10th Class Physics — MCQs & Practice Questions

122 multiple-choice questions and 97 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

New to a topic? Read the 10th Class Physics notes first, then come back to practise.

10

Thermal Physics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Temperature is a measure of:

  1. AThe total energy of all the particles
  2. BThe average kinetic energy of the particles
  3. CThe mass of the substance
  4. DThe rate of heat flow
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The average kinetic energy of the particles

Temperature is the average per particle. The total energy of all the particles is thermal energy, which also depends on how many there are — which is why a spark and a bath differ so completely.

Q2−273 °C in kelvin is:

  1. A0 K
  2. B273 K
  3. C−273 K
  4. D546 K
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0 K

T(K) = θ + 273, so −273 + 273 = 0 K. This is absolute zero, the point at which particle motion is at its minimum.

Q3Which expands most for a given temperature rise?

  1. ASolids
  2. BLiquids
  3. CGases
  4. DAll expand equally
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gases

Gases expand most, then liquids, then solids. The more freely the particles already move, the more space the additional motion requires.

Q4A bimetallic strip bends when heated because:

  1. AOne metal melts
  2. BThe two metals expand by different amounts
  3. CThe strip absorbs latent heat
  4. DThe metals contract
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The two metals expand by different amounts

Different expansion rates force the strip to curve, toward the metal that expands less. This is the basis of a simple thermostat.

Q5In E = mcΔθ, Δθ represents:

  1. AThe final temperature
  2. BThe starting temperature
  3. CThe change in temperature
  4. DThe temperature in kelvin
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The change in temperature

The change — subtract the initial from the final before substituting. Using the final temperature alone is the single most common error in this topic.

Q6During melting, the temperature of a substance:

  1. ARises steadily
  2. BFalls
  3. CStays constant
  4. DRises then falls
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays constant

The energy supplied breaks bonds between particles rather than raising their kinetic energy, so the thermometer does not move until all the solid has melted.

Q7Water is used as a coolant in car engines mainly because it:

  1. AIs cheap
  2. BHas a high specific heat capacity
  3. CHas a low boiling point
  4. DExpands when heated
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Has a high specific heat capacity

About 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ means it absorbs a great deal of energy for a small temperature rise. Being cheap and available is a real practical advantage, but not the physics being examined.

Q8Ponds freeze from the surface downward because:

  1. AIce is denser than water
  2. BWater expands between 4 °C and 0 °C, so ice floats
  3. CCold air only touches the top
  4. DThe bottom is insulated by mud
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Water expands between 4 °C and 0 °C, so ice floats

Water is anomalous below 4 °C: it expands as it cools further, so ice is less dense and floats. Cold air does only touch the top, but that alone would not stop the ice sinking once formed.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[5 marks]
An electric heater of power 2.0 kW is used to heat 1.5 kg of water. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the energy needed to raise the temperature of the water from 18 °C to 88 °C.
  2. Calculate the minimum time this would take.
  3. In practice the heater takes longer than your answer to (b). Give one reason.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = mcΔθ with Δθ = 70 °C88 − 18, not 88[1]
  2. E = 1.5 × 4200 × 70 = 4.41 × 10⁵ J[1]
  3. Uses t = E/P with P = 2000 Wconverting kW to W[1]
  4. t = 441000 / 2000 = 220 saccept 220.5 s[1]
  5. Energy is lost to the surroundings / the container is also heatedeither reason accepted[1]

(a) 4.4 × 10⁵ J (b) 220 s (c) heat lost to surroundings

Q2[5 marks]
A student heats a block of ice at −10 °C steadily until it becomes steam. Sketch and describe the shape of the temperature–time graph.
Mark scheme
  1. Temperature rises from −10 °C to 0 °C[1]
  2. Horizontal section at 0 °C while the ice melts[1]
  3. Temperature rises from 0 °C to 100 °C[1]
  4. Longer horizontal section at 100 °C while the water boilsthe boiling plateau must be longer than the melting one[1]
  5. During the flat sections the energy supplied breaks bonds between particles rather than raising kinetic energythe explanation mark[1]
Q3[4 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why a bimetallic strip bends when heated, and state one use for it.
Mark scheme
  1. Heating makes particles vibrate more and push further apart, so each metal expands[1]
  2. The two metals expand by different amounts for the same temperature risethis is the essential point[1]
  3. The strip bends toward the metal that expands less[1]
  4. Used in a thermostat / fire alarm / oven switchany valid use[1]
Q4[2 marks]
Differentiate between heat and temperature.
Answer

Temperature is the average kinetic energy of the particles, measured in °C or K. Heat is the total thermal energy of all the particles, measured in joules, and depends on how many there are.

Q5[2 marks]
Why does a bimetallic strip bend on heating?
Answer

The two metals expand by different amounts for the same temperature rise, so the strip curves toward the metal that expands less.

Q6[2 marks]
Why does the temperature remain constant while ice is melting?
Answer

The energy supplied is used to break the bonds holding the particles in the lattice, not to increase their kinetic energy. Since temperature measures kinetic energy, it does not change.

Q7[5 marks]
Calculate the energy needed to convert 0.20 kg of ice at 0 °C completely into water at 20 °C. Take the specific latent heat of fusion of ice as 3.34 × 10⁵ J kg⁻¹ and the specific heat capacity of water as 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises two stages: melting, then warminga single-stage answer cannot score more than two[1]
  2. Melting: E₁ = mL = 0.20 × 3.34 × 10⁵ = 6.68 × 10⁴ J[1]
  3. Warming: E₂ = mcΔθ = 0.20 × 4200 × 20[1]
  4. E₂ = 1.68 × 10⁴ J[1]
  5. Total = 6.68 × 10⁴ + 1.68 × 10⁴ = 8.36 × 10⁴ Jadding the two stages[1]

8.36 × 10⁴ J

11

Transfer of Thermal Energy

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Which process can transfer thermal energy through a vacuum?

  1. AConduction
  2. BConvection
  3. CRadiation
  4. DAll three
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Radiation

Radiation is electromagnetic and needs no medium. Conduction and convection both require particles, which a vacuum does not have.

Q2Metals conduct heat well mainly because they contain:

  1. AFree electrons
  2. BTrapped air
  3. CConvection currents
  4. DMore protons
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Free electrons

Free electrons carry energy directly through the structure. Vibration alone, which is all a non-metal has, is far slower.

Q3Convection cannot occur in a solid because:

  1. ASolids are too cold
  2. BParticles cannot move past one another
  3. CSolids have no free electrons
  4. DSolids reflect radiation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Particles cannot move past one another

Convection requires the material itself to flow, and a solid lattice holds its particles in fixed positions.

Q4Warm air rises because:

  1. AIt is lighter than gravity
  2. BIt expands, so its density falls
  3. CIt is attracted to the ceiling
  4. DRadiation pushes it up
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It expands, so its density falls

Expansion means the same mass occupies more volume, so density falls and the air floats upward through denser surroundings.

Q5The best emitter of infrared radiation is:

  1. AShiny silver
  2. BMatt black
  3. CClear glass
  4. DPolished white
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Matt black

Matt black is the best emitter and the best absorber. Shiny silver is worst at both and the best reflector.

Q6Cooling fins on an engine are usually painted matt black because black surfaces are good:

  1. AReflectors
  2. BInsulators
  3. CEmitters of radiation
  4. DConductors
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Emitters of radiation

The fins are designed to lose energy, so the best emitter is wanted. Painting them silver would keep the heat in.

Q7Trapped air is used in insulation because it:

  1. AConducts well and cannot convect
  2. BConducts poorly and cannot convect
  3. CRadiates well
  4. DHas free electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Conducts poorly and cannot convect

Gases are poor conductors because their particles are far apart, and trapping the air stops convection currents forming. Both effects are needed.

Q8A tiled floor feels colder than a carpet at the same temperature because tiles:

  1. AAre at a lower temperature
  2. BConduct energy away from the foot faster
  3. CEmit more radiation
  4. DContain more trapped air
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Conduct energy away from the foot faster

Both are at room temperature. The tile conducts energy from the skin more rapidly, and that rate of loss is what is sensed as cold.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[6 marks]
A vacuum flask keeps a hot drink hot for several hours.
  1. Explain how the vacuum between the walls reduces energy loss.
  2. Explain how the silvered surfaces reduce energy loss.
  3. State how the stopper reduces energy loss.
Mark scheme
  1. A vacuum contains no particles[1]
  2. So there is no conduction and no convection through itboth must be named[1]
  3. Silvered surfaces are poor emitters of infrared radiation[1]
  4. And good reflectors, so radiation is reflected back into the liquid[1]
  5. The stopper prevents convection currents / evaporation carrying energy away[1]
  6. And is made of an insulating material, so conduction through the top is small[1]
Q2[4 marks]
A room is heated by a radiator fixed near the floor.
  1. Name the main process by which the whole room becomes warm.
  2. Explain how this process warms air near the ceiling.
Mark scheme
  1. Convection[1]
  2. Air near the radiator is heated and expands[1]
  3. Its density decreases, so it risesthe density step is the mark most often skipped[1]
  4. Cooler denser air sinks to replace it, setting up a convection current[1]
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why a metal handrail feels colder than a wooden one in the same room, even though both are at the same temperature.
Mark scheme
  1. Metal is a much better conductor than wood[1]
  2. It conducts thermal energy away from the hand quickly[1]
  3. The rapid energy loss from the skin is what is sensed as cold — the rail is not actually colderthe point of the question[1]
Q4[2 marks]
Explain why the heating element of an electric kettle is placed at the bottom.
Answer

Water heated at the bottom expands, becomes less dense and rises, while cooler denser water sinks to replace it. This convection current heats the whole kettle.

Q5[2 marks]
Give one reason why houses in hot countries are often painted white.
Answer

A white, shiny surface is a poor absorber and a good reflector of infrared radiation, so less energy is absorbed and the interior stays cooler.

Q6[8 marks]
A solar water heater consists of a matt black metal panel containing water pipes, mounted on a roof and covered by a sheet of glass.
  1. Explain why the panel is painted matt black. [2]
  2. Explain why the panel is made of metal. [2]
  3. Explain how the glass sheet reduces energy loss from the panel. [2]
  4. Explain how the heated water is circulated to a storage tank placed above the panel. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Matt black is the best absorber of infrared radiation[1]
  2. So the panel absorbs as much of the Sun's energy as possible[1]
  3. Metal is a good conductor[1]
  4. So energy passes quickly from the panel surface to the water in the pipes[1]
  5. The glass traps a layer of air above the panel[1]
  6. Preventing convection currents from carrying energy away[1]
  7. Heated water expands, becomes less dense and rises[1]
  8. Cooler denser water from the tank sinks to replace it, forming a convection current[1]
12

Waves

Multiple choice · 6

Q1Which condition defines simple harmonic motion?

  1. AThe object moves in a circle
  2. BThe restoring force is proportional to displacement and directed toward equilibrium
  3. CThe speed is constant
  4. DThe acceleration is constant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The restoring force is proportional to displacement and directed toward equilibrium

F = −kx is the definition. Constant acceleration describes free fall, not SHM — in SHM the acceleration is largest at the extremes and zero at the centre, changing continuously.

Q2You double the amplitude of a mass-spring oscillator. The period:

  1. ADoubles
  2. BHalves
  3. CStays the same
  4. DQuadruples
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays the same

T = 2π√(m/k) contains no amplitude term. A larger swing covers more distance but also moves faster, and the two effects cancel exactly. This property, called isochronism, is what made pendulums useful as clocks.

Q3A wave has frequency 250 Hz and wavelength 1.4 m. Its speed is:

  1. A178 m/s
  2. B350 m/s
  3. C251 m/s
  4. D0.0056 m/s
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 350 m/s

v = fλ = 250 × 1.4 = 350 m/s — close to the speed of sound in air. Note the speed is set by the medium: change the frequency and the wavelength adjusts to keep the product fixed.

Q4Two identical waves meet exactly out of phase (180°). The result is:

  1. ADouble amplitude
  2. BComplete cancellation
  3. CHalf amplitude
  4. DA standing wave
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Complete cancellation

Every crest lands on a trough, and equal-and-opposite displacements sum to zero. The energy is not destroyed — it redistributes to regions where the interference is constructive, which is why interference patterns have bright and dark bands rather than uniform dimness.

Q5In a standing wave on a string, a node is a point that:

  1. AVibrates with maximum amplitude
  2. BNever moves
  3. CMoves along the string
  4. DHas the highest frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Never moves

At a node the two counter-travelling waves are permanently in antiphase, so they cancel there at every instant. The maximum-amplitude points between nodes are antinodes, and node spacing is exactly half a wavelength.

Q6Sound is a longitudinal wave. That means the air molecules:

  1. AMove perpendicular to the wave direction
  2. BOscillate back and forth along the wave direction
  3. CTravel with the wave to your ear
  4. DDo not move at all
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Oscillate back and forth along the wave direction

Longitudinal means the oscillation is parallel to travel — air compresses and rarefies along the line the sound moves. The molecules themselves only jiggle in place; the energy travels, not the air.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define the wavelength and the frequency of a wave.
Answer

Wavelength is the distance between two neighbouring points that are in phase, for example crest to crest. Frequency is the number of complete waves passing a fixed point each second.

Q2[2 marks]
State two differences between transverse and longitudinal waves, and give one example of each.
Answer

In a transverse wave the vibration is perpendicular to the direction of travel, for example light. In a longitudinal wave it is parallel to the direction of travel, for example sound.

Q3[2 marks]
State what happens to the frequency, wavelength and speed of a water wave when it passes into shallower water.
Answer

The frequency stays the same. The speed decreases and, since v = fλ, the wavelength decreases in proportion.

Q4[4 marks]
A wave on a rope has a frequency of 12 Hz. Fifteen complete waves occupy a length of 3.0 m. Calculate the wavelength and the speed of the wave.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses λ = length ÷ number of waves[1]
  2. λ = 3.0 / 15 = 0.20 m[1]
  3. Uses v = fλ[1]
  4. v = 12 × 0.20 = 2.4 m s⁻¹[1]

λ = 0.20 m, v = 2.4 m s⁻¹

Q5[8 marks]
A ripple tank is used to study water waves. A straight barrier with a narrow gap is placed in the tank.
  1. Describe and explain what is observed as the waves pass through the gap. [3]
  2. State and explain what happens to the effect when the gap is made narrower. [2]
  3. The waves have a frequency of 8.0 Hz and a wavelength of 25 mm. Calculate their speed. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The waves spread out after passing through the gap[1]
  2. This is diffraction[1]
  3. The wavelength and frequency are unchanged; only the shape of the wavefront changes[1]
  4. The waves spread out more[1]
  5. Because the gap width is closer to the wavelengthmaximum spreading when gap ≈ λ[1]
  6. Converts 25 mm = 0.025 m[1]
  7. Uses v = fλ[1]
  8. v = 8.0 × 0.025 = 0.20 m s⁻¹[1]

(c) 0.20 m s⁻¹

Q6[7 marks]
A student uses a ripple tank to investigate refraction by placing a flat glass plate on the bottom to make part of the tank shallower.
  1. Describe what happens to the direction of the waves as they cross into the shallow region at an angle. [2]
  2. Explain this change in terms of the speed of the waves. [3]
  3. State what is observed if the waves meet the boundary head-on, and explain why. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The waves change direction at the boundary[1]
  2. They bend towards the normal[1]
  3. The waves travel more slowly in the shallow water[1]
  4. The end of each wavefront entering the shallow region slows first[1]
  5. So the wavefront pivots, changing the direction of travel[1]
  6. The direction does not change[1]
  7. Because the whole wavefront slows at the same instant, so there is nothing to pivot aboutthe wavelength still shortens[1]
13

Sound

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Sound is which type of wave?

  1. ATransverse
  2. BLongitudinal
  3. CElectromagnetic
  4. DStationary
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Longitudinal

The particles oscillate along the direction of travel, producing compressions and rarefactions. Light is the transverse, electromagnetic case.

Q2Sound cannot travel through a vacuum because:

  1. AIt travels too slowly
  2. BThere are no particles to compress
  3. CA vacuum is too cold
  4. DIt is absorbed
Show answer

Correct answer: B — There are no particles to compress

A longitudinal wave needs a medium whose particles can be squeezed together and spread apart. A vacuum has none.

Q3The pitch of a note is determined by its:

  1. AAmplitude
  2. BFrequency
  3. CSpeed
  4. DWavelength in air only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Frequency

Pitch follows frequency; loudness follows amplitude. Swapping the two is the most common error in this topic.

Q4On an oscilloscope, a louder sound produces waves that are:

  1. ACloser together
  2. BFurther apart
  3. CTaller
  4. DShorter
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Taller

Louder means greater amplitude, which shows as taller waves. Spacing shows frequency, and therefore pitch.

Q5Sound travels fastest in:

  1. AAir
  2. BWater
  3. CSteel
  4. DA vacuum
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Steel

Particles in a solid are closest together and strongly bonded, so the disturbance passes on fastest — about 5000 m s⁻¹ in steel.

Q6A person hears an echo 2.0 s after shouting at a cliff 340 m away. The speed of sound is:

  1. A170 m s⁻¹
  2. B340 m s⁻¹
  3. C680 m s⁻¹
  4. D1360 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 340 m s⁻¹

The sound covers 2 × 340 = 680 m in 2.0 s, giving 340 m s⁻¹. Forgetting to double the distance gives 170 and is the mistake the question is set to catch.

Q7Ultrasound is defined as sound with a frequency:

  1. ABelow 20 Hz
  2. BAbove 20 000 Hz
  3. CAbove 340 Hz
  4. DEqual to the speed of sound
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Above 20 000 Hz

It is simply too high in frequency for a human ear to detect. It is not louder or more energetic in any special sense.

Q8Ultrasound is preferred to X-rays for scanning a fetus because it is:

  1. ACheaper
  2. BFaster
  3. CNon-ionising
  4. DHigher energy
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Non-ionising

X-rays are ionising and can damage dividing cells. Ultrasound carries no such risk, which is why it is the standard choice in pregnancy.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[5 marks]
An electric bell is suspended inside a sealed glass jar. The air is slowly pumped out.
  1. State what is observed.
  2. Explain the observation.
  3. State what this shows about sound.
Mark scheme
  1. The sound gets quieter and eventually cannot be heard[1]
  2. The hammer is still seen to strike, so the bell is still vibratingthis detail is a mark — it rules out the bell simply stopping[1]
  3. There are fewer air particles to be compressed and to pass the vibration on[1]
  4. Sound requires a medium to travel through[1]
  5. It cannot travel through a vacuum[1]
Q2[4 marks]
A ship sends an ultrasound pulse vertically downward and receives the reflection from the seabed 0.40 s later. The speed of sound in water is 1500 m s⁻¹. Calculate the depth of the water.
Mark scheme
  1. Total distance travelled = v × t = 1500 × 0.40 = 600 m[1]
  2. Recognises this is the distance down and backthe mark the question exists to test[1]
  3. Depth = 600 / 2[1]
  4. = 300 m[1]

300 m

Q3[4 marks]
Two notes are displayed on an oscilloscope. Note B shows waves that are taller and closer together than note A.
  1. Compare the loudness of the two notes and justify your answer.
  2. Compare the pitch of the two notes and justify your answer.
Mark scheme
  1. B is louder than A[1]
  2. Because it has a larger amplitude[1]
  3. B has a higher pitch than A[1]
  4. Because waves closer together means a higher frequency[1]
Q4[2 marks]
Describe how a compression and a rarefaction are produced by a vibrating loudspeaker cone.
Answer

As the cone moves forward it pushes air particles together, forming a compression. As it moves back the particles spread apart, forming a rarefaction.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why an echo is heard some time after the original sound.
Answer

The sound reflects from a distant hard surface and travels back to the listener. Because sound travels at a finite speed, the reflected sound arrives later than the direct one.

Q6[9 marks]
A student stands between two parallel cliffs and claps once. She hears the first echo after 0.60 s and a second echo after 1.0 s. The speed of sound in air is 340 m s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate her distance from the nearer cliff. [3]
  2. Calculate her distance from the further cliff. [3]
  3. Explain why sound travels faster in water than in air. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Distance travelled by the first echo = 340 × 0.60 = 204 m[1]
  2. Recognises this is there and back[1]
  3. Distance to the nearer cliff = 102 m[1]
  4. Distance travelled by the second echo = 340 × 1.0 = 340 m[1]
  5. Halves it[1]
  6. Distance to the further cliff = 170 m[1]
  7. Particles in water are much closer together than in air[1]
  8. So collisions between them are more frequent[1]
  9. And the vibration is passed on more quickly[1]

(a) 102 m (b) 170 m

14

Light

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The angle of incidence is measured between the incident ray and:

  1. AThe surface
  2. BThe normal
  3. CThe reflected ray
  4. DThe refracted ray
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The normal

Always the normal. Measuring from the surface gives 90° minus the correct value and scores nothing.

Q2Light bends toward the normal when it enters glass from air because it:

  1. ASpeeds up
  2. BSlows down
  3. CChanges frequency
  4. DIs reflected
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Slows down

Glass is optically denser, so light travels more slowly in it, and the ray bends toward the normal. Frequency is unchanged throughout.

Q3During refraction, which quantity does NOT change?

  1. ASpeed
  2. BWavelength
  3. CFrequency
  4. DDirection
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Frequency

Frequency is fixed by the source. Speed and wavelength change together so that v = fλ still holds.

Q4The image in a plane mirror is:

  1. AReal and inverted
  2. BVirtual and upright
  3. CReal and magnified
  4. DVirtual and inverted
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Virtual and upright

Rays only appear to come from behind the mirror, so the image is virtual, and it is upright and the same size — though laterally inverted.

Q5Total internal reflection requires that light travels:

  1. AFrom less dense to denser, below the critical angle
  2. BFrom denser to less dense, above the critical angle
  3. CThrough a vacuum
  4. DAt exactly the critical angle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — From denser to less dense, above the critical angle

Both conditions are needed. Going from less dense to denser, the ray always refracts and can never be totally internally reflected.

Q6For glass of refractive index 1.5, the critical angle is about:

  1. A30°
  2. B42°
  3. C48°
  4. D60°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 42°

sin c = 1/n = 0.667, so c ≈ 42°. The 48° answer comes from taking the complement, which is measuring from the surface again.

Q7A converging lens is used as a magnifying glass. The object must be:

  1. ABeyond 2F
  2. BAt 2F
  3. CBetween F and 2F
  4. DCloser than F
Show answer

Correct answer: D — Closer than F

Only inside the focal length does a converging lens give a virtual, upright, magnified image. Every other position gives a real, inverted one.

Q8Which image can be projected onto a screen?

  1. AA virtual image
  2. BA real image
  3. CBoth
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A real image

A real image forms where light rays actually converge, so a screen placed there catches it. Virtual images have no rays at the image position.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[6 marks]
A ray of light passes from air into a glass block of refractive index 1.50, striking the surface at an angle of incidence of 40°.
  1. Calculate the angle of refraction.
  2. Calculate the critical angle for this glass.
  3. State the two conditions required for total internal reflection.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses n = sin i / sin r[1]
  2. sin r = sin 40° / 1.50 = 0.643 / 1.50 = 0.4285[1]
  3. r = 25.4°accept 25°[1]
  4. Uses sin c = 1/n = 1/1.50 = 0.667, giving c = 41.8°accept 42°[1]
  5. Light must travel from a denser to a less dense medium[1]
  6. The angle of incidence must exceed the critical angleboth conditions needed[1]

(a) 25.4° (b) 41.8° (c) denser → less dense, and i > c

Q2[4 marks]
Explain how an optical fibre carries light around a bend without the light escaping.
Mark scheme
  1. Light strikes the boundary between the core and the cladding[1]
  2. The core is optically denser than the cladding[1]
  3. The angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle[1]
  4. So total internal reflection occurs, repeatedly, and the light follows the fibre[1]
Q3[4 marks]
An object is placed 15 cm from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm.
  1. State whether the image is real or virtual, and whether it is upright or inverted.
  2. State one device that uses a lens in this way.
  3. State what happens to the image if the object is moved to 5 cm from the lens.
Mark scheme
  1. Real and invertedthe object lies between F and 2F[1]
  2. It is also magnified[1]
  3. A projector (or a film projector / slide projector)[1]
  4. At 5 cm the object is inside F, so the image becomes virtual, upright and magnifieda magnifying glass[1]

(a) real, inverted, magnified (b) projector (c) becomes virtual, upright and magnified

Q4[2 marks]
State two differences between a real image and a virtual image.
Answer

A real image is formed where light rays actually meet and can be caught on a screen. A virtual image is formed where rays only appear to come from and cannot be projected.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why a straw in a glass of water appears bent at the surface.
Answer

Light from the submerged part refracts as it leaves the water and enters the air, bending away from the normal. The eye assumes light travels in straight lines, so the straw appears displaced.

Q6[9 marks]
A ray of light travels from water of refractive index 1.33 toward the water–air surface.
  1. Calculate the critical angle for the water–air boundary. [3]
  2. The ray meets the surface at an angle of incidence of 60°. State and explain what happens to it. [3]
  3. Explain how an optical fibre uses this effect to carry a signal, and give one advantage of optical fibres over copper wires. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses sin c = 1/n[1]
  2. sin c = 1/1.33 = 0.752[1]
  3. c = 48.8°accept 49°[1]
  4. Total internal reflection occurs[1]
  5. Because 60° is greater than the critical angle of 48.8°[1]
  6. And the light is travelling from the denser medium to the less dense oneboth conditions[1]
  7. Light repeatedly totally internally reflects at the core–cladding boundary, so it follows the fibre even around bends[1]
  8. Advantage: much higher data capacity / less signal loss over distance / no electrical interferenceany one[1]
  9. Second valid point about the mechanism or the advantage[1]

(a) 48.8° (b) total internal reflection (c) repeated TIR at the core–cladding boundary

15

Electrostatics

Multiple choice · 6

Q1The separation between two point charges is tripled. The force between them becomes:

  1. AOne third
  2. BOne sixth
  3. COne ninth
  4. DThree times larger
Show answer

Correct answer: C — One ninth

F ∝ 1/r², so tripling r divides the force by 3² = 9. Answer A is the trap for anyone who treats it as a simple inverse rather than an inverse square.

Q2Electric field lines can never cross because:

  1. AThey would cancel out
  2. BThe field would have two directions at one point, which is meaningless
  3. CCharges would be destroyed
  4. DIt would violate conservation of energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The field would have two directions at one point, which is meaningless

The field at a point has one definite direction — the direction of the force on a positive test charge there. Two crossing lines would assign it two directions at once, which is a contradiction rather than a physical possibility.

Q3Which quantity is a scalar?

  1. AElectric field strength
  2. BElectric potential
  3. CElectrostatic force
  4. DDisplacement of a charge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Electric potential

Potential is energy per unit charge — a plain number, which is exactly why potentials from several charges can be added arithmetically. Field strength and force both carry direction and need vector addition.

Q4Two identical positive charges are held a fixed distance apart. At the midpoint between them, the electric field is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BZero
  3. CHalf of its value at either charge
  4. DDirected toward the nearer charge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The two fields at the midpoint are equal in size and opposite in direction, so they cancel exactly. Note that the potential at that same point is not zero — it is the sum of two positive numbers, which is a distinction examiners like to probe.

Q5A charge of 2 μC is placed in a uniform field of 500 N C⁻¹. The force on it is:

  1. A1 × 10⁻³ N
  2. B250 N
  3. C1000 N
  4. D2.5 × 10⁻³ N
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 × 10⁻³ N

F = qE = 2 × 10⁻⁶ × 500 = 1 × 10⁻³ N. The commonest error is mishandling the micro prefix — μ means 10⁻⁶, so 2 μC is a very small charge and the resulting force is correspondingly small.

Q6Charge is described as "quantised". This means:

  1. ACharge can take any value
  2. BCharge exists only in whole multiples of the elementary charge e
  3. CCharge is always conserved
  4. DCharge decreases with distance
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Charge exists only in whole multiples of the elementary charge e

Quantisation is about coming in indivisible lumps of e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C. Conservation is a separate and equally important principle — both are true, but the question asks specifically about quantisation.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of electrons, how a polythene rod becomes negatively charged when rubbed with a cloth.
Answer

Electrons are transferred from the cloth onto the rod. The rod gains electrons and becomes negative; the cloth is left with a positive charge.

Q2[2 marks]
State what is meant by an electric field and how its direction is defined.
Answer

A region in which a charge experiences a force. The direction of the field is the direction of the force on a small positive test charge.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why a charged rod attracts small uncharged pieces of paper.
Answer

The rod induces a separation of charge in the paper, drawing the opposite charge to the near side. That near charge is closer to the rod, so its attraction outweighs the repulsion of the far side.

Q4[4 marks]
A potential difference of 5000 V is applied across two parallel plates separated by 25 mm. Calculate the electric field strength between them, and the force on a charge of 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ C placed in that field.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts 25 mm = 0.025 m[1]
  2. Uses E = V/d = 5000 / 0.025[1]
  3. E = 2.0 × 10⁵ V m⁻¹[1]
  4. F = QE = 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 2.0 × 10⁵ = 6.4 × 10⁻¹⁴ N[1]

E = 2.0 × 10⁵ V m⁻¹, F = 6.4 × 10⁻¹⁴ N

Q5[8 marks]
A fuel tanker is fitted with a conducting strip that touches the ground, and is earthed with a metal wire before fuel is transferred.
  1. Explain how charge builds up on the tanker as it drives. [2]
  2. Explain why this build-up is dangerous during refuelling. [3]
  3. Explain how earthing the tanker removes the danger. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Friction between the tanker and the air, and between the fuel and the tank walls, transfers electrons[1]
  2. The tanker is insulated by its rubber tyres, so the charge cannot escape and accumulates[1]
  3. The charge raises the potential of the tanker[1]
  4. Eventually a spark jumps to a nearby earthed object[1]
  5. The spark could ignite the fuel vapour and cause an explosion[1]
  6. The wire provides a conducting path to earth[1]
  7. Electrons flow along it until the tanker is at the same potential as the earth[1]
  8. So charge leaks away steadily instead of building to a spark[1]
Q6[6 marks]
Two parallel metal plates are connected to a high-voltage supply, the upper plate positive.
  1. Describe the pattern of the field lines between the plates, away from the edges. [2]
  2. A small negatively charged oil drop is placed between the plates. State the direction of the electric force on it and explain your answer. [2]
  3. State two changes that would increase the force on the drop. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The lines are parallel and equally spaced, showing a uniform field[1]
  2. They run from the positive plate to the negative plate[1]
  3. The force is upward, towards the positive plate[1]
  4. Because the drop is negative, so the force is opposite to the field direction[1]
  5. Increase the potential difference across the plates[1]
  6. Move the plates closer together, or increase the charge on the dropany one[1]

(b) upward, towards the positive plate

16

Electricity

Multiple choice · 6

Q1A 12 V supply drives 0.5 A through a resistor. What is its resistance?

  1. A6 Ω
  2. B24 Ω
  3. C12.5 Ω
  4. D0.042 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 24 Ω

Rearrange V = IR to R = V/I = 12 / 0.5 = 24 Ω. Sanity check with power: P = VI = 6 W, and I²R = 0.25 × 24 = 6 W. Consistent.

Q2Two 10 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. The total resistance is:

  1. A20 Ω
  2. B10 Ω
  3. C5 Ω
  4. D0.2 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5 Ω

1/R = 1/10 + 1/10 = 2/10, so R = 5 Ω. Identical resistors in parallel always halve. Adding a second path makes it easier for charge to flow, so total resistance must fall below either individual value.

Q3In a series circuit, which quantity is the same through every component?

  1. AVoltage
  2. BCurrent
  3. CResistance
  4. DPower
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Current

One path means charge has nowhere else to go, so the current is identical everywhere. It is the voltage that divides, in proportion to each resistance. In parallel the situation is exactly reversed.

Q4Why are household appliances wired in parallel?

  1. AIt uses less copper
  2. BEach gets the full supply voltage and can be switched independently
  3. CIt reduces the total current
  4. DSeries wiring is illegal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Each gets the full supply voltage and can be switched independently

Parallel branches all sit across the full mains voltage, so every appliance works at its rated value and one failure does not break the others' circuit. It does increase total current, which is why the circuit is protected by a breaker.

Q5Electric field lines never cross. Why?

  1. AThey would break the inverse square law
  2. BAt a crossing point the field would need two directions at once, which is impossible
  3. CCrossing lines cancel to zero
  4. DThey do cross for like charges
Show answer

Correct answer: B — At a crossing point the field would need two directions at once, which is impossible

The field at any point has one definite direction — the direction a positive test charge would be pushed. Two lines crossing would specify two different directions at the same place, which is a contradiction.

Q6You double the distance from a point charge. The field strength becomes:

  1. AHalf
  2. BA quarter
  3. CDouble
  4. DUnchanged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A quarter

E = kQ/r² is an inverse square law. Doubling r multiplies the denominator by 4, so E drops to one quarter. Geometrically the same field lines are spread over four times the surface area.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define electric current and state its unit.
Answer

The rate of flow of electric charge, I = Q/t. Its unit is the ampere (A), where one ampere is one coulomb per second.

Q2[2 marks]
State Ohm's law and the condition under which it holds.
Answer

The current through a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across it, provided the temperature stays constant.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why the resistance of a metal wire increases as it gets hotter.
Answer

The metal ions vibrate more strongly, so the moving electrons collide with them more often. Each collision impedes the flow, so the resistance rises.

Q4[5 marks]
A wire of length 2.0 m and cross-sectional area 0.50 mm² has a resistance of 0.068 Ω. Calculate the resistivity of the metal, and state the resistance of a 4.0 m length of the same wire.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts the area: 0.50 mm² = 0.50 × 10⁻⁶ m²the step most often dropped[1]
  2. Uses ρ = RA/L[1]
  3. ρ = (0.068 × 0.50 × 10⁻⁶) / 2.0[1]
  4. ρ = 1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ω mcopper[1]
  5. Doubling the length doubles the resistance: 0.136 Ω[1]

ρ = 1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ω m; R = 0.14 Ω

Q5[8 marks]
A student connects a 6.0 V battery to a filament lamp and records the current for a range of potential differences.
  1. Sketch and describe the shape of the I–V graph obtained. [3]
  2. Explain the shape in terms of what happens inside the filament. [3]
  3. At 6.0 V the current is 0.50 A. Calculate the resistance and the power at that point. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The graph passes through the origin[1]
  2. It is a straight line at low potential difference[1]
  3. It then curves towards the V axis, so the gradient falls[1]
  4. A larger current heats the filament[1]
  5. The ions vibrate more and the electrons collide with them more often[1]
  6. So the resistance increases and the current no longer rises in proportion[1]
  7. R = V/I = 6.0 / 0.50 = 12 Ω[1]
  8. P = VI = 6.0 × 0.50 = 3.0 W[1]

(c) 12 Ω and 3.0 W

Q6[7 marks]
A 9.0 V supply is connected in series with a 20 Ω resistor and a thermistor. At room temperature the thermistor has a resistance of 25 Ω.
  1. Calculate the current in the circuit at room temperature. [3]
  2. Calculate the potential difference across the thermistor. [2]
  3. State and explain what happens to that potential difference as the thermistor is warmed. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Total resistance = 20 + 25 = 45 Ω[1]
  2. Uses I = V/R[1]
  3. I = 9.0 / 45 = 0.20 A[1]
  4. Uses V = IR for the thermistor[1]
  5. V = 0.20 × 25 = 5.0 V[1]
  6. The potential difference across the thermistor decreases[1]
  7. Its resistance falls as it warms, so it takes a smaller share of the supply voltage[1]

(a) 0.20 A (b) 5.0 V (c) it falls

17

Electromagnetism

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Fleming's left-hand rule gives the direction of:

  1. AThe induced current in a generator
  2. BThe force on a current-carrying conductor
  3. CThe magnetic field around a wire
  4. DThe current in a transformer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The force on a current-carrying conductor

Left hand for the motor effect — the force. The right hand is used for the generator effect and the induced current.

Q2The force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field is zero when the current is:

  1. APerpendicular to the field
  2. BParallel to the field
  3. CAlternating
  4. DVery large
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Parallel to the field

A wire lying along the field lines experiences no force at all. The force is greatest at right angles.

Q3A split-ring commutator is used in a d.c. motor to:

  1. AIncrease the voltage
  2. BReverse the current every half turn
  3. CReduce friction
  4. DInduce an e.m.f.
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Reverse the current every half turn

Without it the coil would turn half a revolution and then be pushed back, so it would oscillate rather than rotate.

Q4A magnet is held stationary inside a coil. The induced e.m.f. is:

  1. ALarge
  2. BSmall but not zero
  3. CZero
  4. DAlternating
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Zero

Induction requires a changing magnetic field. A stationary magnet produces no change, however strong it is.

Q5Which of these would NOT increase the e.m.f. induced in a coil?

  1. AMoving the magnet faster
  2. BUsing more turns
  3. CUsing a stronger magnet
  4. DHolding the magnet closer without moving it
Show answer

Correct answer: D — Holding the magnet closer without moving it

Proximity without motion changes nothing over time, and only change induces an e.m.f. The other three all increase the rate of change of field.

Q6A transformer has 100 primary turns and 400 secondary turns. A 20 V a.c. input gives an output of:

  1. A5 V
  2. B20 V
  3. C80 V
  4. D400 V
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 80 V

V_s = 20 × 400/100 = 80 V. Four times the turns gives four times the voltage — a step-up transformer.

Q7Transformers do not work on direct current because d.c. produces:

  1. AToo much heat
  2. BA constant magnetic field
  3. CNo magnetic field
  4. DToo high a voltage
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A constant magnetic field

D.C. does produce a field — but a steady one. With no change there is no induction in the secondary coil.

Q8Electricity is transmitted at high voltage mainly to reduce:

  1. AThe cost of cables
  2. BEnergy lost as heat in the cables
  3. CThe risk of lightning
  4. DThe number of transformers needed
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Energy lost as heat in the cables

Higher voltage means lower current for the same power, and loss is I²R — so the saving is proportional to the square of the current reduction.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[6 marks]
A transformer has 200 turns on its primary coil and 5000 turns on its secondary. The primary is connected to a 230 V alternating supply.
  1. Calculate the secondary voltage.
  2. State whether this is a step-up or step-down transformer.
  3. Explain why the transformer would not work on a direct current supply.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses V_s/V_p = N_s/N_p[1]
  2. V_s = 230 × 5000/200[1]
  3. V_s = 5750 V[1]
  4. Step-upmore turns on the secondary[1]
  5. Direct current produces a constant magnetic field in the core[1]
  6. A changing field is required to induce an e.m.f., so nothing is induced in the secondarythe word "changing" is the mark[1]

(a) 5750 V (b) step-up (c) d.c. gives a constant field, and induction needs a changing one

Q2[5 marks]
A student moves a bar magnet into a coil connected to a sensitive centre-zero meter.
  1. State what is observed on the meter.
  2. State two changes that would increase the reading.
  3. State what happens if the magnet is held stationary inside the coil, and explain why.
Mark scheme
  1. The needle deflects to one side while the magnet is moving[1]
  2. Move the magnet faster[1]
  3. Use a stronger magnet, or a coil with more turnsany second valid change[1]
  4. The needle returns to zero — no deflection[1]
  5. There is no change in the magnetic field through the coil, and induction requires a change[1]
Q3[4 marks]
Explain why electrical energy is transmitted across the country at very high voltage, and state the role of transformers at each end.
Mark scheme
  1. For a given power, a higher voltage means a smaller currentfrom P = VI[1]
  2. Power lost as heat in the cables is I²R, so a smaller current wastes much less energythe I² is the key point[1]
  3. A step-up transformer raises the voltage at the power station[1]
  4. A step-down transformer lowers it again for safe use in homes[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State two ways of increasing the speed of a simple d.c. motor.
Answer

Increase the current through the coil, or use a stronger magnetic field. (Also acceptable: increase the number of turns on the coil.)

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why a transformer core is made of soft iron.
Answer

Soft iron is easily magnetised and demagnetised, so it follows the rapidly alternating field of the primary and carries the changing flux efficiently to the secondary.

Q6[9 marks]
A power station generates 20 MW of electrical power at 25 kV. This is transmitted through cables of total resistance 4.0 Ω.
  1. Calculate the current in the cables if the power is transmitted at 25 kV. [2]
  2. Calculate the power lost as heat in the cables at this voltage. [2]
  3. A transformer steps the voltage up to 400 kV. Calculate the new current and the new power loss. [4]
  4. State the turns ratio of the transformer used. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses I = P/V = 20 × 10⁶ / 25 × 10³[1]
  2. I = 800 A[1]
  3. Uses P = I²R = 800² × 4.0[1]
  4. = 2.56 × 10⁶ W = 2.56 MWnearly 13% of the output[1]
  5. New current = 20 × 10⁶ / 400 × 10³ = 50 A[1]
  6. New loss = 50² × 4.0[1]
  7. = 1.0 × 10⁴ W = 10 kW[1]
  8. A reduction by a factor of 256, because the current fell by 16 and the loss depends on I²the point of the question[1]
  9. Turns ratio N_s : N_p = 400 : 25 = 16 : 1[1]

(a) 800 A (b) 2.56 MW (c) 50 A and 10 kW (d) 16 : 1

18

Electromagnetic Induction and Electromagnetic Waves

Multiple choice · 16

Q1Fleming's left-hand rule gives the direction of:

  1. AThe induced current in a generator
  2. BThe force on a current-carrying conductor
  3. CThe magnetic field around a wire
  4. DThe current in a transformer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The force on a current-carrying conductor

Left hand for the motor effect — the force. The right hand is used for the generator effect and the induced current.

Q2The force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field is zero when the current is:

  1. APerpendicular to the field
  2. BParallel to the field
  3. CAlternating
  4. DVery large
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Parallel to the field

A wire lying along the field lines experiences no force at all. The force is greatest at right angles.

Q3A split-ring commutator is used in a d.c. motor to:

  1. AIncrease the voltage
  2. BReverse the current every half turn
  3. CReduce friction
  4. DInduce an e.m.f.
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Reverse the current every half turn

Without it the coil would turn half a revolution and then be pushed back, so it would oscillate rather than rotate.

Q4A magnet is held stationary inside a coil. The induced e.m.f. is:

  1. ALarge
  2. BSmall but not zero
  3. CZero
  4. DAlternating
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Zero

Induction requires a changing magnetic field. A stationary magnet produces no change, however strong it is.

Q5Which of these would NOT increase the e.m.f. induced in a coil?

  1. AMoving the magnet faster
  2. BUsing more turns
  3. CUsing a stronger magnet
  4. DHolding the magnet closer without moving it
Show answer

Correct answer: D — Holding the magnet closer without moving it

Proximity without motion changes nothing over time, and only change induces an e.m.f. The other three all increase the rate of change of field.

Q6A transformer has 100 primary turns and 400 secondary turns. A 20 V a.c. input gives an output of:

  1. A5 V
  2. B20 V
  3. C80 V
  4. D400 V
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 80 V

V_s = 20 × 400/100 = 80 V. Four times the turns gives four times the voltage — a step-up transformer.

Q7Transformers do not work on direct current because d.c. produces:

  1. AToo much heat
  2. BA constant magnetic field
  3. CNo magnetic field
  4. DToo high a voltage
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A constant magnetic field

D.C. does produce a field — but a steady one. With no change there is no induction in the secondary coil.

Q8Electricity is transmitted at high voltage mainly to reduce:

  1. AThe cost of cables
  2. BEnergy lost as heat in the cables
  3. CThe risk of lightning
  4. DThe number of transformers needed
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Energy lost as heat in the cables

Higher voltage means lower current for the same power, and loss is I²R — so the saving is proportional to the square of the current reduction.

Q9All electromagnetic waves in a vacuum travel at:

  1. A340 m s⁻¹
  2. B3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹
  3. CDifferent speeds depending on frequency
  4. D1500 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹

The speed is the same for every region of the spectrum. 340 m s⁻¹ is the speed of sound in air, which is not an electromagnetic wave at all.

Q10Which has the longest wavelength?

  1. AGamma rays
  2. BRadio waves
  3. CUltraviolet
  4. DX-rays
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Radio waves

Radio waves sit at the long-wavelength, low-frequency end. Gamma rays are at the opposite extreme.

Q11Which region lies between infrared and ultraviolet?

  1. AMicrowaves
  2. BVisible light
  3. CX-rays
  4. DRadio waves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Visible light

The order is radio, microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-ray, gamma — so visible light sits exactly between them.

Q12Ionising radiation begins at:

  1. AInfrared
  2. BVisible light
  3. CUltraviolet
  4. DMicrowaves
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Ultraviolet

From ultraviolet upward the photon energy is enough to remove electrons from atoms. That is the boundary at which cell damage becomes possible.

Q13Which electromagnetic waves are used in thermal imaging cameras?

  1. AUltraviolet
  2. BInfrared
  3. CX-rays
  4. DRadio waves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Infrared

All warm objects emit infrared, so a camera detecting it can see people and heat leaks in complete darkness.

Q14A wave has frequency 1.0 × 10¹⁵ Hz. Its wavelength is:

  1. A3.0 × 10⁻⁷ m
  2. B3.0 × 10²³ m
  3. C3.3 × 10⁶ m
  4. D3.0 × 10⁸ m
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 3.0 × 10⁻⁷ m

λ = c/f = 3.0 × 10⁸ ÷ 1.0 × 10¹⁵ = 3.0 × 10⁻⁷ m, which is 300 nm — ultraviolet. Multiplying instead of dividing gives the absurd second answer.

Q15X-rays produce an image of bone because they are:

  1. AReflected by bone
  2. BAbsorbed by bone but transmitted by soft tissue
  3. CEmitted by bone
  4. DRefracted by bone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Absorbed by bone but transmitted by soft tissue

The denser bone absorbs them, leaving a shadow on the detector while soft tissue lets them through.

Q16Compared with visible light, ultraviolet has:

  1. ALower frequency and less energy
  2. BHigher frequency and more energy
  3. CThe same frequency
  4. DA longer wavelength
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Higher frequency and more energy

Ultraviolet sits just beyond violet, at higher frequency and shorter wavelength, so each photon carries more energy — which is why it can cause sunburn and light cannot.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[6 marks]
A transformer has 200 turns on its primary coil and 5000 turns on its secondary. The primary is connected to a 230 V alternating supply.
  1. Calculate the secondary voltage.
  2. State whether this is a step-up or step-down transformer.
  3. Explain why the transformer would not work on a direct current supply.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses V_s/V_p = N_s/N_p[1]
  2. V_s = 230 × 5000/200[1]
  3. V_s = 5750 V[1]
  4. Step-upmore turns on the secondary[1]
  5. Direct current produces a constant magnetic field in the core[1]
  6. A changing field is required to induce an e.m.f., so nothing is induced in the secondarythe word "changing" is the mark[1]

(a) 5750 V (b) step-up (c) d.c. gives a constant field, and induction needs a changing one

Q2[5 marks]
A student moves a bar magnet into a coil connected to a sensitive centre-zero meter.
  1. State what is observed on the meter.
  2. State two changes that would increase the reading.
  3. State what happens if the magnet is held stationary inside the coil, and explain why.
Mark scheme
  1. The needle deflects to one side while the magnet is moving[1]
  2. Move the magnet faster[1]
  3. Use a stronger magnet, or a coil with more turnsany second valid change[1]
  4. The needle returns to zero — no deflection[1]
  5. There is no change in the magnetic field through the coil, and induction requires a change[1]
Q3[4 marks]
Explain why electrical energy is transmitted across the country at very high voltage, and state the role of transformers at each end.
Mark scheme
  1. For a given power, a higher voltage means a smaller currentfrom P = VI[1]
  2. Power lost as heat in the cables is I²R, so a smaller current wastes much less energythe I² is the key point[1]
  3. A step-up transformer raises the voltage at the power station[1]
  4. A step-down transformer lowers it again for safe use in homes[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State two ways of increasing the speed of a simple d.c. motor.
Answer

Increase the current through the coil, or use a stronger magnetic field. (Also acceptable: increase the number of turns on the coil.)

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why a transformer core is made of soft iron.
Answer

Soft iron is easily magnetised and demagnetised, so it follows the rapidly alternating field of the primary and carries the changing flux efficiently to the secondary.

Q6[9 marks]
A power station generates 20 MW of electrical power at 25 kV. This is transmitted through cables of total resistance 4.0 Ω.
  1. Calculate the current in the cables if the power is transmitted at 25 kV. [2]
  2. Calculate the power lost as heat in the cables at this voltage. [2]
  3. A transformer steps the voltage up to 400 kV. Calculate the new current and the new power loss. [4]
  4. State the turns ratio of the transformer used. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses I = P/V = 20 × 10⁶ / 25 × 10³[1]
  2. I = 800 A[1]
  3. Uses P = I²R = 800² × 4.0[1]
  4. = 2.56 × 10⁶ W = 2.56 MWnearly 13% of the output[1]
  5. New current = 20 × 10⁶ / 400 × 10³ = 50 A[1]
  6. New loss = 50² × 4.0[1]
  7. = 1.0 × 10⁴ W = 10 kW[1]
  8. A reduction by a factor of 256, because the current fell by 16 and the loss depends on I²the point of the question[1]
  9. Turns ratio N_s : N_p = 400 : 25 = 16 : 1[1]

(a) 800 A (b) 2.56 MW (c) 50 A and 10 kW (d) 16 : 1

Q7[5 marks]
The electromagnetic spectrum is divided into seven regions.
  1. List the regions in order of increasing frequency.
  2. State the speed of all electromagnetic waves in a vacuum.
  3. Explain why gamma rays are more dangerous to living cells than radio waves.
Mark scheme
  1. Radio, microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-ray, gammatwo marks for the full correct order; one for a mostly correct order[2]
  2. 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹[1]
  3. Gamma rays have a much higher frequency, so each photon carries much more energy[1]
  4. They are ionising — able to remove electrons from atoms, which can damage or mutate cellsthe word "ionising" is what the mark scheme looks for[1]

Order as listed; 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹; gamma is ionising because of its far higher photon energy

Q8[3 marks]
A radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 96.0 MHz. Calculate the wavelength of the waves. Take c = 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts MHz to Hz: 96.0 × 10⁶ = 9.60 × 10⁷ Hzthe prefix is where this question is won or lost[1]
  2. Rearranges c = fλ to λ = c/f[1]
  3. λ = 3.0 × 10⁸ / 9.60 × 10⁷ = 3.1 m[1]

3.1 m

Q9[4 marks]
State one use and one danger for each of infrared and ultraviolet radiation.
Mark scheme
  1. Infrared use: remote controls / thermal imaging / heatersany one[1]
  2. Infrared danger: skin burns[1]
  3. Ultraviolet use: sterilising / security marking / detecting forgeriesany one[1]
  4. Ultraviolet danger: skin cancer / eye damage[1]
Q10[2 marks]
State two properties common to all electromagnetic waves.
Answer

They are all transverse waves, and they all travel at 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹ in a vacuum. (Also acceptable: none requires a medium; all carry energy.)

Q11[2 marks]
Explain why microwaves rather than infrared are used for satellite communication.
Answer

Microwaves pass through the atmosphere with little absorption, so the signal reaches the satellite and returns. Infrared is strongly absorbed by the atmosphere.

Q12[8 marks]
A hospital uses several parts of the electromagnetic spectrum.
  1. Explain why X-rays produce a useful image of a broken bone. [2]
  2. Explain why gamma rays can be used to treat a tumour but must be carefully targeted. [3]
  3. Explain why ultraviolet is used to sterilise equipment, and state one precaution staff must take. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. X-rays pass through soft tissue but are absorbed by the denser bone[1]
  2. Producing a shadow image on the detector[1]
  3. Gamma rays are ionising and can kill living cells[1]
  4. A focused beam destroys the tumour cells[1]
  5. But healthy cells would also be damaged or mutated, so exposure elsewhere must be minimised[1]
  6. Ultraviolet is ionising enough to kill bacteria[1]
  7. So it sterilises surfaces and instruments[1]
  8. Staff must wear eye protection / avoid skin exposure, since UV causes eye damage and skin cancer[1]
19

Electronics

Multiple choice · 16

Q1In a series circuit, the current is:

  1. ALargest near the battery
  2. BThe same at every point
  3. CDivided between components
  4. DZero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The same at every point

There is only one path, so the same charge passes every point each second. It is potential difference that divides in series.

Q2Two 6 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. The total resistance is:

  1. A12 Ω
  2. B6 Ω
  3. C3 Ω
  4. D0.33 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 3 Ω

1/R = 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/3, so R = 3 Ω. Two identical resistors in parallel always halve. The 0.33 answer is 1/R left un-inverted.

Q3Adding another resistor in parallel to a circuit causes the total resistance to:

  1. AIncrease
  2. BDecrease
  3. CStay the same
  4. DBecome zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decrease

Each new branch is an extra route for current, so more current flows for the same voltage — which means less resistance overall.

Q4In a parallel circuit, the potential difference across each branch is:

  1. ADivided equally
  2. BThe same
  3. CProportional to resistance
  4. DZero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The same

Every branch connects the same two points, so each has the full supply voltage across it. It is the current that divides.

Q5As a thermistor gets hotter, its resistance:

  1. AIncreases
  2. BDecreases
  3. CStays constant
  4. DBecomes infinite
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decreases

Thermistors and LDRs both decrease in resistance as their stimulus increases — a fact worth learning as a pair.

Q6A 12 V supply is across a 4 Ω and an 8 Ω resistor in series. The p.d. across the 8 Ω resistor is:

  1. A4 V
  2. B6 V
  3. C8 V
  4. D12 V
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 8 V

Total resistance 12 Ω, so I = 1 A, and V = 1 × 8 = 8 V. The two resistors share the 12 V in the ratio 4 : 8.

Q7A diode is used in a circuit to:

  1. AStore charge
  2. BAllow current in one direction only
  3. CIncrease resistance with light
  4. DMeasure current
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Allow current in one direction only

That one-way behaviour is what allows alternating current to be converted into direct current.

Q8One lamp in a parallel lighting circuit fails. The others:

  1. AAll go out
  2. BContinue to work
  3. CBecome brighter and burn out
  4. DReverse polarity
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Continue to work

Each branch is an independent path, so a break in one leaves the others complete. This is the main reason houses are wired in parallel.

Q9What happens to the resistance of a semiconductor as its temperature rises?

  1. AIt increases
  2. BIt decreases
  3. CIt stays the same
  4. DIt falls to zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It decreases

Heating frees more charge carriers, so more current can flow. A metal does the opposite, because its carrier count is fixed and the ions vibrate more.

Q10In n-type silicon, the majority charge carriers are:

  1. AHoles
  2. BProtons
  3. CFree electrons
  4. DNeutrons
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Free electrons

The added element has five outer electrons, leaving one spare per atom. The n stands for the negative carriers.

Q11A diode conducts when:

  1. AIt is reverse biased
  2. BIt is forward biased above about 0.7 V
  3. CThe temperature is low
  4. DEither way round
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It is forward biased above about 0.7 V

Forward bias narrows the depletion layer, but the applied voltage must still exceed roughly 0.7 V for silicon before current flows.

Q12Passing a.c. through a single diode produces:

  1. AFull-wave rectification
  2. BHalf-wave rectification
  3. CAmplification
  4. DNo output at all
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Half-wave rectification

Only the halves of the cycle in the forward direction get through. Full-wave rectification needs four diodes in a bridge.

Q13A transistor switches on when the base voltage exceeds roughly:

  1. A0.06 V
  2. B0.6 V
  3. C6 V
  4. D60 V
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0.6 V

About 0.6 V for a silicon transistor. Below that essentially no collector current flows.

Q14An AND gate outputs 1 when:

  1. AEither input is 1
  2. BBoth inputs are 1
  3. CBoth inputs are 0
  4. DThe inputs differ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Both inputs are 1

Only the 1,1 row gives output 1. "Either" would describe an OR gate; "differ" describes XOR.

Q15The output of a NOR gate is 1 only when:

  1. ABoth inputs are 1
  2. BBoth inputs are 0
  3. COne input is 1
  4. DNever
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Both inputs are 0

NOR is OR followed by NOT. OR gives 0 only for 0,0, so inverting makes that the single row where NOR gives 1.

Q16An alarm must sound if either of two sensors triggers. Which gate is needed?

  1. AAND
  2. BOR
  3. CNOT
  4. DNAND
Show answer

Correct answer: B — OR

The word "either" means one input being 1 is enough. An AND gate would fail to warn when only one sensor detected the danger.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[6 marks]
A 9.0 V battery is connected to a 3.0 Ω resistor in series with two resistors of 8.0 Ω and 8.0 Ω which are in parallel with each other.
  1. Calculate the resistance of the parallel combination.
  2. Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.
  3. Calculate the current drawn from the battery.
  4. Calculate the potential difference across the 3.0 Ω resistor.
Mark scheme
  1. 1/R = 1/8.0 + 1/8.0 = 0.25, so R = 4.0 Ωone mark for the method, one for inverting correctly[2]
  2. Total = 3.0 + 4.0 = 7.0 Ω[1]
  3. I = V/R = 9.0 / 7.0 = 1.3 Aaccept 1.29[1]
  4. Uses V = IR for the 3.0 Ω resistor[1]
  5. V = 1.29 × 3.0 = 3.9 V[1]

(a) 4.0 Ω (b) 7.0 Ω (c) 1.3 A (d) 3.9 V

Q2[4 marks]
A potential divider is made from a fixed 2.0 kΩ resistor in series with a thermistor, across a 6.0 V supply. The output is taken across the fixed resistor.
  1. State what happens to the resistance of the thermistor as it gets warmer.
  2. Explain what happens to the output voltage as the thermistor warms.
Mark scheme
  1. Its resistance decreases[1]
  2. The thermistor now takes a smaller share of the supply voltage[1]
  3. So a larger share appears across the fixed resistor[1]
  4. The output voltage therefore increases[1]
Q3[4 marks]
Explain why the lamps in a house are wired in parallel rather than in series, giving two reasons.
Mark scheme
  1. Each lamp receives the full mains voltage[1]
  2. So each operates at its correct brightness[1]
  3. If one lamp fails, the circuit through the others is unbroken[1]
  4. So the rest continue to work, and each can be switched independently[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State what happens to the total resistance of a circuit when a second identical resistor is added in parallel, and explain why.
Mark scheme
  1. The total resistance halves[1]
  2. Because the second branch gives the current an additional path, so more current flows for the same potential difference[1]

It halves. The second branch gives the current an additional path, so more current flows for the same potential difference.

Q5[2 marks]
A lamp and a resistor are connected in series. Explain why the current through both is the same.
Mark scheme
  1. There is only one path for the charge to follow[1]
  2. So the same charge passes through each component every second[1]

There is only one path for the charge to follow, so the same charge passes through each component every second.

Q6[9 marks]
A 12 V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected to a 6.0 Ω resistor in series with a parallel combination of a 4.0 Ω and a 12 Ω resistor.
  1. Calculate the resistance of the parallel combination. [3]
  2. Calculate the current drawn from the battery. [3]
  3. Calculate the current through the 12 Ω resistor. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses 1/R = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂[1]
  2. 1/R = 1/4.0 + 1/12 = 0.25 + 0.0833 = 0.3333[1]
  3. R = 3.0 Ωinverting is a separate mark[1]
  4. Total resistance = 6.0 + 3.0 = 9.0 Ω[1]
  5. Uses I = V/R[1]
  6. I = 12 / 9.0 = 1.33 A[1]
  7. P.d. across the parallel section = 1.33 × 3.0 = 4.0 Vboth branches share this[1]
  8. Uses I = V/R for the 12 Ω branch[1]
  9. I = 4.0 / 12 = 0.33 A[1]

(a) 3.0 Ω (b) 1.33 A (c) 0.33 A

Q7[2 marks]
State what is meant by doping, and name the two types of semiconductor it produces.
Answer

Adding a small amount of another element to a pure semiconductor to change its conductivity. It produces n-type, where the carriers are free electrons, and p-type, where they are holes.

Q8[2 marks]
Explain why the resistance of a semiconductor falls when it is heated, while that of a metal rises.
Answer

In a semiconductor, heat frees more charge carriers, so more current can flow. In a metal the number of carriers is fixed, and heating makes the ions vibrate more so the electrons collide with them more often.

Q9[2 marks]
State what happens to a diode when it is reverse biased, and give one use of this property.
Answer

The depletion layer widens and essentially no current flows. This one-way behaviour is used to rectify alternating current into direct current.

Q10[8 marks]
A student builds an automatic light that switches on when it gets dark, using an LDR, a fixed resistor, a transistor and a lamp.
  1. Explain how the LDR and fixed resistor form a potential divider. [2]
  2. Explain what happens to the voltage at the base as darkness falls. [3]
  3. Explain how the transistor uses that voltage to switch the lamp on. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The two components are in series across the supply[1]
  2. They share the supply voltage in proportion to their resistances[1]
  3. As it gets darker the resistance of the LDR increases[1]
  4. So the LDR takes a larger share of the supply voltage[1]
  5. The base voltage, taken across the LDR, therefore rises[1]
  6. When the base voltage exceeds about 0.6 V the transistor switches on[1]
  7. A small base current then allows a much larger collector current[1]
  8. That current flows through the lamp, lighting ita relay would be used for a mains lamp[1]
Q11[7 marks]
A fire alarm must sound if either a smoke sensor or a heat sensor detects danger. Each sensor outputs 1 when triggered.
  1. Name the gate required and give its truth table. [4]
  2. The design is changed so the alarm sounds only if BOTH sensors trigger. State the gate now needed and give one disadvantage of this design. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. An OR gate is required[1]
  2. Inputs 0,0 give output 0[1]
  3. Inputs 0,1 and 1,0 both give output 1[1]
  4. Inputs 1,1 give output 1[1]
  5. An AND gate would now be needed[1]
  6. The alarm would not sound if only one sensor detected the fire[1]
  7. A real fire could therefore be missed, so the design is less safe[1]

(a) OR gate (b) AND gate — but it fails to warn when only one sensor triggers

Q12[5 marks]
A single diode is used with a 9.0 V a.c. supply and a resistor.
  1. Sketch the shape of the output voltage across the resistor. [2]
  2. Name this process. [1]
  3. Explain how the output could be made smoother. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Only the positive halves of each cycle appear[1]
  2. The negative halves are missing, leaving gaps along the axis[1]
  3. Half-wave rectification[1]
  4. Add a capacitor in parallel with the resistor[1]
  5. It charges during each pulse and discharges through the gaps, holding the voltage upa four-diode bridge would also give full-wave rectification[1]
20

Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Multiple choice · 16

Q1Which particle has no charge?

  1. AProton
  2. BNeutron
  3. CElectron
  4. DAlpha particle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Neutron

The neutron is neutral, with a relative mass of 1. Protons are +1, electrons −1, and alpha particles +2.

Q2The nucleon number of an atom is the number of:

  1. AProtons
  2. BNeutrons
  3. CProtons and neutrons
  4. DElectrons
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Protons and neutrons

A counts everything in the nucleus. The proton number Z counts only protons, and neutrons are the difference A − Z.

Q3An atom is ²⁷₁₃Al. How many neutrons does it have?

  1. A13
  2. B14
  3. C27
  4. D40
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 14

Neutrons = A − Z = 27 − 13 = 14. Answer D adds the two numbers instead of subtracting.

Q4Isotopes of an element have the same number of:

  1. ANeutrons
  2. BProtons
  3. CNucleons
  4. DNothing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Protons

Same protons, different neutrons. The proton number is what makes it the same element in the first place.

Q5Isotopes of an element react chemically in the same way because they have the same:

  1. AMass
  2. BNumber of neutrons
  3. CElectron arrangement
  4. DDensity
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Electron arrangement

Chemistry is governed by electrons, and isotopes have identical electron arrangements. Their masses differ, which is why they can be separated physically.

Q6In the alpha-scattering experiment, most alpha particles passing straight through showed that:

  1. AThe nucleus is negative
  2. BThe atom is mostly empty space
  3. CElectrons are heavy
  4. DGold is transparent
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The atom is mostly empty space

If the atom were solid throughout, almost nothing would get past. Free passage means most of the atom is empty.

Q7A small number of alpha particles bounced almost straight back. This showed the nucleus is:

  1. ALarge and light
  2. BSmall, dense and positively charged
  3. CNegatively charged
  4. DMade of electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Small, dense and positively charged

Only a concentrated positive charge with most of the mass could repel a fast, heavy, positive alpha particle back the way it came.

Q8Almost all the mass of an atom is located in the:

  1. AElectron shells
  2. BNucleus
  3. CSpace between shells
  4. DOuter surface
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nucleus

Protons and neutrons each have relative mass 1; an electron has about 1/1840. The nucleus holds essentially all of it.

Q9An alpha particle is:

  1. AA fast electron
  2. BA helium nucleus
  3. CAn electromagnetic wave
  4. DA neutron
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A helium nucleus

Two protons and two neutrons, so charge +2 and relative mass 4. The fast electron is a beta particle.

Q10Which radiation is stopped by a few millimetres of aluminium?

  1. AAlpha
  2. BBeta
  3. CGamma
  4. DAll three
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Beta

Alpha is stopped by paper, gamma needs centimetres of lead. Beta sits between them.

Q11In alpha decay the nucleon number:

  1. AIncreases by 4
  2. BDecreases by 4
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDecreases by 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decreases by 4

An alpha particle carries away 2 protons and 2 neutrons, so A falls by 4 and Z falls by 2.

Q12In beta decay the proton number:

  1. ADecreases by 1
  2. BIncreases by 1
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDecreases by 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increases by 1

A neutron becomes a proton and an emitted electron, so Z rises by 1 while A is unchanged.

Q13Half-life is affected by:

  1. ATemperature
  2. BPressure
  3. CChemical state
  4. DNone of these
Show answer

Correct answer: D — None of these

Half-life is a fixed property of the isotope. No chemical or physical treatment changes the rate of nuclear decay.

Q14A sample has a half-life of 2 days. After 6 days the fraction remaining is:

  1. A1/2
  2. B1/4
  3. C1/8
  4. D1/6
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/8

Six days is three half-lives: 1 → ½ → ¼ → ⅛. Dividing 1 by 6 is the error the last option is there to catch.

Q15Which radiation is NOT deflected by a magnetic field?

  1. AAlpha
  2. BBeta
  3. CGamma
  4. DAll are deflected
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gamma

Gamma has no charge, so a magnetic field has no effect on it. Alpha and beta are deflected in opposite directions because their charges are opposite.

Q16An alpha source is most dangerous when it is:

  1. AHeld at arm's length
  2. BBehind lead shielding
  3. CInside the body
  4. DIn a sealed container
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Inside the body

Outside the body alpha cannot even pass through skin. Swallowed or inhaled, its very strong ionising power acts directly on living tissue.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[6 marks]
An atom is represented as ²³⁵₉₂U.
  1. State the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in a neutral atom of this isotope.
  2. Another isotope is ²³⁸₉₂U. State what is the same and what is different about it.
  3. Explain why the two isotopes behave identically in chemical reactions.
Mark scheme
  1. 92 protonsthe proton number[1]
  2. 235 − 92 = 143 neutrons[1]
  3. 92 electrons, since the atom is neutral[1]
  4. Same number of protons (92); different number of neutrons (146 instead of 143)[1]
  5. Chemical behaviour depends on the electrons[1]
  6. Both have 92 electrons arranged identically, so they react in the same way[1]

(a) 92 p, 143 n, 92 e (b) same Z, different A (c) identical electron arrangement

Q2[6 marks]
In the alpha-scattering experiment, alpha particles were directed at a thin gold foil.
  1. State the three main observations.
  2. State the conclusion drawn from each.
Mark scheme
  1. Most alpha particles passed straight through[1]
  2. So the atom is mostly empty space[1]
  3. Some were deflected through large angles[1]
  4. So there is a concentrated positive charge repelling them[1]
  5. A very few were reflected almost straight back[1]
  6. So the nucleus is very small and contains most of the atom's mass[1]
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why the plum-pudding model could not account for the results of the alpha-scattering experiment.
Mark scheme
  1. In that model the positive charge is spread thinly throughout the atom[1]
  2. So the repulsive force on an alpha particle anywhere would be small[1]
  3. It could not produce the large-angle deflections or backscattering that were observed[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State what is meant by the nucleon number and the proton number of a nuclide.
Answer

The nucleon number A is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. The proton number Z is the number of protons alone.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties.
Answer

They have the same number of protons and therefore the same number of electrons in the same arrangement. Chemical behaviour is decided by the electrons, not by the number of neutrons.

Q6[8 marks]
In the Geiger–Marsden experiment, alpha particles were fired at a very thin gold foil.
  1. State the two observations that were made. [2]
  2. Explain what each observation shows about the structure of the atom. [4]
  3. Explain why the foil had to be extremely thin. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Almost all the alpha particles passed straight through[1]
  2. A very small fraction were deflected through large angles, some straight back[1]
  3. Passing straight through shows the atom is mostly empty space[1]
  4. Large deflections show a concentrated region of positive charge[1]
  5. Which repels the positive alpha particle[1]
  6. Backward scattering shows that region is also very massive, and very small[1]
  7. So each alpha particle meets at most one nucleus[1]
  8. A thicker foil would cause multiple scattering and the result could not be interpreted[1]
Q7[6 marks]
A radioactive source has a half-life of 6.0 hours. The initial count rate, corrected for background, is 800 counts per minute.
  1. Calculate the corrected count rate after 18 hours.
  2. Explain why the count rate never reaches exactly zero.
  3. State two factors that do not affect the half-life.
Mark scheme
  1. 18 hours is 3 half-lives18 ÷ 6[1]
  2. Halves three times: 800 → 400 → 200 → 100[1]
  3. 100 counts per minute[1]
  4. Each half-life removes only half of what remains, so some always remains[1]
  5. Temperature or pressure[1]
  6. Chemical state or physical form of the sampleany second valid factor[1]

(a) 100 counts/min (b) halving never reaches zero (c) temperature, pressure, chemical state

Q8[5 marks]
Polonium-218 has proton number 84 and decays by alpha emission to lead. The lead isotope then decays by beta emission.
  1. Write the nucleon and proton numbers of the lead isotope formed.
  2. Write the nucleon and proton numbers of the nucleus formed after the beta decay.
  3. State what happens inside the nucleus during beta decay.
Mark scheme
  1. Alpha: A = 218 − 4 = 214[1]
  2. Z = 84 − 2 = 82lead[1]
  3. Beta: A unchanged at 214[1]
  4. Z = 82 + 1 = 83bismuth[1]
  5. A neutron changes into a proton and an electron, and the electron is emitted[1]

(a) ²¹⁴₈₂Pb (b) ²¹⁴₈₃ (c) a neutron becomes a proton plus an emitted electron

Q9[4 marks]
A source is to be used as a medical tracer, injected into a patient and detected from outside the body.
  1. State which type of radiation is most suitable and why.
  2. State why the half-life should be short but not too short.
Mark scheme
  1. Gamma[1]
  2. It is penetrating enough to leave the body and be detected, and least ionising so it does least damageboth halves wanted[1]
  3. Short, so the activity falls quickly and the patient is not exposed for long[1]
  4. But not so short that it decays away before the scan can be completedthe balance is the point of the question[1]
Q10[2 marks]
State two safety precautions when handling a radioactive source in a school laboratory.
Answer

Handle it with long tongs to increase the distance from the body, and return it to its lead-lined container immediately after use. (Also acceptable: never point it at anyone; minimise exposure time.)

Q11[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by background radiation and name two of its sources.
Answer

The low level of ionising radiation always present in the environment. Sources include radon gas from rocks, cosmic rays, medical X-rays and food.

Q12[9 marks]
A sample of a radioactive isotope gives a corrected count rate of 640 counts per minute. Its half-life is 8.0 days.
  1. Explain what is meant by half-life. [2]
  2. Calculate the corrected count rate after 32 days. [3]
  3. A detector near the sample reads 655 counts per minute at the start. Explain the difference and how it is dealt with. [2]
  4. The isotope emits beta particles. State what happens to the proton number and nucleon number of the nucleus. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The time taken for the number of undecayed nuclei in the sample to halve[1]
  2. Equivalently, the time for the count rate to fall to half its value; the process is random so this is an average[1]
  3. 32 days is 4 half-lives[1]
  4. Uses 640 ÷ 2⁴[1]
  5. = 40 counts per minute[1]
  6. The extra 15 counts per minute is background radiation[1]
  7. It is measured with the source removed and subtracted from every reading[1]
  8. The proton number increases by 1[1]
  9. The nucleon number is unchangeda neutron becomes a proton plus an electron[1]

(b) 40 counts per minute

21

Space and Environment

Multiple choice · 16

Q1Day and night are caused by:

  1. AThe Earth orbiting the Sun
  2. BThe Earth rotating on its axis
  3. CThe tilt of the Earth's axis
  4. DThe Moon orbiting the Earth
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The Earth rotating on its axis

One rotation takes 24 hours, turning each part of the surface toward and away from the Sun. The orbit gives the year, and the tilt gives the seasons.

Q2The seasons are caused by:

  1. AThe Earth's changing distance from the Sun
  2. BThe tilt of the Earth's axis
  3. CThe Earth's rotation
  4. DSunspots
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The tilt of the Earth's axis

The 23.5° tilt changes both the angle of the sunlight and the length of the day. Distance varies too little, and in the wrong direction, to explain anything.

Q3Which planet is fourth from the Sun?

  1. AEarth
  2. BMars
  3. CJupiter
  4. DVenus
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Mars

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars — so Mars is fourth, and the last of the rocky inner planets before the asteroid belt.

Q4Compared with the inner planets, the outer planets are:

  1. ASmaller and rocky
  2. BLarger and gaseous
  3. CHotter
  4. DFaster in orbit
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Larger and gaseous

The four outer planets are gas giants. They also orbit more slowly, because the Sun's gravity is weaker at that distance.

Q5What provides the force that keeps a planet in orbit?

  1. AIts own motion
  2. BThe Sun's gravitational attraction
  3. CMagnetism
  4. DAir resistance
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The Sun's gravitational attraction

Gravity acts toward the Sun, continually changing the planet's direction. Without it the planet would travel in a straight line.

Q6A comet moves fastest when it is:

  1. AFurthest from the Sun
  2. BClosest to the Sun
  3. CHalfway round
  4. DOutside the Solar System
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Closest to the Sun

Gravitational attraction is strongest at closest approach, so the comet is travelling fastest there and slowest at the far end of its ellipse.

Q7A satellite has orbital radius r and period T. Its speed is:

  1. Ar/T
  2. B2πr/T
  3. CT/2πr
  4. D2πrT
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2πr/T

It travels one circumference, 2πr, in one period T. The other options do not have units of speed.

Q8As distance from the Sun increases, the orbital period:

  1. ADecreases
  2. BIncreases
  3. CStays the same
  4. DVaries randomly
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increases

A larger orbit at a slower speed takes far longer to complete — Neptune needs about 165 Earth years for one orbit.

Q9Stars release energy by:

  1. ABurning hydrogen chemically
  2. BNuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium
  3. CNuclear fission of uranium
  4. DFriction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium

Fusion joins light nuclei and releases far more energy than any chemical process. Describing it as burning is the error the option is there to catch.

Q10A main-sequence star is stable because:

  1. AIt has stopped fusing
  2. BGravity inward balances radiation pressure outward
  3. CIt has no gravity
  4. DIt is cooling steadily
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Gravity inward balances radiation pressure outward

The two opposing effects are equal, so the star neither collapses nor expands. When the fuel runs low the balance is lost and the star leaves the main sequence.

Q11A star of similar mass to the Sun ends its life as a:

  1. ASupernova
  2. BBlack hole
  3. CWhite dwarf
  4. DNeutron star
Show answer

Correct answer: C — White dwarf

It becomes a red giant, sheds a planetary nebula, and leaves a white dwarf. Supernovae and black holes require far greater mass.

Q12Which is the correct order for a massive star?

  1. ANebula → white dwarf → supernova
  2. BNebula → main sequence → red supergiant → supernova
  3. CRed giant → nebula → black dwarf
  4. DSupernova → main sequence → nebula
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nebula → main sequence → red supergiant → supernova

Birth in a nebula, a stable main sequence, expansion to a supergiant, then the supernova and its remnant.

Q13A more massive star has a shorter lifetime because it:

  1. AContains less hydrogen
  2. BFuses its hydrogen much faster
  3. CHas weaker gravity
  4. DIs further from other stars
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Fuses its hydrogen much faster

It has more fuel, but its hotter, denser core consumes it disproportionately faster. Rate beats supply.

Q14A light-year is a unit of:

  1. ATime
  2. BDistance
  3. CBrightness
  4. DMass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Distance

It is the distance light travels in a year, about 9.5 × 10¹⁵ m. The word "year" in the name is what makes this a reliable exam trap.

Q15Redshift of light from distant galaxies shows that they are:

  1. AMoving toward us
  2. BMoving away from us
  3. CStationary
  4. DGetting hotter
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Moving away from us

A receding source stretches the wavelength toward the red end. Approaching sources would be blueshifted.

Q16Which observation, besides redshift, supports the Big Bang theory?

  1. AThe phases of the Moon
  2. BCosmic microwave background radiation
  3. CThe existence of comets
  4. DSunspots
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Cosmic microwave background radiation

The CMB arrives uniformly from every direction and is the cooled remnant of the early hot Universe — very difficult to explain any other way.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[6 marks]
The Earth rotates on its axis and orbits the Sun.
  1. State what causes day and night.
  2. State what causes the seasons, and explain how.
  3. Explain why the varying distance between the Earth and the Sun is not the cause of the seasons.
Mark scheme
  1. The Earth's rotation on its axis, once every 24 hours[1]
  2. The tilt of the Earth's axis, about 23.5°[1]
  3. A hemisphere tilted toward the Sun receives light at a steeper angle, concentrated over a smaller area[1]
  4. And has more hours of daylight, so it is warmer[1]
  5. The distance varies by only a few per cent[1]
  6. And the Earth is actually closest to the Sun during the northern winter, which is the opposite of what that explanation would predictthe decisive point[1]

(a) rotation (b) axial tilt, giving steeper light and longer days (c) distance varies little and in the wrong direction

Q2[4 marks]
The Moon orbits the Earth at an average radius of 3.8 × 10⁸ m with a period of 27.3 days. Calculate its orbital speed in m s⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts the period to seconds: 27.3 × 24 × 3600 = 2.36 × 10⁶ sdays → hours → seconds[1]
  2. Uses v = 2πr/T[1]
  3. v = 2π × 3.8 × 10⁸ / 2.36 × 10⁶[1]
  4. v = 1.0 × 10³ m s⁻¹about 1 km/s[1]

1.0 × 10³ m s⁻¹

Q3[4 marks]
Compare the orbit of a comet with the orbit of a planet, and explain why a comet's speed varies so much.
Mark scheme
  1. A planet's orbit is nearly circular; a comet's is highly elliptical[1]
  2. A comet's distance from the Sun therefore varies enormously[1]
  3. Gravitational attraction is much stronger when it is close to the Sun[1]
  4. So it moves fastest at its closest approach and slowest when far away[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State two differences between a planet and a comet in the Solar System.
Answer

A planet follows a nearly circular orbit and stays at a roughly constant distance from the Sun. A comet follows a highly elliptical orbit, so its distance and speed change greatly.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why an astronaut in orbit appears weightless even though gravity still acts.
Answer

The astronaut and the spacecraft are both falling freely towards the Earth with the same acceleration. There is no contact force between them, so the astronaut feels no weight.

Q6[8 marks]
A satellite orbits the Earth at a constant speed in a circular path.
  1. Explain why the satellite is accelerating even though its speed is constant. [3]
  2. State the direction of the resultant force on the satellite and name that force. [2]
  3. Explain why a satellite in a lower orbit must travel faster than one in a higher orbit. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The direction of motion is continually changing[1]
  2. So the velocity is changing, because velocity is a vector[1]
  3. A changing velocity is an acceleration[1]
  4. The resultant force acts towards the centre of the orbit[1]
  5. It is the gravitational attraction of the Earth[1]
  6. Gravitational field strength is greater closer to the Earth[1]
  7. So a larger centripetal force is needed to hold the satellite in that orbit[1]
  8. Which requires a greater orbital speed, so the period is shorter[1]
Q7[6 marks]
A star with a mass similar to that of the Sun eventually runs out of hydrogen in its core.
  1. Name the process by which a star releases energy, and state what it converts.
  2. Describe the stages this star passes through after leaving the main sequence.
  3. State how the sequence would differ for a star of much greater mass.
Mark scheme
  1. Nuclear fusionnot burning[1]
  2. Hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium[1]
  3. It expands to become a red giant[1]
  4. Then throws off its outer layers as a planetary nebula, leaving a white dwarf[1]
  5. A much more massive star becomes a red supergiant and explodes as a supernova[1]
  6. Leaving a neutron star or a black hole[1]

Fusion of hydrogen to helium; red giant → planetary nebula → white dwarf; massive stars instead go supergiant → supernova → neutron star or black hole

Q8[5 marks]
Light from distant galaxies is observed to be redshifted.
  1. State what redshift indicates about these galaxies.
  2. State the relationship between a galaxy's distance and its redshift.
  3. Explain how these observations support the Big Bang theory, and name one other piece of supporting evidence.
Mark scheme
  1. They are moving away from us[1]
  2. The further away a galaxy is, the greater its redshift — so the faster it is receding[1]
  3. This shows the Universe is expanding[1]
  4. So in the past everything was closer together, in a hot dense state[1]
  5. The cosmic microwave background radiation[1]

Receding; further means greater redshift; therefore expansion, therefore a hot dense origin; plus the CMB

Q9[3 marks]
Explain why a star of ten times the Sun's mass has a much shorter lifetime than the Sun, even though it contains far more hydrogen.
Mark scheme
  1. A more massive star has a much stronger inward gravitational force[1]
  2. So the core is hotter and denser, and fusion proceeds much faster[1]
  3. It therefore uses up its hydrogen far more quickly than the extra supply lasts[1]
Q10[2 marks]
State the source of a star's energy and name the process involved.
Answer

Nuclear fusion in the core, in which hydrogen nuclei join to form helium and release energy.

Q11[2 marks]
Explain what red-shift tells us about distant galaxies.
Answer

The light from distant galaxies is shifted towards longer wavelengths, which shows they are moving away from us. The further away a galaxy is, the greater its red-shift and so the faster it recedes.

Q12[9 marks]
Our Sun is a stable main-sequence star.
  1. Explain what keeps a main-sequence star stable over billions of years. [3]
  2. Describe what will happen to the Sun once the hydrogen in its core runs out. [3]
  3. Explain how the observed red-shift of distant galaxies supports the Big Bang theory. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Gravity pulls the material of the star inwards[1]
  2. The outward pressure from the energy released by fusion pushes outwards[1]
  3. The two are balanced, so the star neither collapses nor expands[1]
  4. The core contracts and the outer layers expand and cool[1]
  5. The Sun becomes a red giant[1]
  6. It then sheds its outer layers and the core remains as a white dwarf[1]
  7. Light from almost every distant galaxy is red-shifted, so they are all moving away[1]
  8. The more distant the galaxy the greater the red-shift, so the universe is expanding[1]
  9. Running that expansion backwards means everything began from a single point[1]

These questions come from the 10th Class Physics lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.