1st Year Physics — MCQs & Practice Questions

150 multiple-choice questions and 122 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

New to a topic? Read the 1st Year Physics notes first, then come back to practise.

01

Measurements

Multiple choice · 6

Q1A student measures the same length five times and gets 4.71, 4.72, 4.71, 4.72, 4.71 cm. The true length is 5.20 cm. The measurements are:

  1. AAccurate and precise
  2. BPrecise but not accurate
  3. CAccurate but not precise
  4. DNeither accurate nor precise
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Precise but not accurate

The readings agree with each other to within 0.01 cm, so they are precise. They all sit about 0.49 cm below the true value, so they are not accurate. A consistent offset like this is the signature of a systematic error — a zero error on the instrument, most likely.

Q2Which of these is NOT an SI base unit?

  1. Akilogram
  2. Bnewton
  3. Ckelvin
  4. Dmole
Show answer

Correct answer: B — newton

The newton is derived: 1 N = 1 kg m s⁻², built from three base units. The kilogram, kelvin and mole are all base units. The tempting mistake is assuming that any famous unit must be fundamental.

Q3The dimensions of pressure are:

  1. AM L T⁻²
  2. BM L⁻¹ T⁻²
  3. CM L² T⁻²
  4. DM L⁻² T⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — M L⁻¹ T⁻²

Pressure is force ÷ area = (M L T⁻²) ÷ L² = M L⁻¹ T⁻². Option A is force itself and option C is energy, which is why both look plausible if you stop one step early.

Q42.5 m is multiplied by 3.14159 m. To the correct number of significant figures the answer is:

  1. A7.853975 m²
  2. B7.85 m²
  3. C7.9 m²
  4. D8 m²
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 7.9 m²

The least precise input, 2.5, carries two significant figures, so the answer does too: 7.9 m². Writing 7.85 keeps three and quietly claims the 2.5 was really 2.50.

Q5Repeating a measurement many times and averaging will reduce:

  1. ASystematic error only
  2. BRandom error only
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Random error only

Random errors scatter either side of the true value, so they partly cancel in an average. A systematic error pushes every single reading the same way, so it survives averaging untouched — you have to find its cause instead.

Q6A length is recorded as 0.00470 m. How many significant figures does it have?

  1. ATwo
  2. BThree
  3. CFive
  4. DSix
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Three

Three: 4, 7 and the trailing 0. The leading zeros only place the decimal point and never count, but the final zero is after the decimal point and after a non-zero digit, so it is a genuine claim about precision.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Differentiate between base and derived units, giving one example of each.
Answer

A base unit is one of the seven independent SI units, such as the metre. A derived unit is built from base units by multiplication or division, such as the newton, 1 N = 1 kg m s⁻².

Q2[2 marks]
What is meant by the least count of a measuring instrument?
Answer

The smallest measurement the instrument can read — the value of one division on its scale. A metre rule has a least count of 1 mm; a vernier calliper, 0.1 mm; a screw gauge, 0.01 mm.

Q3[2 marks]
Why is the mean of several readings more reliable than a single reading?
Answer

Random errors scatter either side of the true value, so averaging makes them partly cancel. A single reading may happen to be one of the extreme ones.

Q4[3 marks]
The length of a rod is measured as 12.5 cm with an uncertainty of 0.1 cm. Express this in metres and state the percentage uncertainty.
Mark scheme
  1. Convert: 12.5 cm = 0.125 m, 0.1 cm = 0.001 mdivide by 100[1]
  2. Percentage uncertainty = (Δl / l) × 100 = (0.1 / 12.5) × 100same units top and bottom, so the conversion cancels[1]
  3. = 0.8%[1]

0.125 ± 0.001 m, or 0.8%

Q5[4 marks]
A student measures the diameter of a wire five times with a screw gauge and records: 0.42, 0.43, 0.42, 0.51, 0.43 mm.
  1. Identify the anomalous reading and state what should be done with it.
  2. Calculate the mean diameter using the remaining readings.
Mark scheme
  1. 0.51 mm is anomalous — it lies well away from the others[1]
  2. It should be excluded from the mean, but reported rather than deletedthe reporting half is the mark most often missed[1]
  3. Mean = (0.42 + 0.43 + 0.42 + 0.43) / 4four readings, not five[1]
  4. = 0.425 ≈ 0.43 mm[1]

(a) 0.51 mm, excluded but reported (b) 0.43 mm

02

Force and Motion

Multiple choice · 32

Q1A bullet is fired horizontally at the same instant an identical bullet is dropped from the same height. Which lands first?

  1. AThe fired bullet
  2. BThe dropped bullet
  3. CThey land at the same time
  4. DIt depends on the bullet mass
Show answer

Correct answer: C — They land at the same time

Vertical and horizontal motion are independent. Both bullets start with zero vertical velocity and fall under the same gravity, so both take identical time to reach the ground. The fired bullet simply travels much further horizontally while doing it.

Q2A projectile is launched at 30°. Which other angle gives the same horizontal range at the same speed?

  1. A45°
  2. B60°
  3. C75°
  4. DNone — 30° is unique
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 60°

Range depends on sin(2θ), and sin(60°) = sin(120°), so 30° and 60° pair up. The 60° shot goes higher and stays in the air longer but moves more slowly across; the two effects cancel exactly. Maximum range is at 45°.

Q3You push a wall and it pushes back equally. Why does nothing accelerate?

  1. AThe forces cancel out on the same object
  2. BThe two forces act on different objects, and the wall is anchored to the Earth
  3. CNewton's third law does not apply to walls
  4. DFriction removes both forces
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The two forces act on different objects, and the wall is anchored to the Earth

Your push acts on the wall; the wall's push acts on you. They never appear on the same free-body diagram, so they cannot cancel. Nothing accelerates because the wall is bolted to the ground and friction on your feet balances the force on you.

Q4A 2 kg ball is dropped from 5 m. Ignoring air resistance, its speed just before landing is about:

  1. A5 m/s
  2. B10 m/s
  3. C14 m/s
  4. D20 m/s
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10 m/s

Energy conservation: mgh = ½mv², and the mass cancels from both sides. So v = √(2gh) = √(2 × 9.81 × 5) = √98.1 ≈ 9.9 m/s, which rounds to 10 m/s. Note that a 5 kg ball dropped from the same height arrives at exactly the same speed.

Q5A pendulum swings with friction. What happens to the total energy?

  1. AIt is destroyed
  2. BIt converts to heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls
  3. CIt stays exactly constant
  4. DIt increases as the pendulum slows
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It converts to heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls

Energy is never destroyed. Friction converts the ordered kinetic energy into disordered thermal energy in the air and pivot. The mechanical total (KE + PE) falls, but the total including heat is unchanged.

Q6Two cars collide and lock together. Which quantity is definitely conserved?

  1. AKinetic energy only
  2. BMomentum only
  3. CBoth momentum and kinetic energy
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Momentum only

Momentum is conserved in every collision, since no external horizontal force acts during the impact. Kinetic energy is not: this is a perfectly inelastic collision, and a large fraction of it goes into crumpling metal, heat and noise.

Q7Two forces of 3 N and 4 N act at a point. Which resultant is IMPOSSIBLE?

  1. A1 N
  2. B5 N
  3. C7 N
  4. D8 N
Show answer

Correct answer: D — 8 N

The resultant of two vectors ranges from |4 − 3| = 1 N when they are antiparallel to 4 + 3 = 7 N when they are parallel. 8 N lies outside that range and cannot be produced at any angle. 5 N is the perpendicular case.

Q8A force of 20 N acts at 60° above the horizontal. Its horizontal component is:

  1. A10 N
  2. B17.3 N
  3. C20 N
  4. D11.5 N
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 10 N

20 cos 60° = 20 × 0.5 = 10 N. The 17.3 N answer is 20 sin 60°, the vertical component — swapping sine and cosine is the most common slip here. Check by asking which component should be smaller: at a steep 60°, most of the force points upward.

Q9Which of these is a scalar?

  1. AMomentum
  2. BWork
  3. CTorque
  4. DElectric field
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Work

Work is a scalar, even though it is calculated from two vectors — the dot product of force and displacement returns a plain number. Momentum, torque and electric field all carry direction.

Q10A body is in equilibrium under three forces. This means:

  1. AAll three forces are equal
  2. BThe three forces form a closed triangle when drawn head to tail
  3. CNo forces act on the body
  4. DThe forces are all perpendicular
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The three forces form a closed triangle when drawn head to tail

Zero resultant means that placing the three vectors head to tail brings you back to the starting point — a closed triangle. They need not be equal in magnitude or perpendicular, and "no forces act" describes a different situation entirely.

Q11A 10 N weight hangs on a string. The tension in the string is 10 N. This is because:

  1. ATension always equals weight
  2. BThe forces are an action–reaction pair
  3. CThe weight is in equilibrium, so the upward and downward forces must cancel
  4. DStrings cannot stretch
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The weight is in equilibrium, so the upward and downward forces must cancel

It follows from equilibrium: ΣF = 0 vertically, so tension must equal weight here. It is not a general rule — accelerate the weight upward and the tension exceeds 10 N. And the two forces act on the same object, so they are not an action–reaction pair.

Q12On an inclined plane at angle θ, the component of weight acting down the slope is:

  1. Amg cos θ
  2. Bmg sin θ
  3. Cmg tan θ
  4. Dmg
Show answer

Correct answer: B — mg sin θ

mg sin θ acts along the slope and mg cos θ presses perpendicular into it. Sanity check with θ = 0: a flat surface should give zero force along it, and sin 0° = 0. The cos version would wrongly give the full weight.

Q13An athlete runs exactly one lap of a 400 m circular track in 50 s. Their average velocity is:

  1. A8 m s⁻¹
  2. B0 m s⁻¹
  3. C400 m s⁻¹
  4. D4 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0 m s⁻¹

Average velocity is displacement ÷ time, and after a complete lap the displacement is zero — start and finish are the same point. The 8 m s⁻¹ answer is the average speed, which uses distance instead.

Q14A car moves at a constant 20 m s⁻¹ around a circular bend. Which statement is true?

  1. AIts velocity is constant
  2. BIts acceleration is zero
  3. CIt is accelerating because its direction is changing
  4. DIt cannot accelerate while its speed is constant
Show answer

Correct answer: C — It is accelerating because its direction is changing

Velocity is a vector, so changing direction changes the velocity even at constant speed — and a changing velocity is what acceleration means. The acceleration points toward the centre of the bend.

Q15An object has negative velocity and negative acceleration. It is:

  1. AMoving forwards and slowing down
  2. BMoving backwards and speeding up
  3. CMoving backwards and slowing down
  4. DStationary
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Moving backwards and speeding up

Matching signs mean the acceleration acts in the same direction as the motion, so the object speeds up. The common error is reading "negative acceleration" as "deceleration", which is only true when the velocity is positive.

Q16On a velocity–time graph, the area between the line and the time axis represents:

  1. AAcceleration
  2. BDisplacement
  3. CSpeed
  4. DForce
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Displacement

Velocity × time = displacement, and the area is that product accumulated. The gradient of the same graph gives acceleration — the two are the pair most often swapped.

Q17A horizontal line on a velocity–time graph means the object is:

  1. AStationary
  2. BMoving at constant velocity
  3. CAccelerating uniformly
  4. DChanging direction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Moving at constant velocity

Constant velocity, so zero acceleration. A stationary object would be a horizontal line sitting on the time axis itself, at v = 0 — a special case, not the general meaning.

Q18A stone is dropped from rest and falls for 3.0 s. Taking g = 10 m s⁻², how far does it fall?

  1. A15 m
  2. B30 m
  3. C45 m
  4. D90 m
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 45 m

s = ut + ½at² with u = 0 gives s = ½ × 10 × 3.0² = 45 m. Answer B is the mistake of calculating v = at = 30 and calling it a distance; answer A comes from forgetting to square the time.

Q19Which equation of motion would you choose if the question gives u, a and s, and asks for v?

  1. Av = u + at
  2. Bs = ut + ½at²
  3. Cv² = u² + 2as
  4. Ds = ½(u + v)t
Show answer

Correct answer: C — v² = u² + 2as

The unknown you neither have nor want is t, so use the equation that omits t. Options A and B both contain t and would need it to be found first — twice the work and twice the chance of an arithmetic slip.

Q20Two balls leave a table edge at the same moment — one dropped, one thrown horizontally at 5 m s⁻¹. Ignoring air resistance:

  1. AThe dropped ball lands first
  2. BThe thrown ball lands first
  3. CThey land at the same time
  4. DIt depends on their masses
Show answer

Correct answer: C — They land at the same time

Vertical and horizontal motion are independent. Both start with zero vertical velocity and fall the same height under the same g, so both take the same time. The thrown ball merely covers ground while it falls.

Q21At the highest point of a projectile's path, its velocity is:

  1. AZero
  2. BEqual to the horizontal component of the launch velocity
  3. CEqual to the launch velocity
  4. DDirected vertically upward
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Equal to the horizontal component of the launch velocity

Only the vertical component reaches zero at the top. Nothing acts horizontally, so that component is unchanged throughout the flight and is the whole of the velocity at the peak.

Q22A projectile is launched on level ground. Which launch angle gives the greatest range?

  1. A30°
  2. B45°
  3. C60°
  4. D90°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 45°

Range = u² sin 2θ / g, largest when sin 2θ = 1, so 2θ = 90° and θ = 45°. A 90° launch goes straight up and lands back at the launch point with zero range — the answer that catches anyone reasoning "higher must be further".

Q23The SUVAT equations may only be used when:

  1. AThe object is falling freely
  2. BThe acceleration is constant
  3. CThe velocity is constant
  4. DAir resistance is present
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The acceleration is constant

Constant acceleration is the one condition. Free fall is a common case of it, not the requirement. Where acceleration varies, you need the gradient and area of a graph, or calculus.

Q24Air resistance acts on a projectile. Compared with the ideal path, the actual path has:

  1. AA longer range and a symmetric shape
  2. BA shorter range and a steeper descent than ascent
  3. CThe same range but a lower peak
  4. DA longer time of flight
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A shorter range and a steeper descent than ascent

Drag opposes the motion throughout, cutting both range and maximum height, and the descent becomes steeper than the ascent — so the path is no longer a symmetric parabola.

Q25The unit of momentum is:

  1. AN s⁻¹
  2. Bkg m s⁻¹
  3. CJ
  4. DN m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kg m s⁻¹

p = mv gives kg × m s⁻¹. It is also equal to the newton second, since impulse and momentum share a unit.

Q26Momentum is conserved in:

  1. AElastic collisions only
  2. BInelastic collisions only
  3. CAll collisions with no external resultant force
  4. DNo collisions
Show answer

Correct answer: C — All collisions with no external resultant force

Momentum is always conserved provided no external resultant force acts. Kinetic energy is the quantity that separates elastic from inelastic.

Q27Two objects stick together after colliding. The collision is:

  1. AElastic
  2. BInelastic
  3. CImpossible
  4. DFrictionless
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Inelastic

Sticking together always means kinetic energy was lost to heat, sound and deformation. Momentum is still conserved.

Q28A 2 kg object moves at 3 m s⁻¹. Its momentum is:

  1. A1.5 kg m s⁻¹
  2. B6 kg m s⁻¹
  3. C9 kg m s⁻¹
  4. D0.67 kg m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6 kg m s⁻¹

p = mv = 2 × 3 = 6 kg m s⁻¹. Dividing gives 0.67 and confuses momentum with something that has no physical meaning here.

Q29Airbags reduce injury mainly because they:

  1. AReduce the change in momentum
  2. BIncrease the time of the collision, reducing the force
  3. CIncrease the mass of the passenger
  4. DAbsorb the momentum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increase the time of the collision, reducing the force

The change in momentum is fixed by the crash. Extending Δt reduces F, since F = Δp/Δt. Nothing "absorbs" momentum — it is transferred, not destroyed.

Q30A stationary object explodes into two fragments. Their total momentum afterwards is:

  1. AZero
  2. BEqual to the mass of the object
  3. CDoubled
  4. DImpossible to determine
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Zero

It was zero before, and momentum is conserved, so it must be zero after. The two fragments carry equal and opposite momenta.

Q31A ball of mass 0.2 kg hits a wall at 5 m s⁻¹ and rebounds at 5 m s⁻¹. The magnitude of its change in momentum is:

  1. A0
  2. B1 kg m s⁻¹
  3. C2 kg m s⁻¹
  4. D0.5 kg m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 2 kg m s⁻¹

The velocity changes from +5 to −5, a change of 10 m s⁻¹, so Δp = 0.2 × 10 = 2 kg m s⁻¹. Answer A treats the speeds as equal and therefore unchanged, which ignores direction.

Q32Force is best defined as the rate of change of:

  1. AVelocity
  2. BMomentum
  3. CEnergy
  4. DDisplacement
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Momentum

F = Δp/Δt is the general form of Newton's second law, and reduces to F = ma when the mass is constant.

Exam-style questions · 25

Q1[2 marks]
State Newton's third law and give the two conditions an action–reaction pair must satisfy.
Answer

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The two forces are of the same type and act on different bodies.

Q2[2 marks]
Why does a passenger lurch forward when a bus brakes suddenly?
Answer

By Newton's first law the passenger continues moving at the same velocity because no resultant force acts on them; the bus decelerates beneath them, so they move forward relative to it.

Q3[2 marks]
Define momentum and state its SI unit.
Answer

The product of mass and velocity, p = mv. A vector quantity. SI unit: kg m s⁻¹.

Q4[4 marks]
A trolley of mass 2.0 kg moving at 3.0 m s⁻¹ collides with a stationary trolley of mass 4.0 kg. They stick together. Calculate their common velocity after the collision.
Mark scheme
  1. States conservation of momentum: total before = total after[1]
  2. Before: p = 2.0 × 3.0 + 4.0 × 0 = 6.0 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  3. After: combined mass = 6.0 kg, so 6.0 = 6.0 × vthey stick together, so they share one velocity[1]
  4. v = 1.0 m s⁻¹ in the original directiondirection expected for full marks[1]

1.0 m s⁻¹ in the direction of the original motion

Q5[4 marks]
A force of 15 N acts on a 3.0 kg block resting on a surface. Friction opposing the motion is 6.0 N. Calculate the acceleration of the block.
Mark scheme
  1. Resultant force = 15 − 6.0 = 9.0 Nfriction opposes, so it subtracts[1]
  2. Uses F = ma[1]
  3. a = F/m = 9.0 / 3.0[1]
  4. a = 3.0 m s⁻²unit required[1]

3.0 m s⁻²

Q6[2 marks]
State the difference between a scalar and a vector quantity, and give one example of each.
Answer

A scalar has magnitude only, for example mass. A vector has both magnitude and direction, for example velocity.

Q7[2 marks]
Explain why displacement can be zero when the distance travelled is not.
Answer

Distance is the total path length, a scalar that only ever grows. Displacement is the straight line from start to finish, so returning to the starting point makes it zero.

Q8[2 marks]
State what is meant by the resultant of two forces.
Answer

The single force that has the same effect on the body as the two forces acting together.

Q9[5 marks]
A force of 8.0 N acts due east and a force of 6.0 N acts due north on the same object. Calculate the magnitude and direction of the resultant.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises the forces are perpendicular, so Pythagoras applies[1]
  2. R = √(8.0² + 6.0²)[1]
  3. R = 10.0 N[1]
  4. Uses tan θ = 6.0 / 8.0[1]
  5. θ = 36.9° north of easta direction with no reference line scores nothing[1]

10.0 N at 36.9° north of east

Q10[8 marks]
A box of weight 250 N rests on a slope inclined at 20° to the horizontal.
  1. Explain what is meant by resolving a vector. [2]
  2. Calculate the component of the weight acting down the slope. [3]
  3. Calculate the component acting perpendicular to the slope. [2]
  4. State what the perpendicular component is balanced by. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Replacing one vector by two components at right angles to each other[1]
  2. Which together have the same effect as the original vector[1]
  3. Uses W sin θ for the component along the slope[1]
  4. = 250 × sin 20°[1]
  5. = 85.5 N[1]
  6. Uses W cos θ = 250 × cos 20°[1]
  7. = 235 N[1]
  8. The normal contact force from the surface of the slope[1]

(b) 85.5 N (c) 235 N

Q11[6 marks]
A swimmer can swim at 1.2 m s⁻¹ in still water. She heads straight across a river 30 m wide that flows at 0.90 m s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the time taken to cross. [2]
  2. Calculate how far downstream she lands. [2]
  3. Calculate her resultant speed relative to the bank. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The current does not affect the crossing time: t = 30 / 1.2perpendicular components are independent[1]
  2. t = 25 s[1]
  3. Uses distance = 0.90 × 25[1]
  4. = 22.5 m downstream[1]
  5. Uses √(1.2² + 0.90²)[1]
  6. = 1.5 m s⁻¹[1]

(a) 25 s (b) 22.5 m (c) 1.5 m s⁻¹

Q12[4 marks]
A cyclist travelling at 4.0 m s⁻¹ accelerates uniformly to 10.0 m s⁻¹ over a distance of 42 m.
  1. Calculate the acceleration of the cyclist.
  2. Calculate the time taken.
Mark scheme
  1. Selects v² = u² + 2asthe equation without t, since t is not given in part (a)[1]
  2. 10.0² = 4.0² + 2 × a × 42100 = 16 + 84aa = 1.0 m s⁻²unit required for the mark[1]
  3. Selects v = u + at (or s = ½(u+v)t)[1]
  4. 10.0 = 4.0 + 1.0tt = 6.0 s[1]

(a) 1.0 m s⁻² (b) 6.0 s

Q13[5 marks]
A stone is dropped from rest at the top of a cliff and hits the sea 3.2 s later. Take g = 9.81 m s⁻² and ignore air resistance.
  1. Calculate the height of the cliff.
  2. Calculate the speed at which the stone hits the water.
  3. State one effect of air resistance on your answer to (b).
Mark scheme
  1. Uses s = ut + ½at² with u = 0"dropped from rest" is what tells you u = 0[1]
  2. s = ½ × 9.81 × 3.2² = 50.2 ≈ 50 m[1]
  3. Uses v = u + ator v² = u² + 2as[1]
  4. v = 9.81 × 3.2 = 31.4 ≈ 31 m s⁻¹[1]
  5. The actual speed would be lower / the stone would reach terminal velocitya statement about direction of change is enough[1]

(a) 50 m (b) 31 m s⁻¹ (c) the speed would be less

Q14[6 marks]
The velocity–time graph of a train shows: a uniform rise from 0 to 20 m s⁻¹ over the first 40 s, a constant 20 m s⁻¹ for the next 60 s, then a uniform fall to rest over the final 30 s.
  1. Calculate the acceleration during the first 40 s.
  2. Calculate the total distance travelled.
  3. Calculate the average speed for the whole journey.
Mark scheme
  1. Acceleration = gradient = (20 − 0) / 40gradient of a velocity–time graph is acceleration[1]
  2. = 0.50 m s⁻²[1]
  3. Recognises distance = area under the graphthis is the mark most often missed[1]
  4. Triangle ½ × 40 × 20 = 400; rectangle 60 × 20 = 1200; triangle ½ × 30 × 20 = 300all three areas needed[1]
  5. Total = 1900 m[1]
  6. Average speed = 1900 / 130 = 14.6 ≈ 15 m s⁻¹total distance ÷ total time, not the mean of the velocities[1]

(a) 0.50 m s⁻² (b) 1900 m (c) 15 m s⁻¹

Q15[5 marks]
A ball is thrown horizontally at 15 m s⁻¹ from the top of a building 45 m high. Take g = 10 m s⁻² and ignore air resistance.
  1. Calculate the time the ball takes to reach the ground.
  2. Calculate the horizontal distance travelled.
  3. Explain why the time in (a) does not depend on the horizontal speed.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses vertical motion with u_y = 0: 45 = ½ × 10 × t²"thrown horizontally" means the initial vertical velocity is zero[1]
  2. t² = 9.0, t = 3.0 s[1]
  3. Uses s_x = u_x t with constant horizontal velocity[1]
  4. s_x = 15 × 3.0 = 45 m[1]
  5. Horizontal and vertical motion are independent / gravity acts only vertically, so the vertical motion is unaffected by the horizontal velocity[1]

(a) 3.0 s (b) 45 m (c) the two components are independent

Q16[3 marks]
Define displacement, and state one situation in which the magnitude of an object's displacement is smaller than the distance it has travelled.
Mark scheme
  1. Displacement is the straight-line distance from the starting point to the finishing point[1]
  2. …together with its direction / it is a vector quantitythe direction is required for the second mark[1]
  3. Any curved or non-straight path, e.g. a runner going round a bend, a car following a winding roada full circular lap, where displacement is zero, also earns this[1]
Q17[2 marks]
Differentiate between distance and displacement.
Answer

Distance is the total length of the path travelled, a scalar. Displacement is the straight line from start to finish together with its direction, a vector.

Q18[2 marks]
Can a body have zero velocity and non-zero acceleration? Explain.
Answer

Yes. A ball thrown vertically upward is momentarily at rest at the top of its flight, but gravity still acts, so its acceleration is g downward.

Q19[4 marks]
A car travelling at 25 m s⁻¹ brakes uniformly and stops in 5.0 s. Calculate the deceleration and the distance travelled while braking.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses a = (v − u)/t = (0 − 25)/5.0[1]
  2. a = −5.0 m s⁻², a deceleration of 5.0 m s⁻²the negative sign or the word deceleration, not both required[1]
  3. Uses s = ½(u + v)t or v² = u² + 2as[1]
  4. s = ½(25 + 0) × 5.0 = 62.5 m[1]

deceleration 5.0 m s⁻², distance 62.5 m

Q20[6 marks]
A 1200 kg car travelling at 15 m s⁻¹ collides with a stationary 800 kg car. The two lock together.
  1. Calculate the total momentum before the collision.
  2. Calculate their common velocity immediately after.
  3. State whether kinetic energy is conserved, and name the type of collision.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p = mv[1]
  2. p = 1200 × 15 = 18 000 kg m s⁻¹the stationary car contributes nothing[1]
  3. Applies conservation: total after = 18 000 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  4. Combined mass 2000 kg, so v = 18 000 / 2000 = 9.0 m s⁻¹[1]
  5. Kinetic energy is not conserved[1]
  6. Inelastic collisionobjects sticking together is always inelastic[1]

(a) 1.8 × 10⁴ kg m s⁻¹ (b) 9.0 m s⁻¹ (c) not conserved; inelastic

Q21[5 marks]
A rifle of mass 4.0 kg fires a bullet of mass 0.020 kg at 400 m s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the recoil velocity of the rifle.
  2. Explain, using momentum, why a heavier rifle recoils more slowly.
Mark scheme
  1. Total momentum before is zeronothing is moving[1]
  2. 0 = 0.020 × 400 + 4.0 × v[1]
  3. v = −8.0 / 4.0 = −2.0 m s⁻¹, i.e. 2.0 m s⁻¹ backwardsdirection required[1]
  4. The rifle's momentum must equal the bullet's in size and be opposite in direction[1]
  5. Since p = mv is fixed, a larger m gives a smaller v[1]

2.0 m s⁻¹ backwards

Q22[4 marks]
A 0.15 kg ball hits a wall at 12 m s⁻¹ and rebounds at 8.0 m s⁻¹. The contact lasts 0.050 s. Calculate the average force on the ball.
Mark scheme
  1. Takes the initial direction as positive, so the rebound velocity is −8.0 m s⁻¹the sign is the whole question[1]
  2. Δp = m(v − u) = 0.15 × (−8.0 − 12) = −3.0 kg m s⁻¹a change of 20 m s⁻¹, not 4[1]
  3. Uses F = Δp/Δt[1]
  4. F = −3.0 / 0.050 = −60 N, i.e. 60 N away from the wall[1]

60 N, directed away from the wall

Q23[2 marks]
State the principle of conservation of momentum, including the condition under which it applies.
Answer

The total momentum of a system before an interaction equals the total momentum after it, provided no resultant external force acts on the system.

Q24[2 marks]
Explain why a cricketer moves their hands backwards while catching a fast ball.
Answer

It increases the time over which the ball is brought to rest. Since F = Δp/Δt and the change in momentum is fixed, a longer time means a smaller force on the hands.

Q25[9 marks]
A 0.045 kg golf ball is struck by a club. The ball leaves the tee at 60 m s⁻¹ and the contact lasts 0.50 ms.
  1. Calculate the change in momentum of the ball. [2]
  2. Calculate the average force exerted by the club. [3]
  3. The club has a mass of 0.30 kg and was moving at 70 m s⁻¹ before impact. Calculate its speed immediately afterwards. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses Δp = m(v − u) with u = 0the ball starts at rest on the tee[1]
  2. Δp = 0.045 × 60 = 2.7 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  3. Converts the time: 0.50 ms = 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ s[1]
  4. Uses F = Δp/Δt[1]
  5. F = 2.7 / 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ = 5400 N[1]
  6. Applies conservation of momentum to club and ball together[1]
  7. Before: 0.30 × 70 = 21 kg m s⁻¹the ball contributes nothing[1]
  8. After: 21 = 0.30 × v + 2.7[1]
  9. v = 18.3 / 0.30 = 61 m s⁻¹[1]

(a) 2.7 kg m s⁻¹ (b) 5400 N (c) 61 m s⁻¹

03

Circular and Rotational Motion

Multiple choice · 16

Q1The moment of a force is calculated using:

  1. AForce × distance along the line of action
  2. BForce × perpendicular distance from the pivot
  3. CForce ÷ distance from the pivot
  4. DForce × time
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Force × perpendicular distance from the pivot

Only the perpendicular distance produces turning. A force pushing straight toward the pivot has zero perpendicular distance and therefore no turning effect at all, however large it is.

Q2The unit of moment is:

  1. AJ
  2. BN m
  3. CN/m
  4. DW
Show answer

Correct answer: B — N m

Newton metre. It shares its base units with the joule, but a moment and an energy are different quantities, so writing J for a moment loses the mark.

Q3A 2 N weight sits 0.6 m from a pivot. Where must a 3 N weight sit on the other side to balance it?

  1. A0.4 m
  2. B0.6 m
  3. C0.9 m
  4. D1.2 m
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0.4 m

Anticlockwise moment = 2 × 0.6 = 1.2 N m, so 3 × d = 1.2 and d = 0.4 m. The heavier weight sits closer — the common error is placing it further out.

Q4Two equal, opposite, parallel forces with different lines of action form:

  1. AAn equilibrium
  2. BA couple
  3. CA resultant force
  4. DA moment of zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A couple

That is the definition of a couple. It produces pure rotation, with no resultant force, which is why a steering wheel turns without the column sliding sideways.

Q5For a uniform metre rule, the centre of gravity is at:

  1. AThe 0 cm mark
  2. BThe 50 cm mark
  3. CThe 100 cm mark
  4. DWherever it is pivoted
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The 50 cm mark

Uniform means the mass is evenly distributed, so the centre of gravity is at the geometric centre. The word "uniform" in a question is always telling you this.

Q6An object topples when:

  1. AIts centre of gravity is high
  2. BIts base is narrow
  3. CThe vertical line through its centre of gravity falls outside its base
  4. DIt is displaced at all
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The vertical line through its centre of gravity falls outside its base

A high centre of gravity and a narrow base both make toppling easier, but neither causes it on its own. The condition is the line through the centre of gravity leaving the base.

Q7When taking moments, choosing the pivot on the line of action of an unknown force is useful because:

  1. AIt makes the force larger
  2. BThat force then has zero moment and drops out
  3. CIt changes the equilibrium
  4. DIt converts N m to joules
Show answer

Correct answer: B — That force then has zero moment and drops out

Its perpendicular distance from that point is zero, so its moment is zero. One unknown vanishes and the equation solves in a single line.

Q8A racing car is built low to the ground mainly because:

  1. AIt reduces air resistance only
  2. BIt lowers the centre of gravity, improving stability
  3. CIt increases the weight
  4. DIt increases the moment of the engine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It lowers the centre of gravity, improving stability

A lower centre of gravity means a larger tilt is needed before the vertical line through it leaves the wheelbase, so the car resists rolling in corners. Reduced drag is a genuine second benefit, but stability is the reason given in mark schemes.

Q9An object moves in a circle at constant speed. Which quantity is changing?

  1. ASpeed
  2. BVelocity
  3. CKinetic energy
  4. DMass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Velocity

Velocity is a vector and its direction changes continuously. Speed, kinetic energy and mass all stay the same.

Q10The centripetal acceleration of a body moving in a circle is directed:

  1. AAlong the tangent
  2. BTowards the centre
  3. CAway from the centre
  4. DVertically downwards
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Towards the centre

Centripetal means centre-seeking. The velocity is tangential; the acceleration is at right angles to it, pointing inwards.

Q11A string whirling a stone in a horizontal circle breaks. The stone then moves:

  1. ARadially outwards
  2. BAlong the tangent
  3. CTowards the centre
  4. DStraight down immediately
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Along the tangent

With no resultant force it continues in a straight line — along the tangent, by Newton's first law. Nothing ever pushed it outwards.

Q12Doubling the speed of a car on the same bend changes the centripetal force needed by a factor of:

  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C½
  4. Dno change
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

F = mv²/r depends on the square of the speed, so doubling v quadruples the force. This is why bends have speed limits.

Q13For a car on a flat bend, the centripetal force is provided by:

  1. AGravity
  2. BFriction between tyres and road
  3. CThe engine
  4. DAir resistance
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Friction between tyres and road

Friction acts sideways on the tyres, towards the centre of the bend. On ice there is almost none, which is why the car goes straight on.

Q14Moment of inertia depends on:

  1. AMass only
  2. BMass and how it is distributed about the axis
  3. CSpeed only
  4. DThe applied torque
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Mass and how it is distributed about the axis

I = Σmr². Mass far from the axis contributes far more, which is why a hoop is harder to spin than a disc of the same mass.

Q15A skater pulls her arms in while spinning freely. Her angular velocity:

  1. ADecreases
  2. BIncreases
  3. CStays the same
  4. DFalls to zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increases

Angular momentum is conserved with no external torque. Reducing I forces ω up.

Q16At the top of a vertical circle, the minimum speed for the string to stay taut is:

  1. A√(2gr)
  2. B√(gr)
  3. Cgr
  4. Dzero
Show answer

Correct answer: B√(gr)

At the limit the tension is zero and gravity alone supplies the centripetal force: mg = mv²/r, so v = √(gr).

Exam-style questions · 13

Q1[4 marks]
A uniform beam of weight 40 N and length 2.0 m rests on a pivot 0.50 m from its left end. A load of weight W hangs from the extreme left end, and the beam is in equilibrium.
  1. State where the weight of the beam acts.
  2. Calculate the value of W.
Mark scheme
  1. At the centre of gravity, which for a uniform beam is its midpoint, 1.0 m from the left end"uniform" is the word that tells you this[1]
  2. Takes moments about the pivot; the beam's weight acts 1.0 − 0.50 = 0.50 m to the right of it[1]
  3. Clockwise = anticlockwise: 40 × 0.50 = W × 0.50the load acts 0.50 m to the left of the pivot[1]
  4. W = 40 N[1]

(a) at the midpoint, 1.0 m from the left end (b) W = 40 N

Q2[3 marks]
Explain, in terms of centre of gravity and base, why a double-decker bus is more likely to topple when passengers stand on the upper deck than when they sit downstairs.
Mark scheme
  1. Passengers upstairs raise the centre of gravity of the bus[1]
  2. A higher centre of gravity means a smaller tilt is needed before the vertical line through it falls outside the base / wheelbasethis is the key reasoning mark[1]
  3. So the bus topples at a smaller angle / is less stable[1]
Q3[3 marks]
A force of 12 N is applied to a spanner at 30° to the handle, at a distance of 0.25 m from the nut. Calculate the moment of the force about the nut.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises that only the perpendicular component turns the nutor equivalently uses the perpendicular distance[1]
  2. Perpendicular component = 12 sin 30° = 6.0 N[1]
  3. Moment = 6.0 × 0.25 = 1.5 N munit required[1]

1.5 N m

Q4[2 marks]
Define the moment of a force and state its SI unit.
Answer

The turning effect of a force about a pivot, equal to force × perpendicular distance from the pivot to the line of action. SI unit: the newton metre, N m.

Q5[2 marks]
Why can a moment not be measured in joules, when N m is the unit of both?
Answer

They are different quantities. Work is force acting along a displacement; a moment is force acting across a distance from a pivot. Sharing base units does not make them the same thing.

Q6[2 marks]
State two conditions that must be satisfied for a body to be in complete equilibrium.
Answer

ΣF = 0 — no resultant force, so it does not accelerate. Σ moments = 0 — no resultant turning effect, so it does not rotate.

Q7[4 marks]
A uniform metre rule is pivoted at the 50 cm mark. A weight of 3.0 N hangs at the 20 cm mark. Calculate the weight that must hang at the 70 cm mark to balance it.
Mark scheme
  1. Left distance = 50 − 20 = 30 cm = 0.30 mdistance from the pivot, not from the end of the rule[1]
  2. Anticlockwise moment = 3.0 × 0.30 = 0.90 N m[1]
  3. Right distance = 70 − 50 = 20 cm = 0.20 m; for balance W₂ × 0.20 = 0.90principle of moments[1]
  4. W₂ = 4.5 Nunit required[1]

4.5 N

Q8[2 marks]
Explain why an object moving in a circle at constant speed is accelerating.
Answer

Its direction of motion is changing continuously, so its velocity is changing. Velocity is a vector, and a changing velocity is an acceleration.

Q9[2 marks]
A stone on a string is whirled in a horizontal circle. State what provides the centripetal force, and what happens if the string breaks.
Answer

The tension in the string. If it breaks there is no longer a resultant force, so the stone flies off along the tangent in a straight line, not outwards along the radius.

Q10[2 marks]
Explain why a figure skater spins faster when she pulls her arms in.
Answer

No external torque acts, so angular momentum L = Iω is conserved. Pulling her arms in moves mass closer to the axis, reducing the moment of inertia, so the angular velocity must increase.

Q11[5 marks]
A satellite orbits the Earth in a circle of radius 7.0 × 10⁶ m with a period of 5800 s. Calculate its angular velocity, its linear speed, and its centripetal acceleration.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses ω = 2π/T[1]
  2. ω = 2π / 5800 = 1.08 × 10⁻³ rad s⁻¹[1]
  3. Uses v = rω[1]
  4. v = 7.0 × 10⁶ × 1.08 × 10⁻³ = 7.6 × 10³ m s⁻¹[1]
  5. a = ω²r = (1.08 × 10⁻³)² × 7.0 × 10⁶ = 8.2 m s⁻²close to g, as expected in low orbit[1]

ω = 1.08 × 10⁻³ rad s⁻¹, v = 7.6 km s⁻¹, a = 8.2 m s⁻²

Q12[8 marks]
A small ball of mass 0.25 kg is attached to a string of length 0.80 m and swung in a vertical circle.
  1. Draw and label the forces acting on the ball at the top of the circle. [2]
  2. Calculate the minimum speed at the top for the string to stay taut. [3]
  3. Calculate the tension at the bottom if the ball is moving at 6.0 m s⁻¹ there. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Weight mg acting downwards[1]
  2. Tension T also acting downwards, towards the centreat the top both point the same way[1]
  3. At minimum speed the string just goes slack, so T = 0 and gravity alone provides the force[1]
  4. mg = mv²/r, so v² = gr = 9.81 × 0.80the mass cancels[1]
  5. v = 2.8 m s⁻¹[1]
  6. At the bottom the tension acts up and the weight down: T − mg = mv²/r[1]
  7. T = 0.25 × 6.0² / 0.80 + 0.25 × 9.81[1]
  8. T = 11.25 + 2.45 = 13.7 N[1]

(b) 2.8 m s⁻¹ (c) 13.7 N

Q13[6 marks]
A flywheel of moment of inertia 0.45 kg m² is spinning at 120 rad s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate its rotational kinetic energy. [2]
  2. Calculate its angular momentum. [2]
  3. A ring is dropped onto it, raising the total moment of inertia to 0.60 kg m². Find the new angular velocity. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses KE = ½Iω²[1]
  2. = ½ × 0.45 × 120² = 3240 J[1]
  3. Uses L = Iω[1]
  4. = 0.45 × 120 = 54 kg m² s⁻¹[1]
  5. No external torque, so angular momentum is conserved: 54 = 0.60 ω[1]
  6. ω = 90 rad s⁻¹kinetic energy has fallen — the collision is inelastic[1]

3240 J, 54 kg m² s⁻¹, 90 rad s⁻¹

04

Work, Energy and Power

Multiple choice · 6

Q1A waiter carries a tray horizontally at constant speed across a room. The work done by the waiter on the tray is:

  1. ALarge and positive
  2. BZero
  3. CNegative
  4. DEqual to the weight of the tray
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The supporting force is vertical and the movement is horizontal, so θ = 90° and cos 90° = 0. Effort is not the same as work — your arm gets tired maintaining the force, but no energy is transferred to the tray.

Q2A car doubles its speed. Its kinetic energy:

  1. ADoubles
  2. BHalves
  3. CQuadruples
  4. DStays the same
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Quadruples

KE = ½mv², so v → 2v gives (2v)² = 4v². This is why braking distance grows roughly fourfold when speed doubles: the brakes must dissipate four times the energy.

Q3A 2 kg ball is dropped from 5 m. Taking g = 10 m s⁻² and ignoring air resistance, its speed on landing is:

  1. A5 m s⁻¹
  2. B10 m s⁻¹
  3. C20 m s⁻¹
  4. D100 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10 m s⁻¹

mgh = ½mv², and the mass cancels: v = √(2gh) = √(2 × 10 × 5) = 10 m s⁻¹. The 100 answer is v² left un-square-rooted, and the mass being given at all is a deliberate distraction.

Q4A motor lifts a 50 kg load 4 m in 10 s. Taking g = 10 m s⁻², its useful power output is:

  1. A20 W
  2. B200 W
  3. C2000 W
  4. D500 W
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 200 W

Work = mgh = 50 × 10 × 4 = 2000 J, and power = 2000 ÷ 10 = 200 W. The 2000 W answer is the work in joules read off as watts — always check whether you have divided by the time.

Q5A pendulum swings back and forth with friction present. Over time:

  1. ATotal energy is destroyed
  2. BKE and PE both fall, and the difference becomes heat
  3. CPE is converted entirely into KE with no loss
  4. DThe period grows steadily longer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — KE and PE both fall, and the difference becomes heat

Energy is never destroyed — it leaves the pendulum as heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls. The period, notably, stays essentially the same as the swing dies away, which is the isochronism that made pendulum clocks work.

Q6A machine takes in 500 J and delivers 350 J of useful output. Its efficiency is:

  1. A70%
  2. B143%
  3. C150%
  4. D35%
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 70%

350 ÷ 500 × 100 = 70%. The remaining 150 J has not vanished; it has been dissipated as heat, sound and vibration. Any efficiency above 100% means you have divided the wrong way round.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Define work done and state the condition under which it is zero even though a force acts.
Answer

Work = force × distance moved in the direction of the force, W = Fs cos θ. It is zero when the force is perpendicular to the motion, since cos 90° = 0.

Q2[2 marks]
State the law of conservation of energy.
Answer

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred from one store to another. The total energy of a closed system remains constant.

Q3[2 marks]
A ball bounces to a lower height each time. Has energy been destroyed? Explain.
Answer

No. Energy is transferred to heat and sound in the ball and the floor at each bounce, so less remains as gravitational potential energy. The total is unchanged.

Q4[4 marks]
A pump raises 300 kg of water through a height of 12 m in 40 s. Calculate the useful power output. Take g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = mghthe useful energy is the gravitational potential energy gained[1]
  2. E = 300 × 10 × 12 = 36 000 J[1]
  3. Uses P = E/t[1]
  4. P = 36 000 / 40 = 900 Wunit required[1]

900 W

Q5[4 marks]
A 1200 kg car accelerates from rest to 20 m s⁻¹. Calculate its gain in kinetic energy, and the average power developed if this takes 8.0 s.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses KE = ½mv²[1]
  2. KE = ½ × 1200 × 20² = 240 000 Jsquare the velocity before multiplying[1]
  3. Gain in KE = 240 000 J since it started from rest[1]
  4. P = 240 000 / 8.0 = 30 000 W = 30 kW[1]

2.4 × 10⁵ J and 30 kW

05

Solids and Fluid Dynamics

Multiple choice · 16

Q1The density of a substance is defined as:

  1. AMass × volume
  2. BMass per unit volume
  3. CVolume per unit mass
  4. DWeight per unit area
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Mass per unit volume

ρ = m/V. Volume per unit mass is its reciprocal, and weight per unit area is pressure — both are offered because both are genuinely easy to reach for under time pressure.

Q2A block is cut exactly in half. Its density:

  1. AHalves
  2. BDoubles
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDepends on which way it is cut
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays the same

Both the mass and the volume halve, so their ratio is unchanged. Density is a property of the material, not of the size of the sample.

Q3The SI unit of pressure is:

  1. AN
  2. BPa
  3. CJ
  4. DN m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Pa

The pascal, where 1 Pa = 1 N m⁻². The newton is force, the joule is energy, and N m is a moment.

Q4The pressure at the bottom of a column of liquid depends on:

  1. AThe width of the container
  2. BThe total volume of liquid
  3. CThe depth, density and g
  4. DThe shape of the container
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The depth, density and g

p = ρgh contains no term for width, volume or shape. A narrow tube 2 m tall gives exactly the same base pressure as a wide tank 2 m deep.

Q5A force of 20 N acts over an area of 0.5 m². The pressure is:

  1. A10 Pa
  2. B40 Pa
  3. C0.025 Pa
  4. D20 Pa
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 40 Pa

p = F/A = 20 ÷ 0.5 = 40 Pa. Dividing the other way round gives 0.025 and is the most common slip — check whether the answer should be larger or smaller than the force.

Q6A spring of natural length 10 cm stretches to 15 cm under a 4 N load. The spring constant is:

  1. A0.27 N m⁻¹
  2. B26.7 N m⁻¹
  3. C80 N m⁻¹
  4. D40 N m⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 80 N m⁻¹

The extension is 5 cm = 0.05 m, so k = 4 ÷ 0.05 = 80 N m⁻¹. Using the total length of 0.15 m gives 26.7 and is precisely the error the question is set to catch.

Q7Beyond the elastic limit, a spring:

  1. AReturns to its original length
  2. BDoes not return to its original length
  3. CObeys Hooke's law exactly
  4. DHas zero spring constant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Does not return to its original length

It is permanently deformed. The limit of proportionality is a separate and earlier point, where the force–extension graph stops being straight.

Q8Why do snowshoes stop a walker sinking into soft snow?

  1. AThey reduce the walker's weight
  2. BThey spread the weight over a larger area, lowering the pressure
  3. CThey increase the density of the snow
  4. DThey reduce the force of gravity
Show answer

Correct answer: B — They spread the weight over a larger area, lowering the pressure

The weight is unchanged — only the area over which it acts increases, so p = F/A falls. Nothing a shoe does can change a person's weight.

Q9Which of these has no units?

  1. AStress
  2. BStrain
  3. CYoung modulus
  4. DPressure
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Strain

Strain is extension divided by original length — metres over metres. The other three are all in pascals.

Q10The Young modulus of a material is:

  1. AStress × strain
  2. BStress ÷ strain
  3. CStrain ÷ stress
  4. DForce ÷ extension
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Stress ÷ strain

E = σ/ε. Force ÷ extension is the spring constant, which depends on the sample rather than the material.

Q11Pressure at a point in a liquid depends on:

  1. AThe shape of the container
  2. BThe depth and the density
  3. CThe total volume of liquid
  4. DThe surface area
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The depth and the density

p = ρgh. A narrow tube and a wide tank give the same pressure at the same depth.

Q12Upthrust on a submerged object equals:

  1. AThe weight of the object
  2. BThe weight of fluid displaced
  3. CThe density of the object
  4. DZero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The weight of fluid displaced

Archimedes' principle. It uses the fluid's density and the volume displaced, not the object's density.

Q13A ball falling through oil reaches terminal velocity when:

  1. AThe drag is zero
  2. BThe resultant force is zero
  3. CThe upthrust is zero
  4. DIt stops moving
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The resultant force is zero

Weight is balanced by drag plus upthrust. The ball is still moving — it has just stopped accelerating.

Q14Water flows into a pipe whose area halves. The speed:

  1. AHalves
  2. BDoubles
  3. CStays the same
  4. DQuadruples
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Doubles

A₁v₁ = A₂v₂. The same volume must pass each second, so halving the area doubles the speed.

Q15According to Bernoulli's principle, where a fluid flows fastest the pressure is:

  1. AHighest
  2. BLowest
  3. CUnchanged
  4. DZero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Lowest

Total energy per unit volume is constant, so a gain in kinetic energy comes at the expense of pressure. This is where aerofoil lift comes from.

Q16Heating a liquid generally makes its viscosity:

  1. AIncrease
  2. BDecrease
  3. CStay constant
  4. DBecome zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decrease

The molecules move more freely past one another. It is why warm honey pours easily and why engine oil is graded for temperature.

Exam-style questions · 13

Q1[5 marks]
A rectangular block of wood has dimensions 20 cm × 10 cm × 5.0 cm and a mass of 0.80 kg.
  1. Calculate the density of the wood in kg m⁻³.
  2. The block is placed on a table on its largest face. Calculate the pressure it exerts. Take g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Volume = 0.20 × 0.10 × 0.050 = 1.0 × 10⁻³ m³converting every length to metres first[1]
  2. Density = 0.80 / 1.0 × 10⁻³ = 800 kg m⁻³[1]
  3. Weight = mg = 0.80 × 10 = 8.0 Npressure needs force, and the force here is the weight[1]
  4. Largest face area = 0.20 × 0.10 = 0.020 m²largest face gives the lowest pressure[1]
  5. Pressure = 8.0 / 0.020 = 400 Pa[1]

(a) 800 kg m⁻³ (b) 400 Pa

Q2[4 marks]
A diver is 12 m below the surface of a lake. The density of the water is 1000 kg m⁻³ and g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the pressure on the diver due to the water alone.
  2. The lake narrows sharply near the bottom. State and explain the effect of this on the pressure at 12 m depth.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p = ρgh[1]
  2. p = 1000 × 10 × 12 = 1.2 × 10⁵ Paunit required[1]
  3. No effect / the pressure is unchanged[1]
  4. Pressure in a liquid depends only on depth, density and g — not on the shape or width of the containerthe reasoning mark; the statement alone scores 1 of 2[1]

(a) 1.2 × 10⁵ Pa (b) no change — pressure depends only on depth

Q3[4 marks]
A spring of natural length 8.0 cm extends to 12.0 cm when a load of 5.0 N is hung from it.
  1. Calculate the spring constant.
  2. Calculate the length of the spring when a load of 8.0 N is applied, assuming the limit of proportionality is not exceeded.
Mark scheme
  1. Extension = 12.0 − 8.0 = 4.0 cm = 0.040 mextension, not total length — the mark most often lost on this topic[1]
  2. k = F/x = 5.0 / 0.040 = 125 N m⁻¹[1]
  3. New extension = 8.0 / 125 = 0.064 m = 6.4 cm[1]
  4. New length = 8.0 + 6.4 = 14.4 cmadding the natural length back on[1]

(a) 125 N m⁻¹ (b) 14.4 cm

Q4[2 marks]
Define density and state its SI unit.
Answer

Mass per unit volume, ρ = m/V. SI unit: kg m⁻³.

Q5[2 marks]
Why does a camel have broad feet?
Answer

Broad feet spread the camel's weight over a larger area, so the pressure on the sand is smaller and it does not sink.

Q6[2 marks]
State Hooke's law.
Answer

The extension of a spring is directly proportional to the load applied, provided the limit of proportionality is not exceeded.

Q7[4 marks]
A tank contains oil of density 800 kg m⁻³ to a depth of 1.5 m. Calculate the pressure at the base due to the oil, and the force this exerts on a base of area 2.0 m². Take g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p = ρgh[1]
  2. p = 800 × 10 × 1.5 = 12 000 Paunit required[1]
  3. Rearranges p = F/A to F = pA[1]
  4. F = 12 000 × 2.0 = 24 000 N[1]

p = 1.2 × 10⁴ Pa, F = 2.4 × 10⁴ N

Q8[2 marks]
Define stress and strain, and state which has units.
Answer

Stress is force per unit cross-sectional area, σ = F/A, measured in pascals. Strain is extension divided by original length, a ratio with no units.

Q9[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by the elastic limit.
Answer

The maximum stress a material can take and still return to its original length when the load is removed. Beyond it the deformation is permanent.

Q10[2 marks]
Explain why a ball bearing falling through oil reaches a terminal velocity.
Answer

The drag force grows with speed. As the ball accelerates the drag increases until drag plus upthrust equals the weight, the resultant force becomes zero, and the speed stops changing.

Q11[5 marks]
A copper wire 1.8 m long with cross-sectional area 2.0 × 10⁻⁷ m² is stretched by 1.2 mm under a load of 15 N. Find the stress, the strain, and the Young modulus.
Mark scheme
  1. σ = F/A = 15 / 2.0 × 10⁻⁷[1]
  2. σ = 7.5 × 10⁷ Pa[1]
  3. ε = e/L = 1.2 × 10⁻³ / 1.8convert the mm first[1]
  4. ε = 6.7 × 10⁻⁴no units[1]
  5. E = σ/ε = 7.5 × 10⁷ / 6.7 × 10⁻⁴ = 1.1 × 10¹¹ Paabout right for copper[1]

σ = 7.5 × 10⁷ Pa, ε = 6.7 × 10⁻⁴, E = 1.1 × 10¹¹ Pa

Q12[8 marks]
Water flows steadily through a horizontal pipe which narrows from a cross-sectional area of 8.0 × 10⁻⁴ m² to 2.0 × 10⁻⁴ m². In the wide section the water moves at 1.5 m s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the speed in the narrow section. [3]
  2. State and explain what happens to the pressure at the narrow section. [3]
  3. State two assumptions Bernoulli's principle makes. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses the equation of continuity A₁v₁ = A₂v₂[1]
  2. 8.0 × 10⁻⁴ × 1.5 = 2.0 × 10⁻⁴ × v₂[1]
  3. v₂ = 6.0 m s⁻¹area quartered, so speed quadrupled[1]
  4. The pressure decreases[1]
  5. By Bernoulli, where the speed is higher the pressure is lower[1]
  6. The total energy per unit volume is constant, so a rise in kinetic energy must come at the expense of pressure energy[1]
  7. The flow is steady and non-turbulent[1]
  8. The fluid is incompressible and non-viscousany one more[1]

(a) 6.0 m s⁻¹ (b) pressure falls

Q13[6 marks]
A stone of volume 4.0 × 10⁻⁴ m³ and mass 1.1 kg is fully submerged in water of density 1000 kg m⁻³.
  1. Calculate the upthrust on the stone. [3]
  2. Calculate its apparent weight in the water. [2]
  3. State whether it floats, with a reason. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Upthrust equals the weight of water displaced, ρgV[1]
  2. = 1000 × 9.81 × 4.0 × 10⁻⁴[1]
  3. = 3.9 N[1]
  4. Weight in air = 1.1 × 9.81 = 10.8 N[1]
  5. Apparent weight = 10.8 − 3.9 = 6.9 N[1]
  6. It sinks — the upthrust is less than the weight, so its density exceeds that of water[1]

upthrust 3.9 N, apparent weight 6.9 N, sinks

06

Heat and Thermodynamics

Multiple choice · 16

Q1Temperature is a measure of:

  1. AThe total energy of all the particles
  2. BThe average kinetic energy of the particles
  3. CThe mass of the substance
  4. DThe rate of heat flow
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The average kinetic energy of the particles

Temperature is the average per particle. The total energy of all the particles is thermal energy, which also depends on how many there are — which is why a spark and a bath differ so completely.

Q2−273 °C in kelvin is:

  1. A0 K
  2. B273 K
  3. C−273 K
  4. D546 K
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0 K

T(K) = θ + 273, so −273 + 273 = 0 K. This is absolute zero, the point at which particle motion is at its minimum.

Q3Which expands most for a given temperature rise?

  1. ASolids
  2. BLiquids
  3. CGases
  4. DAll expand equally
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gases

Gases expand most, then liquids, then solids. The more freely the particles already move, the more space the additional motion requires.

Q4A bimetallic strip bends when heated because:

  1. AOne metal melts
  2. BThe two metals expand by different amounts
  3. CThe strip absorbs latent heat
  4. DThe metals contract
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The two metals expand by different amounts

Different expansion rates force the strip to curve, toward the metal that expands less. This is the basis of a simple thermostat.

Q5In E = mcΔθ, Δθ represents:

  1. AThe final temperature
  2. BThe starting temperature
  3. CThe change in temperature
  4. DThe temperature in kelvin
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The change in temperature

The change — subtract the initial from the final before substituting. Using the final temperature alone is the single most common error in this topic.

Q6During melting, the temperature of a substance:

  1. ARises steadily
  2. BFalls
  3. CStays constant
  4. DRises then falls
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays constant

The energy supplied breaks bonds between particles rather than raising their kinetic energy, so the thermometer does not move until all the solid has melted.

Q7Water is used as a coolant in car engines mainly because it:

  1. AIs cheap
  2. BHas a high specific heat capacity
  3. CHas a low boiling point
  4. DExpands when heated
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Has a high specific heat capacity

About 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ means it absorbs a great deal of energy for a small temperature rise. Being cheap and available is a real practical advantage, but not the physics being examined.

Q8Ponds freeze from the surface downward because:

  1. AIce is denser than water
  2. BWater expands between 4 °C and 0 °C, so ice floats
  3. CCold air only touches the top
  4. DThe bottom is insulated by mud
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Water expands between 4 °C and 0 °C, so ice floats

Water is anomalous below 4 °C: it expands as it cools further, so ice is less dense and floats. Cold air does only touch the top, but that alone would not stop the ice sinking once formed.

Q9Gas law calculations must use temperature in:

  1. ACelsius
  2. BKelvin
  3. CFahrenheit
  4. DEither Celsius or kelvin
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Kelvin

The proportionalities only hold from absolute zero. Using Celsius is the single most common error in this topic.

Q10At constant temperature, halving the volume of a fixed mass of gas:

  1. AHalves the pressure
  2. BDoubles the pressure
  3. CLeaves it unchanged
  4. DQuadruples it
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Doubles the pressure

Boyle's law: p ∝ 1/V. The same particles strike a smaller area more often.

Q11The absolute temperature of a gas is proportional to:

  1. AThe pressure
  2. BThe mean kinetic energy of its particles
  3. CThe volume
  4. DThe number of particles
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The mean kinetic energy of its particles

½mc̄² = (3/2)kT. This is what gives temperature a mechanical meaning.

Q12In ΔU = Q + W, W is positive when:

  1. AThe gas expands
  2. BWork is done on the gas
  3. CHeat leaves the gas
  4. DThe temperature falls
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Work is done on the gas

Compression does work on the gas and raises its internal energy. An expanding gas does work on its surroundings, so W is negative.

Q13During an isothermal change, the change in internal energy is:

  1. APositive
  2. BZero
  3. CNegative
  4. DEqual to Q + W and non-zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

Temperature is constant, so ΔU = 0 and therefore Q = −W. Heat and work still flow; they just cancel.

Q14A heat engine works between 600 K and 300 K. Its maximum possible efficiency is:

  1. A100%
  2. B50%
  3. C30%
  4. D200%
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 50%

1 − 300/600 = 0.50. A real engine will be well below this because it is not reversible.

Q15The second law of thermodynamics states that heat flows spontaneously:

  1. AFrom cold to hot
  2. BFrom hot to cold
  3. CIn either direction equally
  4. DOnly in a vacuum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — From hot to cold

Hot to cold. Reversing it requires work, which is exactly what a refrigerator does.

Q16Why must a heat engine reject heat to a cold sink?

  1. ABecause of friction
  2. BBecause the second law requires it
  3. CBecause of poor design
  4. DIt need not
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because the second law requires it

Even a perfect, frictionless engine must dump heat. It is a law, not an engineering shortcoming.

Exam-style questions · 13

Q1[5 marks]
An electric heater of power 2.0 kW is used to heat 1.5 kg of water. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the energy needed to raise the temperature of the water from 18 °C to 88 °C.
  2. Calculate the minimum time this would take.
  3. In practice the heater takes longer than your answer to (b). Give one reason.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = mcΔθ with Δθ = 70 °C88 − 18, not 88[1]
  2. E = 1.5 × 4200 × 70 = 4.41 × 10⁵ J[1]
  3. Uses t = E/P with P = 2000 Wconverting kW to W[1]
  4. t = 441000 / 2000 = 220 saccept 220.5 s[1]
  5. Energy is lost to the surroundings / the container is also heatedeither reason accepted[1]

(a) 4.4 × 10⁵ J (b) 220 s (c) heat lost to surroundings

Q2[5 marks]
A student heats a block of ice at −10 °C steadily until it becomes steam. Sketch and describe the shape of the temperature–time graph.
Mark scheme
  1. Temperature rises from −10 °C to 0 °C[1]
  2. Horizontal section at 0 °C while the ice melts[1]
  3. Temperature rises from 0 °C to 100 °C[1]
  4. Longer horizontal section at 100 °C while the water boilsthe boiling plateau must be longer than the melting one[1]
  5. During the flat sections the energy supplied breaks bonds between particles rather than raising kinetic energythe explanation mark[1]
Q3[4 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why a bimetallic strip bends when heated, and state one use for it.
Mark scheme
  1. Heating makes particles vibrate more and push further apart, so each metal expands[1]
  2. The two metals expand by different amounts for the same temperature risethis is the essential point[1]
  3. The strip bends toward the metal that expands less[1]
  4. Used in a thermostat / fire alarm / oven switchany valid use[1]
Q4[2 marks]
Differentiate between heat and temperature.
Answer

Temperature is the average kinetic energy of the particles, measured in °C or K. Heat is the total thermal energy of all the particles, measured in joules, and depends on how many there are.

Q5[2 marks]
Why does a bimetallic strip bend on heating?
Answer

The two metals expand by different amounts for the same temperature rise, so the strip curves toward the metal that expands less.

Q6[2 marks]
Why does the temperature remain constant while ice is melting?
Answer

The energy supplied is used to break the bonds holding the particles in the lattice, not to increase their kinetic energy. Since temperature measures kinetic energy, it does not change.

Q7[5 marks]
Calculate the energy needed to convert 0.20 kg of ice at 0 °C completely into water at 20 °C. Take the specific latent heat of fusion of ice as 3.34 × 10⁵ J kg⁻¹ and the specific heat capacity of water as 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises two stages: melting, then warminga single-stage answer cannot score more than two[1]
  2. Melting: E₁ = mL = 0.20 × 3.34 × 10⁵ = 6.68 × 10⁴ J[1]
  3. Warming: E₂ = mcΔθ = 0.20 × 4200 × 20[1]
  4. E₂ = 1.68 × 10⁴ J[1]
  5. Total = 6.68 × 10⁴ + 1.68 × 10⁴ = 8.36 × 10⁴ Jadding the two stages[1]

8.36 × 10⁴ J

Q8[2 marks]
State Boyle's law and the conditions under which it applies.
Answer

For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, the pressure is inversely proportional to the volume. Both the mass and the temperature must be constant.

Q9[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why the pressure of a gas rises when it is heated at constant volume.
Answer

The particles gain kinetic energy and move faster, so they strike the walls harder and more frequently. With the same wall area, the force per unit area increases.

Q10[2 marks]
Explain why a gas cools when it expands rapidly without heat entering it.
Answer

The gas does work pushing back the surroundings, so W is negative. With Q = 0, ΔU is negative, the internal energy falls and the temperature drops.

Q11[5 marks]
A gas at 2.0 × 10⁵ Pa occupies 0.015 m³ at 17 °C. It is heated at constant pressure to 137 °C. Find the new volume.
Mark scheme
  1. Convert: 17 °C = 290 K, 137 °C = 410 K[1]
  2. Constant pressure, so V₁/T₁ = V₂/T₂Charles's law[1]
  3. 0.015 / 290 = V₂ / 410[1]
  4. V₂ = 0.015 × 410 / 290[1]
  5. V₂ = 0.021 m³a 41% rise in kelvin gives a 41% rise in volume[1]

0.021 m³

Q12[8 marks]
A heat engine takes 6000 J from a source at 500 K and rejects heat to a sink at 300 K.
  1. Calculate the maximum possible efficiency. [2]
  2. Calculate the maximum work it could do, and the heat it must reject. [3]
  3. The real engine delivers 1800 J of work. Calculate its actual efficiency and explain the difference. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses 1 − T_c/T_h with kelvin[1]
  2. 1 − 300/500 = 0.40, so 40%[1]
  3. Maximum work = 0.40 × 6000 = 2400 J[1]
  4. Heat rejected = 6000 − 2400[1]
  5. = 3600 Jthis cannot be avoided — the second law requires it[1]
  6. Actual efficiency = 1800/6000 = 0.30, or 30%[1]
  7. Lower than the maximum because the real engine is not reversible[1]
  8. Friction, turbulence and heat lost to the surroundings all reduce the work obtained[1]

(a) 40% (b) 2400 J of work, 3600 J rejected (c) 30%

Q13[6 marks]
A gas is compressed, and 250 J of work is done on it. At the same time it loses 100 J of heat to the surroundings.
  1. State the first law of thermodynamics. [2]
  2. Calculate the change in internal energy. [2]
  3. State whether the temperature rises or falls, with a reason. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The increase in internal energy equals the heat supplied plus the work done on the system[1]
  2. ΔU = Q + W[1]
  3. W = +250 J (work done ON the gas), Q = −100 J (heat lost)the signs are the difficult part[1]
  4. ΔU = −100 + 250 = +150 J[1]
  5. The temperature rises[1]
  6. Internal energy has increased, and for a gas that means greater mean kinetic energy[1]

ΔU = +150 J, so the temperature rises

07

Waves and Vibrations

Multiple choice · 6

Q1Which condition defines simple harmonic motion?

  1. AThe object moves in a circle
  2. BThe restoring force is proportional to displacement and directed toward equilibrium
  3. CThe speed is constant
  4. DThe acceleration is constant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The restoring force is proportional to displacement and directed toward equilibrium

F = −kx is the definition. Constant acceleration describes free fall, not SHM — in SHM the acceleration is largest at the extremes and zero at the centre, changing continuously.

Q2You double the amplitude of a mass-spring oscillator. The period:

  1. ADoubles
  2. BHalves
  3. CStays the same
  4. DQuadruples
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays the same

T = 2π√(m/k) contains no amplitude term. A larger swing covers more distance but also moves faster, and the two effects cancel exactly. This property, called isochronism, is what made pendulums useful as clocks.

Q3A wave has frequency 250 Hz and wavelength 1.4 m. Its speed is:

  1. A178 m/s
  2. B350 m/s
  3. C251 m/s
  4. D0.0056 m/s
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 350 m/s

v = fλ = 250 × 1.4 = 350 m/s — close to the speed of sound in air. Note the speed is set by the medium: change the frequency and the wavelength adjusts to keep the product fixed.

Q4Two identical waves meet exactly out of phase (180°). The result is:

  1. ADouble amplitude
  2. BComplete cancellation
  3. CHalf amplitude
  4. DA standing wave
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Complete cancellation

Every crest lands on a trough, and equal-and-opposite displacements sum to zero. The energy is not destroyed — it redistributes to regions where the interference is constructive, which is why interference patterns have bright and dark bands rather than uniform dimness.

Q5In a standing wave on a string, a node is a point that:

  1. AVibrates with maximum amplitude
  2. BNever moves
  3. CMoves along the string
  4. DHas the highest frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Never moves

At a node the two counter-travelling waves are permanently in antiphase, so they cancel there at every instant. The maximum-amplitude points between nodes are antinodes, and node spacing is exactly half a wavelength.

Q6Sound is a longitudinal wave. That means the air molecules:

  1. AMove perpendicular to the wave direction
  2. BOscillate back and forth along the wave direction
  3. CTravel with the wave to your ear
  4. DDo not move at all
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Oscillate back and forth along the wave direction

Longitudinal means the oscillation is parallel to travel — air compresses and rarefies along the line the sound moves. The molecules themselves only jiggle in place; the energy travels, not the air.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define the wavelength and the frequency of a wave.
Answer

Wavelength is the distance between two neighbouring points that are in phase, for example crest to crest. Frequency is the number of complete waves passing a fixed point each second.

Q2[2 marks]
State two differences between transverse and longitudinal waves, and give one example of each.
Answer

In a transverse wave the vibration is perpendicular to the direction of travel, for example light. In a longitudinal wave it is parallel to the direction of travel, for example sound.

Q3[2 marks]
State what happens to the frequency, wavelength and speed of a water wave when it passes into shallower water.
Answer

The frequency stays the same. The speed decreases and, since v = fλ, the wavelength decreases in proportion.

Q4[4 marks]
A wave on a rope has a frequency of 12 Hz. Fifteen complete waves occupy a length of 3.0 m. Calculate the wavelength and the speed of the wave.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses λ = length ÷ number of waves[1]
  2. λ = 3.0 / 15 = 0.20 m[1]
  3. Uses v = fλ[1]
  4. v = 12 × 0.20 = 2.4 m s⁻¹[1]

λ = 0.20 m, v = 2.4 m s⁻¹

Q5[8 marks]
A ripple tank is used to study water waves. A straight barrier with a narrow gap is placed in the tank.
  1. Describe and explain what is observed as the waves pass through the gap. [3]
  2. State and explain what happens to the effect when the gap is made narrower. [2]
  3. The waves have a frequency of 8.0 Hz and a wavelength of 25 mm. Calculate their speed. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The waves spread out after passing through the gap[1]
  2. This is diffraction[1]
  3. The wavelength and frequency are unchanged; only the shape of the wavefront changes[1]
  4. The waves spread out more[1]
  5. Because the gap width is closer to the wavelengthmaximum spreading when gap ≈ λ[1]
  6. Converts 25 mm = 0.025 m[1]
  7. Uses v = fλ[1]
  8. v = 8.0 × 0.025 = 0.20 m s⁻¹[1]

(c) 0.20 m s⁻¹

Q6[7 marks]
A student uses a ripple tank to investigate refraction by placing a flat glass plate on the bottom to make part of the tank shallower.
  1. Describe what happens to the direction of the waves as they cross into the shallow region at an angle. [2]
  2. Explain this change in terms of the speed of the waves. [3]
  3. State what is observed if the waves meet the boundary head-on, and explain why. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The waves change direction at the boundary[1]
  2. They bend towards the normal[1]
  3. The waves travel more slowly in the shallow water[1]
  4. The end of each wavefront entering the shallow region slows first[1]
  5. So the wavefront pivots, changing the direction of travel[1]
  6. The direction does not change[1]
  7. Because the whole wavefront slows at the same instant, so there is nothing to pivot aboutthe wavelength still shortens[1]
08

Physical Optics and Gravitational Waves

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Two sources are coherent if they have:

  1. AThe same amplitude
  2. BThe same frequency and a constant phase difference
  3. CThe same intensity
  4. DDifferent wavelengths
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The same frequency and a constant phase difference

Amplitude affects how complete the cancellation is, but coherence is about frequency and a steady phase relationship.

Q2Constructive interference occurs when the path difference is:

  1. A(n + ½)λ
  2. B
  3. Cλ/4
  4. DAlways zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — nλ

A whole number of wavelengths means the waves arrive in step. Odd half-wavelengths give cancellation.

Q3In a double slit experiment, moving the screen further away makes the fringes:

  1. ACloser together
  2. BFurther apart
  3. CUnchanged
  4. DDisappear
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Further apart

x = λD/a, so spacing is proportional to D. This is why the screen is placed well back.

Q4Which colour produces the widest fringe spacing?

  1. ABlue
  2. BRed
  3. CGreen
  4. DAll the same
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Red

Red has the longest wavelength, and x ∝ λ.

Q5Diffraction through a gap is greatest when the gap is:

  1. AMuch wider than the wavelength
  2. BAbout equal to the wavelength
  3. CMuch narrower than the wavelength
  4. DPerfectly square
Show answer

Correct answer: B — About equal to the wavelength

A gap comparable to the wavelength spreads the wave most. It is why sound bends round doorways and light does not.

Q6A grating has 500 lines per mm. The slit spacing d is:

  1. A500 m
  2. B2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m
  3. C5.0 × 10⁻⁴ m
  4. D500 × 10⁻⁹ m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m

500 per mm is 5 × 10⁵ per metre, and d = 1/N = 2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m.

Q7That light can be polarised shows that light is:

  1. ALongitudinal
  2. BTransverse
  3. CA particle
  4. DMonochromatic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Transverse

Only transverse waves have vibrations perpendicular to travel that can be restricted to a plane. Sound cannot be polarised.

Q8LIGO detects gravitational waves by measuring:

  1. AA change in the colour of light
  2. BA tiny difference in the lengths of two perpendicular arms
  3. CThe mass of a black hole directly
  4. DA change in gravity with a pendulum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A tiny difference in the lengths of two perpendicular arms

It is an interferometer. The arms are set to cancel; a passing wave upsets that cancellation and light reaches the detector.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what is meant by coherent sources, and why they are needed for interference.
Answer

Sources with the same frequency and a constant phase difference. Without that, the phase relationship changes randomly and no stable pattern of fringes is seen.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why light can be polarised but sound cannot.
Answer

Light is a transverse wave, so its vibrations are perpendicular to the direction of travel and one plane can be selected. Sound is longitudinal, vibrating along the direction of travel, so there is no plane to select.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why sound diffracts round a doorway but light does not.
Answer

Diffraction is greatest when the gap is comparable to the wavelength. Sound wavelengths are around a metre, similar to a doorway, while visible light is about 5 × 10⁻⁷ m — far too small to spread noticeably.

Q4[5 marks]
A diffraction grating has 300 lines per millimetre. Light of wavelength 590 nm falls on it normally. Find the angle of the first order maximum, and the highest order visible.
Mark scheme
  1. d = 1 / (300 × 10³) = 3.33 × 10⁻⁶ m300 per mm is 3 × 10⁵ per metre[1]
  2. Uses d sin θ = nλ with n = 1[1]
  3. sin θ = 590 × 10⁻⁹ / 3.33 × 10⁻⁶ = 0.177[1]
  4. θ = 10.2°[1]
  5. Highest order: n ≤ d/λ = 5.6, so n = 5sin θ cannot exceed 1[1]

θ = 10.2° for the first order; 5 orders visible

Q5[8 marks]
In a double slit experiment, slits 0.40 mm apart are illuminated with light of wavelength 5.9 × 10⁻⁷ m. The screen is 2.4 m away.
  1. Explain why a bright fringe appears at the centre of the screen. [2]
  2. Calculate the fringe spacing. [3]
  3. State and explain what happens to the pattern if the slit separation is halved. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The two paths to the centre are equal in length[1]
  2. So the path difference is zero, the waves arrive in phase and interfere constructively[1]
  3. Uses x = λD/a[1]
  4. x = (5.9 × 10⁻⁷ × 2.4) / 4.0 × 10⁻⁴[1]
  5. x = 3.5 × 10⁻³ m, about 3.5 mm[1]
  6. The fringe spacing doubles[1]
  7. Because x is inversely proportional to a[1]
  8. The fringes become more widely separated and easier to measure[1]

(b) 3.5 mm (c) spacing doubles

Q6[5 marks]
Gravitational waves were first detected in 2015 by LIGO, an instrument built on the interference of laser light.
  1. Explain how an interferometer detects an extremely small change in length. [3]
  2. State one reason gravitational wave astronomy sees events that telescopes cannot. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A laser beam is split down two perpendicular arms and recombined[1]
  2. The arms are set so the returning beams cancel by destructive interference[1]
  3. A tiny change in one arm's length upsets the cancellation, so light appears at the detectora fraction of a wavelength is enough[1]
  4. Events such as black hole mergers emit almost no light[1]
  5. But they do radiate gravitational waves, which also pass through intervening dust and gas unimpeded[1]
09

Electrostatics and Current Electricity

Multiple choice · 12

Q1The separation between two point charges is tripled. The force between them becomes:

  1. AOne third
  2. BOne sixth
  3. COne ninth
  4. DThree times larger
Show answer

Correct answer: C — One ninth

F ∝ 1/r², so tripling r divides the force by 3² = 9. Answer A is the trap for anyone who treats it as a simple inverse rather than an inverse square.

Q2Electric field lines can never cross because:

  1. AThey would cancel out
  2. BThe field would have two directions at one point, which is meaningless
  3. CCharges would be destroyed
  4. DIt would violate conservation of energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The field would have two directions at one point, which is meaningless

The field at a point has one definite direction — the direction of the force on a positive test charge there. Two crossing lines would assign it two directions at once, which is a contradiction rather than a physical possibility.

Q3Which quantity is a scalar?

  1. AElectric field strength
  2. BElectric potential
  3. CElectrostatic force
  4. DDisplacement of a charge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Electric potential

Potential is energy per unit charge — a plain number, which is exactly why potentials from several charges can be added arithmetically. Field strength and force both carry direction and need vector addition.

Q4Two identical positive charges are held a fixed distance apart. At the midpoint between them, the electric field is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BZero
  3. CHalf of its value at either charge
  4. DDirected toward the nearer charge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The two fields at the midpoint are equal in size and opposite in direction, so they cancel exactly. Note that the potential at that same point is not zero — it is the sum of two positive numbers, which is a distinction examiners like to probe.

Q5A charge of 2 μC is placed in a uniform field of 500 N C⁻¹. The force on it is:

  1. A1 × 10⁻³ N
  2. B250 N
  3. C1000 N
  4. D2.5 × 10⁻³ N
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 × 10⁻³ N

F = qE = 2 × 10⁻⁶ × 500 = 1 × 10⁻³ N. The commonest error is mishandling the micro prefix — μ means 10⁻⁶, so 2 μC is a very small charge and the resulting force is correspondingly small.

Q6Charge is described as "quantised". This means:

  1. ACharge can take any value
  2. BCharge exists only in whole multiples of the elementary charge e
  3. CCharge is always conserved
  4. DCharge decreases with distance
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Charge exists only in whole multiples of the elementary charge e

Quantisation is about coming in indivisible lumps of e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C. Conservation is a separate and equally important principle — both are true, but the question asks specifically about quantisation.

Q7A 12 V supply drives 0.5 A through a resistor. What is its resistance?

  1. A6 Ω
  2. B24 Ω
  3. C12.5 Ω
  4. D0.042 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 24 Ω

Rearrange V = IR to R = V/I = 12 / 0.5 = 24 Ω. Sanity check with power: P = VI = 6 W, and I²R = 0.25 × 24 = 6 W. Consistent.

Q8Two 10 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. The total resistance is:

  1. A20 Ω
  2. B10 Ω
  3. C5 Ω
  4. D0.2 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5 Ω

1/R = 1/10 + 1/10 = 2/10, so R = 5 Ω. Identical resistors in parallel always halve. Adding a second path makes it easier for charge to flow, so total resistance must fall below either individual value.

Q9In a series circuit, which quantity is the same through every component?

  1. AVoltage
  2. BCurrent
  3. CResistance
  4. DPower
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Current

One path means charge has nowhere else to go, so the current is identical everywhere. It is the voltage that divides, in proportion to each resistance. In parallel the situation is exactly reversed.

Q10Why are household appliances wired in parallel?

  1. AIt uses less copper
  2. BEach gets the full supply voltage and can be switched independently
  3. CIt reduces the total current
  4. DSeries wiring is illegal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Each gets the full supply voltage and can be switched independently

Parallel branches all sit across the full mains voltage, so every appliance works at its rated value and one failure does not break the others' circuit. It does increase total current, which is why the circuit is protected by a breaker.

Q11Electric field lines never cross. Why?

  1. AThey would break the inverse square law
  2. BAt a crossing point the field would need two directions at once, which is impossible
  3. CCrossing lines cancel to zero
  4. DThey do cross for like charges
Show answer

Correct answer: B — At a crossing point the field would need two directions at once, which is impossible

The field at any point has one definite direction — the direction a positive test charge would be pushed. Two lines crossing would specify two different directions at the same place, which is a contradiction.

Q12You double the distance from a point charge. The field strength becomes:

  1. AHalf
  2. BA quarter
  3. CDouble
  4. DUnchanged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A quarter

E = kQ/r² is an inverse square law. Doubling r multiplies the denominator by 4, so E drops to one quarter. Geometrically the same field lines are spread over four times the surface area.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of electrons, how a polythene rod becomes negatively charged when rubbed with a cloth.
Answer

Electrons are transferred from the cloth onto the rod. The rod gains electrons and becomes negative; the cloth is left with a positive charge.

Q2[2 marks]
State what is meant by an electric field and how its direction is defined.
Answer

A region in which a charge experiences a force. The direction of the field is the direction of the force on a small positive test charge.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why a charged rod attracts small uncharged pieces of paper.
Answer

The rod induces a separation of charge in the paper, drawing the opposite charge to the near side. That near charge is closer to the rod, so its attraction outweighs the repulsion of the far side.

Q4[4 marks]
A potential difference of 5000 V is applied across two parallel plates separated by 25 mm. Calculate the electric field strength between them, and the force on a charge of 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ C placed in that field.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts 25 mm = 0.025 m[1]
  2. Uses E = V/d = 5000 / 0.025[1]
  3. E = 2.0 × 10⁵ V m⁻¹[1]
  4. F = QE = 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 2.0 × 10⁵ = 6.4 × 10⁻¹⁴ N[1]

E = 2.0 × 10⁵ V m⁻¹, F = 6.4 × 10⁻¹⁴ N

Q5[8 marks]
A fuel tanker is fitted with a conducting strip that touches the ground, and is earthed with a metal wire before fuel is transferred.
  1. Explain how charge builds up on the tanker as it drives. [2]
  2. Explain why this build-up is dangerous during refuelling. [3]
  3. Explain how earthing the tanker removes the danger. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Friction between the tanker and the air, and between the fuel and the tank walls, transfers electrons[1]
  2. The tanker is insulated by its rubber tyres, so the charge cannot escape and accumulates[1]
  3. The charge raises the potential of the tanker[1]
  4. Eventually a spark jumps to a nearby earthed object[1]
  5. The spark could ignite the fuel vapour and cause an explosion[1]
  6. The wire provides a conducting path to earth[1]
  7. Electrons flow along it until the tanker is at the same potential as the earth[1]
  8. So charge leaks away steadily instead of building to a spark[1]
Q6[6 marks]
Two parallel metal plates are connected to a high-voltage supply, the upper plate positive.
  1. Describe the pattern of the field lines between the plates, away from the edges. [2]
  2. A small negatively charged oil drop is placed between the plates. State the direction of the electric force on it and explain your answer. [2]
  3. State two changes that would increase the force on the drop. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The lines are parallel and equally spaced, showing a uniform field[1]
  2. They run from the positive plate to the negative plate[1]
  3. The force is upward, towards the positive plate[1]
  4. Because the drop is negative, so the force is opposite to the field direction[1]
  5. Increase the potential difference across the plates[1]
  6. Move the plates closer together, or increase the charge on the dropany one[1]

(b) upward, towards the positive plate

Q7[2 marks]
Define electric current and state its unit.
Answer

The rate of flow of electric charge, I = Q/t. Its unit is the ampere (A), where one ampere is one coulomb per second.

Q8[2 marks]
State Ohm's law and the condition under which it holds.
Answer

The current through a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across it, provided the temperature stays constant.

Q9[2 marks]
Explain why the resistance of a metal wire increases as it gets hotter.
Answer

The metal ions vibrate more strongly, so the moving electrons collide with them more often. Each collision impedes the flow, so the resistance rises.

Q10[5 marks]
A wire of length 2.0 m and cross-sectional area 0.50 mm² has a resistance of 0.068 Ω. Calculate the resistivity of the metal, and state the resistance of a 4.0 m length of the same wire.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts the area: 0.50 mm² = 0.50 × 10⁻⁶ m²the step most often dropped[1]
  2. Uses ρ = RA/L[1]
  3. ρ = (0.068 × 0.50 × 10⁻⁶) / 2.0[1]
  4. ρ = 1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ω mcopper[1]
  5. Doubling the length doubles the resistance: 0.136 Ω[1]

ρ = 1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ω m; R = 0.14 Ω

Q11[8 marks]
A student connects a 6.0 V battery to a filament lamp and records the current for a range of potential differences.
  1. Sketch and describe the shape of the I–V graph obtained. [3]
  2. Explain the shape in terms of what happens inside the filament. [3]
  3. At 6.0 V the current is 0.50 A. Calculate the resistance and the power at that point. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The graph passes through the origin[1]
  2. It is a straight line at low potential difference[1]
  3. It then curves towards the V axis, so the gradient falls[1]
  4. A larger current heats the filament[1]
  5. The ions vibrate more and the electrons collide with them more often[1]
  6. So the resistance increases and the current no longer rises in proportion[1]
  7. R = V/I = 6.0 / 0.50 = 12 Ω[1]
  8. P = VI = 6.0 × 0.50 = 3.0 W[1]

(c) 12 Ω and 3.0 W

Q12[7 marks]
A 9.0 V supply is connected in series with a 20 Ω resistor and a thermistor. At room temperature the thermistor has a resistance of 25 Ω.
  1. Calculate the current in the circuit at room temperature. [3]
  2. Calculate the potential difference across the thermistor. [2]
  3. State and explain what happens to that potential difference as the thermistor is warmed. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Total resistance = 20 + 25 = 45 Ω[1]
  2. Uses I = V/R[1]
  3. I = 9.0 / 45 = 0.20 A[1]
  4. Uses V = IR for the thermistor[1]
  5. V = 0.20 × 25 = 5.0 V[1]
  6. The potential difference across the thermistor decreases[1]
  7. Its resistance falls as it warms, so it takes a smaller share of the supply voltage[1]

(a) 0.20 A (b) 5.0 V (c) it falls

10

Electromagnetism

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Fleming's left-hand rule gives the direction of:

  1. AThe induced current in a generator
  2. BThe force on a current-carrying conductor
  3. CThe magnetic field around a wire
  4. DThe current in a transformer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The force on a current-carrying conductor

Left hand for the motor effect — the force. The right hand is used for the generator effect and the induced current.

Q2The force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field is zero when the current is:

  1. APerpendicular to the field
  2. BParallel to the field
  3. CAlternating
  4. DVery large
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Parallel to the field

A wire lying along the field lines experiences no force at all. The force is greatest at right angles.

Q3A split-ring commutator is used in a d.c. motor to:

  1. AIncrease the voltage
  2. BReverse the current every half turn
  3. CReduce friction
  4. DInduce an e.m.f.
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Reverse the current every half turn

Without it the coil would turn half a revolution and then be pushed back, so it would oscillate rather than rotate.

Q4A magnet is held stationary inside a coil. The induced e.m.f. is:

  1. ALarge
  2. BSmall but not zero
  3. CZero
  4. DAlternating
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Zero

Induction requires a changing magnetic field. A stationary magnet produces no change, however strong it is.

Q5Which of these would NOT increase the e.m.f. induced in a coil?

  1. AMoving the magnet faster
  2. BUsing more turns
  3. CUsing a stronger magnet
  4. DHolding the magnet closer without moving it
Show answer

Correct answer: D — Holding the magnet closer without moving it

Proximity without motion changes nothing over time, and only change induces an e.m.f. The other three all increase the rate of change of field.

Q6A transformer has 100 primary turns and 400 secondary turns. A 20 V a.c. input gives an output of:

  1. A5 V
  2. B20 V
  3. C80 V
  4. D400 V
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 80 V

V_s = 20 × 400/100 = 80 V. Four times the turns gives four times the voltage — a step-up transformer.

Q7Transformers do not work on direct current because d.c. produces:

  1. AToo much heat
  2. BA constant magnetic field
  3. CNo magnetic field
  4. DToo high a voltage
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A constant magnetic field

D.C. does produce a field — but a steady one. With no change there is no induction in the secondary coil.

Q8Electricity is transmitted at high voltage mainly to reduce:

  1. AThe cost of cables
  2. BEnergy lost as heat in the cables
  3. CThe risk of lightning
  4. DThe number of transformers needed
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Energy lost as heat in the cables

Higher voltage means lower current for the same power, and loss is I²R — so the saving is proportional to the square of the current reduction.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[6 marks]
A transformer has 200 turns on its primary coil and 5000 turns on its secondary. The primary is connected to a 230 V alternating supply.
  1. Calculate the secondary voltage.
  2. State whether this is a step-up or step-down transformer.
  3. Explain why the transformer would not work on a direct current supply.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses V_s/V_p = N_s/N_p[1]
  2. V_s = 230 × 5000/200[1]
  3. V_s = 5750 V[1]
  4. Step-upmore turns on the secondary[1]
  5. Direct current produces a constant magnetic field in the core[1]
  6. A changing field is required to induce an e.m.f., so nothing is induced in the secondarythe word "changing" is the mark[1]

(a) 5750 V (b) step-up (c) d.c. gives a constant field, and induction needs a changing one

Q2[5 marks]
A student moves a bar magnet into a coil connected to a sensitive centre-zero meter.
  1. State what is observed on the meter.
  2. State two changes that would increase the reading.
  3. State what happens if the magnet is held stationary inside the coil, and explain why.
Mark scheme
  1. The needle deflects to one side while the magnet is moving[1]
  2. Move the magnet faster[1]
  3. Use a stronger magnet, or a coil with more turnsany second valid change[1]
  4. The needle returns to zero — no deflection[1]
  5. There is no change in the magnetic field through the coil, and induction requires a change[1]
Q3[4 marks]
Explain why electrical energy is transmitted across the country at very high voltage, and state the role of transformers at each end.
Mark scheme
  1. For a given power, a higher voltage means a smaller currentfrom P = VI[1]
  2. Power lost as heat in the cables is I²R, so a smaller current wastes much less energythe I² is the key point[1]
  3. A step-up transformer raises the voltage at the power station[1]
  4. A step-down transformer lowers it again for safe use in homes[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State two ways of increasing the speed of a simple d.c. motor.
Answer

Increase the current through the coil, or use a stronger magnetic field. (Also acceptable: increase the number of turns on the coil.)

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why a transformer core is made of soft iron.
Answer

Soft iron is easily magnetised and demagnetised, so it follows the rapidly alternating field of the primary and carries the changing flux efficiently to the secondary.

Q6[9 marks]
A power station generates 20 MW of electrical power at 25 kV. This is transmitted through cables of total resistance 4.0 Ω.
  1. Calculate the current in the cables if the power is transmitted at 25 kV. [2]
  2. Calculate the power lost as heat in the cables at this voltage. [2]
  3. A transformer steps the voltage up to 400 kV. Calculate the new current and the new power loss. [4]
  4. State the turns ratio of the transformer used. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses I = P/V = 20 × 10⁶ / 25 × 10³[1]
  2. I = 800 A[1]
  3. Uses P = I²R = 800² × 4.0[1]
  4. = 2.56 × 10⁶ W = 2.56 MWnearly 13% of the output[1]
  5. New current = 20 × 10⁶ / 400 × 10³ = 50 A[1]
  6. New loss = 50² × 4.0[1]
  7. = 1.0 × 10⁴ W = 10 kW[1]
  8. A reduction by a factor of 256, because the current fell by 16 and the loss depends on I²the point of the question[1]
  9. Turns ratio N_s : N_p = 400 : 25 = 16 : 1[1]

(a) 800 A (b) 2.56 MW (c) 50 A and 10 kW (d) 16 : 1

11

Special Theory of Relativity

Multiple choice · 8

Q1According to the second postulate, the measured speed of light depends on:

  1. AThe speed of the source
  2. BNothing — it is the same for all observers
  3. CThe observer's speed
  4. DThe wavelength
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nothing — it is the same for all observers

That constancy is the postulate, and it is what forces time and length to be relative.

Q2The Lorentz factor γ at rest is:

  1. A0
  2. B1
  3. CInfinite
  4. Dc
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1

With v = 0, γ = 1/√1 = 1, and every relativistic formula reduces to the ordinary one.

Q3A clock moving relative to you is measured to run:

  1. AFast
  2. BSlow
  3. CAt the same rate
  4. DBackwards
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Slow

t = γt₀ with γ > 1. Moving clocks run slow — including biological ones.

Q4A rod moving past you at high speed is measured:

  1. ALonger along its motion
  2. BShorter along its motion
  3. CShorter in every direction
  4. DUnchanged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Shorter along its motion

L = L₀/γ, and only along the direction of motion. Perpendicular dimensions are unaffected.

Q5At 0.60c the Lorentz factor is:

  1. A0.80
  2. B1.25
  3. C1.67
  4. D0.60
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1.25

1/√(1 − 0.36) = 1/0.80 = 1.25. At 0.80c it would be 1.67 — worth knowing both.

Q6Muons reach the ground because:

  1. AThey travel faster than light
  2. BTime dilation extends their lifetime as we measure it
  3. CThey have no mass
  4. DThe atmosphere is thin
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Time dilation extends their lifetime as we measure it

In our frame their clocks run slow; in their own frame the atmosphere is contracted. Either view works.

Q7The mass defect of a nucleus corresponds to:

  1. AMass that has been destroyed
  2. BIts binding energy
  3. CA measurement error
  4. DThe mass of the electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Its binding energy

The nucleus is lighter than its separate nucleons; that difference was released as binding energy when it formed.

Q8Relativistic effects are negligible in daily life because:

  1. AThey do not really exist
  2. BEveryday speeds are tiny compared with c
  3. CGravity cancels them
  4. DThey only apply to light
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Everyday speeds are tiny compared with c

γ stays within a hair of 1 until you reach a substantial fraction of light speed. GPS satellites are fast enough to need the correction.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State the two postulates of special relativity.
Answer

The laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames. The speed of light in a vacuum is the same for all observers, regardless of the motion of the source or the observer.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why muons created in the upper atmosphere reach the ground when their half-life suggests they should not.
Answer

They travel at close to the speed of light, so from our frame their internal clocks run slow and they survive far longer than their rest-frame half-life. Equivalently, in the muon's frame the atmosphere is length contracted, so there is less distance to cover.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why no object with mass can travel at the speed of light.
Answer

Its relativistic mass is γm₀, and γ tends to infinity as v approaches c. An infinite amount of energy would therefore be needed to reach light speed.

Q4[5 marks]
A rod of proper length 2.0 m moves past an observer at 0.60c. Calculate the Lorentz factor and the length the observer measures. State its measured width if the rod is 0.10 m wide.
Mark scheme
  1. γ = 1/√(1 − 0.60²) = 1/√0.64[1]
  2. γ = 1/0.80 = 1.25[1]
  3. Uses L = L₀/γdivide, because the moving object is shorter[1]
  4. L = 2.0/1.25 = 1.6 m[1]
  5. The width is unchanged at 0.10 m — contraction acts only along the direction of motion[1]

γ = 1.25, length 1.6 m, width still 0.10 m

Q5[8 marks]
A spacecraft travels to a star 8.0 light-years away at 0.80c, as measured from Earth.
  1. Calculate the Lorentz factor. [2]
  2. Calculate the journey time as measured from Earth. [2]
  3. Calculate the time experienced by the crew. [2]
  4. Explain, from the crew's point of view, why their journey took less time. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. γ = 1/√(1 − 0.64)[1]
  2. γ = 1.67[1]
  3. From Earth, t = distance/speed = 8.0/0.80light-years over fractions of c gives years[1]
  4. t = 10 years[1]
  5. Crew time = t/γ = 10/1.67the crew measure the proper time[1]
  6. = 6.0 years[1]
  7. In the crew's frame the distance is length contracted[1]
  8. It is only 8.0/1.67 = 4.8 light-years, and at 0.80c that takes 6.0 years — the two frames agree[1]

γ = 1.67; 10 years from Earth; 6.0 years for the crew

Q6[5 marks]
The Sun radiates energy at 3.8 × 10²⁶ W.
  1. Calculate the mass it converts to energy each second. [3]
  2. Explain what happens to this mass. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Energy per second = 3.8 × 10²⁶ Ja watt is a joule per second[1]
  2. Rearranges E = mc² to m = E/c²[1]
  3. m = 3.8 × 10²⁶ / 9.0 × 10¹⁶ = 4.2 × 10⁹ kgabout four million tonnes every second[1]
  4. It is not destroyed — mass and energy are equivalent[1]
  5. In fusion the products have slightly less mass than the reactants, and that mass defect is radiated as energy[1]

4.2 × 10⁹ kg per second

12

Nuclear and Particle Physics

Multiple choice · 16

Q1Which particle has no charge?

  1. AProton
  2. BNeutron
  3. CElectron
  4. DAlpha particle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Neutron

The neutron is neutral, with a relative mass of 1. Protons are +1, electrons −1, and alpha particles +2.

Q2The nucleon number of an atom is the number of:

  1. AProtons
  2. BNeutrons
  3. CProtons and neutrons
  4. DElectrons
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Protons and neutrons

A counts everything in the nucleus. The proton number Z counts only protons, and neutrons are the difference A − Z.

Q3An atom is ²⁷₁₃Al. How many neutrons does it have?

  1. A13
  2. B14
  3. C27
  4. D40
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 14

Neutrons = A − Z = 27 − 13 = 14. Answer D adds the two numbers instead of subtracting.

Q4Isotopes of an element have the same number of:

  1. ANeutrons
  2. BProtons
  3. CNucleons
  4. DNothing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Protons

Same protons, different neutrons. The proton number is what makes it the same element in the first place.

Q5Isotopes of an element react chemically in the same way because they have the same:

  1. AMass
  2. BNumber of neutrons
  3. CElectron arrangement
  4. DDensity
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Electron arrangement

Chemistry is governed by electrons, and isotopes have identical electron arrangements. Their masses differ, which is why they can be separated physically.

Q6In the alpha-scattering experiment, most alpha particles passing straight through showed that:

  1. AThe nucleus is negative
  2. BThe atom is mostly empty space
  3. CElectrons are heavy
  4. DGold is transparent
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The atom is mostly empty space

If the atom were solid throughout, almost nothing would get past. Free passage means most of the atom is empty.

Q7A small number of alpha particles bounced almost straight back. This showed the nucleus is:

  1. ALarge and light
  2. BSmall, dense and positively charged
  3. CNegatively charged
  4. DMade of electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Small, dense and positively charged

Only a concentrated positive charge with most of the mass could repel a fast, heavy, positive alpha particle back the way it came.

Q8Almost all the mass of an atom is located in the:

  1. AElectron shells
  2. BNucleus
  3. CSpace between shells
  4. DOuter surface
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nucleus

Protons and neutrons each have relative mass 1; an electron has about 1/1840. The nucleus holds essentially all of it.

Q9An alpha particle is:

  1. AA fast electron
  2. BA helium nucleus
  3. CAn electromagnetic wave
  4. DA neutron
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A helium nucleus

Two protons and two neutrons, so charge +2 and relative mass 4. The fast electron is a beta particle.

Q10Which radiation is stopped by a few millimetres of aluminium?

  1. AAlpha
  2. BBeta
  3. CGamma
  4. DAll three
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Beta

Alpha is stopped by paper, gamma needs centimetres of lead. Beta sits between them.

Q11In alpha decay the nucleon number:

  1. AIncreases by 4
  2. BDecreases by 4
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDecreases by 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decreases by 4

An alpha particle carries away 2 protons and 2 neutrons, so A falls by 4 and Z falls by 2.

Q12In beta decay the proton number:

  1. ADecreases by 1
  2. BIncreases by 1
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDecreases by 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increases by 1

A neutron becomes a proton and an emitted electron, so Z rises by 1 while A is unchanged.

Q13Half-life is affected by:

  1. ATemperature
  2. BPressure
  3. CChemical state
  4. DNone of these
Show answer

Correct answer: D — None of these

Half-life is a fixed property of the isotope. No chemical or physical treatment changes the rate of nuclear decay.

Q14A sample has a half-life of 2 days. After 6 days the fraction remaining is:

  1. A1/2
  2. B1/4
  3. C1/8
  4. D1/6
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/8

Six days is three half-lives: 1 → ½ → ¼ → ⅛. Dividing 1 by 6 is the error the last option is there to catch.

Q15Which radiation is NOT deflected by a magnetic field?

  1. AAlpha
  2. BBeta
  3. CGamma
  4. DAll are deflected
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gamma

Gamma has no charge, so a magnetic field has no effect on it. Alpha and beta are deflected in opposite directions because their charges are opposite.

Q16An alpha source is most dangerous when it is:

  1. AHeld at arm's length
  2. BBehind lead shielding
  3. CInside the body
  4. DIn a sealed container
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Inside the body

Outside the body alpha cannot even pass through skin. Swallowed or inhaled, its very strong ionising power acts directly on living tissue.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[6 marks]
An atom is represented as ²³⁵₉₂U.
  1. State the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in a neutral atom of this isotope.
  2. Another isotope is ²³⁸₉₂U. State what is the same and what is different about it.
  3. Explain why the two isotopes behave identically in chemical reactions.
Mark scheme
  1. 92 protonsthe proton number[1]
  2. 235 − 92 = 143 neutrons[1]
  3. 92 electrons, since the atom is neutral[1]
  4. Same number of protons (92); different number of neutrons (146 instead of 143)[1]
  5. Chemical behaviour depends on the electrons[1]
  6. Both have 92 electrons arranged identically, so they react in the same way[1]

(a) 92 p, 143 n, 92 e (b) same Z, different A (c) identical electron arrangement

Q2[6 marks]
In the alpha-scattering experiment, alpha particles were directed at a thin gold foil.
  1. State the three main observations.
  2. State the conclusion drawn from each.
Mark scheme
  1. Most alpha particles passed straight through[1]
  2. So the atom is mostly empty space[1]
  3. Some were deflected through large angles[1]
  4. So there is a concentrated positive charge repelling them[1]
  5. A very few were reflected almost straight back[1]
  6. So the nucleus is very small and contains most of the atom's mass[1]
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why the plum-pudding model could not account for the results of the alpha-scattering experiment.
Mark scheme
  1. In that model the positive charge is spread thinly throughout the atom[1]
  2. So the repulsive force on an alpha particle anywhere would be small[1]
  3. It could not produce the large-angle deflections or backscattering that were observed[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State what is meant by the nucleon number and the proton number of a nuclide.
Answer

The nucleon number A is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. The proton number Z is the number of protons alone.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties.
Answer

They have the same number of protons and therefore the same number of electrons in the same arrangement. Chemical behaviour is decided by the electrons, not by the number of neutrons.

Q6[8 marks]
In the Geiger–Marsden experiment, alpha particles were fired at a very thin gold foil.
  1. State the two observations that were made. [2]
  2. Explain what each observation shows about the structure of the atom. [4]
  3. Explain why the foil had to be extremely thin. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Almost all the alpha particles passed straight through[1]
  2. A very small fraction were deflected through large angles, some straight back[1]
  3. Passing straight through shows the atom is mostly empty space[1]
  4. Large deflections show a concentrated region of positive charge[1]
  5. Which repels the positive alpha particle[1]
  6. Backward scattering shows that region is also very massive, and very small[1]
  7. So each alpha particle meets at most one nucleus[1]
  8. A thicker foil would cause multiple scattering and the result could not be interpreted[1]
Q7[6 marks]
A radioactive source has a half-life of 6.0 hours. The initial count rate, corrected for background, is 800 counts per minute.
  1. Calculate the corrected count rate after 18 hours.
  2. Explain why the count rate never reaches exactly zero.
  3. State two factors that do not affect the half-life.
Mark scheme
  1. 18 hours is 3 half-lives18 ÷ 6[1]
  2. Halves three times: 800 → 400 → 200 → 100[1]
  3. 100 counts per minute[1]
  4. Each half-life removes only half of what remains, so some always remains[1]
  5. Temperature or pressure[1]
  6. Chemical state or physical form of the sampleany second valid factor[1]

(a) 100 counts/min (b) halving never reaches zero (c) temperature, pressure, chemical state

Q8[5 marks]
Polonium-218 has proton number 84 and decays by alpha emission to lead. The lead isotope then decays by beta emission.
  1. Write the nucleon and proton numbers of the lead isotope formed.
  2. Write the nucleon and proton numbers of the nucleus formed after the beta decay.
  3. State what happens inside the nucleus during beta decay.
Mark scheme
  1. Alpha: A = 218 − 4 = 214[1]
  2. Z = 84 − 2 = 82lead[1]
  3. Beta: A unchanged at 214[1]
  4. Z = 82 + 1 = 83bismuth[1]
  5. A neutron changes into a proton and an electron, and the electron is emitted[1]

(a) ²¹⁴₈₂Pb (b) ²¹⁴₈₃ (c) a neutron becomes a proton plus an emitted electron

Q9[4 marks]
A source is to be used as a medical tracer, injected into a patient and detected from outside the body.
  1. State which type of radiation is most suitable and why.
  2. State why the half-life should be short but not too short.
Mark scheme
  1. Gamma[1]
  2. It is penetrating enough to leave the body and be detected, and least ionising so it does least damageboth halves wanted[1]
  3. Short, so the activity falls quickly and the patient is not exposed for long[1]
  4. But not so short that it decays away before the scan can be completedthe balance is the point of the question[1]
Q10[2 marks]
State two safety precautions when handling a radioactive source in a school laboratory.
Answer

Handle it with long tongs to increase the distance from the body, and return it to its lead-lined container immediately after use. (Also acceptable: never point it at anyone; minimise exposure time.)

Q11[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by background radiation and name two of its sources.
Answer

The low level of ionising radiation always present in the environment. Sources include radon gas from rocks, cosmic rays, medical X-rays and food.

Q12[9 marks]
A sample of a radioactive isotope gives a corrected count rate of 640 counts per minute. Its half-life is 8.0 days.
  1. Explain what is meant by half-life. [2]
  2. Calculate the corrected count rate after 32 days. [3]
  3. A detector near the sample reads 655 counts per minute at the start. Explain the difference and how it is dealt with. [2]
  4. The isotope emits beta particles. State what happens to the proton number and nucleon number of the nucleus. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The time taken for the number of undecayed nuclei in the sample to halve[1]
  2. Equivalently, the time for the count rate to fall to half its value; the process is random so this is an average[1]
  3. 32 days is 4 half-lives[1]
  4. Uses 640 ÷ 2⁴[1]
  5. = 40 counts per minute[1]
  6. The extra 15 counts per minute is background radiation[1]
  7. It is measured with the source removed and subtracted from every reading[1]
  8. The proton number increases by 1[1]
  9. The nucleon number is unchangeda neutron becomes a proton plus an electron[1]

(b) 40 counts per minute

These questions come from the 1st Year Physics lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.