement.
  1. Explain why muscles must work in antagonistic pairs. [2]
  2. Describe how the biceps and triceps move the forearm, and identify the pivot. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. A muscle can only pull (contract), not push[1]
  2. so a second muscle is needed to move the bone back the other way[1]
  3. The biceps contracts (triceps relaxes) to bend the arm[1]
  4. the triceps contracts (biceps relaxes) to straighten it[1]
  5. the elbow joint is the pivot[1]

Muscles only pull, so they need a partner; biceps bends and triceps straightens the forearm, with the elbow as the pivot.

15

Coordination and Control

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Nervous messages are carried as:

  1. Ahormones in the blood
  2. Belectrical impulses along neurones
  3. Cchemicals in the air
  4. Ddiffusion of glucose
Show answer

Correct answer: B — electrical impulses along neurones

The nervous system uses fast electrical impulses along neurones.

Q2The correct reflex arc is:

  1. Areceptor → motor → sensory → effector
  2. Breceptor → sensory → relay → motor → effector
  3. Ceffector → motor → receptor
  4. Dbrain → receptor → effector
Show answer

Correct answer: B — receptor → sensory → relay → motor → effector

Receptor → sensory → relay → motor → effector is the reflex arc.

Q3The central nervous system consists of the:

  1. Aheart and lungs
  2. Bbrain and spinal cord
  3. Cnerves and muscles
  4. Dglands
Show answer

Correct answer: B — brain and spinal cord

The central nervous system is the brain and spinal cord, which process information and coordinate the body’s responses.

Q4Adrenaline prepares the body for:

  1. Asleep
  2. B'fight or flight'
  3. Cdigestion
  4. Dgrowth
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 'fight or flight'

Adrenaline triggers the fight-or-flight response.

Q5A plant shoot growing toward light is:

  1. Aa reflex
  2. Bphototropism
  3. Chomeostasis
  4. Ddiffusion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — phototropism

Growing toward light is positive phototropism, controlled by auxins.

Q6Compared with nervous control, hormonal control is:

  1. Afaster and briefer
  2. Bslower and longer-lasting
  3. Celectrical
  4. Donly in plants
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slower and longer-lasting

Hormones act more slowly but last longer than nerve impulses.

Q7The gap between two neurones is called a:

  1. Asynapse
  2. Breflex arc
  3. Creceptor
  4. Deffector
Show answer

Correct answer: A — synapse

A synapse is the tiny gap where a neurotransmitter carries the signal to the next neurone.

Q8A signal crosses a synapse by means of a:

  1. Aelectrical spark
  2. Bneurotransmitter chemical
  3. Chormone in the blood
  4. Dmuscle contraction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — neurotransmitter chemical

A neurotransmitter diffuses across the gap and triggers the next neurone.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[3 marks]
State three differences between nervous and hormonal control.
Answer

Nervous uses electrical impulses, hormonal uses chemicals; nervous travels along neurones, hormonal in the blood; nervous is fast and brief, hormonal is slower and longer-lasting.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why a reflex action is fast.
Answer

It follows a fixed short pathway (the reflex arc) through the spinal cord, bypassing conscious processing in the brain, so the response is quick and protects the body.

Q3[6 marks]
A person touches a hot pan and immediately pulls their hand away.
  1. Name the type of response and state its purpose. [2]
  2. Describe the pathway of the impulse from stimulus to response. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. It is a reflex action[1]
  2. its purpose is to protect the body from harm quickly[1]
  3. A receptor in the skin detects the heat and a sensory neurone carries the impulse to the spinal cord[1]
  4. a relay neurone passes it on within the spinal cord[1]
  5. a motor neurone carries the impulse to the muscle (effector)[1]
  6. the muscle contracts to pull the hand away[1]

A protective reflex; receptor → sensory neurone → relay neurone → motor neurone → effector muscle contracts.

Q4[3 marks]
Describe how a nerve impulse passes from one neurone to the next across a synapse.
Answer

The impulse arrives at the end of the first neurone and triggers the release of a neurotransmitter chemical. This diffuses across the synapse gap and binds to receptors on the next neurone, setting off a new impulse in it.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain how the pupil reflex protects the eye in bright light.
Answer

In bright light, circular muscles in the iris contract to make the pupil smaller, letting in less light. This protects the light-sensitive retina from damage by too much light.

Q6[5 marks]
The nervous system detects and responds to stimuli.
  1. Name the type of neurone that carries impulses from a receptor to the CNS, and the type that carries them to an effector. [2]
  2. Explain why a synapse ensures impulses travel in only one direction. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Sensory neurone (receptor to CNS)[1]
  2. motor neurone (CNS to effector)[1]
  3. Only the end of one neurone releases neurotransmitter[1]
  4. and only the next neurone has receptors for it[1]
  5. so the signal can only pass from the first neurone to the second, not backwards[1]

Sensory = receptor→CNS, motor = CNS→effector; a synapse is one-way because only one side releases transmitter and only the other has receptors.

16

Behaviour

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Innate behaviour is:

  1. Alearned from parents
  2. Binherited and present from birth
  3. Cdifferent in every individual
  4. Donly found in humans
Show answer

Correct answer: B — inherited and present from birth

Innate behaviour is inborn, needs no learning, and is the same across the species.

Q2A spider spinning a web without being taught is an example of:

  1. Aconditioning
  2. Ban instinct (innate)
  3. Chabituation
  4. Dtrial-and-error
Show answer

Correct answer: B — an instinct (innate)

Web-spinning is a complex inborn behaviour — an instinct.

Q3Learning to ignore a repeated harmless stimulus is:

  1. Aimprinting
  2. Bhabituation
  3. Cconditioning
  4. Da reflex
Show answer

Correct answer: B — habituation

Habituation is learning to stop responding to a harmless, repeated stimulus.

Q4Pavlov's dogs salivating at a bell is an example of:

  1. Aa reflex
  2. Bconditioning
  3. Cimprinting
  4. Dinstinct
Show answer

Correct answer: B — conditioning

The dogs learned to link salivation (a response) to a new stimulus — conditioning.

Q5A duckling following the first moving object it sees is:

  1. Ahabituation
  2. Bimprinting
  3. Ca reflex
  4. Dmigration
Show answer

Correct answer: B — imprinting

Imprinting is bonding to the first moving thing seen early in life.

Q6Which type of behaviour varies between individuals of the same species?

  1. Ainnate
  2. Breflex
  3. Clearned
  4. Dinstinct
Show answer

Correct answer: C — learned

Learned behaviour depends on each individual's experience, so it varies.

Q7A key advantage of animals living in groups is:

  1. Aless food needed
  2. Bsafety in numbers
  3. Cno need to communicate
  4. Dfaster ageing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — safety in numbers

Groups give protection through safety in numbers, along with cooperation and easier mate-finding.

Q8Hibernation helps an animal survive winter by:

  1. Aspeeding up its metabolism
  2. Bsaving energy when food is scarce
  3. Cincreasing its body temperature
  4. Dmigrating
Show answer

Correct answer: B — saving energy when food is scarce

Hibernation lowers activity and metabolism, conserving energy when little food is available.

Exam-style questions · 4

Q1[2 marks]
State two differences between innate and learned behaviour.
Answer

Innate behaviour is inherited and present from birth and is the same in all members of the species; learned behaviour develops through experience and varies between individuals.

Q2[6 marks]
Animal behaviour can be innate or learned.
  1. Define innate behaviour and give an example. [2]
  2. Describe two types of learned behaviour, with an example of each. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Innate behaviour is inherited and present from birth, needing no learning[1]
  2. e.g. a reflex or an instinct such as web-spinning[1]
  3. Conditioning — linking a response to a new stimulus[1]
  4. e.g. Pavlov's dogs salivating at a bell[1]
  5. Imprinting — a young animal bonding to the first moving object it sees[1]
  6. e.g. a duckling following its mother (or habituation / trial-and-error with an example)[1]

Innate = inborn, no learning (e.g. reflex/instinct); learned examples: conditioning (Pavlov's dogs) and imprinting (ducklings).

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why many animals communicate, giving one example of a communication method.
Answer

Communication lets animals coordinate behaviour — warning of danger, attracting a mate, or organising a group. For example, birds use alarm calls (sound) to warn others of a predator (or bees 'dance' to show where food is).

Q4[5 marks]
Animal behaviour has survival value.
  1. State two advantages of group living. [2]
  2. Explain how migration and hibernation each help an animal survive difficult conditions. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Safety in numbers / better defence against predators[1]
  2. cooperative hunting or easier mate-finding[1]
  3. Migration takes the animal to a better climate or feeding ground[1]
  4. so it avoids the harsh season and finds food[1]
  5. Hibernation lowers metabolism to save energy when food is scarce in winter[1]

Group living: safety and cooperation; migration escapes to food/better climate; hibernation saves energy through scarce winters.

17

Reproduction

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are:

  1. Agenetically varied
  2. Bgenetically identical
  3. Calways male
  4. Dhaploid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — genetically identical

With one parent and no gamete fusion, offspring are clones — genetically identical.

Q2In humans, sperm are made in the:

  1. Aovaries
  2. Btestes
  3. Cuterus
  4. Doviduct
Show answer

Correct answer: B — testes

The testes produce sperm and testosterone.

Q3Fertilisation in humans normally occurs in the:

  1. Auterus
  2. Bovary
  3. Coviduct
  4. Dvagina
Show answer

Correct answer: C — oviduct

The egg is usually fertilised in the oviduct (fallopian tube).

Q4The release of an egg from the ovary is called:

  1. Amenstruation
  2. Bovulation
  3. Cfertilisation
  4. Dimplantation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ovulation

Ovulation is the monthly release of an egg.

Q5The placenta lets the mother supply the fetus with oxygen without:

  1. Aa heartbeat
  2. Bthe two blood supplies mixing
  3. Cthe uterus
  4. Dhormones
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the two blood supplies mixing

The placenta exchanges materials between the two blood supplies without them mixing.

Q6An advantage of sexual reproduction is that it produces:

  1. Aidentical offspring
  2. Bgenetic variation
  3. Cfaster growth
  4. Dno gametes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — genetic variation

Mixing genes from two parents gives variation, aiding survival when conditions change.

Q7The hormone that triggers ovulation is:

  1. Aprogesterone
  2. BLH
  3. Cinsulin
  4. Dtestosterone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — LH

LH from the brain triggers the release of the egg (ovulation).

Q8The uterus lining breaks down as a period when the level of which hormone falls?

  1. AFSH
  2. Bprogesterone
  3. Cinsulin
  4. Dadrenaline
Show answer

Correct answer: B — progesterone

A fall in progesterone at the end of the cycle causes the lining to break down.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[3 marks]
State three differences between asexual and sexual reproduction.
Answer

Asexual needs one parent, sexual needs two; asexual has no gametes, sexual involves gamete fusion; asexual offspring are identical (clones), sexual offspring are genetically varied.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why variation from sexual reproduction can be an advantage.
Answer

Variation means offspring differ, so if the environment changes some are more likely to have features that let them survive and reproduce, helping the species adapt.

Q3[6 marks]
The menstrual cycle prepares the body for pregnancy.
  1. Describe what happens during ovulation and to the uterus lining in the cycle. [3]
  2. Explain what happens if the egg is fertilised, and if it is not. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. At ovulation an egg is released from the ovary[1]
  2. the egg travels into the oviduct[1]
  3. the uterus lining thickens ready to receive an embryo[1]
  4. If fertilised, the embryo implants in the lining[1]
  5. and develops into a fetus[1]
  6. if not fertilised, the lining breaks down and is lost as the period[1]

Ovulation releases an egg and the lining thickens; if fertilised the embryo implants and develops, if not the lining is shed as the period.

Q4[2 marks]
State the roles of oestrogen and progesterone in the menstrual cycle.
Answer

Oestrogen rebuilds the uterus lining and leads to ovulation; progesterone maintains the thickened lining ready for pregnancy, and its fall causes the lining to break down.

Q5[5 marks]
Reproduction in humans is controlled by hormones.
  1. Name the hormone that stimulates an egg to mature and the one that triggers its release. [2]
  2. Explain how a hormonal contraceptive pill prevents pregnancy. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. FSH stimulates an egg to mature[1]
  2. LH triggers ovulation (release of the egg)[1]
  3. The pill contains hormones (e.g. oestrogen/progesterone)[1]
  4. that prevent an egg from maturing or being released (no ovulation)[1]
  5. so there is no egg to be fertilised[1]

FSH matures the egg, LH triggers ovulation; the pill's hormones stop ovulation, so no egg is released to be fertilised.

18

Growth and Development

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Growth involves an increase in cell number by:

  1. Ameiosis
  2. Bmitosis
  3. Cfertilisation
  4. Ddifferentiation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — mitosis

Mitosis produces the extra identical cells that make an organism grow.

Q2Cells becoming specialised for particular jobs is called:

  1. Agrowth
  2. Bdifferentiation
  3. Cgermination
  4. Dageing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — differentiation

Differentiation is the specialisation of cells during development.

Q3The single cell formed at fertilisation is the:

  1. Aembryo
  2. Bzygote
  3. Cfetus
  4. Dgamete
Show answer

Correct answer: B — zygote

The zygote is the fertilised egg, which then divides to form an embryo.

Q4Plants grow mainly at regions called:

  1. Astomata
  2. Bmeristems
  3. Cvilli
  4. Dalveoli
Show answer

Correct answer: B — meristems

Meristems at shoot and root tips are where plant cells divide and growth occurs.

Q5A seed needs water, oxygen and warmth to begin:

  1. Aphotosynthesis
  2. Bgermination
  3. Cflowering
  4. Dpollination
Show answer

Correct answer: B — germination

Germination is the start of a seed's growth, requiring water, oxygen and a suitable temperature.

Q6Development differs from growth in that development involves:

  1. Aonly getting bigger
  2. Bchange in form and specialisation
  3. Ccell death only
  4. Dno cell division
Show answer

Correct answer: B — change in form and specialisation

Development is the change in form and complexity, including differentiation — more than just size.

Q7A typical growth curve is S-shaped because growth is:

  1. Aconstant
  2. Bslow, then rapid, then levelling off
  3. Calways decreasing
  4. Dinstant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slow, then rapid, then levelling off

Growth starts slowly, speeds up, then slows as adult size is reached — an S-shaped curve.

Q8A butterfly passing through egg, larva, pupa and adult shows:

  1. Aincomplete metamorphosis
  2. Bcomplete metamorphosis
  3. Cno metamorphosis
  4. Dasexual reproduction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — complete metamorphosis

Four very different stages (egg-larva-pupa-adult) is complete metamorphosis.

Exam-style questions · 4

Q1[2 marks]
Explain the difference between growth and development.
Answer

Growth is a permanent increase in size (more cells and material). Development is the change in form and complexity as the organism matures, including the differentiation of cells into specialised types.

Q2[6 marks]
Organisms grow and develop from a single cell.
  1. Describe how a zygote develops into a fetus in humans. [3]
  2. Describe where and how growth occurs in a plant. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The zygote divides repeatedly by mitosis to form an embryo[1]
  2. the cells differentiate into specialised tissues and organs[1]
  3. the embryo grows into a fetus that develops until birth[1]
  4. Plant growth occurs at meristems (shoot and root tips)[1]
  5. where cells divide by mitosis[1]
  6. then enlarge and differentiate into specialised tissues[1]

Zygote → mitosis → embryo → differentiation into tissues/organs → fetus; plants grow at meristems by division, enlargement and differentiation.

Q3[2 marks]
A seedling grows from 20 mm to 26 mm in a week. Calculate its percentage growth.
Answer

Percentage growth = (increase ÷ original) × 100 = (6 ÷ 20) × 100 = 30%.

Q4[5 marks]
Animals grow and develop in different ways.
  1. Explain the difference between complete and incomplete metamorphosis, with an example of each. [4]
  2. State one advantage of complete metamorphosis. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Complete metamorphosis has very different stages: egg, larva, pupa, adult[1]
  2. e.g. a butterfly or beetle[1]
  3. Incomplete metamorphosis: the young (nymphs) resemble small adults and change gradually[1]
  4. e.g. a locust or grasshopper[1]
  5. Advantage: larvae and adults eat different foods, so they do not compete[1]

Complete = egg/larva/pupa/adult (butterfly); incomplete = nymphs like small adults, gradual (locust); complete lets young and adults avoid competing for food.

19

Chromosomes and DNA

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In DNA, adenine always pairs with:

  1. Aguanine
  2. Bcytosine
  3. Cthymine
  4. Dadenine
Show answer

Correct answer: C — thymine

By the complementary base-pairing rule, adenine always pairs with thymine (A–T) and guanine with cytosine (G–C), so one strand specifies the other.

Q2DNA replication is described as semi-conservative because each new molecule has:

  1. Atwo new strands
  2. Bone old and one new strand
  3. Ctwo old strands
  4. Dno strands
Show answer

Correct answer: B — one old and one new strand

Each daughter DNA keeps one original template strand and one newly made strand.

Q3How many bases specify one amino acid?

  1. Aone
  2. Btwo
  3. Cthree
  4. Dfour
Show answer

Correct answer: C — three

A triplet (codon) of three bases codes for one amino acid.

Q4A gene is:

  1. Aa whole chromosome
  2. Ba length of DNA coding for one protein
  3. Ca type of protein
  4. Da nucleotide
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a length of DNA coding for one protein

A gene is a section of DNA that codes for a particular protein.

Q5A change in the base sequence of DNA is a:

  1. Areplication
  2. Bmutation
  3. Ctranslation
  4. Dcodon
Show answer

Correct answer: B — mutation

A mutation is a change in the DNA base sequence.

Q6If one strand reads A-G-C, the complementary strand is:

  1. AT-C-G
  2. BA-G-C
  3. CU-C-G
  4. DT-G-C
Show answer

Correct answer: A — T-C-G

Pairing each base with its partner (A→T, G→C, C→G) gives the complementary strand T-C-G.

Q7The technique that makes millions of copies of a small DNA sample is:

  1. Aosmosis
  2. BPCR
  3. Ctranslation
  4. Dmitosis
Show answer

Correct answer: B — PCR

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA, doubling it each cycle.

Q8An organism's complete set of DNA is called its:

  1. Agene
  2. Bchromosome
  3. Cgenome
  4. Dallele
Show answer

Correct answer: C — genome

The genome is all of an organism's genetic material.

Exam-style questions · 4

Q1[3 marks]
Describe the structure of a DNA molecule.
Answer

DNA is a double helix of two strands. Each strand is made of nucleotides (sugar, phosphate and a base). The strands are held together by base pairs, with adenine pairing with thymine and guanine with cytosine.

Q2[6 marks]
DNA carries the instructions for making proteins and is copied before cell division.
  1. Explain how DNA is replicated. [3]
  2. Explain how the base sequence of a gene determines the protein made. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The DNA double helix unzips as the base pairs separate[1]
  2. each old strand acts as a template[1]
  3. free nucleotides pair against it (A–T, G–C) forming two identical molecules[1]
  4. Each triplet of three bases codes for one amino acid[1]
  5. the gene is copied into RNA and read at a ribosome[1]
  6. amino acids are joined in the order set by the bases, giving the protein its structure[1]

Replication: unzip, template, pair nucleotides (semi-conservative); protein: triplets code amino acids, transcribed to RNA, translated at a ribosome.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain how enzymes are used in genetic engineering to transfer a gene.
Answer

Enzymes cut DNA at specific base sequences, so the desired gene can be cut out of one organism's DNA and (using enzymes to join it) inserted into another organism's DNA, which then expresses the gene.

Q4[5 marks]
Modern biology can read and copy DNA.
  1. State what PCR does and one use of it. [2]
  2. Explain one benefit and one ethical concern of genetic screening. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. PCR makes many copies of a small DNA sample[1]
  2. used in forensics / DNA profiling / research (any one)[1]
  3. Benefit: it can detect disorder-causing alleles early[1]
  4. allowing treatment, informed choices or genetic counselling[1]
  5. Concern: privacy of the information / possible misuse (e.g. by insurers) / difficult decisions[1]

PCR amplifies DNA (used in forensics); screening detects disorders early (benefit) but raises privacy/misuse concerns.

20

Cell Cycle

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Mitosis produces daughter cells that are:

  1. Agenetically different and haploid
  2. Bgenetically identical and diploid
  3. Calways gametes
  4. Dhalf the size
Show answer

Correct answer: B — genetically identical and diploid

Mitosis gives two identical diploid cells — used for growth, repair and asexual reproduction.

Q2Meiosis is used to make:

  1. Askin cells
  2. Bgametes (sex cells)
  3. Cred blood cells
  4. Dmuscle cells
Show answer

Correct answer: B — gametes (sex cells)

Meiosis produces the haploid gametes needed for sexual reproduction.

Q3A human gamete contains how many chromosomes?

  1. A23
  2. B46
  3. C92
  4. D12
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 23

Gametes are haploid, with half the diploid number — 23 in humans.

Q4DNA is copied during which stage of the cell cycle?

  1. Amitosis
  2. Bmeiosis
  3. Cinterphase
  4. Dfertilisation
Show answer

Correct answer: C — interphase

DNA is replicated during interphase, before division begins.

Q5Cancer results from:

  1. Atoo little cell division
  2. Buncontrolled cell division
  3. Cmeiosis
  4. Ddenaturing enzymes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — uncontrolled cell division

Loss of control of the cell cycle leads to uncontrolled division and tumour formation.

Q6Compared with mitosis, meiosis produces:

  1. Atwo identical cells
  2. Bfour genetically different cells
  3. Cone large cell
  4. Dno new cells
Show answer

Correct answer: B — four genetically different cells

Meiosis gives four haploid daughter cells that are all genetically different.

Q7A human body (diploid) cell contains how many chromosomes?

  1. A23
  2. B46
  3. C92
  4. D22
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 46

Diploid human cells have 23 pairs = 46 chromosomes; gametes are haploid with 23.

Q8An unspecialised cell that can divide and become different cell types is a:

  1. Agamete
  2. Bstem cell
  3. Cred blood cell
  4. Dnerve cell
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stem cell

Stem cells are unspecialised and can differentiate into many cell types.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[3 marks]
State three differences between mitosis and meiosis.
Answer

Mitosis makes 2 cells, meiosis makes 4; mitosis keeps the chromosome number the same (diploid), meiosis halves it (haploid); mitosis gives identical cells, meiosis gives genetically different cells.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why mitosis is important for a multicellular organism.
Answer

Mitosis produces genetically identical cells for growth (increasing cell number) and for the repair and replacement of damaged or worn-out tissue.

Q3[6 marks]
In humans the diploid number is 46.
  1. State how many chromosomes are in a cell after mitosis, and explain why. [2]
  2. State how many are in a gamete, and explain why meiosis halves the number. [3]
  3. Name the process that restores the diploid number. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. 46 chromosomes[1]
  2. mitosis copies the DNA and gives each cell an identical full (diploid) set[1]
  3. 23 chromosomes in a gamete[1]
  4. meiosis halves the number to make haploid gametes[1]
  5. so that fertilisation does not double the number each generation[1]
  6. Fertilisation restores the diploid number (46)[1]

Mitosis → 46 (identical diploid); gametes → 23 (meiosis halves it so fertilisation keeps 46 constant); fertilisation restores the diploid number.

Q4[2 marks]
Explain the difference between a diploid cell and a haploid cell.
Answer

A diploid cell has the full set of chromosomes in matching pairs (46 in humans); a haploid cell has only one chromosome of each pair (23 in humans), as in gametes.

Q5[3 marks]
Explain why stem cells are useful in medicine, and give one concern about their use.
Answer

Stem cells are unspecialised and can divide and differentiate into many cell types, so they could be used to replace damaged or diseased tissue (for example nerve or blood cells). A concern is the ethical objection to using embryonic stem cells (or risks such as rejection or uncontrolled division).

Q6[5 marks]
Mitosis and meiosis are two types of cell division.
  1. State two roles of mitosis in the body. [2]
  2. Explain why gametes must be produced by meiosis rather than mitosis. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Growth (increasing the number of cells)[1]
  2. repair/replacement of damaged or worn-out tissue (or asexual reproduction)[1]
  3. Meiosis halves the chromosome number to make haploid gametes[1]
  4. so that at fertilisation the two gametes restore the normal diploid number[1]
  5. if gametes were diploid, the chromosome number would double each generation[1]

Mitosis: growth and repair; gametes need meiosis to halve the number so fertilisation restores the diploid number.

21

Inheritance

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A version of a gene is called a(n):

  1. Achromosome
  2. Ballele
  3. Cphenotype
  4. Dgamete
Show answer

Correct answer: B — allele

Alleles are the different versions of a gene.

Q2An organism with two different alleles for a gene is:

  1. Ahomozygous
  2. Bheterozygous
  3. Crecessive
  4. Dhaploid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — heterozygous

Two different alleles (e.g. Bb) means heterozygous.

Q3A recessive characteristic is shown only when the organism is:

  1. Aheterozygous
  2. Bhomozygous recessive
  3. Chomozygous dominant
  4. Da carrier
Show answer

Correct answer: B — homozygous recessive

A recessive trait appears only with two recessive alleles (bb).

Q4Crossing Tt × Tt gives a phenotype ratio of:

  1. A1 : 1
  2. B3 : 1
  3. C9 : 3 : 3 : 1
  4. Dall dominant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3 : 1

Tt × Tt gives genotypes 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt; since T is dominant, that is a 3 dominant : 1 recessive phenotype ratio.

Q5Human females have the sex chromosomes:

  1. AXY
  2. BXX
  3. CYY
  4. DXO
Show answer

Correct answer: B — XX

Human females have two X chromosomes (XX); males have one X and one Y (XY), the Y carrying the male-determining genes.

Q6The observable characteristic of an organism is its:

  1. Agenotype
  2. Bphenotype
  3. Callele
  4. Dgene
Show answer

Correct answer: B — phenotype

The phenotype is what is actually shown; the genotype is the alleles carried.

Q7Blood group AB is an example of:

  1. Aa recessive trait
  2. Bcodominance
  3. Ca dominant disorder
  4. Dsex linkage
Show answer

Correct answer: B — codominance

In group AB both the A and B alleles are expressed together — codominance.

Q8A healthy person who carries one recessive disease allele is a:

  1. Asufferer
  2. Bcarrier
  3. Chomozygote for the disease
  4. Dmutant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carrier

A carrier has one recessive allele, is healthy, but can pass it on.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[3 marks]
Define the terms allele, genotype and phenotype.
Answer

Allele: a version of a gene. Genotype: the alleles an organism carries. Phenotype: the characteristic actually shown by the organism.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain how the sex of a human child is determined.
Answer

The mother's egg always carries an X chromosome; the father's sperm carries either an X or a Y. If an X sperm fertilises the egg the child is XX (female); if a Y sperm does, the child is XY (male) — a 50:50 chance.

Q3[6 marks]
In humans, the allele for brown eyes (B) is dominant to blue eyes (b). A heterozygous brown-eyed man and a blue-eyed woman have children.
  1. State the genotypes of both parents. [2]
  2. Use a genetic diagram to find the ratio of brown-eyed to blue-eyed children. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. The man is Bb (heterozygous brown)[1]
  2. the woman is bb (blue, homozygous recessive)[1]
  3. Man's gametes B and b; woman's gametes b and b[1]
  4. Offspring: Bb, Bb, bb, bb[1]
  5. genotypes 2 Bb : 2 bb[1]
  6. phenotype ratio 1 brown : 1 blue (50%)[1]

Parents Bb × bb; offspring 2 Bb : 2 bb = 1 brown : 1 blue.

Q4[2 marks]
Explain the difference between a dominant allele and codominant alleles.
Answer

A dominant allele is expressed even when paired with a recessive one, so only it shows. Codominant alleles are both expressed together in the heterozygote, so both features appear (as in blood group AB).

Q5[6 marks]
Cystic fibrosis is caused by a recessive allele (f). Two parents who are both carriers (Ff) have children.
  1. State the genotypes of children who would have cystic fibrosis and who would be carriers. [2]
  2. Use a genetic diagram to find the probability that a child has cystic fibrosis. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. A child with cystic fibrosis is ff (homozygous recessive)[1]
  2. a carrier is Ff (heterozygous)[1]
  3. Parents Ff × Ff; gametes F and f from each[1]
  4. Offspring: FF, Ff, Ff, ff[1]
  5. genotypes 1 FF : 2 Ff : 1 ff[1]
  6. probability of cystic fibrosis (ff) = 1 in 4 (25%)[1]

Affected = ff, carrier = Ff; Ff × Ff gives 1 FF : 2 Ff : 1 ff, so a 1 in 4 chance of cystic fibrosis.

22

Variation and Evolution

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Which type of variation can be inherited?

  1. Aenvironmental
  2. Bgenetic
  3. Ccontinuous only
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — genetic

Only genetic variation is passed to offspring; environmental variation is not.

Q2The ultimate source of new genetic variation is:

  1. Aexercise
  2. Bdiet
  3. Cmutation
  4. Dthe environment
Show answer

Correct answer: C — mutation

Mutation introduces new alleles — the raw material of variation.

Q3In natural selection, the individuals most likely to survive and reproduce are those:

  1. Athat are largest
  2. Bbest adapted to the environment
  3. Cborn first
  4. Dchosen at random
Show answer

Correct answer: B — best adapted to the environment

Better-adapted individuals are more likely to survive and pass on their alleles.

Q4Antibiotic resistance spreads because resistant bacteria:

  1. Aare killed by the antibiotic
  2. Bsurvive and reproduce
  3. Cstop dividing
  4. Dbecome viruses
Show answer

Correct answer: B — survive and reproduce

The survivors reproduce and pass on the resistance allele.

Q5Height in humans is an example of:

  1. Adiscontinuous variation
  2. Bcontinuous variation
  3. Cenvironmental only
  4. Dno variation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — continuous variation

Height shows a continuous range of values.

Q6The main direct evidence for evolution comes from:

  1. Aliving animals only
  2. Bfossils
  3. Cthe weather
  4. Dphotosynthesis
Show answer

Correct answer: B — fossils

Fossils record how organisms have changed over long periods of time.

Q7Choosing the best milk-producing cows to breed together is an example of:

  1. Anatural selection
  2. Bselective breeding
  3. Ccloning
  4. Dspeciation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — selective breeding

Humans selecting which animals breed for a desired trait is selective breeding (artificial selection).

Q8A new species is most likely to form when populations are:

  1. Akept together
  2. Bisolated and under different selection pressures
  3. Ccloned
  4. Dthe same size
Show answer

Correct answer: B — isolated and under different selection pressures

Isolation plus different selection lets populations diverge until they can no longer interbreed.

Exam-style questions · 4

Q1[2 marks]
Explain the difference between genetic and environmental variation, with an example of each.
Answer

Genetic variation is inherited and arises from mutation and gene shuffling (e.g. blood group); environmental variation is caused by surroundings and is not inherited (e.g. a scar, or a plant made small by poor soil).

Q2[6 marks]
Natural selection explains how species become adapted to their environment.
  1. Describe the process of natural selection. [4]
  2. Explain why only genetic variation, not environmental variation, contributes to evolution. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. There is variation among individuals of a species[1]
  2. more offspring are produced than can survive, so there is competition[1]
  3. individuals better adapted are more likely to survive and reproduce[1]
  4. they pass on their advantageous alleles, so over generations these become more common[1]
  5. Only genetic variation is inherited / passed to offspring[1]
  6. environmental variation is not passed on, so it cannot change the population over generations[1]

Natural selection: variation → overproduction/competition → best-adapted survive and reproduce → alleles become more common; only genetic variation is heritable, so only it drives evolution.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain how selective breeding could produce wheat with a higher grain yield.
Answer

Farmers select the wheat plants with the highest grain yield and breed them together. Their offspring inherit the high-yield alleles; repeating this over many generations steadily increases the yield of the crop.

Q4[6 marks]
Species can change over time and new species can arise.
  1. Describe how a population can evolve to become resistant to a poison, by natural selection. [4]
  2. Explain how the isolation of two populations can lead to speciation. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. There is variation: some individuals carry an allele giving resistance[1]
  2. when the poison is applied, the non-resistant individuals die[1]
  3. the resistant ones survive and reproduce[1]
  4. passing on the resistance allele, so the population becomes resistant[1]
  5. Two isolated populations cannot interbreed[1]
  6. and diverge under different mutations/selection until they can no longer breed to give fertile offspring — separate species[1]

Resistant variants survive the poison and reproduce, spreading the allele; isolated populations diverge until they can't interbreed — new species.

23

Biotechnology

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Yeast is used in bread-making because it produces:

  1. Alactic acid
  2. Bcarbon dioxide
  3. Cantibiotics
  4. Dinsulin
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbon dioxide

Yeast ferments sugar to ethanol and carbon dioxide; the CO₂ makes the bread rise.

Q2Yoghurt is made when bacteria ferment milk sugar into:

  1. Aethanol
  2. Blactic acid
  3. Cglucose
  4. Dinsulin
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lactic acid

Lactic-acid bacteria turn the sugar in milk into lactic acid, forming yoghurt.

Q3Genetic engineering to make insulin transfers the human insulin gene into:

  1. Ayeast bread
  2. Bbacteria
  3. Cmilk
  4. Da fermenter only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — bacteria

The gene is inserted into bacteria, which then produce insulin.

Q4Antibiotics such as penicillin are produced by:

  1. Afermenting microbes in large vessels
  2. Bphotosynthesis
  3. Cdistillation
  4. Dgenetic testing
Show answer

Correct answer: A — fermenting microbes in large vessels

Microbes are grown in large fermenters to produce antibiotics.

Q5A major advantage of making insulin from bacteria is that it is:

  1. Aslower
  2. Bcheap and pure human insulin
  3. Cextracted from animals
  4. Dless effective
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cheap and pure human insulin

Engineered bacteria make pure human insulin cheaply and in large amounts.

Q6Biotechnology is best defined as using living organisms to:

  1. Adestroy ecosystems
  2. Bmake useful products
  3. Cincrease pollution
  4. Dreplace all farming
Show answer

Correct answer: B — make useful products

Biotechnology uses organisms or their processes to make useful products.

Q7Cooling water is circulated through a fermenter to:

  1. Aadd nutrients
  2. Bremove the heat from respiration and keep the optimum temperature
  3. Csterilise it
  4. Dadd oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — remove the heat from respiration and keep the optimum temperature

Respiring microbes release heat; cooling keeps the temperature at the optimum for their enzymes.

Q8Producing genetically identical plants from small pieces of a parent is:

  1. Agenetic engineering
  2. Btissue culture (cloning)
  3. Cfermentation
  4. Dnatural selection
Show answer

Correct answer: B — tissue culture (cloning)

Tissue culture clones many identical plants from a parent — a form of cloning.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Explain the role of yeast in both brewing and bread-making.
Answer

Yeast ferments sugars, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide. In brewing the ethanol makes the alcoholic drink; in bread-making the carbon dioxide is trapped in the dough and makes it rise.

Q2[3 marks]
Give one benefit and one concern of genetic engineering, and one product it makes.
Answer

Benefit: it produces cheap, pure medicines such as human insulin (or pest-resistant crops). Concern: possible safety, ethical or ecological risks. Product: human insulin.

Q3[6 marks]
Human insulin for treating diabetes is made using genetically engineered bacteria.
  1. Describe the steps used to make the bacteria produce insulin. [4]
  2. State two advantages of this method over extracting insulin from animals. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The human insulin gene is cut out of human DNA using enzymes[1]
  2. it is inserted into the DNA of a bacterium[1]
  3. the bacteria are grown in large numbers in a fermenter[1]
  4. the insulin they make is collected and purified[1]
  5. It produces pure human insulin (fewer allergic reactions)[1]
  6. in large amounts, cheaply and reliably[1]

Cut out the insulin gene, insert it into bacteria, grow them in a fermenter, purify the insulin; advantages: pure human insulin, cheap and plentiful.

Q4[3 marks]
State three conditions that must be controlled in an industrial fermenter and why each matters.
Answer

Temperature — kept at the optimum for the microbe's enzymes (and cooled to remove respiration heat); pH — kept optimal so the enzymes work; sterility — to stop contamination by unwanted microbes. (Oxygen/nutrient supply and stirring are also valid.)

Q5[5 marks]
Biotechnology is used to modify and clone organisms.
  1. Explain what a genetically modified crop is and give one benefit. [3]
  2. State one benefit and one concern of GM technology. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A GM crop has had a gene from another organism inserted into its DNA[1]
  2. so it gains a useful characteristic[1]
  3. e.g. resistance to pests, higher yield or added nutrients[1]
  4. Benefit: more or better food / medicines produced[1]
  5. Concern: possible effects on health or ecosystems, or ethical objections[1]

A GM crop carries an inserted gene for a useful trait (e.g. pest resistance); benefit = better food/yield, concern = health/ecological/ethical risks.

24

Ecosystem and Man

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The producer in most ecosystems is a:

  1. Aherbivore
  2. Bgreen plant
  3. Ccarnivore
  4. Ddecomposer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — green plant

Green plants capture light energy by photosynthesis, beginning the food chain.

Q2About what percentage of energy passes to the next trophic level?

  1. A10%
  2. B50%
  3. C90%
  4. D100%
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 10%

Roughly 10% passes on; about 90% is lost at each level.

Q3Organisms that break down dead material are:

  1. Aproducers
  2. Bdecomposers
  3. Cpredators
  4. Dherbivores
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decomposers

Decomposers (bacteria and fungi) recycle nutrients from dead matter.

Q4Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

  1. Arespiration
  2. Bcombustion
  3. Cphotosynthesis
  4. Ddecomposition
Show answer

Correct answer: C — photosynthesis

Photosynthesis takes CO₂ out of the air; respiration and combustion return it.

Q5Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert:

  1. Anitrates into nitrogen gas
  2. Bnitrogen gas into usable compounds
  3. Cammonia into carbon
  4. Dprotein into nitrates
Show answer

Correct answer: B — nitrogen gas into usable compounds

They fix nitrogen gas into compounds plants can absorb.

Q6A major human cause of habitat loss is:

  1. Aconservation
  2. Bdeforestation
  3. Cphotosynthesis
  4. Ddecomposition
Show answer

Correct answer: B — deforestation

Clearing forests destroys habitats and reduces biodiversity.

Q7The largest population an environment can support long-term is its:

  1. Abiomass
  2. Bcarrying capacity
  3. Ctrophic level
  4. Dfood web
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carrying capacity

Carrying capacity is the maximum sustainable population for that environment.

Q8A pyramid of biomass almost always tapers toward the top because:

  1. Atop predators are large
  2. Benergy is lost at each trophic level
  3. Cproducers are rare
  4. Dthere is no sunlight
Show answer

Correct answer: B — energy is lost at each trophic level

About 90% of energy is lost at each level, so less living material is supported higher up.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why there is usually more mass of producers than of top predators in an ecosystem.
Answer

Energy is lost (about 90%) at each trophic level, so less energy is available higher up the chain. Less energy supports less living mass, so top predators are far fewer than producers.

Q2[3 marks]
Describe the roles of photosynthesis, respiration and decomposers in the carbon cycle.
Answer

Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the air and fixes it into glucose; respiration (and combustion) returns carbon dioxide to the air; decomposers break down dead organisms, releasing their carbon back as carbon dioxide.

Q3[6 marks]
Energy flows through a food chain: grass → rabbit → fox.
  1. Name the trophic level of each organism. [3]
  2. Explain what happens to the energy as it passes along the chain. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Grass is the producer[1]
  2. the rabbit is the primary consumer (herbivore)[1]
  3. the fox is the secondary consumer (carnivore)[1]
  4. Energy is lost at each level[1]
  5. in respiration, movement, heat and undigested waste[1]
  6. so only about 10% passes on, and the chain cannot support many more levels[1]

Grass = producer, rabbit = primary consumer, fox = secondary consumer; ~90% of energy is lost at each step, so little reaches the top.

Q4[3 marks]
State three factors that could cause a population of rabbits to decrease.
Answer

Any three: a shortage of food, water or space; an increase in predators (e.g. foxes); the spread of disease; or increased competition.

Q5[5 marks]
Energy flows through an ecosystem and can be shown as pyramids.
  1. Explain why only about 10% of energy passes to the next trophic level. [3]
  2. Explain why a pyramid of biomass is a better representation than a pyramid of numbers. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Energy is lost at each level as heat from respiration[1]
  2. in movement and in undigested waste[1]
  3. so only about 10% is passed on to the next level[1]
  4. A pyramid of biomass accounts for the size/mass of organisms, not just their number[1]
  5. so it is always a true pyramid, unlike numbers (where one large producer can support many consumers)[1]

~90% of energy is lost (respiration, movement, waste), so ~10% passes on; biomass pyramids reflect mass so they always taper, unlike number pyramids.

These questions come from the 2nd Year Biology lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.