Q1Homeostasis is the maintenance of a constant:
- Aexternal environment
- Binternal environment
- Cbody size
- Dheart rate only
Show answer
Correct answer: B — internal environment
Homeostasis keeps the internal environment steady despite outside changes.
96 multiple-choice questions and 58 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.
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Q1Homeostasis is the maintenance of a constant:
Correct answer: B — internal environment
Homeostasis keeps the internal environment steady despite outside changes.
Q2The nitrogenous waste removed by the kidneys is:
Correct answer: B — urea
The kidneys remove urea, made in the liver from excess amino acids.
Q3When you are too hot, the skin blood vessels:
Correct answer: B — widen (vasodilation)
Vasodilation brings more blood near the surface to lose heat.
Q4Insulin lowers blood glucose by making the liver:
Correct answer: B — store glucose as glycogen
Insulin causes glucose to be taken up and stored as glycogen.
Q5Most homeostatic control works by:
Correct answer: B — negative feedback
Negative feedback opposes a change, returning the level to normal.
Q6When short of water, the kidneys produce urine that is:
Correct answer: B — concentrated and small in volume
ADH makes the kidneys reabsorb more water, giving small volumes of concentrated urine.
Q7In dialysis, wastes leave the blood by:
Correct answer: B — diffusion across a partially permeable membrane
Wastes diffuse from the blood into the dialysis fluid across a partially permeable membrane.
Q8Type 1 diabetes is caused by the pancreas producing:
Correct answer: B — little or no insulin
In Type 1 diabetes the pancreas makes little or no insulin, so it must be injected.
Homeostasis is the maintenance of a constant internal environment despite changes outside. An example is keeping body temperature (~37 °C), blood glucose, or water balance constant.
It shivers — rapid muscle contractions release heat; the skin blood vessels narrow (vasoconstriction) to reduce heat loss; and hairs stand up to trap an insulating layer of air.
High glucose → insulin → store as glycogen (falls); low glucose → glucagon → release glucose (rises).
The blood flows next to a partially permeable membrane with dialysis fluid on the other side. Urea diffuses out into the fluid because there is none in the fluid (a concentration gradient). Glucose is kept in the dialysis fluid at the same concentration as normal blood, so there is no gradient and glucose does not diffuse out.
Pancreas detects high glucose → insulin → liver stores glycogen (glucose falls); Type 1 = no insulin made, Type 2 = poor response to insulin.
Q1Which is NOT a function of the skeleton?
Correct answer: C — photosynthesis
The skeleton supports, protects, allows movement and makes blood cells — photosynthesis is a plant process.
Q2The elbow is an example of a:
Correct answer: B — hinge joint
The elbow is a hinge joint, moving in one plane.
Q3A tendon attaches:
Correct answer: B — muscle to bone
Tendons attach muscle to bone; ligaments attach bone to bone.
Q4Muscles work in antagonistic pairs because a muscle can only:
Correct answer: B — pull (contract)
Muscles contract (pull) but cannot push, so a partner returns the bone.
Q5To bend the arm at the elbow, the biceps:
Correct answer: B — contracts
The biceps contracts to bend the arm while the triceps relaxes.
Q6Synovial fluid in a joint:
Correct answer: B — lubricates the joint
Synovial fluid lubricates the joint, reducing friction.
Q7Bone is strengthened mainly by:
Correct answer: B — calcium and phosphate salts
Calcium and phosphate salts around protein fibres make bone hard yet slightly flexible.
Q8In the arm acting as a lever, the joint is the:
Correct answer: C — pivot
The joint acts as the pivot (fulcrum); the bone is the lever and the muscle provides the effort.
Any two of: support and shape, protection of vital organs, and making blood cells in the bone marrow.
Cartilage cushions the bone ends and reduces friction; synovial fluid lubricates the joint so it moves smoothly; ligaments hold the bones together.
Muscles only pull, so they need a partner; biceps contracts (triceps relaxes) to bend, triceps contracts (biceps relaxes) to straighten.
A broken bone can heal (it grows and repairs), and bone marrow makes blood cells — both show bone has living cells and a blood supply.
Muscles only pull, so they need a partner; biceps bends and triceps straightens the forearm, with the elbow as the pivot.
Q1Nervous messages are carried as:
Correct answer: B — electrical impulses along neurones
The nervous system uses fast electrical impulses along neurones.
Q2The correct reflex arc is:
Correct answer: B — receptor → sensory → relay → motor → effector
Receptor → sensory → relay → motor → effector is the reflex arc.
Q3The central nervous system consists of the:
Correct answer: B — brain and spinal cord
The central nervous system is the brain and spinal cord, which process information and coordinate the body’s responses.
Q4Adrenaline prepares the body for:
Correct answer: B — 'fight or flight'
Adrenaline triggers the fight-or-flight response.
Q5A plant shoot growing toward light is:
Correct answer: B — phototropism
Growing toward light is positive phototropism, controlled by auxins.
Q6Compared with nervous control, hormonal control is:
Correct answer: B — slower and longer-lasting
Hormones act more slowly but last longer than nerve impulses.
Q7The gap between two neurones is called a:
Correct answer: A — synapse
A synapse is the tiny gap where a neurotransmitter carries the signal to the next neurone.
Q8A signal crosses a synapse by means of a:
Correct answer: B — neurotransmitter chemical
A neurotransmitter diffuses across the gap and triggers the next neurone.
Nervous uses electrical impulses, hormonal uses chemicals; nervous travels along neurones, hormonal in the blood; nervous is fast and brief, hormonal is slower and longer-lasting.
It follows a fixed short pathway (the reflex arc) through the spinal cord, bypassing conscious processing in the brain, so the response is quick and protects the body.
A protective reflex; receptor → sensory neurone → relay neurone → motor neurone → effector muscle contracts.
The impulse arrives at the end of the first neurone and triggers the release of a neurotransmitter chemical. This diffuses across the synapse gap and binds to receptors on the next neurone, setting off a new impulse in it.
In bright light, circular muscles in the iris contract to make the pupil smaller, letting in less light. This protects the light-sensitive retina from damage by too much light.
Sensory = receptor→CNS, motor = CNS→effector; a synapse is one-way because only one side releases transmitter and only the other has receptors.
Q1Innate behaviour is:
Correct answer: B — inherited and present from birth
Innate behaviour is inborn, needs no learning, and is the same across the species.
Q2A spider spinning a web without being taught is an example of:
Correct answer: B — an instinct (innate)
Web-spinning is a complex inborn behaviour — an instinct.
Q3Learning to ignore a repeated harmless stimulus is:
Correct answer: B — habituation
Habituation is learning to stop responding to a harmless, repeated stimulus.
Q4Pavlov's dogs salivating at a bell is an example of:
Correct answer: B — conditioning
The dogs learned to link salivation (a response) to a new stimulus — conditioning.
Q5A duckling following the first moving object it sees is:
Correct answer: B — imprinting
Imprinting is bonding to the first moving thing seen early in life.
Q6Which type of behaviour varies between individuals of the same species?
Correct answer: C — learned
Learned behaviour depends on each individual's experience, so it varies.
Q7A key advantage of animals living in groups is:
Correct answer: B — safety in numbers
Groups give protection through safety in numbers, along with cooperation and easier mate-finding.
Q8Hibernation helps an animal survive winter by:
Correct answer: B — saving energy when food is scarce
Hibernation lowers activity and metabolism, conserving energy when little food is available.
Innate behaviour is inherited and present from birth and is the same in all members of the species; learned behaviour develops through experience and varies between individuals.
Innate = inborn, no learning (e.g. reflex/instinct); learned examples: conditioning (Pavlov's dogs) and imprinting (ducklings).
Communication lets animals coordinate behaviour — warning of danger, attracting a mate, or organising a group. For example, birds use alarm calls (sound) to warn others of a predator (or bees 'dance' to show where food is).
Group living: safety and cooperation; migration escapes to food/better climate; hibernation saves energy through scarce winters.
Q1Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are:
Correct answer: B — genetically identical
With one parent and no gamete fusion, offspring are clones — genetically identical.
Q2In humans, sperm are made in the:
Correct answer: B — testes
The testes produce sperm and testosterone.
Q3Fertilisation in humans normally occurs in the:
Correct answer: C — oviduct
The egg is usually fertilised in the oviduct (fallopian tube).
Q4The release of an egg from the ovary is called:
Correct answer: B — ovulation
Ovulation is the monthly release of an egg.
Q5The placenta lets the mother supply the fetus with oxygen without:
Correct answer: B — the two blood supplies mixing
The placenta exchanges materials between the two blood supplies without them mixing.
Q6An advantage of sexual reproduction is that it produces:
Correct answer: B — genetic variation
Mixing genes from two parents gives variation, aiding survival when conditions change.
Q7The hormone that triggers ovulation is:
Correct answer: B — LH
LH from the brain triggers the release of the egg (ovulation).
Q8The uterus lining breaks down as a period when the level of which hormone falls?
Correct answer: B — progesterone
A fall in progesterone at the end of the cycle causes the lining to break down.
Asexual needs one parent, sexual needs two; asexual has no gametes, sexual involves gamete fusion; asexual offspring are identical (clones), sexual offspring are genetically varied.
Variation means offspring differ, so if the environment changes some are more likely to have features that let them survive and reproduce, helping the species adapt.
Ovulation releases an egg and the lining thickens; if fertilised the embryo implants and develops, if not the lining is shed as the period.
Oestrogen rebuilds the uterus lining and leads to ovulation; progesterone maintains the thickened lining ready for pregnancy, and its fall causes the lining to break down.
FSH matures the egg, LH triggers ovulation; the pill's hormones stop ovulation, so no egg is released to be fertilised.
Q1Growth involves an increase in cell number by:
Correct answer: B — mitosis
Mitosis produces the extra identical cells that make an organism grow.
Q2Cells becoming specialised for particular jobs is called:
Correct answer: B — differentiation
Differentiation is the specialisation of cells during development.
Q3The single cell formed at fertilisation is the:
Correct answer: B — zygote
The zygote is the fertilised egg, which then divides to form an embryo.
Q4Plants grow mainly at regions called:
Correct answer: B — meristems
Meristems at shoot and root tips are where plant cells divide and growth occurs.
Q5A seed needs water, oxygen and warmth to begin:
Correct answer: B — germination
Germination is the start of a seed's growth, requiring water, oxygen and a suitable temperature.
Q6Development differs from growth in that development involves:
Correct answer: B — change in form and specialisation
Development is the change in form and complexity, including differentiation — more than just size.
Q7A typical growth curve is S-shaped because growth is:
Correct answer: B — slow, then rapid, then levelling off
Growth starts slowly, speeds up, then slows as adult size is reached — an S-shaped curve.
Q8A butterfly passing through egg, larva, pupa and adult shows:
Correct answer: B — complete metamorphosis
Four very different stages (egg-larva-pupa-adult) is complete metamorphosis.
Growth is a permanent increase in size (more cells and material). Development is the change in form and complexity as the organism matures, including the differentiation of cells into specialised types.
Zygote → mitosis → embryo → differentiation into tissues/organs → fetus; plants grow at meristems by division, enlargement and differentiation.
Percentage growth = (increase ÷ original) × 100 = (6 ÷ 20) × 100 = 30%.
Complete = egg/larva/pupa/adult (butterfly); incomplete = nymphs like small adults, gradual (locust); complete lets young and adults avoid competing for food.
Q1In DNA, adenine always pairs with:
Correct answer: C — thymine
By the complementary base-pairing rule, adenine always pairs with thymine (A–T) and guanine with cytosine (G–C), so one strand specifies the other.
Q2DNA replication is described as semi-conservative because each new molecule has:
Correct answer: B — one old and one new strand
Each daughter DNA keeps one original template strand and one newly made strand.
Q3How many bases specify one amino acid?
Correct answer: C — three
A triplet (codon) of three bases codes for one amino acid.
Q4A gene is:
Correct answer: B — a length of DNA coding for one protein
A gene is a section of DNA that codes for a particular protein.
Q5A change in the base sequence of DNA is a:
Correct answer: B — mutation
A mutation is a change in the DNA base sequence.
Q6If one strand reads A-G-C, the complementary strand is:
Correct answer: A — T-C-G
Pairing each base with its partner (A→T, G→C, C→G) gives the complementary strand T-C-G.
Q7The technique that makes millions of copies of a small DNA sample is:
Correct answer: B — PCR
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA, doubling it each cycle.
Q8An organism's complete set of DNA is called its:
Correct answer: C — genome
The genome is all of an organism's genetic material.
DNA is a double helix of two strands. Each strand is made of nucleotides (sugar, phosphate and a base). The strands are held together by base pairs, with adenine pairing with thymine and guanine with cytosine.
Replication: unzip, template, pair nucleotides (semi-conservative); protein: triplets code amino acids, transcribed to RNA, translated at a ribosome.
Enzymes cut DNA at specific base sequences, so the desired gene can be cut out of one organism's DNA and (using enzymes to join it) inserted into another organism's DNA, which then expresses the gene.
PCR amplifies DNA (used in forensics); screening detects disorders early (benefit) but raises privacy/misuse concerns.
Q1Mitosis produces daughter cells that are:
Correct answer: B — genetically identical and diploid
Mitosis gives two identical diploid cells — used for growth, repair and asexual reproduction.
Q2Meiosis is used to make:
Correct answer: B — gametes (sex cells)
Meiosis produces the haploid gametes needed for sexual reproduction.
Q3A human gamete contains how many chromosomes?
Correct answer: A — 23
Gametes are haploid, with half the diploid number — 23 in humans.
Q4DNA is copied during which stage of the cell cycle?
Correct answer: C — interphase
DNA is replicated during interphase, before division begins.
Q5Cancer results from:
Correct answer: B — uncontrolled cell division
Loss of control of the cell cycle leads to uncontrolled division and tumour formation.
Q6Compared with mitosis, meiosis produces:
Correct answer: B — four genetically different cells
Meiosis gives four haploid daughter cells that are all genetically different.
Q7A human body (diploid) cell contains how many chromosomes?
Correct answer: B — 46
Diploid human cells have 23 pairs = 46 chromosomes; gametes are haploid with 23.
Q8An unspecialised cell that can divide and become different cell types is a:
Correct answer: B — stem cell
Stem cells are unspecialised and can differentiate into many cell types.
Mitosis makes 2 cells, meiosis makes 4; mitosis keeps the chromosome number the same (diploid), meiosis halves it (haploid); mitosis gives identical cells, meiosis gives genetically different cells.
Mitosis produces genetically identical cells for growth (increasing cell number) and for the repair and replacement of damaged or worn-out tissue.
Mitosis → 46 (identical diploid); gametes → 23 (meiosis halves it so fertilisation keeps 46 constant); fertilisation restores the diploid number.
A diploid cell has the full set of chromosomes in matching pairs (46 in humans); a haploid cell has only one chromosome of each pair (23 in humans), as in gametes.
Stem cells are unspecialised and can divide and differentiate into many cell types, so they could be used to replace damaged or diseased tissue (for example nerve or blood cells). A concern is the ethical objection to using embryonic stem cells (or risks such as rejection or uncontrolled division).
Mitosis: growth and repair; gametes need meiosis to halve the number so fertilisation restores the diploid number.
Q1A version of a gene is called a(n):
Correct answer: B — allele
Alleles are the different versions of a gene.
Q2An organism with two different alleles for a gene is:
Correct answer: B — heterozygous
Two different alleles (e.g. Bb) means heterozygous.
Q3A recessive characteristic is shown only when the organism is:
Correct answer: B — homozygous recessive
A recessive trait appears only with two recessive alleles (bb).
Q4Crossing Tt × Tt gives a phenotype ratio of:
Correct answer: B — 3 : 1
Tt × Tt gives genotypes 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt; since T is dominant, that is a 3 dominant : 1 recessive phenotype ratio.
Q5Human females have the sex chromosomes:
Correct answer: B — XX
Human females have two X chromosomes (XX); males have one X and one Y (XY), the Y carrying the male-determining genes.
Q6The observable characteristic of an organism is its:
Correct answer: B — phenotype
The phenotype is what is actually shown; the genotype is the alleles carried.
Q7Blood group AB is an example of:
Correct answer: B — codominance
In group AB both the A and B alleles are expressed together — codominance.
Q8A healthy person who carries one recessive disease allele is a:
Correct answer: B — carrier
A carrier has one recessive allele, is healthy, but can pass it on.
Allele: a version of a gene. Genotype: the alleles an organism carries. Phenotype: the characteristic actually shown by the organism.
The mother's egg always carries an X chromosome; the father's sperm carries either an X or a Y. If an X sperm fertilises the egg the child is XX (female); if a Y sperm does, the child is XY (male) — a 50:50 chance.
Parents Bb × bb; offspring 2 Bb : 2 bb = 1 brown : 1 blue.
A dominant allele is expressed even when paired with a recessive one, so only it shows. Codominant alleles are both expressed together in the heterozygote, so both features appear (as in blood group AB).
Affected = ff, carrier = Ff; Ff × Ff gives 1 FF : 2 Ff : 1 ff, so a 1 in 4 chance of cystic fibrosis.
Q1Which type of variation can be inherited?
Correct answer: B — genetic
Only genetic variation is passed to offspring; environmental variation is not.
Q2The ultimate source of new genetic variation is:
Correct answer: C — mutation
Mutation introduces new alleles — the raw material of variation.
Q3In natural selection, the individuals most likely to survive and reproduce are those:
Correct answer: B — best adapted to the environment
Better-adapted individuals are more likely to survive and pass on their alleles.
Q4Antibiotic resistance spreads because resistant bacteria:
Correct answer: B — survive and reproduce
The survivors reproduce and pass on the resistance allele.
Q5Height in humans is an example of:
Correct answer: B — continuous variation
Height shows a continuous range of values.
Q6The main direct evidence for evolution comes from:
Correct answer: B — fossils
Fossils record how organisms have changed over long periods of time.
Q7Choosing the best milk-producing cows to breed together is an example of:
Correct answer: B — selective breeding
Humans selecting which animals breed for a desired trait is selective breeding (artificial selection).
Q8A new species is most likely to form when populations are:
Correct answer: B — isolated and under different selection pressures
Isolation plus different selection lets populations diverge until they can no longer interbreed.
Genetic variation is inherited and arises from mutation and gene shuffling (e.g. blood group); environmental variation is caused by surroundings and is not inherited (e.g. a scar, or a plant made small by poor soil).
Natural selection: variation → overproduction/competition → best-adapted survive and reproduce → alleles become more common; only genetic variation is heritable, so only it drives evolution.
Farmers select the wheat plants with the highest grain yield and breed them together. Their offspring inherit the high-yield alleles; repeating this over many generations steadily increases the yield of the crop.
Resistant variants survive the poison and reproduce, spreading the allele; isolated populations diverge until they can't interbreed — new species.
Q1Yeast is used in bread-making because it produces:
Correct answer: B — carbon dioxide
Yeast ferments sugar to ethanol and carbon dioxide; the CO₂ makes the bread rise.
Q2Yoghurt is made when bacteria ferment milk sugar into:
Correct answer: B — lactic acid
Lactic-acid bacteria turn the sugar in milk into lactic acid, forming yoghurt.
Q3Genetic engineering to make insulin transfers the human insulin gene into:
Correct answer: B — bacteria
The gene is inserted into bacteria, which then produce insulin.
Q4Antibiotics such as penicillin are produced by:
Correct answer: A — fermenting microbes in large vessels
Microbes are grown in large fermenters to produce antibiotics.
Q5A major advantage of making insulin from bacteria is that it is:
Correct answer: B — cheap and pure human insulin
Engineered bacteria make pure human insulin cheaply and in large amounts.
Q6Biotechnology is best defined as using living organisms to:
Correct answer: B — make useful products
Biotechnology uses organisms or their processes to make useful products.
Q7Cooling water is circulated through a fermenter to:
Correct answer: B — remove the heat from respiration and keep the optimum temperature
Respiring microbes release heat; cooling keeps the temperature at the optimum for their enzymes.
Q8Producing genetically identical plants from small pieces of a parent is:
Correct answer: B — tissue culture (cloning)
Tissue culture clones many identical plants from a parent — a form of cloning.
Yeast ferments sugars, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide. In brewing the ethanol makes the alcoholic drink; in bread-making the carbon dioxide is trapped in the dough and makes it rise.
Benefit: it produces cheap, pure medicines such as human insulin (or pest-resistant crops). Concern: possible safety, ethical or ecological risks. Product: human insulin.
Cut out the insulin gene, insert it into bacteria, grow them in a fermenter, purify the insulin; advantages: pure human insulin, cheap and plentiful.
Temperature — kept at the optimum for the microbe's enzymes (and cooled to remove respiration heat); pH — kept optimal so the enzymes work; sterility — to stop contamination by unwanted microbes. (Oxygen/nutrient supply and stirring are also valid.)
A GM crop carries an inserted gene for a useful trait (e.g. pest resistance); benefit = better food/yield, concern = health/ecological/ethical risks.
Q1The producer in most ecosystems is a:
Correct answer: B — green plant
Green plants capture light energy by photosynthesis, beginning the food chain.
Q2About what percentage of energy passes to the next trophic level?
Correct answer: A — 10%
Roughly 10% passes on; about 90% is lost at each level.
Q3Organisms that break down dead material are:
Correct answer: B — decomposers
Decomposers (bacteria and fungi) recycle nutrients from dead matter.
Q4Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
Correct answer: C — photosynthesis
Photosynthesis takes CO₂ out of the air; respiration and combustion return it.
Q5Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert:
Correct answer: B — nitrogen gas into usable compounds
They fix nitrogen gas into compounds plants can absorb.
Q6A major human cause of habitat loss is:
Correct answer: B — deforestation
Clearing forests destroys habitats and reduces biodiversity.
Q7The largest population an environment can support long-term is its:
Correct answer: B — carrying capacity
Carrying capacity is the maximum sustainable population for that environment.
Q8A pyramid of biomass almost always tapers toward the top because:
Correct answer: B — energy is lost at each trophic level
About 90% of energy is lost at each level, so less living material is supported higher up.
Energy is lost (about 90%) at each trophic level, so less energy is available higher up the chain. Less energy supports less living mass, so top predators are far fewer than producers.
Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the air and fixes it into glucose; respiration (and combustion) returns carbon dioxide to the air; decomposers break down dead organisms, releasing their carbon back as carbon dioxide.
Grass = producer, rabbit = primary consumer, fox = secondary consumer; ~90% of energy is lost at each step, so little reaches the top.
Any three: a shortage of food, water or space; an increase in predators (e.g. foxes); the spread of disease; or increased competition.
~90% of energy is lost (respiration, movement, waste), so ~10% passes on; biomass pyramids reflect mass so they always taper, unlike number pyramids.
These questions come from the 2nd Year Biology lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.