1st Year Chemistry — MCQs & Practice Questions

141 multiple-choice questions and 106 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

New to a topic? Read the 1st Year Chemistry notes first, then come back to practise.

01

Periodic Table and Periodic Properties

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Elements in the same group have the same:

  1. Anumber of neutrons
  2. Bnumber of outer-shell electrons
  3. Cmass
  4. Dnumber of shells
Show answer

Correct answer: B — number of outer-shell electrons

A group shares outer-electron count, which is what sets chemistry — so a group behaves as a family.

Q2Going DOWN group 1, reactivity:

  1. Adecreases
  2. Bincreases
  3. Cstays the same
  4. Ddisappears
Show answer

Correct answer: B — increases

The outer electron is further out and more shielded lower down, so it is lost more easily — potassium is more reactive than sodium.

Q3Going DOWN group 7, reactivity:

  1. Aincreases
  2. Bdecreases
  3. Cstays the same
  4. Dbecomes metallic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decreases

Gaining an electron gets harder as the shell moves out, so halogens get less reactive down the group.

Q4Which will happen: chlorine added to potassium bromide solution?

  1. ANothing
  2. BChlorine displaces bromine
  3. CBromine displaces chlorine
  4. DPotassium is released
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Chlorine displaces bromine

Chlorine is the more reactive halogen, so it displaces bromine: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.

Q5Noble gases are unreactive because they have:

  1. Ano electrons
  2. Ba full outer shell
  3. Cone outer electron
  4. Dseven outer electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a full outer shell

A complete outer shell is very stable, so noble gases have no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons.

Q6Which is a typical property of transition metals but NOT group 1 metals?

  1. ABeing solid
  2. BForming ions of more than one charge
  3. CConducting electricity
  4. DBeing metallic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Forming ions of more than one charge

Transition metals form variable-charge ions (e.g. Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺) and coloured compounds; group 1 metals form only +1 ions.

Q7Across Period 3, atomic radius:

  1. Aincreases
  2. Bdecreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Dpeaks in the middle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decreases

Rising nuclear charge with electrons in the same shell pulls the atom inward, so the radius decreases.

Q8The element in Period 3 with by far the highest melting point is:

  1. Asodium
  2. Bsilicon
  3. Csulfur
  4. Dargon
Show answer

Correct answer: B — silicon

Silicon is a giant covalent structure, so a vast number of strong covalent bonds must be broken to melt it.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State how the elements are arranged in the modern Periodic Table.
Answer

In order of increasing proton (atomic) number, arranged in periods (rows) and groups (columns) of similar properties.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe the trend in reactivity down Group I and explain it.
Answer

Reactivity increases down Group I because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why the elements in Group VII show similar chemical properties but Group 0 (noble gases) are unreactive.
Answer

Group VII atoms all have 7 outer electrons, so they react similarly (gaining/sharing one electron). Noble gases have a full outer shell, so they have no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons and are unreactive.

Q4[6 marks]
Chlorine, bromine and iodine are Group VII elements.
  1. Describe the trend in reactivity down Group VII and explain it. [3]
  2. Predict what happens when chlorine is added to a solution of potassium bromide, and write an equation. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Reactivity decreases down the group[1]
  2. The outer shell is further from the nucleus / more shielded[1]
  3. So it is harder to attract/gain an electron[1]
  4. Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine[1]
  5. The solution turns orange (bromine formed)[1]
  6. Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂[1]

Reactivity falls down the group (outer shell further/shielded, harder to gain e⁻); chlorine displaces bromine: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.

Q5[2 marks]
State and explain the trend in the reactivity of the Group 1 metals down the group.
Answer

Reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is lost more easily.

Q6[6 marks]
This question is about trends in Period 3 (Na to Ar).
  1. Describe how melting point changes across Period 3 and explain the value for silicon. [3]
  2. State the trend in first ionisation energy across the period and explain it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Melting point rises from Na to a peak at Si, then falls sharply to Ar[1]
  2. Silicon is a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure[1]
  3. so a huge number of strong covalent bonds must be broken — very high melting point[1]
  4. First ionisation energy generally increases across the period[1]
  5. because nuclear charge increases while shielding stays similar[1]
  6. so the outer electron is held more tightly and needs more energy to remove[1]

Melting point rises to a giant-covalent peak at Si then falls to molecular Ar; first ionisation energy rises (more nuclear charge, similar shielding).

02

Atomic Structure

Multiple choice · 8

Q1What determines which element an atom is?

  1. ANumber of neutrons
  2. BNumber of protons
  3. CNumber of electrons
  4. DTotal mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Number of protons

The proton count — the atomic number — is the identity of the element. Change the neutrons and you have an isotope of the same element; change the electrons and you have an ion. Change the protons and it is a different element entirely.

Q2Sodium has configuration 2, 8, 1. Which best predicts its behaviour?

  1. AIt will gain 7 electrons
  2. BIt will lose 1 electron to form Na⁺
  3. CIt will share 1 electron pair
  4. DIt is unreactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It will lose 1 electron to form Na⁺

Losing one electron leaves 2, 8 — the neon configuration — and costs far less energy than gaining seven. That is why sodium forms Na⁺ readily and why all group 1 metals are so reactive.

Q3Why does atomic radius decrease across a period?

  1. AElectrons are removed
  2. BNuclear charge rises while electrons stay in the same shell, pulling it inward
  3. CA new shell is added
  4. DNeutrons repel the electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nuclear charge rises while electrons stay in the same shell, pulling it inward

Across a period you add a proton and an electron each step, but the electron joins the shell already in use. Shielding barely changes while nuclear pull increases, so the whole shell contracts. Going down a group is the opposite: a new shell is added and the atom grows.

Q4Which element has the highest electronegativity?

  1. AOxygen
  2. BFluorine
  3. CChlorine
  4. DCaesium
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Fluorine

Fluorine sits at 3.98 on the Pauling scale — the top-right corner of the reactive elements, small and with a high nuclear charge. Oxygen is second at 3.44. Caesium is at the opposite extreme, giving electrons away rather than attracting them.

Q5Ionisation energy generally decreases down a group because:

  1. AThe nucleus loses protons
  2. BThe outer electron is further away and shielded by inner shells
  3. CAtoms get lighter
  4. DElectronegativity increases
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The outer electron is further away and shielded by inner shells

Two effects work together: the valence electron sits in a shell further from the nucleus, and the filled inner shells screen it from the nuclear charge. Both weaken the hold, so less energy is needed to strip it away.

Q6Two atoms have 17 protons but 18 and 20 neutrons. They are:

  1. ADifferent elements
  2. BIsotopes of chlorine
  3. CIons of chlorine
  4. DImpossible
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Isotopes of chlorine

Same proton count means both are chlorine; different neutron counts make them isotopes — Cl-35 and Cl-37. Chemistry is set by electrons, so they react identically. Only mass-dependent properties like density and diffusion rate differ.

Q7An element has isotopes of mass 63 (69%) and 65 (31%). Its relative atomic mass is about:

  1. A63.0
  2. B63.6
  3. C64.0
  4. D65.0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 63.6

(63×69 + 65×31)/100 = (4347 + 2015)/100 = 63.6.

Q8Across a period, first ionisation energy generally:

  1. Adecreases
  2. Bincreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Ddoubles
Show answer

Correct answer: B — increases

Increasing nuclear charge with similar shielding holds the outer electrons more tightly, so more energy is needed to remove one.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State the relative charge and relative mass of a proton, a neutron and an electron.
Answer

Proton: charge +1, mass 1. Neutron: charge 0, mass 1. Electron: charge −1, mass negligible (about 1/1840).

Q2[2 marks]
Define the term isotopes.
Answer

Atoms of the same element (same number of protons / same proton number) that have different numbers of neutrons, and so different mass numbers.

Q3[3 marks]
An atom is represented as ³⁵₁₇Cl. State its number of protons, neutrons and electrons.
Answer

Protons = 17, electrons = 17 (neutral atom), neutrons = 35 − 17 = 18.

Q4[6 marks]
Chlorine exists as two isotopes, chlorine-35 and chlorine-37.
  1. Explain why the two isotopes have identical chemical properties. [2]
  2. A sample is 75% chlorine-35 and 25% chlorine-37. Calculate the relative atomic mass of chlorine. [2]
  3. State how many electrons chlorine has in its outer shell, and hence the charge on a chloride ion. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Both isotopes have the same number of electrons / the same electronic configuration (2,8,7)[1]
  2. Chemical properties depend on the (outer) electrons, so they react identically[1]
  3. Ar = (35 × 75 + 37 × 25) ÷ 100sets up weighted mean[1]
  4. Ar = (2625 + 925)/100 = 35.5[1]
  5. 7 electrons in the outer shell[1]
  6. Gains 1 electron, so the chloride ion is Cl⁻ (charge −1)[1]

Same electron arrangement → identical chemistry; Ar = 35.5; 7 outer electrons, so Cl⁻.

Q5[3 marks]
Boron has two isotopes: boron-10 (20%) and boron-11 (80%). Calculate its relative atomic mass.
Answer

Aᵣ = (10 × 20 + 11 × 80) ÷ 100 = (200 + 880) ÷ 100 = 1080 ÷ 100 = 10.8.

Q6[6 marks]
This question is about the electronic structure of calcium (proton number 20).
  1. Write the full electron configuration of a calcium atom. [2]
  2. Write the electron configuration of a Ca²⁺ ion. [1]
  3. The successive ionisation energies of calcium show a large jump after the second electron is removed. Explain what this tells you. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s²[1]
  2. electron count totals 20[1]
  3. Ca²⁺: 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ (loses the two 4s electrons)[1]
  4. The first two electrons are removed from the outer 4s sub-shell[1]
  5. The third is removed from the 3p, a shell closer to the nucleus[1]
  6. which is held much more strongly, so far more energy is needed — showing two electrons in the outer shell[1]

Ca = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²; Ca²⁺ = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶; the jump after 2 electrons shows only two electrons in the outer shell.

03

Chemical Bonding

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Sodium chloride conducts electricity when molten but not when solid. Why?

  1. ASolid NaCl has no ions
  2. BThe ions are locked in the lattice when solid but free to move when molten
  3. CHeating creates new electrons
  4. DSolid NaCl is covalent
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The ions are locked in the lattice when solid but free to move when molten

Conduction needs mobile charge carriers. The ions exist in both states, but in the solid they are held rigidly in the lattice. Melting frees them to drift toward the electrodes, and the same happens when NaCl dissolves in water.

Q2Which pair will most likely form an ionic bond?

  1. ACarbon and hydrogen
  2. BMagnesium and oxygen
  3. CNitrogen and oxygen
  4. DChlorine and chlorine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Magnesium and oxygen

Magnesium (EN 1.31) and oxygen (EN 3.44) differ by over 2, and it is a metal-plus-non-metal pairing. Mg loses two electrons and O gains two, giving Mg²⁺O²⁻. The other three are all non-metals sharing electrons covalently.

Q3Why are metals malleable?

  1. ATheir bonds are weak
  2. BLayers of positive ions can slide while the electron sea keeps holding them together
  3. CThey contain no bonds
  4. DThey are made of small molecules
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Layers of positive ions can slide while the electron sea keeps holding them together

Metallic bonding is non-directional — the delocalised electrons hold the lattice together from all sides. Shift a layer and the bonding is unchanged, so the metal deforms instead of shattering. Ionic solids are brittle because sliding brings like charges together.

Q4Water has a low boiling point compared with sodium chloride because:

  1. AThe O–H covalent bonds are weak
  2. BOnly the weak forces between molecules need breaking, not the covalent bonds
  3. CWater contains no bonds
  4. DWater is a metal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Only the weak forces between molecules need breaking, not the covalent bonds

Boiling separates molecules from each other; it does not break them apart. The O–H bonds inside each water molecule survive intact. Only the hydrogen bonding between molecules must be overcome — much weaker than an ionic lattice.

Q5Graphite conducts electricity but diamond does not. Why?

  1. AGraphite contains metal atoms
  2. BEach carbon in graphite bonds to only three neighbours, leaving one delocalised electron
  3. CDiamond has no electrons
  4. DGraphite is ionic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Each carbon in graphite bonds to only three neighbours, leaving one delocalised electron

In diamond every carbon uses all four valence electrons in covalent bonds, leaving nothing free. In graphite only three are used, and the fourth is delocalised across the layer — a mobile charge carrier, just like in a metal.

Q6In a polar covalent bond such as H–Cl, the electrons are:

  1. ATransferred completely to chlorine
  2. BShared, but pulled closer to the more electronegative chlorine
  3. CShared perfectly equally
  4. DNot shared at all
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Shared, but pulled closer to the more electronegative chlorine

The electronegativity gap (2.20 vs 3.16) is too small for a full transfer but large enough to distort the sharing. Chlorine holds the pair closer, giving it a partial negative charge and hydrogen a partial positive — a dipole.

Q7A molecule with four bonding pairs and no lone pairs on the central atom is:

  1. Alinear
  2. Btrigonal planar
  3. Ctetrahedral
  4. Dbent
Show answer

Correct answer: C — tetrahedral

Four bonding pairs repel to a tetrahedral shape with 109.5° angles, as in methane.

Q8The strongest type of intermolecular force is:

  1. Avan der Waals forces
  2. Bhydrogen bonding
  3. Cdipole–dipole forces
  4. Dionic bonds
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hydrogen bonding

Hydrogen bonding (H bonded to N, O or F) is the strongest of the intermolecular forces.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe how an ionic bond forms between sodium and chlorine.
Answer

Sodium loses one electron to chlorine; sodium becomes Na⁺ and chlorine becomes Cl⁻, and the oppositely charged ions attract by strong electrostatic forces.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why sodium chloride has a high melting point.
Answer

It has a giant ionic lattice; the many strong electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions need a large amount of energy to overcome.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why a simple molecular substance such as methane has a low boiling point, whereas diamond has a very high one.
Answer

Methane has weak intermolecular forces between molecules, which need little energy to overcome. Diamond is a giant covalent structure with strong covalent bonds throughout, needing very large energy to break.

Q4[7 marks]
Magnesium oxide (MgO) is ionic; carbon dioxide (CO₂) is simple molecular.
  1. Describe, in terms of electron transfer, how MgO forms. [2]
  2. Explain why MgO conducts electricity when molten but not when solid. [2]
  3. Explain why CO₂ is a gas at room temperature while MgO is a solid. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Magnesium loses 2 electrons to oxygen, forming Mg²⁺ and O²⁻[1]
  2. The oppositely charged ions attract by strong electrostatic forces[1]
  3. When molten, the ions are free to move and carry charge[1]
  4. When solid, the ions are fixed in the lattice and cannot move[1]
  5. CO₂ is simple molecular with weak intermolecular forces[1]
  6. Little energy is needed to separate the molecules, so it is a gas[1]
  7. MgO is a giant ionic lattice with strong forces needing much energy, so it is a high-melting solid[1]

Mg→Mg²⁺ + O→O²⁻ (electrostatic attraction); MgO conducts molten (mobile ions) not solid (fixed ions); CO₂ gas (weak intermolecular forces) vs MgO solid (giant lattice, strong forces).

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why the boiling points of the noble gases increase down the group.
Answer

Down the group the atoms have more electrons, so the van der Waals (London) forces between them are stronger and need more energy to overcome, raising the boiling point.

Q6[6 marks]
Consider the molecules methane (CH₄) and water (H₂O).
  1. State the shape and bond angle of methane, and explain them. [3]
  2. Explain why water has a much higher boiling point than methane, even though water is a smaller molecule. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Methane is tetrahedral[1]
  2. with a bond angle of 109.5°[1]
  3. because four bonding pairs repel to get as far apart as possible[1]
  4. Water molecules form hydrogen bonds (O–H, H bonded to O)[1]
  5. methane has only weak van der Waals forces[1]
  6. hydrogen bonds are much stronger, so water needs far more energy to boil[1]

Methane: tetrahedral, 109.5°, four repelling bonding pairs; water boils higher because of strong hydrogen bonding vs methane's weak van der Waals forces.

04

Stoichiometry

Multiple choice · 8

Q1How many moles are in 88 g of CO₂? (M = 44 g/mol)

  1. A0.5 mol
  2. B2 mol
  3. C44 mol
  4. D88 mol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 mol

n = m/M = 88/44 = 2 mol. Each mole contains 6.022 × 10²³ molecules, so this sample holds about 1.2 × 10²⁴ CO₂ molecules.

Q2In 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O, you have 6 mol H₂ and 2 mol O₂. Which is limiting?

  1. AH₂
  2. BO₂
  3. CNeither — perfect ratio
  4. DBoth equally
Show answer

Correct answer: B — O₂

Divide by coefficients: H₂ gives 6/2 = 3, O₂ gives 2/1 = 2. Oxygen produces the smaller number, so it runs out first and limits the reaction. You get 4 mol of water and 2 mol of H₂ left over.

Q3What does the "2" in 2H₂O tell you?

  1. AThere are 2 hydrogen atoms
  2. BThere are 2 water molecules
  3. CThe mass is 2 grams
  4. DThe reaction happens twice
Show answer

Correct answer: B — There are 2 water molecules

A coefficient in front multiplies the entire formula unit: 2 water molecules, so 4 hydrogen atoms and 2 oxygen atoms in total. A subscript, like the 2 in H₂O, counts atoms within one molecule instead.

Q4A reaction should theoretically produce 50 g but you collect 42 g. The percentage yield is:

  1. A84%
  2. B119%
  3. C8%
  4. D92%
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 84%

(actual / theoretical) × 100 = (42 / 50) × 100 = 84%. Losses of this size are completely normal — product sticks to glassware, reactions do not run to completion, and side reactions consume some reactant.

Q5Why must chemical equations be balanced?

  1. ATo make the numbers neat
  2. BBecause atoms are conserved — they are rearranged, not created or destroyed
  3. CTo make the reaction faster
  4. DBecause moles must always be whole numbers
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because atoms are conserved — they are rearranged, not created or destroyed

Conservation of mass. Every atom present before the reaction is present after it, just bonded differently. An unbalanced equation implies atoms appeared from nowhere, and any mole calculation built on it would be wrong.

Q6You add excess magnesium to a fixed amount of hydrochloric acid. What limits the hydrogen produced?

  1. AThe magnesium
  2. BThe acid
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNothing — the reaction continues indefinitely
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The acid

"Excess" means there is more magnesium than can react, so the acid runs out first and is the limiting reagent. Leftover magnesium simply sits at the bottom unreacted — a common sight in this classic school experiment.

Q70.25 mol of gas at r.t.p. occupies a volume of about:

  1. A6 dm³
  2. B12 dm³
  3. C24 dm³
  4. D48 dm³
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 6 dm³

One mole of any gas occupies 24 dm³ at r.t.p., so V = n × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm³.

Q8A compound has empirical formula CH₂ and relative molecular mass 42. Its molecular formula is:

  1. ACH₂
  2. BC₂H₄
  3. CC₃H₆
  4. DC₄H₈
Show answer

Correct answer: C — C₃H₆

Empirical mass = 14; 42 ÷ 14 = 3, so C₃H₆.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Calculate the number of moles in 8.0 g of methane, CH₄. (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)
Answer

Mr of CH₄ = 12 + 4 = 16. Moles = mass ÷ Mr = 8.0 ÷ 16 = 0.50 mol.

Q2[2 marks]
Define the term relative molecular mass.
Answer

The sum of the relative atomic masses of all the atoms shown in the molecular formula of a substance.

Q3[3 marks]
Balance the equation: __ Al + __ O₂ → __ Al₂O₃.
Answer

4 Al + 3 O₂ → 2 Al₂O₃.

Q4[7 marks]
Calcium carbonate decomposes: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂. (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
  1. Calculate the relative formula mass of CaCO₃. [1]
  2. Calculate the mass of CaO produced from 25 g of CaCO₃. [3]
  3. Calculate the volume of CO₂ produced at r.t.p. (1 mole of gas = 24 dm³). [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Mr(CaCO₃) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100[1]
  2. Moles CaCO₃ = 25 ÷ 100 = 0.25 mol[1]
  3. Moles CaO = 0.25 (1:1 ratio); Mr(CaO) = 56[1]
  4. Mass CaO = 0.25 × 56 = 14 g[1]
  5. Moles CO₂ = 0.25 (1:1 ratio)[1]
  6. Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24[1]
  7. Volume CO₂ = 6.0 dm³[1]

Mr = 100; 14 g CaO; 6.0 dm³ CO₂.

Q5[3 marks]
Calculate the concentration, in mol/dm³, of a solution made by dissolving 0.20 mol of sodium chloride in 500 cm³ of solution.
Answer

V = 500 ÷ 1000 = 0.50 dm³. c = n ÷ V = 0.20 ÷ 0.50 = 0.40 mol/dm³.

Q6[7 marks]
Iron is extracted by reducing iron(III) oxide: Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂. (Ar: Fe = 56, O = 16, C = 12)
  1. Calculate the relative formula mass of Fe₂O₃. [1]
  2. Calculate the mass of iron produced from 320 tonnes of Fe₂O₃. [3]
  3. Calculate the atom economy of this reaction for making iron. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Mr(Fe₂O₃) = 112 + 48 = 160[1]
  2. Moles Fe₂O₃ = 320 ÷ 160 = 2 (tonne-moles)[1]
  3. Moles Fe = 2 × 2 = 4; Ar(Fe) = 56[1]
  4. Mass Fe = 4 × 56 = 224 tonnes[1]
  5. Desired product mass in equation = 2 × 56 = 112; total product mass = 112 + 3 × 44 = 244[1]
  6. Atom economy = (112 ÷ 244) × 100[1]
  7. = 45.9% (≈ 46%)[1]

Mr = 160; 224 tonnes of iron; atom economy ≈ 46%.

05

States and Phases of Matter

Multiple choice · 16

Q1Boyle's law states that, at constant temperature:

  1. AV ∝ T
  2. BP ∝ 1/V
  3. CP ∝ T
  4. DPV ∝ T
Show answer

Correct answer: B — P ∝ 1/V

Pressure is inversely proportional to volume at fixed temperature — squeeze the gas and pressure rises.

Q2In PV = nRT, the temperature T must be in:

  1. A°C
  2. Bkelvin
  3. C°F
  4. Dany unit
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kelvin

The gas laws use absolute temperature; kelvin (K = °C + 273) is required.

Q3A gas at constant pressure is heated from 300 K to 600 K. Its volume:

  1. Ahalves
  2. Bdoubles
  3. Cstays the same
  4. Dquadruples
Show answer

Correct answer: B — doubles

V ∝ T at constant pressure (Charles), so doubling the absolute temperature doubles the volume.

Q4Which is an assumption of kinetic molecular theory?

  1. AParticles attract strongly
  2. BCollisions are elastic (no energy lost)
  3. CParticles fill all space
  4. DTemperature has no effect
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Collisions are elastic (no energy lost)

Ideal-gas particles collide elastically, have negligible volume and no intermolecular forces, with KE ∝ temperature.

Q5Real gases deviate most from ideal behaviour at:

  1. Ahigh temperature, low pressure
  2. Bhigh pressure, low temperature
  3. Cstandard conditions
  4. Dany conditions equally
Show answer

Correct answer: B — high pressure, low temperature

When compressed and cold, particle volume and attractions become significant, breaking the ideal assumptions.

Q6Using PV = nRT, if you know P, V and T you can find:

  1. Anothing else
  2. Bthe number of moles of gas
  3. Cthe colour of the gas
  4. Dthe bond energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the number of moles of gas

Rearranging gives n = PV/RT — and from moles you can get mass or molar mass.

Q7A container holds nitrogen at 60 kPa and oxygen at 20 kPa. The total pressure is:

  1. A40 kPa
  2. B60 kPa
  3. C80 kPa
  4. D1200 kPa
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 80 kPa

By Dalton's law the total pressure is the sum of the partial pressures: 60 + 20 = 80 kPa.

Q8Gas X has four times the molar mass of gas Y. Compared with Y, gas X diffuses:

  1. Atwice as fast
  2. Bhalf as fast
  3. Cfour times as fast
  4. Dat the same rate
Show answer

Correct answer: B — half as fast

Rate ∝ 1/√M; √4 = 2, so X diffuses at half the rate of Y.

Q9The strongest type of intermolecular force is:

  1. ALondon dispersion
  2. Bdipole–dipole
  3. Chydrogen bonding
  4. Dcovalent bonding
Show answer

Correct answer: C — hydrogen bonding

Hydrogen bonding (H to N, O or F) is the strongest intermolecular force; covalent bonding is intramolecular, not between molecules.

Q10Hydrogen bonding occurs when hydrogen is bonded to:

  1. Acarbon
  2. Bany non-metal
  3. CN, O or F
  4. Da metal
Show answer

Correct answer: C — N, O or F

Only the small, highly electronegative N, O and F make hydrogen bonding possible.

Q11Boiling a molecular liquid requires overcoming its:

  1. Acovalent bonds
  2. Bintermolecular forces
  3. Cnuclear forces
  4. Dionic lattice
Show answer

Correct answer: B — intermolecular forces

Boiling separates molecules, so only the intermolecular forces are broken — the covalent bonds within molecules survive.

Q12Water boils far higher than methane of similar mass because water:

  1. Ais heavier
  2. Bhydrogen-bonds
  3. Cis ionic
  4. Dhas weaker forces
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hydrogen-bonds

Water's hydrogen bonds are much stronger than methane's dispersion forces, so it needs far more energy to boil.

Q13A very hard solid with a very high melting point that does not conduct is most likely:

  1. Amolecular
  2. Bmetallic
  3. Ccovalent network
  4. Dionic
Show answer

Correct answer: C — covalent network

A covalent network (diamond, quartz) is a giant lattice of covalent bonds — extremely hard and high-melting, and usually non-conducting.

Q14A crystalline solid differs from an amorphous one in that it:

  1. Ahas no structure
  2. Bmelts sharply at one temperature
  3. Cis always a metal
  4. Dcannot conduct
Show answer

Correct answer: B — melts sharply at one temperature

A regular lattice gives a sharp melting point; amorphous solids soften over a range.

Q15Hydrogen bonding can occur in:

  1. ACH₄
  2. BH₂O
  3. CCO₂
  4. DCl₂
Show answer

Correct answer: B — H₂O

Water has H bonded to O (a small, electronegative atom), so it hydrogen-bonds; the others cannot.

Q16A liquid boils when its vapour pressure:

  1. Areaches zero
  2. Bequals the external pressure
  3. Cexceeds the critical pressure
  4. Dis halved
Show answer

Correct answer: B — equals the external pressure

Boiling begins when the vapour pressure equals the surrounding atmospheric pressure.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[2 marks]
State Boyle's law and give its equation.
Answer

At constant temperature, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure: PV = constant (P₁V₁ = P₂V₂).

Q2[3 marks]
A gas occupies 500 cm³ at a pressure of 100 kPa. Calculate its volume at 250 kPa, at constant temperature.
Answer

P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ → 100 × 500 = 250 × V₂ → V₂ = 50000 ÷ 250 = 200 cm³.

Q3[2 marks]
State the assumptions of the ideal gas model (any two).
Answer

Gas particles have negligible volume; there are no forces between them; collisions are perfectly elastic; they move randomly (any two).

Q4[6 marks]
The ideal gas equation is PV = nRT (R = 8.31 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹).
  1. State what each symbol represents. [2]
  2. Calculate the volume occupied by 0.50 mol of an ideal gas at 300 K and a pressure of 100 000 Pa. [3]
  3. State one condition under which a real gas behaves most like an ideal gas. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. P = pressure, V = volume, n = number of moles[1]
  2. R = gas constant, T = temperature in kelvin[1]
  3. V = nRT ÷ P = (0.50 × 8.31 × 300) ÷ 100000[1]
  4. = 1246.5 ÷ 100000[1]
  5. V = 0.0125 m³ (12.5 dm³)[1]
  6. Low pressure (and/or high temperature)[1]

P,V,n,R,T defined; V ≈ 0.0125 m³; ideal behaviour at low pressure / high temperature.

Q5[2 marks]
A gas mixture contains 0.25 mol of helium and 0.75 mol of argon at a total pressure of 200 kPa. Calculate the partial pressure of helium.
Answer

Mole fraction of He = 0.25 ÷ (0.25 + 0.75) = 0.25. Partial pressure = 0.25 × 200 = 50 kPa.

Q6[5 marks]
This question is about gases and their behaviour.
  1. State Graham's law of diffusion. [1]
  2. Oxygen (M = 32) and hydrogen (M = 2) diffuse from the same point. Calculate how many times faster hydrogen diffuses. [2]
  3. Explain why real gases deviate most from ideal behaviour at high pressure and low temperature. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to the square root of the molar mass[1]
  2. rate(H₂)/rate(O₂) = √(32/2) = √16[1]
  3. = 4 times faster[1]
  4. At high pressure the molecules are close, so their own volume and the forces between them matter[1]
  5. at low temperature they move slowly, so intermolecular attractions have a bigger effect — both break the ideal assumptions[1]

Graham's law: rate ∝ 1/√M; hydrogen diffuses 4× faster; real gases deviate at high P/low T where molecular volume and intermolecular forces matter.

Q7[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of intermolecular forces, why water has a much higher boiling point than expected for its size.
Answer

Water molecules form hydrogen bonds, which are relatively strong intermolecular forces requiring extra energy to overcome, raising the boiling point.

Q8[2 marks]
Distinguish between a crystalline solid and an amorphous solid.
Answer

A crystalline solid has a regular, ordered arrangement of particles (e.g. NaCl); an amorphous solid has a random, disordered arrangement (e.g. glass).

Q9[3 marks]
Name the three types of intermolecular force and rank them from weakest to strongest.
Answer

Van der Waals (London dispersion) forces are weakest, then permanent dipole–dipole forces, then hydrogen bonding is strongest.

Q10[6 marks]
The boiling points of the hydrides of Group VI increase from H₂S to H₂Te, but water (H₂O) has an anomalously high boiling point.
  1. Explain why boiling point increases from H₂S to H₂Te. [2]
  2. Explain why water's boiling point is much higher than this trend predicts. [2]
  3. State which type of intermolecular force is present in all four hydrides. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The number of electrons increases down the group[1]
  2. so van der Waals forces get stronger, raising the boiling point[1]
  3. Water molecules form hydrogen bonds[1]
  4. which are much stronger than the van der Waals forces in the others, needing more energy[1]
  5. Van der Waals (London dispersion) forces[1]
  6. are present in all molecules / all four hydrides[1]

Bigger molecules → stronger van der Waals forces (H₂S→H₂Te); water is anomalous due to hydrogen bonding; van der Waals forces are present in all.

Q11[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of intermolecular forces, why water (Mr 18) boils at a much higher temperature than methane (Mr 16).
Answer

Water molecules form hydrogen bonds (H bonded to O), which are strong intermolecular forces; methane has only weak van der Waals forces. Far more energy is needed to overcome water's hydrogen bonds, so it boils much higher.

Q12[6 marks]
Water shows several unusual physical properties.
  1. Explain why ice is less dense than liquid water. [3]
  2. Explain why the boiling point of water decreases at high altitude. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. In ice, hydrogen bonds hold the molecules in a regular open lattice[1]
  2. with more empty space between molecules than in the liquid[1]
  3. so a given mass takes up more volume — lower density — and ice floats[1]
  4. A liquid boils when its vapour pressure equals the external pressure[1]
  5. at altitude the atmospheric pressure is lower[1]
  6. so a lower temperature is enough for the vapour pressure to match it[1]

Ice floats because hydrogen bonds form an open lattice with extra empty space; water boils lower at altitude because the lower air pressure is matched at a lower vapour pressure.

06

Chemical Energetics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1ΔH for an exothermic reaction is:

  1. Apositive
  2. Bnegative
  3. Czero
  4. Dalways 1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — negative

Exothermic reactions release heat, so the enthalpy change is negative.

Q2Hess's law works because enthalpy is:

  1. Aalways positive
  2. Ba state function (route-independent)
  3. Cmeasured directly
  4. Dthe same as temperature
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a state function (route-independent)

Enthalpy depends only on start and end states, so the total ΔH is independent of the path.

Q3The standard enthalpy of formation of O₂(g) is:

  1. Aa large negative number
  2. Bzero
  3. Cpositive
  4. Dunknown
Show answer

Correct answer: B — zero

An element in its standard state has ΔHf° = 0 by definition.

Q4In q = mcΔT, c is the:

  1. Anumber of moles
  2. Bspecific heat capacity
  3. Cconcentration
  4. Dspeed of the reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — specific heat capacity

c is the specific heat capacity — the heat needed to raise 1 g of the substance by 1 °C.

Q5If a reaction has ΔH = −200 kJ, the reverse reaction has ΔH =

  1. A−200 kJ
  2. B+200 kJ
  3. C0
  4. D−400 kJ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — +200 kJ

Reversing a reaction reverses the sign of its enthalpy change.

Q6Heat released warms 200 g of water by 10 °C (c = 4.18). The heat is about:

  1. A0.84 kJ
  2. B8.4 kJ
  3. C84 kJ
  4. D0.42 kJ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 8.4 kJ

q = mcΔT = 200 × 4.18 × 10 = 8360 J ≈ 8.4 kJ.

Q7Using ΔH = Σ(bonds broken) − Σ(bonds made), a reaction is exothermic when:

  1. Amore energy is absorbed breaking bonds than released making them
  2. Bmore energy is released making bonds than absorbed breaking them
  3. Cno bonds break
  4. Dthe temperature falls
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more energy is released making bonds than absorbed breaking them

If bond-making releases more than bond-breaking absorbs, ΔH is negative — exothermic.

Q8Which ionic compound has the most exothermic lattice energy?

  1. ANaCl
  2. BKCl
  3. CMgO
  4. DKBr
Show answer

Correct answer: C — MgO

MgO has doubly-charged, small ions (Mg²⁺, O²⁻), giving the strongest electrostatic attraction and largest lattice energy.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define the standard enthalpy change of reaction, ΔH.
Answer

The heat energy change for a reaction measured at standard conditions (298 K, 1 atm), with substances in their standard states.

Q2[3 marks]
State Hess's law and explain why it is useful.
Answer

The total enthalpy change of a reaction is independent of the route taken, provided the initial and final conditions are the same. It lets us calculate enthalpy changes that cannot be measured directly.

Q3[2 marks]
Write the expression used to calculate heat energy released when a solution's temperature changes (q = mcΔT), defining each term.
Answer

q = mcΔT, where q = heat energy, m = mass of solution, c = specific heat capacity, ΔT = temperature change.

Q4[7 marks]
Burning 0.50 g of ethanol raises the temperature of 100 g of water by 30 °C. (c of water = 4.2 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹; Mr ethanol = 46)
  1. Calculate the heat energy released to the water. [2]
  2. Calculate the number of moles of ethanol burned. [1]
  3. Calculate the enthalpy change of combustion of ethanol in kJ/mol. [3]
  4. Suggest why the experimental value is smaller in magnitude than the data-book value. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. q = mcΔT = 100 × 4.2 × 30[1]
  2. = 12600 J = 12.6 kJ[1]
  3. Moles ethanol = 0.50 ÷ 46 = 0.0109 mol[1]
  4. ΔH = energy ÷ moles = 12.6 ÷ 0.0109[1]
  5. = 1156 kJ/mol (magnitude)[1]
  6. ΔH is negative (exothermic): ≈ −1160 kJ/mol[1]
  7. Heat is lost to the surroundings / incomplete combustion[1]

q = 12.6 kJ; 0.0109 mol; ΔH ≈ −1160 kJ/mol; lower magnitude due to heat loss / incomplete combustion.

Q5[3 marks]
For the reaction H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl, use the bond enthalpies H–H = 436, Cl–Cl = 242, H–Cl = 431 kJ/mol to calculate ΔH.
Answer

Bonds broken = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Bonds made = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 − 862 = −184 kJ/mol (exothermic).

Q6[6 marks]
Magnesium oxide and sodium chloride are both ionic solids.
  1. Define the term lattice energy. [2]
  2. Explain why the lattice energy of magnesium oxide is much more exothermic than that of sodium chloride. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. The energy released when gaseous ions[1]
  2. combine to form one mole of solid ionic lattice[1]
  3. MgO contains Mg²⁺ and O²⁻ ions with 2+ and 2− charges[1]
  4. NaCl contains only 1+ and 1− ions[1]
  5. the ions in MgO are also smaller[1]
  6. higher charges and smaller radii give stronger electrostatic attraction, so a much larger (more exothermic) lattice energy[1]

Lattice energy = energy released forming a mole of lattice from gaseous ions; MgO's higher charges and smaller ions give much stronger attraction than NaCl.

07

Reaction Kinetics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In the rate law rate = k[A]^m[B]^n, the powers m and n are found:

  1. Afrom the balanced equation
  2. Bby experiment
  3. Cfrom the molar masses
  4. Dfrom the temperature
Show answer

Correct answer: B — by experiment

Orders are experimental — they reflect the mechanism, not the stoichiometric coefficients.

Q2Doubling [A] doubles the rate. The reaction is ___ order in A.

  1. Azero
  2. Bfirst
  3. Csecond
  4. Dthird
Show answer

Correct answer: B — first

Rate proportional to concentration means first order.

Q3Doubling [B] makes the rate four times larger. The order in B is:

  1. Azero
  2. Bfirst
  3. Csecond
  4. Dhalf
Show answer

Correct answer: C — second

×4 = 2², so the reaction is second order in B.

Q4For rate = k[A][B]², the overall order is:

  1. A1
  2. B2
  3. C3
  4. D0
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 3

The overall order is the sum of the individual orders: first order in A (power 1) plus second order in B (power 2) gives 1 + 2 = 3, so the reaction is third order overall.

Q5The rate constant k increases most when you raise the:

  1. Aconcentration
  2. Btemperature
  3. Cpressure
  4. Dvolume
Show answer

Correct answer: B — temperature

k depends strongly on temperature (Arrhenius); concentration changes the rate but not k.

Q6The rate-determining step of a reaction is the:

  1. Afastest step
  2. Bslowest step
  3. Cfirst step always
  4. Dlast step always
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slowest step

The slowest step is the bottleneck that controls the overall rate.

Q7A reactant's concentration halves every 30 s regardless of its starting value. The reaction is:

  1. Azero order
  2. Bfirst order
  3. Csecond order
  4. Dthird order
Show answer

Correct answer: B — first order

A constant half-life is the signature of a first-order reaction.

Q8The order of a reaction with respect to a reactant is found by:

  1. Athe balanced equation
  2. Bexperiment
  3. Cthe molar mass
  4. Dthe temperature
Show answer

Correct answer: B — experiment

Orders reflect the mechanism, so they must be determined experimentally, not read from the equation.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define the term rate of reaction.
Answer

The change in concentration of a reactant or product per unit time.

Q2[2 marks]
What is meant by the order of a reaction with respect to a reactant?
Answer

The power to which the concentration of that reactant is raised in the rate equation.

Q3[3 marks]
A reaction has rate equation rate = k[A][B]². State the order with respect to each reactant, the overall order, and the effect on rate of doubling [B].
Answer

First order in A, second order in B, overall third order. Doubling [B] multiplies the rate by 2² = 4.

Q4[6 marks]
The rate of a reaction between A and B was studied by varying concentrations.
  1. Explain how the rate constant k is affected by increasing temperature, and why. [3]
  2. Explain what is meant by the rate-determining step. [2]
  3. State the units of k for a first-order reaction. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. k increases with temperature[1]
  2. Particles have more energy and collide more often[1]
  3. and a greater fraction exceed the activation energy, so more collisions are successful[1]
  4. The rate-determining step is the slowest step in a multi-step reaction[1]
  5. It controls the overall rate[1]
  6. s⁻¹[1]

k rises with temperature (more successful collisions); rate-determining step = the slowest step, which limits overall rate; first-order k has units s⁻¹.

Q5[2 marks]
The rate equation for a reaction is rate = k[A]²[B]. State the overall order and the effect on the rate of doubling [A].
Answer

Overall order = 2 + 1 = 3 (third order). Doubling [A] multiplies the rate by 2² = 4.

Q6[6 marks]
A reaction between P and Q was studied by measuring the initial rate at different concentrations.
  1. Explain what is meant by the rate-determining step. [2]
  2. Explain how a catalyst increases the rate constant k. [2]
  3. Explain why increasing temperature increases k. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The slowest step in a multi-step reaction[1]
  2. which controls (limits) the overall rate[1]
  3. A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy[1]
  4. so a greater fraction of collisions are successful, raising k[1]
  5. Higher temperature gives molecules more energy[1]
  6. so more exceed the activation energy — more successful collisions and a larger k[1]

Rate-determining step = slowest step controlling the rate; catalyst and higher temperature both raise k by increasing the fraction of successful (Ea-exceeding) collisions.

08

Chemical Equilibrium

Multiple choice · 8

Q1For N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, the Kc expression is:

  1. A[NH₃]² / ([N₂][H₂]³)
  2. B[N₂][H₂]³ / [NH₃]²
  3. C[NH₃] / ([N₂][H₂])
  4. D2[NH₃] / (3[H₂] + [N₂])
Show answer

Correct answer: A — [NH₃]² / ([N₂][H₂]³)

Products over reactants, each raised to its coefficient: [NH₃]² on top, [N₂][H₂]³ underneath.

Q2A large value of K (≫1) means at equilibrium:

  1. Areactants dominate
  2. Bproducts dominate
  3. Cthe reaction is fast
  4. Dno reaction occurs
Show answer

Correct answer: B — products dominate

K ≫ 1 puts products on top as the larger quantity — the reaction goes nearly to completion.

Q3Which of these changes the VALUE of K?

  1. Aconcentration
  2. Bpressure
  3. Ca catalyst
  4. Dtemperature
Show answer

Correct answer: D — temperature

Only temperature changes K; concentration, pressure and catalysts affect position or rate, not the value of K.

Q4Adding a catalyst to a system at equilibrium:

  1. Aincreases K
  2. Bdecreases K
  3. Cdoes not change K
  4. Dreverses the reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: C — does not change K

A catalyst only speeds up reaching equilibrium; the position and K are unchanged.

Q5The size of K tells you about a reaction's ___, not its ___.

  1. Arate; extent
  2. Bextent; rate
  3. Ccolour; mass
  4. Dcost; yield
Show answer

Correct answer: B — extent; rate

K measures how far the reaction goes (extent); how fast it gets there is kinetics.

Q6Kp differs from Kc in that it uses:

  1. Atemperatures
  2. Bpartial pressures of gases
  3. Cmasses
  4. Dvolumes only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — partial pressures of gases

Kp is written with partial pressures rather than concentrations, for gaseous equilibria.

Q7For an exothermic forward reaction, increasing the temperature will:

  1. Aincrease K
  2. Bdecrease K
  3. Cnot change K
  4. Ddouble K
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decrease K

Higher temperature favours the endothermic (backward) direction, lowering the yield and decreasing K.

Q8If the reaction quotient Q is greater than K, the reaction will:

  1. Amove forward
  2. Bmove backward
  3. Cbe at equilibrium
  4. Dstop
Show answer

Correct answer: B — move backward

Q > K means too much product, so the reaction shifts backward until Q = K.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Write the equilibrium constant expression Kc for the reaction N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃.
Answer

Kc = [NH₃]² ÷ ([N₂][H₂]³).

Q2[2 marks]
State what a large value of Kc tells you about the position of equilibrium.
Answer

A large Kc means the equilibrium lies to the right — the mixture contains mostly products.

Q3[3 marks]
For an exothermic forward reaction at equilibrium, state and explain the effect of increasing temperature on Kc.
Answer

Increasing temperature shifts the equilibrium in the endothermic (backward) direction, so the yield of product falls and Kc decreases.

Q4[6 marks]
Consider the equilibrium 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g), forward reaction exothermic.
  1. State and explain the effect of increasing the pressure on the yield of SO₃. [3]
  2. State and explain the effect of adding a catalyst on the yield of SO₃. [2]
  3. State the effect of increasing temperature on the value of Kc. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Higher pressure increases the yield of SO₃[1]
  2. The equilibrium shifts to the side with fewer gas molecules[1]
  3. 3 gas molecules on the left, 2 on the right, so it shifts right[1]
  4. A catalyst does not change the yield / position of equilibrium[1]
  5. It speeds up the forward and backward reactions equally (equilibrium reached faster)[1]
  6. Increasing temperature decreases Kc[1]

Higher pressure → more SO₃ (fewer gas moles on right); catalyst → no change in yield (faster only); higher temperature → Kc decreases.

Q5[2 marks]
Write the equilibrium expression Kc for: 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g).
Answer

Kc = [SO₃]² ÷ ([SO₂]² [O₂]).

Q6[6 marks]
Consider the equilibrium N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), forward reaction exothermic.
  1. State and explain the effect of increasing pressure on the yield of ammonia. [3]
  2. State and explain the effect of increasing temperature on the value of Kc. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Higher pressure increases the yield of ammonia[1]
  2. the system shifts to the side with fewer gas molecules[1]
  3. 4 gas molecules on the left, 2 on the right, so it shifts right[1]
  4. Increasing temperature decreases Kc[1]
  5. the forward reaction is exothermic, so higher temperature favours the endothermic reverse[1]
  6. less product forms, so Kc falls[1]

Higher pressure → more NH₃ (fewer gas moles on the right); higher temperature → lower Kc (favours the endothermic reverse).

09

Acid-Base Chemistry

Multiple choice · 8

Q1An acid is a substance that, in water, releases:

  1. AOH⁻ ions
  2. BH⁺ ions
  3. Celectrons
  4. Dsodium ions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — H⁺ ions

Hydrogen ions (H⁺) are responsible for all acidic behaviour; an alkali releases OH⁻ instead.

Q2"Strong acid" means the acid:

  1. Ais very concentrated
  2. Bionises completely in water
  3. Chas a high boiling point
  4. Dis dangerous to touch
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ionises completely in water

Strong vs weak is about complete vs partial ionisation, independent of how concentrated (dilute) the solution is.

Q3A solution of pH 2 compared with pH 4 is:

  1. Atwice as acidic
  2. B100 times more acidic
  3. Chalf as acidic
  4. Dthe same
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 100 times more acidic

The scale is logarithmic: two pH units is 10 × 10 = 100 times the H⁺ concentration.

Q4The products of neutralising an acid with an alkali are:

  1. Asalt + hydrogen
  2. Bsalt + water
  3. Csalt + carbon dioxide
  4. Dhydrogen + oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — salt + water

Acid + alkali → salt + water; ionically, H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O.

Q5Fizzing and limewater turning milky when acid is added tells you the other reactant was a:

  1. Ametal
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Cstrong alkali
  4. Dsalt
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbonate

Acid + carbonate releases carbon dioxide (the fizzing), and CO₂ turns limewater milky.

Q6Zinc reacting with sulfuric acid produces:

  1. Azinc chloride + hydrogen
  2. Bzinc sulfate + hydrogen
  3. Czinc sulfate + water
  4. Dzinc oxide + carbon dioxide
Show answer

Correct answer: B — zinc sulfate + hydrogen

Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen; sulfuric acid makes a sulfate, so it is zinc sulfate + hydrogen.

Q7In a titration, phenolphthalein changes from:

  1. Ared to yellow
  2. Bcolourless to pink
  3. Cblue to red
  4. Dgreen to purple
Show answer

Correct answer: B — colourless to pink

Phenolphthalein is colourless in acid and pink in alkali, giving a sharp end point.

Q8A Brønsted–Lowry base is defined as a substance that:

  1. Adonates protons
  2. Baccepts protons
  3. Cdonates electrons
  4. Dproduces H⁺
Show answer

Correct answer: B — accepts protons

A Brønsted–Lowry base is a proton (H⁺) acceptor; an acid is a proton donor.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what all acids produce in aqueous solution, and give the pH range of an acid.
Answer

Acids produce hydrogen ions, H⁺, in aqueous solution; their pH is below 7.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain the difference between a strong acid and a weak acid.
Answer

A strong acid is fully ionised in water; a weak acid is only partly ionised. It is about degree of ionisation, not concentration.

Q3[3 marks]
Write a word and balanced symbol equation for the reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide.
Answer

Hydrochloric acid + sodium hydroxide → sodium chloride + water. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O.

Q4[7 marks]
A student prepares dry crystals of copper(II) sulfate from copper(II) oxide and dilute sulfuric acid.
  1. Write the balanced equation for the reaction. [2]
  2. Describe how the student obtains pure dry crystals from the mixture. [4]
  3. Explain why excess copper(II) oxide is used. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O (correct formulae)[1]
  2. Equation balanced[1]
  3. Warm the acid and add excess copper(II) oxide, then filter off the unreacted solid[1]
  4. Heat the filtrate to evaporate some water / to the point of crystallisation[1]
  5. Leave to cool so crystals form[1]
  6. Filter and dry the crystals (e.g. between filter paper)[1]
  7. Excess ensures all the acid reacts, and the excess solid can simply be filtered off[1]

CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O; react with excess base, filter, evaporate to crystallisation, cool, filter, dry; excess guarantees all acid used and is easily removed.

Q5[2 marks]
A solution has a hydrogen-ion concentration of 1 × 10⁻³ mol/dm³. Calculate its pH and state whether it is acidic or alkaline.
Answer

pH = −log₁₀(1 × 10⁻³) = 3. pH 3 is below 7, so the solution is acidic.

Q6[6 marks]
A student is asked to prepare pure, dry crystals of copper(II) sulfate from copper(II) oxide (an insoluble base) and dilute sulfuric acid.
  1. Write the equation for the reaction. [2]
  2. Describe the method to obtain pure dry crystals. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O (correct formulae)[1]
  2. balanced[1]
  3. Warm the acid and add copper(II) oxide in excess until no more reacts[1]
  4. Filter to remove the excess copper(II) oxide[1]
  5. Heat the filtrate to evaporate water to the point of crystallisation, then leave to cool[1]
  6. Filter off the crystals and dry them (e.g. between filter paper)[1]

CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O; react with excess base, filter, evaporate to crystallisation, cool, filter, dry.

10

Electrochemistry

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In a galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at the ___ , which is the ___ terminal.

  1. Acathode; positive
  2. Banode; negative
  3. Canode; positive
  4. Dcathode; negative
Show answer

Correct answer: B — anode; negative

Oxidation is always at the anode; in a galvanic cell the anode is the negative terminal (electrons leave there).

Q2The salt bridge in a cell:

  1. Acarries electrons
  2. Bcompletes the circuit and balances charge with ion flow
  3. Cstores the voltage
  4. Dis the cathode
Show answer

Correct answer: B — completes the circuit and balances charge with ion flow

Electrons go through the wire; the salt bridge lets ions move to keep the half-cells neutral and the circuit complete.

Q3Standard electrode potentials are measured relative to:

  1. Aa copper electrode
  2. Bthe standard hydrogen electrode (0 V)
  3. Czinc
  4. Dabsolute zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the standard hydrogen electrode (0 V)

The standard hydrogen electrode is defined as 0 V, and all other potentials are quoted against it.

Q4E°cell is calculated as:

  1. AE°(anode) − E°(cathode)
  2. BE°(cathode) − E°(anode)
  3. CE°(cathode) + E°(anode)
  4. DE°(anode) × E°(cathode)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — E°(cathode) − E°(anode)

E°cell = E°(cathode) − E°(anode); a positive result indicates a spontaneous reaction.

Q5A cell has E°cell = +1.10 V. The reaction is:

  1. Anon-spontaneous
  2. Bspontaneous
  3. Cat equilibrium
  4. Dimpossible
Show answer

Correct answer: B — spontaneous

A positive cell potential means the redox reaction proceeds spontaneously (as in the Zn/Cu Daniell cell).

Q6Between Zn (E° = −0.76 V) and Cu (E° = +0.34 V), which is oxidised?

  1. Acopper
  2. Bzinc
  3. Cboth
  4. Dneither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — zinc

The more negative electrode (zinc) loses electrons — it is oxidised at the anode.

Q7In a galvanic cell, the negative electrode (anode) is the:

  1. Aless reactive metal
  2. Bmore reactive metal
  3. Csalt bridge
  4. Dcathode
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more reactive metal

The more reactive metal is oxidised, releasing electrons — it is the negative electrode in a galvanic cell.

Q8Given E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V and E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = −0.76 V, the EMF of the cell is:

  1. A+0.42 V
  2. B+1.10 V
  3. C−1.10 V
  4. D+0.34 V
Show answer

Correct answer: B — +1.10 V

E°cell = E°(cathode) − E°(anode) = +0.34 − (−0.76) = +1.10 V.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define oxidation and reduction in terms of oxidation number.
Answer

Oxidation is an increase in oxidation number; reduction is a decrease in oxidation number.

Q2[2 marks]
State what the standard electrode (reduction) potential of a half-cell measures.
Answer

The voltage of that half-cell measured against a standard hydrogen electrode under standard conditions (298 K, 1 mol dm⁻³, 1 atm).

Q3[3 marks]
Given E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V and E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = −0.76 V, calculate the EMF of the cell and state which electrode is the negative terminal.
Answer

EMF = E°(cathode) − E°(anode) = +0.34 − (−0.76) = +1.10 V. The zinc electrode is the negative terminal (it is oxidised).

Q4[6 marks]
A simple cell is made from a zinc half-cell and a copper half-cell.
  1. Write the half-equation occurring at the zinc electrode and state whether it is oxidation or reduction. [2]
  2. State the function of the salt bridge. [2]
  3. State the direction of electron flow in the external circuit and explain why. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻[1]
  2. This is oxidation (loss of electrons)[1]
  3. The salt bridge completes the circuit[1]
  4. and allows ions to flow to balance the charge in each half-cell[1]
  5. Electrons flow from zinc to copper[1]
  6. because zinc is more easily oxidised / has the more negative electrode potential[1]

Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ (oxidation); salt bridge completes circuit and balances charge; electrons flow zinc → copper (zinc more easily oxidised).

Q5[2 marks]
Using E°(Ag⁺/Ag) = +0.80 V and E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V, determine which metal is oxidised in a cell made from these half-cells, and calculate the EMF.
Answer

Silver has the more positive E°, so it is reduced (cathode) and copper is oxidised (anode). E°cell = 0.80 − 0.34 = +0.46 V.

Q6[6 marks]
A cell is set up from a zinc half-cell and a copper half-cell. E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = −0.76 V, E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V.
  1. State which electrode is negative and write the half-equation there. [2]
  2. Calculate the EMF of the cell. [2]
  3. State the direction of electron flow and explain why. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The zinc electrode is negative[1]
  2. Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ (oxidation)[1]
  3. E°cell = E°(cathode) − E°(anode) = 0.34 − (−0.76)[1]
  4. = +1.10 V[1]
  5. Electrons flow from zinc to copper in the external circuit[1]
  6. because zinc has the more negative electrode potential, so it is oxidised and releases electrons[1]

Zinc electrode negative (Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻); EMF = +1.10 V; electrons flow zinc → copper (zinc more easily oxidised).

11

Hydrocarbons

Multiple choice · 13

Q1Crude oil is separated into fractions by:

  1. Afiltration
  2. Bfractional distillation by boiling point
  3. Celectrolysis
  4. Dcrystallisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — fractional distillation by boiling point

Hydrocarbons condense at different heights in the column according to their boiling points.

Q2The general formula of an alkane is:

  1. ACₙH₂ₙ
  2. BCₙH₂ₙ₊₂
  3. CCₙHₙ
  4. DCₙH₂ₙ₋₂
Show answer

Correct answer: B — CₙH₂ₙ₊₂

Saturated alkanes follow CₙH₂ₙ₊₂; alkenes (one double bond) follow CₙH₂ₙ.

Q3Incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon is dangerous because it produces:

  1. Acarbon dioxide
  2. Bwater
  3. Ctoxic carbon monoxide
  4. Dhydrogen
Show answer

Correct answer: C — toxic carbon monoxide

Limited oxygen gives carbon monoxide (a toxic, colourless gas) and soot rather than CO₂.

Q4Which decolourises bromine water?

  1. AAn alkane
  2. BAn alkene
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — An alkene

The C=C of an alkene adds bromine, using up the colour; a saturated alkane leaves it orange.

Q5Poly(ethene) is made from ethene by:

  1. Acracking
  2. Baddition polymerisation
  3. Cfractional distillation
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition polymerisation

Many ethene monomers join into a long chain as the double bonds open — addition polymerisation.

Q6Most addition polymers are non-biodegradable because:

  1. Athey are made of metal
  2. Btheir unreactive C–C backbone does not break down
  3. Cthey dissolve in water
  4. Dthey contain oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — their unreactive C–C backbone does not break down

The strong, unreactive carbon chain resists breakdown, so the plastics persist in the environment.

Q7Reacting ethene with hydrogen and a nickel catalyst produces:

  1. Aethanol
  2. Bethane
  3. Cpoly(ethene)
  4. Ddibromoethane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethane

Hydrogenation adds H₂ across the C=C double bond, turning the alkene ethene into the alkane ethane.

Q8Addition polymers such as poly(ethene) are hard to dispose of because they are:

  1. Ahighly reactive
  2. Bnon-biodegradable
  3. Csoluble in water
  4. Dmagnetic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — non-biodegradable

Their unreactive carbon backbone is not broken down by microbes, so they persist for a very long time.

Q9The step Cl₂ → 2Cl• in the reaction of methane with chlorine is called:

  1. Apropagation
  2. Binitiation
  3. Ctermination
  4. Dsubstitution
Show answer

Correct answer: B — initiation

UV light splitting the halogen into radicals is the initiation step.

Q10Propene reacts with HBr. The major product predicted by Markovnikov's rule is:

  1. A1-bromopropane
  2. B2-bromopropane
  3. Cpropan-1-ol
  4. Dpropane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2-bromopropane

The H adds to the carbon with more hydrogens, giving the more stable secondary carbocation, so 2-bromopropane is the major product.

Q11The functional group of an alcohol is:

  1. A–COOH
  2. B–OH
  3. CC=C
  4. D–O–
Show answer

Correct answer: B — –OH

Alcohols contain the hydroxyl group –OH; –COOH is a carboxylic acid.

Q12Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to give a salt, water and:

  1. Ahydrogen
  2. Boxygen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dan ester
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide (the fizz that confirms a carboxylic acid).

Q13An ester is formed by reacting a carboxylic acid with a(n):

  1. Ametal
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Calcohol
  4. Dalkene
Show answer

Correct answer: C — alcohol

Esterification combines a carboxylic acid and an alcohol (with an acid catalyst) to give an ester and water.

Exam-style questions · 10

Q1[2 marks]
Define the term homologous series.
Answer

A family of organic compounds with the same general formula and similar chemical properties, where each member differs from the next by CH₂.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to distinguish an alkane from an alkene.
Answer

Add bromine water: an alkene decolourises it (orange to colourless); an alkane does not (stays orange).

Q3[3 marks]
Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation to form poly(ethene). Explain what this means and give the repeat unit.
Answer

Many ethene monomers (with C=C double bonds) join together, with no other product, to form a long-chain polymer. Repeat unit: –(CH₂–CH₂)–.

Q4[6 marks]
Ethanol can be made by fermentation or by the hydration of ethene.
  1. Write the equation for the fermentation of glucose to ethanol. [2]
  2. State the conditions for making ethanol by hydration of ethene, and write the equation. [3]
  3. Give one advantage of the hydration method over fermentation. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂[1]
  2. correct formulae / balanced[1]
  3. Steam / water, ~300 °C, ~60 atm, phosphoric acid catalyst[1]
  4. C₂H₄ + H₂O → C₂H₅OH[1]
  5. balanced equation[1]
  6. It is a continuous process / faster / gives purer ethanol (any one)[1]

Fermentation: C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂; hydration: C₂H₄ + H₂O → C₂H₅OH (steam, ~300 °C, ~60 atm, H₃PO₄); hydration is continuous/faster/purer.

Q5[2 marks]
Describe the test to distinguish ethane from ethene, giving the result for each.
Answer

Add bromine water: ethene (an alkene) decolourises it from orange to colourless; ethane (an alkane) leaves it orange (no reaction).

Q6[6 marks]
Ethene (C₂H₄) is an important product of cracking.
  1. Explain what cracking is and why it is done. [3]
  2. Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation. Describe what this means and name the product. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Cracking breaks long-chain hydrocarbons into shorter ones[1]
  2. using heat and a catalyst[1]
  3. to make more useful small molecules (fuels) and alkenes for plastics[1]
  4. Many ethene monomers (with C=C double bonds) join together[1]
  5. the double bonds open and link into a long chain, with no other product[1]
  6. The product is poly(ethene)[1]

Cracking breaks long hydrocarbons (heat + catalyst) into useful short molecules and alkenes; addition polymerisation joins many ethene monomers into poly(ethene).

Q7[3 marks]
Methane reacts with chlorine in ultraviolet light. Name the type of mechanism and write the initiation and the two propagation steps.
Answer

Free-radical substitution. Initiation: Cl₂ → 2Cl• (UV). Propagation: Cl• + CH₄ → •CH₃ + HCl, then •CH₃ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + Cl•.

Q8[6 marks]
But-1-ene reacts with hydrogen bromide.
  1. Name the mechanism and describe the role of the C=C double bond. [2]
  2. Explain, using Markovnikov's rule, which product forms in the greater amount. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. The mechanism is electrophilic addition[1]
  2. the electron-rich C=C double bond attracts the electrophile (the δ+ H of HBr)[1]
  3. The H can add to either carbon, giving either a secondary or a primary carbocation[1]
  4. the secondary carbocation is more stable than the primary[1]
  5. so the H adds to the terminal (CH₂) carbon (Markovnikov's rule)[1]
  6. giving mainly 2-bromobutane[1]

Electrophilic addition; the C=C attracts the electrophile; via the more stable secondary carbocation the major product is 2-bromobutane.

Q9[3 marks]
Ethanol can be made by fermentation. Give the equation, the conditions, and one advantage of this method over hydration of ethene.
Answer

C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂, using yeast at about 30 °C in the absence of air. An advantage is that it uses a renewable resource (sugar/plant crops) rather than crude oil.

Q10[6 marks]
Ethanol, ethanoic acid and their reactions are important in the O Level organic chapter.
  1. Describe how ethanoic acid can be made from ethanol. [2]
  2. State what you would observe when ethanoic acid is added to magnesium, and write the equation. [2]
  3. Name the ester and other product formed when ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, and state the catalyst. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate (warm/reflux)[1]
  2. (or ferment ethanol in air) to give ethanoic acid[1]
  3. The magnesium fizzes / dissolves, giving off hydrogen gas[1]
  4. Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂[1]
  5. Ethyl ethanoate is formed, plus water[1]
  6. using a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]

Oxidise ethanol → ethanoic acid; with magnesium it fizzes giving H₂ (Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂); with ethanol it makes ethyl ethanoate + water (conc. H₂SO₄ catalyst).

12

Nitrogen and Sulfur

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Down a group in the p-block, elements become:

  1. Amore non-metallic
  2. Bmore metallic
  3. Cmore gaseous
  4. Dmore radioactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more metallic

Larger atoms hold outer electrons more loosely, so metallic character increases down a group.

Q2Which Group 14 element is a non-metal with several allotropes?

  1. Alead
  2. Btin
  3. Csilicon
  4. Dcarbon
Show answer

Correct answer: D — carbon

Carbon is the non-metal at the top of Group 14, with allotropes diamond, graphite, graphene and fullerenes.

Q3Nitrogen gas (N₂) is unreactive mainly because of its:

  1. Alow mass
  2. Bstrong triple bond
  3. Cmetallic character
  4. Dhigh electronegativity alone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — strong triple bond

The N≡N triple bond is very strong, so breaking N₂ apart needs a lot of energy.

Q4The most-produced industrial chemical, made from a Group 16 element, is:

  1. Anitric acid
  2. Bsulfuric acid
  3. Cammonia
  4. Dhydrochloric acid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sulfuric acid

Sulfuric acid (from sulfur) is the highest-tonnage industrial chemical.

Q5The first element of each p-block group is anomalous partly because it:

  1. Ais a metal
  2. Blacks available d orbitals and is small
  3. Chas the most shells
  4. Dis radioactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lacks available d orbitals and is small

Being small, very electronegative and without accessible d orbitals limits its bonding, unlike the elements below it.

Q6SiO₂ melts far higher than CO₂ because SiO₂ is:

  1. Aionic
  2. Ba giant covalent network
  3. Cmetallic
  4. Dmade of small molecules
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a giant covalent network

SiO₂ is a giant covalent lattice; melting it breaks strong covalent bonds, unlike molecular CO₂.

Q7Down Group 17, the oxidising power of the halogens:

  1. Aincreases
  2. Bdecreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Dpeaks at bromine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decreases

Gaining an electron gets harder down the group, so oxidising power decreases.

Q8Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is described as:

  1. Abasic
  2. Bacidic
  3. Camphoteric
  4. Dneutral
Show answer

Correct answer: C — amphoteric

An oxide that reacts with both acids and bases is amphoteric.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State and explain the trend in reactivity down Group 17 (the halogens).
Answer

Reactivity decreases down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is harder to attract an electron.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to confirm the presence of ammonia gas.
Answer

Damp red litmus paper turns blue in ammonia gas (ammonia is alkaline).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why chlorine can displace bromine from potassium bromide solution, and write the ionic equation.
Answer

Chlorine is more reactive (a stronger oxidising agent) than bromine, so it removes electrons from bromide ions: Cl₂ + 2Br⁻ → 2Cl⁻ + Br₂.

Q4[6 marks]
Nitrogen and sulfur form important oxides and acids.
  1. Explain why oxides of nitrogen and sulfur cause acid rain. [3]
  2. State the equation for the reaction between sulfur dioxide and water. [1]
  3. State one environmental effect of acid rain. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released when fossil fuels burn[1]
  2. They dissolve in rainwater[1]
  3. forming acidic solutions (sulfurous/sulfuric and nitric acids)[1]
  4. SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃[1]
  5. Damages plants/forests, or acidifies lakes killing fish[1]
  6. or corrodes buildings/limestone and metals (any valid effect)[1]

SO₂/NOₓ from burning fuels dissolve in rain forming acids; SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃; acid rain damages forests, lakes, buildings.

Q5[3 marks]
Chlorine is bubbled through separate solutions of potassium bromide and potassium iodide. State what you would observe in each and write one equation.
Answer

With potassium bromide the solution turns orange as bromine is displaced; with potassium iodide it turns brown as iodine is displaced. Chlorine is more reactive than both. Equation: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.

Q6[6 marks]
This question is about trends in the p-block.
  1. Explain why the reactivity of the halogens decreases down Group 17. [3]
  2. Explain the inert pair effect and illustrate it with lead. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Halogens react by gaining one electron[1]
  2. down the group the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
  3. so an electron is attracted/gained less easily — reactivity falls[1]
  4. The inert pair effect is the reluctance of the outer s-electron pair to bond in heavier p-block elements[1]
  5. so they favour an oxidation state two lower than the group maximum[1]
  6. lead is more stable as Pb²⁺ than Pb⁴⁺[1]

Halogen reactivity falls down the group (electron gained less easily); the inert pair effect makes heavier elements like lead favour the lower (+2) state.

13

Halogens

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Down a group in the p-block, elements become:

  1. Amore non-metallic
  2. Bmore metallic
  3. Cmore gaseous
  4. Dmore radioactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more metallic

Larger atoms hold outer electrons more loosely, so metallic character increases down a group.

Q2Which Group 14 element is a non-metal with several allotropes?

  1. Alead
  2. Btin
  3. Csilicon
  4. Dcarbon
Show answer

Correct answer: D — carbon

Carbon is the non-metal at the top of Group 14, with allotropes diamond, graphite, graphene and fullerenes.

Q3Nitrogen gas (N₂) is unreactive mainly because of its:

  1. Alow mass
  2. Bstrong triple bond
  3. Cmetallic character
  4. Dhigh electronegativity alone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — strong triple bond

The N≡N triple bond is very strong, so breaking N₂ apart needs a lot of energy.

Q4The most-produced industrial chemical, made from a Group 16 element, is:

  1. Anitric acid
  2. Bsulfuric acid
  3. Cammonia
  4. Dhydrochloric acid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sulfuric acid

Sulfuric acid (from sulfur) is the highest-tonnage industrial chemical.

Q5The first element of each p-block group is anomalous partly because it:

  1. Ais a metal
  2. Blacks available d orbitals and is small
  3. Chas the most shells
  4. Dis radioactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lacks available d orbitals and is small

Being small, very electronegative and without accessible d orbitals limits its bonding, unlike the elements below it.

Q6SiO₂ melts far higher than CO₂ because SiO₂ is:

  1. Aionic
  2. Ba giant covalent network
  3. Cmetallic
  4. Dmade of small molecules
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a giant covalent network

SiO₂ is a giant covalent lattice; melting it breaks strong covalent bonds, unlike molecular CO₂.

Q7Down Group 17, the oxidising power of the halogens:

  1. Aincreases
  2. Bdecreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Dpeaks at bromine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decreases

Gaining an electron gets harder down the group, so oxidising power decreases.

Q8Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is described as:

  1. Abasic
  2. Bacidic
  3. Camphoteric
  4. Dneutral
Show answer

Correct answer: C — amphoteric

An oxide that reacts with both acids and bases is amphoteric.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State and explain the trend in reactivity down Group 17 (the halogens).
Answer

Reactivity decreases down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is harder to attract an electron.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to confirm the presence of ammonia gas.
Answer

Damp red litmus paper turns blue in ammonia gas (ammonia is alkaline).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why chlorine can displace bromine from potassium bromide solution, and write the ionic equation.
Answer

Chlorine is more reactive (a stronger oxidising agent) than bromine, so it removes electrons from bromide ions: Cl₂ + 2Br⁻ → 2Cl⁻ + Br₂.

Q4[6 marks]
Nitrogen and sulfur form important oxides and acids.
  1. Explain why oxides of nitrogen and sulfur cause acid rain. [3]
  2. State the equation for the reaction between sulfur dioxide and water. [1]
  3. State one environmental effect of acid rain. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released when fossil fuels burn[1]
  2. They dissolve in rainwater[1]
  3. forming acidic solutions (sulfurous/sulfuric and nitric acids)[1]
  4. SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃[1]
  5. Damages plants/forests, or acidifies lakes killing fish[1]
  6. or corrodes buildings/limestone and metals (any valid effect)[1]

SO₂/NOₓ from burning fuels dissolve in rain forming acids; SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃; acid rain damages forests, lakes, buildings.

Q5[3 marks]
Chlorine is bubbled through separate solutions of potassium bromide and potassium iodide. State what you would observe in each and write one equation.
Answer

With potassium bromide the solution turns orange as bromine is displaced; with potassium iodide it turns brown as iodine is displaced. Chlorine is more reactive than both. Equation: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.

Q6[6 marks]
This question is about trends in the p-block.
  1. Explain why the reactivity of the halogens decreases down Group 17. [3]
  2. Explain the inert pair effect and illustrate it with lead. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Halogens react by gaining one electron[1]
  2. down the group the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
  3. so an electron is attracted/gained less easily — reactivity falls[1]
  4. The inert pair effect is the reluctance of the outer s-electron pair to bond in heavier p-block elements[1]
  5. so they favour an oxidation state two lower than the group maximum[1]
  6. lead is more stable as Pb²⁺ than Pb⁴⁺[1]

Halogen reactivity falls down the group (electron gained less easily); the inert pair effect makes heavier elements like lead favour the lower (+2) state.

14

Atmosphere

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The approximate percentage of oxygen in clean dry air is:

  1. A78%
  2. B21%
  3. C1%
  4. D0.04%
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 21%

Air is about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with ~1% argon and ~0.04% CO₂.

Q2Carbon monoxide is dangerous because it:

  1. Acauses acid rain
  2. Bstops the blood carrying oxygen
  3. Cis highly flammable only
  4. Ddepletes ozone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stops the blood carrying oxygen

CO binds to the blood in place of oxygen, so the body is starved of it — and it comes from incomplete combustion.

Q3Which pollutant is the main cause of acid rain?

  1. ACarbon dioxide
  2. BSulfur dioxide
  3. CArgon
  4. DMethane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Sulfur dioxide

Sulfur dioxide (with oxides of nitrogen) dissolves in atmospheric water to form acids — acid rain.

Q4The enhanced greenhouse effect is mainly driven by rising:

  1. Aoxygen
  2. Bnitrogen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dargon
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Extra CO₂ (and methane) from burning fossil fuels traps more radiated heat, warming the climate.

Q5Chlorination is a step in water treatment to:

  1. Aremove solid particles
  2. Bkill bacteria
  3. Cadd minerals
  4. Dsoften the water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kill bacteria

Filtration removes solids; chlorination kills bacteria to make the water safe to drink.

Q6A catalytic converter changes CO and NOₓ into:

  1. ASO₂ and soot
  2. BCO₂ and N₂
  3. Cmore CO
  4. Dozone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — CO₂ and N₂

It converts the toxic exhaust gases into harmless carbon dioxide and nitrogen.

Q7Oxides of nitrogen form in car engines because:

  1. Anitrogen is in the fuel
  2. Bthe high temperature makes N₂ and O₂ combine
  3. Cof incomplete combustion
  4. Dthe catalyst produces them
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the high temperature makes N₂ and O₂ combine

The intense heat of combustion makes atmospheric nitrogen and oxygen react to form NOₓ.

Q8Chlorination is used in water treatment to:

  1. Aremove dissolved salts
  2. Bkill microbes
  3. Cremove solids
  4. Dsoften the water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kill microbes

Chlorine sterilises the water by killing harmful microorganisms; solids are removed earlier by filtration.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State the approximate percentages of the two main gases in clean, dry air.
Answer

About 78% nitrogen and about 21% oxygen (the remaining ~1% is mostly argon with a little carbon dioxide).

Q2[2 marks]
Name a chemical test for water and its positive result.
Answer

Add anhydrous copper(II) sulfate — it turns from white to blue in the presence of water (or blue cobalt chloride paper turns pink).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain how the carbon dioxide produced by burning fossil fuels contributes to climate change.
Answer

Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas; it absorbs and re-emits heat (infrared radiation) that would otherwise escape, so the extra CO₂ traps more heat and raises average global temperatures.

Q4[6 marks]
Rusting is a serious problem for iron structures.
  1. State the two substances needed for iron to rust. [2]
  2. Describe how galvanising protects iron and how it works even if the coating is scratched. [3]
  3. Name one other method of rust prevention. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Water (moisture)[1]
  2. Oxygen (air)[1]
  3. Galvanising coats the iron with a layer of zinc[1]
  4. The zinc is more reactive than iron, so it corrodes/loses electrons in preference (sacrificial protection)[1]
  5. so the iron is protected even where the coating is scratched[1]
  6. Painting / oiling / greasing / coating with plastic (any one)[1]

Water + oxygen needed; galvanising = zinc coating that sacrificially protects (zinc more reactive) even if scratched; also painting/oiling.

Q5[3 marks]
Explain how the sulfur dioxide released by burning coal leads to acid rain and one of its effects.
Answer

Sulfur impurities in the coal burn to sulfur dioxide, which dissolves in rainwater to form an acidic solution (sulfurous/sulfuric acid). This acid rain damages plants and forests, acidifies lakes killing fish, or corrodes limestone buildings and metals.

Q6[6 marks]
Burning fossil fuels releases several gases into the atmosphere.
  1. Explain how carbon monoxide is formed and why it is harmful. [3]
  2. Explain how a catalytic converter reduces harmful emissions, giving one equation. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Carbon monoxide forms by incomplete combustion[1]
  2. when there is not enough oxygen to make CO₂[1]
  3. it is toxic because it prevents the blood from carrying oxygen[1]
  4. The converter provides a catalyst surface where pollutants react[1]
  5. carbon monoxide is oxidised to carbon dioxide[1]
  6. 2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂ (and NOₓ is reduced to N₂)[1]

CO from incomplete combustion, toxic (stops blood carrying O₂); catalytic converter oxidises CO to CO₂ (2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂) and reduces NOₓ to N₂.

15

Basic Separation Techniques

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A pure substance, unlike a mixture, melts:

  1. Aover a wide range
  2. Bsharply at one fixed temperature
  3. Conly when dissolved
  4. Dwithout any heat
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sharply at one fixed temperature

A sharp, fixed melting point is the practical test of purity; mixtures melt over a range.

Q2To separate sand from water you would use:

  1. Adistillation
  2. Bfiltration
  3. Cchromatography
  4. Dcrystallisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — filtration

Sand is insoluble, so filtration catches it on the paper while the water passes through.

Q3To get pure water from seawater you would use:

  1. Afiltration
  2. Bsimple distillation
  3. Ccrystallisation
  4. Dchromatography
Show answer

Correct answer: B — simple distillation

Distillation boils off the water and condenses it, leaving the dissolved salts behind.

Q4An Rf value is always:

  1. Agreater than 1
  2. Bbetween 0 and 1
  3. Ca whole number
  4. Dnegative
Show answer

Correct answer: B — between 0 and 1

A substance cannot travel further than the solvent, so distance ratio Rf lies between 0 and 1.

Q5Which gas relights a glowing splint?

  1. AHydrogen
  2. BCarbon dioxide
  3. COxygen
  4. DAmmonia
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Oxygen

Oxygen relights a glowing splint; hydrogen gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint.

Q6Limewater turning milky is the test for:

  1. Aoxygen
  2. Bhydrogen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dchlorine
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky — the standard CO₂ test.

Q7A white precipitate forms when barium chloride and dilute acid are added to a solution. The ion present is:

  1. Achloride
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Csulfate
  4. Dnitrate
Show answer

Correct answer: C — sulfate

Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate — the test for a sulfate ion.

Q8A cream precipitate with silver nitrate indicates a:

  1. Achloride
  2. Bbromide
  3. Ciodide
  4. Dsulfate
Show answer

Correct answer: B — bromide

Silver bromide is cream (chloride is white, iodide is yellow).

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe how you would obtain pure water from a mixture of water and salt.
Answer

By simple distillation: heat the solution so water boils off, then condense the vapour back to liquid; the salt remains behind.

Q2[2 marks]
State how a chromatogram can be used to tell whether a dye is a pure substance.
Answer

A pure substance produces a single spot on the chromatogram; a mixture separates into two or more spots.

Q3[3 marks]
Define the term Rf value and state how it is calculated.
Answer

The Rf value is the ratio of the distance moved by the spot to the distance moved by the solvent front. Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent.

Q4[6 marks]
A student is given a mixture of sand and copper(II) sulfate.
  1. Describe how to obtain a dry sample of sand from the mixture. [3]
  2. Describe how to obtain pure copper(II) sulfate crystals from the remaining solution. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Add water and stir to dissolve the copper(II) sulfate[1]
  2. Filter — sand is the residue in the filter paper[1]
  3. Wash and dry the sand[1]
  4. Heat the filtrate to evaporate water to the point of crystallisation[1]
  5. Leave to cool so crystals form[1]
  6. Filter off and dry the crystals[1]

Dissolve, filter (sand = residue), wash and dry it; evaporate the filtrate to crystallisation, cool, filter and dry the crystals.

Q5[2 marks]
Describe how you would use flame tests to distinguish a sodium salt from a potassium salt.
Answer

Dip a clean wire in the salt and hold it in a blue flame: sodium gives a yellow flame, potassium gives a lilac flame.

Q6[6 marks]
An unknown solid is thought to be iron(II) sulfate.
  1. Describe the test and result that would confirm the iron(II) ion. [3]
  2. Describe the test and result that would confirm the sulfate ion. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Dissolve the solid and add sodium hydroxide solution[1]
  2. a green precipitate forms[1]
  3. confirming the iron(II) ion, Fe²⁺[1]
  4. To a fresh sample add dilute (hydrochloric or nitric) acid, then barium chloride solution[1]
  5. a white precipitate forms[1]
  6. confirming the sulfate ion, SO₄²⁻[1]

Fe²⁺: NaOH gives a green precipitate. SO₄²⁻: acid + barium chloride gives a white precipitate.

16

Lab Safety and Practical Skills

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A pure substance, unlike a mixture, melts:

  1. Aover a wide range
  2. Bsharply at one fixed temperature
  3. Conly when dissolved
  4. Dwithout any heat
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sharply at one fixed temperature

A sharp, fixed melting point is the practical test of purity; mixtures melt over a range.

Q2To separate sand from water you would use:

  1. Adistillation
  2. Bfiltration
  3. Cchromatography
  4. Dcrystallisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — filtration

Sand is insoluble, so filtration catches it on the paper while the water passes through.

Q3To get pure water from seawater you would use:

  1. Afiltration
  2. Bsimple distillation
  3. Ccrystallisation
  4. Dchromatography
Show answer

Correct answer: B — simple distillation

Distillation boils off the water and condenses it, leaving the dissolved salts behind.

Q4An Rf value is always:

  1. Agreater than 1
  2. Bbetween 0 and 1
  3. Ca whole number
  4. Dnegative
Show answer

Correct answer: B — between 0 and 1

A substance cannot travel further than the solvent, so distance ratio Rf lies between 0 and 1.

Q5Which gas relights a glowing splint?

  1. AHydrogen
  2. BCarbon dioxide
  3. COxygen
  4. DAmmonia
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Oxygen

Oxygen relights a glowing splint; hydrogen gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint.

Q6Limewater turning milky is the test for:

  1. Aoxygen
  2. Bhydrogen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dchlorine
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky — the standard CO₂ test.

Q7A white precipitate forms when barium chloride and dilute acid are added to a solution. The ion present is:

  1. Achloride
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Csulfate
  4. Dnitrate
Show answer

Correct answer: C — sulfate

Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate — the test for a sulfate ion.

Q8A cream precipitate with silver nitrate indicates a:

  1. Achloride
  2. Bbromide
  3. Ciodide
  4. Dsulfate
Show answer

Correct answer: B — bromide

Silver bromide is cream (chloride is white, iodide is yellow).

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe how you would obtain pure water from a mixture of water and salt.
Answer

By simple distillation: heat the solution so water boils off, then condense the vapour back to liquid; the salt remains behind.

Q2[2 marks]
State how a chromatogram can be used to tell whether a dye is a pure substance.
Answer

A pure substance produces a single spot on the chromatogram; a mixture separates into two or more spots.

Q3[3 marks]
Define the term Rf value and state how it is calculated.
Answer

The Rf value is the ratio of the distance moved by the spot to the distance moved by the solvent front. Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent.

Q4[6 marks]
A student is given a mixture of sand and copper(II) sulfate.
  1. Describe how to obtain a dry sample of sand from the mixture. [3]
  2. Describe how to obtain pure copper(II) sulfate crystals from the remaining solution. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Add water and stir to dissolve the copper(II) sulfate[1]
  2. Filter — sand is the residue in the filter paper[1]
  3. Wash and dry the sand[1]
  4. Heat the filtrate to evaporate water to the point of crystallisation[1]
  5. Leave to cool so crystals form[1]
  6. Filter off and dry the crystals[1]

Dissolve, filter (sand = residue), wash and dry it; evaporate the filtrate to crystallisation, cool, filter and dry the crystals.

Q5[2 marks]
Describe how you would use flame tests to distinguish a sodium salt from a potassium salt.
Answer

Dip a clean wire in the salt and hold it in a blue flame: sodium gives a yellow flame, potassium gives a lilac flame.

Q6[6 marks]
An unknown solid is thought to be iron(II) sulfate.
  1. Describe the test and result that would confirm the iron(II) ion. [3]
  2. Describe the test and result that would confirm the sulfate ion. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Dissolve the solid and add sodium hydroxide solution[1]
  2. a green precipitate forms[1]
  3. confirming the iron(II) ion, Fe²⁺[1]
  4. To a fresh sample add dilute (hydrochloric or nitric) acid, then barium chloride solution[1]
  5. a white precipitate forms[1]
  6. confirming the sulfate ion, SO₄²⁻[1]

Fe²⁺: NaOH gives a green precipitate. SO₄²⁻: acid + barium chloride gives a white precipitate.

These questions come from the 1st Year Chemistry lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.