10th Class Chemistry — MCQs & Practice Questions

108 multiple-choice questions and 81 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

New to a topic? Read the 10th Class Chemistry notes first, then come back to practise.

01

States of Matter and Phase Changes

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Which state has particles that are far apart and move freely at speed?

  1. ASolid
  2. BLiquid
  3. CGas
  4. DNone of these
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gas

A gas has widely spaced, fast, randomly moving particles — so it has no fixed shape or volume and compresses easily.

Q2While ice is melting, you keep heating it. The temperature:

  1. ARises steadily
  2. BStays constant until all the ice has melted
  3. CFalls
  4. DRises then falls
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Stays constant until all the ice has melted

During a change of state the energy breaks the forces between particles rather than raising their speed, so the temperature holds at the melting point until melting is complete.

Q3Temperature is a measure of:

  1. AThe number of particles
  2. BThe average kinetic energy of the particles
  3. CThe mass of the substance
  4. DThe pressure
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The average kinetic energy of the particles

Higher temperature means the particles have, on average, more kinetic energy — they move faster.

Q4Heating a fixed volume of gas increases its pressure because the particles:

  1. AGet bigger
  2. BHit the walls harder and more often
  3. CTurn into liquid
  4. DStop moving
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Hit the walls harder and more often

Faster particles collide with the container walls more frequently and with greater force, raising the pressure.

Q5Diffusion is fastest when the particles are:

  1. AHeavy and cold
  2. BLight and hot
  3. CHeavy and hot
  4. DLight and cold
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Light and hot

Lighter particles move faster at a given temperature, and higher temperature raises speed further — both speed up diffusion.

Q6Which change of state goes straight from solid to gas?

  1. AMelting
  2. BCondensing
  3. CSublimation
  4. DFreezing
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Sublimation

Sublimation is the direct solid→gas change (e.g. solid carbon dioxide), skipping the liquid state.

Q7During the melting of ice at 0 °C, the temperature stays constant because the energy supplied is used to:

  1. Amake particles move faster
  2. Bovercome the forces holding the lattice together
  3. Cincrease the pressure
  4. Dcreate new particles
Show answer

Correct answer: B — overcome the forces holding the lattice together

At a change of state the energy breaks the forces between particles rather than raising their kinetic energy, so the temperature is constant.

Q8Heating a fixed volume of gas increases its pressure because the particles:

  1. Aget bigger
  2. Bcollide with the walls harder and more often
  3. Cstop moving
  4. Dturn into liquid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — collide with the walls harder and more often

Faster particles make more frequent, harder collisions with the walls, raising the pressure.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe the arrangement and movement of particles in a solid.
Answer

Particles are closely packed in a regular, fixed arrangement and can only vibrate about fixed positions.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why a gas exerts pressure on the walls of its container.
Answer

Gas particles move rapidly in all directions and collide with the walls; the force of these collisions per unit area is the pressure.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain what happens to the particles as a solid is heated until it melts and then boils.
Answer

Heating gives particles more kinetic energy so they vibrate more; at the melting point the forces holding the lattice break and particles move past each other (liquid); at the boiling point particles gain enough energy to escape completely (gas).

Q4[6 marks]
A student investigates diffusion using gas jars.
  1. Define diffusion. [2]
  2. Explain why bromine vapour spreads more slowly than hydrogen gas at the same temperature. [2]
  3. State and explain the effect of raising the temperature on the rate of diffusion. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Diffusion is the movement of particles from a region of higher concentration to lower concentration[1]
  2. ...until they are evenly spread / down a concentration gradient[1]
  3. Bromine molecules are heavier / have greater mass than hydrogen molecules[1]
  4. At the same temperature heavier particles move more slowly, so diffuse more slowly[1]
  5. Raising temperature increases the rate of diffusion[1]
  6. Because particles gain kinetic energy and move faster[1]

Diffusion = spreading down a concentration gradient; lighter particles diffuse faster; higher temperature → faster diffusion.

Q5[3 marks]
A student heats a pure solid until it melts. Sketch-describe what happens to the temperature before, during and after melting, and explain the shape.
Answer

Before melting the temperature rises as particles gain kinetic energy. During melting it stays constant (a plateau) because the energy overcomes the forces holding the lattice. After melting it rises again as the liquid warms.

Q6[6 marks]
A gas is sealed in a container.
  1. Explain, using the kinetic particle model, how the gas exerts pressure on the walls. [2]
  2. Explain what happens to the pressure if the gas is heated at constant volume. [2]
  3. Explain what happens to the pressure if the volume is halved at constant temperature. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Particles move rapidly and randomly, colliding with the walls[1]
  2. the force of these collisions per unit area is the pressure[1]
  3. Heating gives particles more kinetic energy so they move faster[1]
  4. collisions are harder and more frequent, so pressure rises[1]
  5. Halving the volume means the same particles are in a smaller space[1]
  6. so collisions with the walls are twice as frequent and the pressure doubles[1]

Pressure = wall collisions per area; heating raises it (faster, more frequent collisions); halving the volume doubles it (more frequent collisions).

02

Stoichiometry

Multiple choice · 8

Q1How many moles are in 88 g of CO₂? (M = 44 g/mol)

  1. A0.5 mol
  2. B2 mol
  3. C44 mol
  4. D88 mol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 mol

n = m/M = 88/44 = 2 mol. Each mole contains 6.022 × 10²³ molecules, so this sample holds about 1.2 × 10²⁴ CO₂ molecules.

Q2In 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O, you have 6 mol H₂ and 2 mol O₂. Which is limiting?

  1. AH₂
  2. BO₂
  3. CNeither — perfect ratio
  4. DBoth equally
Show answer

Correct answer: B — O₂

Divide by coefficients: H₂ gives 6/2 = 3, O₂ gives 2/1 = 2. Oxygen produces the smaller number, so it runs out first and limits the reaction. You get 4 mol of water and 2 mol of H₂ left over.

Q3What does the "2" in 2H₂O tell you?

  1. AThere are 2 hydrogen atoms
  2. BThere are 2 water molecules
  3. CThe mass is 2 grams
  4. DThe reaction happens twice
Show answer

Correct answer: B — There are 2 water molecules

A coefficient in front multiplies the entire formula unit: 2 water molecules, so 4 hydrogen atoms and 2 oxygen atoms in total. A subscript, like the 2 in H₂O, counts atoms within one molecule instead.

Q4A reaction should theoretically produce 50 g but you collect 42 g. The percentage yield is:

  1. A84%
  2. B119%
  3. C8%
  4. D92%
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 84%

(actual / theoretical) × 100 = (42 / 50) × 100 = 84%. Losses of this size are completely normal — product sticks to glassware, reactions do not run to completion, and side reactions consume some reactant.

Q5Why must chemical equations be balanced?

  1. ATo make the numbers neat
  2. BBecause atoms are conserved — they are rearranged, not created or destroyed
  3. CTo make the reaction faster
  4. DBecause moles must always be whole numbers
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because atoms are conserved — they are rearranged, not created or destroyed

Conservation of mass. Every atom present before the reaction is present after it, just bonded differently. An unbalanced equation implies atoms appeared from nowhere, and any mole calculation built on it would be wrong.

Q6You add excess magnesium to a fixed amount of hydrochloric acid. What limits the hydrogen produced?

  1. AThe magnesium
  2. BThe acid
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNothing — the reaction continues indefinitely
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The acid

"Excess" means there is more magnesium than can react, so the acid runs out first and is the limiting reagent. Leftover magnesium simply sits at the bottom unreacted — a common sight in this classic school experiment.

Q70.25 mol of gas at r.t.p. occupies a volume of about:

  1. A6 dm³
  2. B12 dm³
  3. C24 dm³
  4. D48 dm³
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 6 dm³

One mole of any gas occupies 24 dm³ at r.t.p., so V = n × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm³.

Q8A compound has empirical formula CH₂ and relative molecular mass 42. Its molecular formula is:

  1. ACH₂
  2. BC₂H₄
  3. CC₃H₆
  4. DC₄H₈
Show answer

Correct answer: C — C₃H₆

Empirical mass = 14; 42 ÷ 14 = 3, so C₃H₆.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Calculate the number of moles in 8.0 g of methane, CH₄. (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)
Answer

Mr of CH₄ = 12 + 4 = 16. Moles = mass ÷ Mr = 8.0 ÷ 16 = 0.50 mol.

Q2[2 marks]
Define the term relative molecular mass.
Answer

The sum of the relative atomic masses of all the atoms shown in the molecular formula of a substance.

Q3[3 marks]
Balance the equation: __ Al + __ O₂ → __ Al₂O₃.
Answer

4 Al + 3 O₂ → 2 Al₂O₃.

Q4[7 marks]
Calcium carbonate decomposes: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂. (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
  1. Calculate the relative formula mass of CaCO₃. [1]
  2. Calculate the mass of CaO produced from 25 g of CaCO₃. [3]
  3. Calculate the volume of CO₂ produced at r.t.p. (1 mole of gas = 24 dm³). [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Mr(CaCO₃) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100[1]
  2. Moles CaCO₃ = 25 ÷ 100 = 0.25 mol[1]
  3. Moles CaO = 0.25 (1:1 ratio); Mr(CaO) = 56[1]
  4. Mass CaO = 0.25 × 56 = 14 g[1]
  5. Moles CO₂ = 0.25 (1:1 ratio)[1]
  6. Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24[1]
  7. Volume CO₂ = 6.0 dm³[1]

Mr = 100; 14 g CaO; 6.0 dm³ CO₂.

Q5[3 marks]
Calculate the concentration, in mol/dm³, of a solution made by dissolving 0.20 mol of sodium chloride in 500 cm³ of solution.
Answer

V = 500 ÷ 1000 = 0.50 dm³. c = n ÷ V = 0.20 ÷ 0.50 = 0.40 mol/dm³.

Q6[7 marks]
Iron is extracted by reducing iron(III) oxide: Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂. (Ar: Fe = 56, O = 16, C = 12)
  1. Calculate the relative formula mass of Fe₂O₃. [1]
  2. Calculate the mass of iron produced from 320 tonnes of Fe₂O₃. [3]
  3. Calculate the atom economy of this reaction for making iron. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Mr(Fe₂O₃) = 112 + 48 = 160[1]
  2. Moles Fe₂O₃ = 320 ÷ 160 = 2 (tonne-moles)[1]
  3. Moles Fe = 2 × 2 = 4; Ar(Fe) = 56[1]
  4. Mass Fe = 4 × 56 = 224 tonnes[1]
  5. Desired product mass in equation = 2 × 56 = 112; total product mass = 112 + 3 × 44 = 244[1]
  6. Atom economy = (112 ÷ 244) × 100[1]
  7. = 45.9% (≈ 46%)[1]

Mr = 160; 224 tonnes of iron; atom economy ≈ 46%.

03

Electrochemistry

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In OIL RIG, reduction is:

  1. Aloss of electrons
  2. Bgain of electrons
  3. Closs of protons
  4. Dgain of neutrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — gain of electrons

Reduction Is Gain of electrons; oxidation is loss.

Q2For electrolysis to work, the ionic compound must be:

  1. Asolid
  2. Bmolten or dissolved
  3. Ca gas
  4. Dpure metal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — molten or dissolved

The ions must be free to move, which they are only when molten or in solution.

Q3At the cathode during electrolysis:

  1. Aanions lose electrons (oxidation)
  2. Bcations gain electrons (reduction)
  3. Cnothing happens
  4. Dwater evaporates
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cations gain electrons (reduction)

The cathode is negative; positive ions are attracted and gain electrons — reduction.

Q4Electrolysing molten lead(II) bromide gives bromine at the:

  1. Acathode
  2. Banode
  3. Cboth electrodes
  4. Dneither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — anode

Br⁻ ions migrate to the positive anode and lose electrons to form bromine (oxidation).

Q5Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis because it is:

  1. Acheap to melt
  2. Btoo reactive to be reduced by carbon
  3. Ca non-metal
  4. Dfound as the pure metal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — too reactive to be reduced by carbon

Aluminium is above carbon in reactivity, so only electrolysis of its molten oxide can extract it.

Q6In electroplating an object with silver, the object is the:

  1. Aanode
  2. Bcathode
  3. Celectrolyte
  4. Dbattery
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cathode

The object to be plated is the negative cathode, where silver ions are reduced and deposit onto it.

Q7The oxidation number of sulfur in SO₂ is:

  1. A−2
  2. B0
  3. C+2
  4. D+4
Show answer

Correct answer: D — +4

Oxygen is −2 (×2 = −4); the total must be 0, so sulfur is +4.

Q8Electrolysing concentrated sodium chloride solution produces chlorine at the:

  1. Acathode
  2. Banode
  3. Csalt bridge
  4. Dboth electrodes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — anode

Chloride ions are oxidised at the positive anode, releasing chlorine gas.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define oxidation and reduction in terms of electrons.
Answer

Oxidation is loss of electrons; reduction is gain of electrons (OIL RIG).

Q2[2 marks]
State what is meant by electrolysis.
Answer

The breakdown (decomposition) of an ionic compound, when molten or in aqueous solution, by the passage of an electric current.

Q3[3 marks]
During the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide, write the electrode reactions and name the products.
Answer

Cathode (−): Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb (lead metal). Anode (+): 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻ (bromine gas).

Q4[7 marks]
Molten aluminium oxide is electrolysed to extract aluminium.
  1. Explain why the aluminium oxide must be molten. [2]
  2. Write the half-equation for the reaction at the cathode. [2]
  3. State the product at the anode and explain why the carbon anodes must be replaced regularly. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Melting frees the ions[1]
  2. so they can move to the electrodes and carry the current[1]
  3. Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al[1]
  4. balanced with electrons[1]
  5. Oxygen is produced at the anode[1]
  6. The hot oxygen reacts with the carbon anodes forming carbon dioxide[1]
  7. so the anodes burn away and must be replaced[1]

Molten = mobile ions to carry current; cathode Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al; anode makes O₂, which burns the carbon anodes to CO₂ so they wear away.

Q5[2 marks]
Deduce the oxidation number of manganese in the permanganate ion, MnO₄⁻.
Answer

Oxygen is −2, so 4 × (−2) = −8. The whole ion has a charge of −1, so Mn + (−8) = −1, giving Mn = +7.

Q6[6 marks]
Impure copper is purified by electrolysis using copper electrodes in copper(II) sulfate solution.
  1. State which electrode is made of impure copper, and the half-equation there. [2]
  2. State what forms at the other electrode, with its half-equation. [2]
  3. Explain what happens to the impurities. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The anode (positive electrode) is the impure copper[1]
  2. Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ (copper dissolves)[1]
  3. Pure copper deposits on the cathode[1]
  4. Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu[1]
  5. Impurities do not dissolve / are not deposited[1]
  6. they collect below the anode as anode sludge[1]

Anode = impure copper (Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻); cathode gains pure copper (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu); impurities drop as anode sludge.

04

Reaction Kinetics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1According to collision theory, a collision only leads to reaction if the particles:

  1. Aare the same size
  2. Bcollide with at least the activation energy and correct orientation
  3. Care both gases
  4. Dare catalysts
Show answer

Correct answer: B — collide with at least the activation energy and correct orientation

Enough energy (the activation energy) and the right orientation are both needed for a successful collision.

Q2Increasing concentration speeds up a reaction because there are:

  1. Afewer particles
  2. Bmore frequent collisions
  3. Cweaker bonds
  4. Dlower activation energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more frequent collisions

More particles in the same volume collide more often, so more successful collisions occur per second.

Q3Powdering a solid reactant increases the rate because it increases the:

  1. Atemperature
  2. Bsurface area exposed to collisions
  3. Cactivation energy
  4. Dmass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — surface area exposed to collisions

Smaller pieces expose far more surface, giving more sites where collisions with the other reactant can occur.

Q4A catalyst speeds up a reaction by:

  1. Araising the temperature
  2. Bbeing used up
  3. Clowering the activation energy
  4. Dincreasing concentration
Show answer

Correct answer: C — lowering the activation energy

It provides an alternative route with a lower activation energy, so a greater fraction of collisions succeed — and it is not consumed.

Q5Why is raising temperature especially effective at increasing rate?

  1. AIt only increases collisions
  2. BIt both increases collision frequency and gives more particles the activation energy
  3. CIt lowers the activation energy
  4. DIt adds a catalyst
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It both increases collision frequency and gives more particles the activation energy

Temperature acts on both frequency and energy of collisions, unlike concentration or surface area.

Q6A reaction produces gas. Its rate is greatest:

  1. Aat the very end
  2. Bat the start
  3. Cexactly halfway
  4. Dit is constant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — at the start

Reactant concentration is highest at the start, so collisions are most frequent then; the rate falls as reactants are consumed.

Q7On a graph of gas volume against time, the rate of reaction is given by:

  1. Athe final volume
  2. Bthe gradient of the curve
  3. Cthe time axis
  4. Dthe area under the curve
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the gradient of the curve

Rate is how fast the measured quantity changes, i.e. the gradient of the graph.

Q8A catalyst increases the fraction of successful collisions by:

  1. Araising the temperature
  2. Blowering the activation energy
  3. Cadding more reactant
  4. Dincreasing the pressure
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lowering the activation energy

A catalyst provides a route with lower activation energy, so more molecules already have enough energy to react.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State two things that must happen for a reaction to occur, according to collision theory.
Answer

Particles must collide, and they must collide with enough energy (at least the activation energy) and correct orientation.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain, using collision theory, why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate.
Answer

Higher concentration means more particles per unit volume, so collisions are more frequent, increasing the rate.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain how a catalyst increases the rate of a reaction.
Answer

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, so a greater proportion of collisions are successful, increasing the rate. It is not used up.

Q4[6 marks]
A student measures the volume of gas produced when marble chips react with dilute hydrochloric acid.
  1. Explain, using collision theory, why the reaction is faster when the acid is warmer. [3]
  2. Explain why using powdered marble instead of large chips increases the rate. [2]
  3. State how the rate can be found from a graph of gas volume against time. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. At higher temperature particles have more kinetic energy and move faster[1]
  2. Collisions are more frequent[1]
  3. and a greater proportion have energy ≥ activation energy, so more are successful[1]
  4. Powder has a larger surface area (area to volume)[1]
  5. so more frequent collisions with acid particles / more sites for reaction[1]
  6. The rate is the gradient (slope) of the graph[1]

Higher temperature: faster, more energetic collisions; powder: greater surface area → more frequent collisions; rate = gradient of the volume–time graph.

Q5[2 marks]
A reaction produces carbon dioxide gas. Describe two different ways its rate could be measured.
Answer

Collect the gas in a gas syringe and record the volume at fixed times, or stand the flask on a balance and record the loss in mass as the gas escapes.

Q6[6 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles and their energies, the effect of the following on the rate of a reaction.
  1. Increasing the temperature. [3]
  2. Adding a catalyst. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Particles gain kinetic energy and move faster, so collisions are more frequent[1]
  2. a greater proportion of collisions have energy above the activation energy[1]
  3. so a much larger fraction are successful — the rate rises sharply[1]
  4. A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy[1]
  5. so a greater fraction of the existing molecules have enough energy to react[1]
  6. more successful collisions per second; the catalyst is not used up[1]

Higher temperature: faster, more energetic collisions, more exceed Ea. Catalyst: lower Ea, so more molecules already exceed it; recovered unchanged.

05

Salts

Multiple choice · 8

Q1An acid is a substance that, in water, releases:

  1. AOH⁻ ions
  2. BH⁺ ions
  3. Celectrons
  4. Dsodium ions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — H⁺ ions

Hydrogen ions (H⁺) are responsible for all acidic behaviour; an alkali releases OH⁻ instead.

Q2"Strong acid" means the acid:

  1. Ais very concentrated
  2. Bionises completely in water
  3. Chas a high boiling point
  4. Dis dangerous to touch
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ionises completely in water

Strong vs weak is about complete vs partial ionisation, independent of how concentrated (dilute) the solution is.

Q3A solution of pH 2 compared with pH 4 is:

  1. Atwice as acidic
  2. B100 times more acidic
  3. Chalf as acidic
  4. Dthe same
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 100 times more acidic

The scale is logarithmic: two pH units is 10 × 10 = 100 times the H⁺ concentration.

Q4The products of neutralising an acid with an alkali are:

  1. Asalt + hydrogen
  2. Bsalt + water
  3. Csalt + carbon dioxide
  4. Dhydrogen + oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — salt + water

Acid + alkali → salt + water; ionically, H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O.

Q5Fizzing and limewater turning milky when acid is added tells you the other reactant was a:

  1. Ametal
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Cstrong alkali
  4. Dsalt
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbonate

Acid + carbonate releases carbon dioxide (the fizzing), and CO₂ turns limewater milky.

Q6Zinc reacting with sulfuric acid produces:

  1. Azinc chloride + hydrogen
  2. Bzinc sulfate + hydrogen
  3. Czinc sulfate + water
  4. Dzinc oxide + carbon dioxide
Show answer

Correct answer: B — zinc sulfate + hydrogen

Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen; sulfuric acid makes a sulfate, so it is zinc sulfate + hydrogen.

Q7In a titration, phenolphthalein changes from:

  1. Ared to yellow
  2. Bcolourless to pink
  3. Cblue to red
  4. Dgreen to purple
Show answer

Correct answer: B — colourless to pink

Phenolphthalein is colourless in acid and pink in alkali, giving a sharp end point.

Q8A Brønsted–Lowry base is defined as a substance that:

  1. Adonates protons
  2. Baccepts protons
  3. Cdonates electrons
  4. Dproduces H⁺
Show answer

Correct answer: B — accepts protons

A Brønsted–Lowry base is a proton (H⁺) acceptor; an acid is a proton donor.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what all acids produce in aqueous solution, and give the pH range of an acid.
Answer

Acids produce hydrogen ions, H⁺, in aqueous solution; their pH is below 7.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain the difference between a strong acid and a weak acid.
Answer

A strong acid is fully ionised in water; a weak acid is only partly ionised. It is about degree of ionisation, not concentration.

Q3[3 marks]
Write a word and balanced symbol equation for the reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide.
Answer

Hydrochloric acid + sodium hydroxide → sodium chloride + water. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O.

Q4[7 marks]
A student prepares dry crystals of copper(II) sulfate from copper(II) oxide and dilute sulfuric acid.
  1. Write the balanced equation for the reaction. [2]
  2. Describe how the student obtains pure dry crystals from the mixture. [4]
  3. Explain why excess copper(II) oxide is used. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O (correct formulae)[1]
  2. Equation balanced[1]
  3. Warm the acid and add excess copper(II) oxide, then filter off the unreacted solid[1]
  4. Heat the filtrate to evaporate some water / to the point of crystallisation[1]
  5. Leave to cool so crystals form[1]
  6. Filter and dry the crystals (e.g. between filter paper)[1]
  7. Excess ensures all the acid reacts, and the excess solid can simply be filtered off[1]

CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O; react with excess base, filter, evaporate to crystallisation, cool, filter, dry; excess guarantees all acid used and is easily removed.

Q5[2 marks]
A solution has a hydrogen-ion concentration of 1 × 10⁻³ mol/dm³. Calculate its pH and state whether it is acidic or alkaline.
Answer

pH = −log₁₀(1 × 10⁻³) = 3. pH 3 is below 7, so the solution is acidic.

Q6[6 marks]
A student is asked to prepare pure, dry crystals of copper(II) sulfate from copper(II) oxide (an insoluble base) and dilute sulfuric acid.
  1. Write the equation for the reaction. [2]
  2. Describe the method to obtain pure dry crystals. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O (correct formulae)[1]
  2. balanced[1]
  3. Warm the acid and add copper(II) oxide in excess until no more reacts[1]
  4. Filter to remove the excess copper(II) oxide[1]
  5. Heat the filtrate to evaporate water to the point of crystallisation, then leave to cool[1]
  6. Filter off the crystals and dry them (e.g. between filter paper)[1]

CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O; react with excess base, filter, evaporate to crystallisation, cool, filter, dry.

06

Nitrogen and Sulphur

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Down a group in the p-block, elements become:

  1. Amore non-metallic
  2. Bmore metallic
  3. Cmore gaseous
  4. Dmore radioactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more metallic

Larger atoms hold outer electrons more loosely, so metallic character increases down a group.

Q2Which Group 14 element is a non-metal with several allotropes?

  1. Alead
  2. Btin
  3. Csilicon
  4. Dcarbon
Show answer

Correct answer: D — carbon

Carbon is the non-metal at the top of Group 14, with allotropes diamond, graphite, graphene and fullerenes.

Q3Nitrogen gas (N₂) is unreactive mainly because of its:

  1. Alow mass
  2. Bstrong triple bond
  3. Cmetallic character
  4. Dhigh electronegativity alone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — strong triple bond

The N≡N triple bond is very strong, so breaking N₂ apart needs a lot of energy.

Q4The most-produced industrial chemical, made from a Group 16 element, is:

  1. Anitric acid
  2. Bsulfuric acid
  3. Cammonia
  4. Dhydrochloric acid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sulfuric acid

Sulfuric acid (from sulfur) is the highest-tonnage industrial chemical.

Q5The first element of each p-block group is anomalous partly because it:

  1. Ais a metal
  2. Blacks available d orbitals and is small
  3. Chas the most shells
  4. Dis radioactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lacks available d orbitals and is small

Being small, very electronegative and without accessible d orbitals limits its bonding, unlike the elements below it.

Q6SiO₂ melts far higher than CO₂ because SiO₂ is:

  1. Aionic
  2. Ba giant covalent network
  3. Cmetallic
  4. Dmade of small molecules
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a giant covalent network

SiO₂ is a giant covalent lattice; melting it breaks strong covalent bonds, unlike molecular CO₂.

Q7Down Group 17, the oxidising power of the halogens:

  1. Aincreases
  2. Bdecreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Dpeaks at bromine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decreases

Gaining an electron gets harder down the group, so oxidising power decreases.

Q8Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is described as:

  1. Abasic
  2. Bacidic
  3. Camphoteric
  4. Dneutral
Show answer

Correct answer: C — amphoteric

An oxide that reacts with both acids and bases is amphoteric.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State and explain the trend in reactivity down Group 17 (the halogens).
Answer

Reactivity decreases down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is harder to attract an electron.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to confirm the presence of ammonia gas.
Answer

Damp red litmus paper turns blue in ammonia gas (ammonia is alkaline).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why chlorine can displace bromine from potassium bromide solution, and write the ionic equation.
Answer

Chlorine is more reactive (a stronger oxidising agent) than bromine, so it removes electrons from bromide ions: Cl₂ + 2Br⁻ → 2Cl⁻ + Br₂.

Q4[6 marks]
Nitrogen and sulfur form important oxides and acids.
  1. Explain why oxides of nitrogen and sulfur cause acid rain. [3]
  2. State the equation for the reaction between sulfur dioxide and water. [1]
  3. State one environmental effect of acid rain. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released when fossil fuels burn[1]
  2. They dissolve in rainwater[1]
  3. forming acidic solutions (sulfurous/sulfuric and nitric acids)[1]
  4. SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃[1]
  5. Damages plants/forests, or acidifies lakes killing fish[1]
  6. or corrodes buildings/limestone and metals (any valid effect)[1]

SO₂/NOₓ from burning fuels dissolve in rain forming acids; SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃; acid rain damages forests, lakes, buildings.

Q5[3 marks]
Chlorine is bubbled through separate solutions of potassium bromide and potassium iodide. State what you would observe in each and write one equation.
Answer

With potassium bromide the solution turns orange as bromine is displaced; with potassium iodide it turns brown as iodine is displaced. Chlorine is more reactive than both. Equation: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.

Q6[6 marks]
This question is about trends in the p-block.
  1. Explain why the reactivity of the halogens decreases down Group 17. [3]
  2. Explain the inert pair effect and illustrate it with lead. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Halogens react by gaining one electron[1]
  2. down the group the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
  3. so an electron is attracted/gained less easily — reactivity falls[1]
  4. The inert pair effect is the reluctance of the outer s-electron pair to bond in heavier p-block elements[1]
  5. so they favour an oxidation state two lower than the group maximum[1]
  6. lead is more stable as Pb²⁺ than Pb⁴⁺[1]

Halogen reactivity falls down the group (electron gained less easily); the inert pair effect makes heavier elements like lead favour the lower (+2) state.

07

Water

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The approximate percentage of oxygen in clean dry air is:

  1. A78%
  2. B21%
  3. C1%
  4. D0.04%
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 21%

Air is about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with ~1% argon and ~0.04% CO₂.

Q2Carbon monoxide is dangerous because it:

  1. Acauses acid rain
  2. Bstops the blood carrying oxygen
  3. Cis highly flammable only
  4. Ddepletes ozone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stops the blood carrying oxygen

CO binds to the blood in place of oxygen, so the body is starved of it — and it comes from incomplete combustion.

Q3Which pollutant is the main cause of acid rain?

  1. ACarbon dioxide
  2. BSulfur dioxide
  3. CArgon
  4. DMethane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Sulfur dioxide

Sulfur dioxide (with oxides of nitrogen) dissolves in atmospheric water to form acids — acid rain.

Q4The enhanced greenhouse effect is mainly driven by rising:

  1. Aoxygen
  2. Bnitrogen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dargon
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Extra CO₂ (and methane) from burning fossil fuels traps more radiated heat, warming the climate.

Q5Chlorination is a step in water treatment to:

  1. Aremove solid particles
  2. Bkill bacteria
  3. Cadd minerals
  4. Dsoften the water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kill bacteria

Filtration removes solids; chlorination kills bacteria to make the water safe to drink.

Q6A catalytic converter changes CO and NOₓ into:

  1. ASO₂ and soot
  2. BCO₂ and N₂
  3. Cmore CO
  4. Dozone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — CO₂ and N₂

It converts the toxic exhaust gases into harmless carbon dioxide and nitrogen.

Q7Oxides of nitrogen form in car engines because:

  1. Anitrogen is in the fuel
  2. Bthe high temperature makes N₂ and O₂ combine
  3. Cof incomplete combustion
  4. Dthe catalyst produces them
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the high temperature makes N₂ and O₂ combine

The intense heat of combustion makes atmospheric nitrogen and oxygen react to form NOₓ.

Q8Chlorination is used in water treatment to:

  1. Aremove dissolved salts
  2. Bkill microbes
  3. Cremove solids
  4. Dsoften the water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kill microbes

Chlorine sterilises the water by killing harmful microorganisms; solids are removed earlier by filtration.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State the approximate percentages of the two main gases in clean, dry air.
Answer

About 78% nitrogen and about 21% oxygen (the remaining ~1% is mostly argon with a little carbon dioxide).

Q2[2 marks]
Name a chemical test for water and its positive result.
Answer

Add anhydrous copper(II) sulfate — it turns from white to blue in the presence of water (or blue cobalt chloride paper turns pink).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain how the carbon dioxide produced by burning fossil fuels contributes to climate change.
Answer

Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas; it absorbs and re-emits heat (infrared radiation) that would otherwise escape, so the extra CO₂ traps more heat and raises average global temperatures.

Q4[6 marks]
Rusting is a serious problem for iron structures.
  1. State the two substances needed for iron to rust. [2]
  2. Describe how galvanising protects iron and how it works even if the coating is scratched. [3]
  3. Name one other method of rust prevention. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Water (moisture)[1]
  2. Oxygen (air)[1]
  3. Galvanising coats the iron with a layer of zinc[1]
  4. The zinc is more reactive than iron, so it corrodes/loses electrons in preference (sacrificial protection)[1]
  5. so the iron is protected even where the coating is scratched[1]
  6. Painting / oiling / greasing / coating with plastic (any one)[1]

Water + oxygen needed; galvanising = zinc coating that sacrificially protects (zinc more reactive) even if scratched; also painting/oiling.

Q5[3 marks]
Explain how the sulfur dioxide released by burning coal leads to acid rain and one of its effects.
Answer

Sulfur impurities in the coal burn to sulfur dioxide, which dissolves in rainwater to form an acidic solution (sulfurous/sulfuric acid). This acid rain damages plants and forests, acidifies lakes killing fish, or corrodes limestone buildings and metals.

Q6[6 marks]
Burning fossil fuels releases several gases into the atmosphere.
  1. Explain how carbon monoxide is formed and why it is harmful. [3]
  2. Explain how a catalytic converter reduces harmful emissions, giving one equation. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Carbon monoxide forms by incomplete combustion[1]
  2. when there is not enough oxygen to make CO₂[1]
  3. it is toxic because it prevents the blood from carrying oxygen[1]
  4. The converter provides a catalyst surface where pollutants react[1]
  5. carbon monoxide is oxidised to carbon dioxide[1]
  6. 2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂ (and NOₓ is reduced to N₂)[1]

CO from incomplete combustion, toxic (stops blood carrying O₂); catalytic converter oxidises CO to CO₂ (2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂) and reduces NOₓ to N₂.

08

Organic Chemistry

Multiple choice · 13

Q1Crude oil is separated into fractions by:

  1. Afiltration
  2. Bfractional distillation by boiling point
  3. Celectrolysis
  4. Dcrystallisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — fractional distillation by boiling point

Hydrocarbons condense at different heights in the column according to their boiling points.

Q2The general formula of an alkane is:

  1. ACₙH₂ₙ
  2. BCₙH₂ₙ₊₂
  3. CCₙHₙ
  4. DCₙH₂ₙ₋₂
Show answer

Correct answer: B — CₙH₂ₙ₊₂

Saturated alkanes follow CₙH₂ₙ₊₂; alkenes (one double bond) follow CₙH₂ₙ.

Q3Incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon is dangerous because it produces:

  1. Acarbon dioxide
  2. Bwater
  3. Ctoxic carbon monoxide
  4. Dhydrogen
Show answer

Correct answer: C — toxic carbon monoxide

Limited oxygen gives carbon monoxide (a toxic, colourless gas) and soot rather than CO₂.

Q4Which decolourises bromine water?

  1. AAn alkane
  2. BAn alkene
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — An alkene

The C=C of an alkene adds bromine, using up the colour; a saturated alkane leaves it orange.

Q5Poly(ethene) is made from ethene by:

  1. Acracking
  2. Baddition polymerisation
  3. Cfractional distillation
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition polymerisation

Many ethene monomers join into a long chain as the double bonds open — addition polymerisation.

Q6Most addition polymers are non-biodegradable because:

  1. Athey are made of metal
  2. Btheir unreactive C–C backbone does not break down
  3. Cthey dissolve in water
  4. Dthey contain oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — their unreactive C–C backbone does not break down

The strong, unreactive carbon chain resists breakdown, so the plastics persist in the environment.

Q7Reacting ethene with hydrogen and a nickel catalyst produces:

  1. Aethanol
  2. Bethane
  3. Cpoly(ethene)
  4. Ddibromoethane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethane

Hydrogenation adds H₂ across the C=C double bond, turning the alkene ethene into the alkane ethane.

Q8Addition polymers such as poly(ethene) are hard to dispose of because they are:

  1. Ahighly reactive
  2. Bnon-biodegradable
  3. Csoluble in water
  4. Dmagnetic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — non-biodegradable

Their unreactive carbon backbone is not broken down by microbes, so they persist for a very long time.

Q9The step Cl₂ → 2Cl• in the reaction of methane with chlorine is called:

  1. Apropagation
  2. Binitiation
  3. Ctermination
  4. Dsubstitution
Show answer

Correct answer: B — initiation

UV light splitting the halogen into radicals is the initiation step.

Q10Propene reacts with HBr. The major product predicted by Markovnikov's rule is:

  1. A1-bromopropane
  2. B2-bromopropane
  3. Cpropan-1-ol
  4. Dpropane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2-bromopropane

The H adds to the carbon with more hydrogens, giving the more stable secondary carbocation, so 2-bromopropane is the major product.

Q11The functional group of an alcohol is:

  1. A–COOH
  2. B–OH
  3. CC=C
  4. D–O–
Show answer

Correct answer: B — –OH

Alcohols contain the hydroxyl group –OH; –COOH is a carboxylic acid.

Q12Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to give a salt, water and:

  1. Ahydrogen
  2. Boxygen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dan ester
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide (the fizz that confirms a carboxylic acid).

Q13An ester is formed by reacting a carboxylic acid with a(n):

  1. Ametal
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Calcohol
  4. Dalkene
Show answer

Correct answer: C — alcohol

Esterification combines a carboxylic acid and an alcohol (with an acid catalyst) to give an ester and water.

Exam-style questions · 10

Q1[2 marks]
Define the term homologous series.
Answer

A family of organic compounds with the same general formula and similar chemical properties, where each member differs from the next by CH₂.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to distinguish an alkane from an alkene.
Answer

Add bromine water: an alkene decolourises it (orange to colourless); an alkane does not (stays orange).

Q3[3 marks]
Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation to form poly(ethene). Explain what this means and give the repeat unit.
Answer

Many ethene monomers (with C=C double bonds) join together, with no other product, to form a long-chain polymer. Repeat unit: –(CH₂–CH₂)–.

Q4[6 marks]
Ethanol can be made by fermentation or by the hydration of ethene.
  1. Write the equation for the fermentation of glucose to ethanol. [2]
  2. State the conditions for making ethanol by hydration of ethene, and write the equation. [3]
  3. Give one advantage of the hydration method over fermentation. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂[1]
  2. correct formulae / balanced[1]
  3. Steam / water, ~300 °C, ~60 atm, phosphoric acid catalyst[1]
  4. C₂H₄ + H₂O → C₂H₅OH[1]
  5. balanced equation[1]
  6. It is a continuous process / faster / gives purer ethanol (any one)[1]

Fermentation: C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂; hydration: C₂H₄ + H₂O → C₂H₅OH (steam, ~300 °C, ~60 atm, H₃PO₄); hydration is continuous/faster/purer.

Q5[2 marks]
Describe the test to distinguish ethane from ethene, giving the result for each.
Answer

Add bromine water: ethene (an alkene) decolourises it from orange to colourless; ethane (an alkane) leaves it orange (no reaction).

Q6[6 marks]
Ethene (C₂H₄) is an important product of cracking.
  1. Explain what cracking is and why it is done. [3]
  2. Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation. Describe what this means and name the product. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Cracking breaks long-chain hydrocarbons into shorter ones[1]
  2. using heat and a catalyst[1]
  3. to make more useful small molecules (fuels) and alkenes for plastics[1]
  4. Many ethene monomers (with C=C double bonds) join together[1]
  5. the double bonds open and link into a long chain, with no other product[1]
  6. The product is poly(ethene)[1]

Cracking breaks long hydrocarbons (heat + catalyst) into useful short molecules and alkenes; addition polymerisation joins many ethene monomers into poly(ethene).

Q7[3 marks]
Methane reacts with chlorine in ultraviolet light. Name the type of mechanism and write the initiation and the two propagation steps.
Answer

Free-radical substitution. Initiation: Cl₂ → 2Cl• (UV). Propagation: Cl• + CH₄ → •CH₃ + HCl, then •CH₃ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + Cl•.

Q8[6 marks]
But-1-ene reacts with hydrogen bromide.
  1. Name the mechanism and describe the role of the C=C double bond. [2]
  2. Explain, using Markovnikov's rule, which product forms in the greater amount. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. The mechanism is electrophilic addition[1]
  2. the electron-rich C=C double bond attracts the electrophile (the δ+ H of HBr)[1]
  3. The H can add to either carbon, giving either a secondary or a primary carbocation[1]
  4. the secondary carbocation is more stable than the primary[1]
  5. so the H adds to the terminal (CH₂) carbon (Markovnikov's rule)[1]
  6. giving mainly 2-bromobutane[1]

Electrophilic addition; the C=C attracts the electrophile; via the more stable secondary carbocation the major product is 2-bromobutane.

Q9[3 marks]
Ethanol can be made by fermentation. Give the equation, the conditions, and one advantage of this method over hydration of ethene.
Answer

C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂, using yeast at about 30 °C in the absence of air. An advantage is that it uses a renewable resource (sugar/plant crops) rather than crude oil.

Q10[6 marks]
Ethanol, ethanoic acid and their reactions are important in the O Level organic chapter.
  1. Describe how ethanoic acid can be made from ethanol. [2]
  2. State what you would observe when ethanoic acid is added to magnesium, and write the equation. [2]
  3. Name the ester and other product formed when ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, and state the catalyst. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate (warm/reflux)[1]
  2. (or ferment ethanol in air) to give ethanoic acid[1]
  3. The magnesium fizzes / dissolves, giving off hydrogen gas[1]
  4. Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂[1]
  5. Ethyl ethanoate is formed, plus water[1]
  6. using a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]

Oxidise ethanol → ethanoic acid; with magnesium it fizzes giving H₂ (Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂); with ethanol it makes ethyl ethanoate + water (conc. H₂SO₄ catalyst).

09

Hydrocarbons

Multiple choice · 13

Q1Crude oil is separated into fractions by:

  1. Afiltration
  2. Bfractional distillation by boiling point
  3. Celectrolysis
  4. Dcrystallisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — fractional distillation by boiling point

Hydrocarbons condense at different heights in the column according to their boiling points.

Q2The general formula of an alkane is:

  1. ACₙH₂ₙ
  2. BCₙH₂ₙ₊₂
  3. CCₙHₙ
  4. DCₙH₂ₙ₋₂
Show answer

Correct answer: B — CₙH₂ₙ₊₂

Saturated alkanes follow CₙH₂ₙ₊₂; alkenes (one double bond) follow CₙH₂ₙ.

Q3Incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon is dangerous because it produces:

  1. Acarbon dioxide
  2. Bwater
  3. Ctoxic carbon monoxide
  4. Dhydrogen
Show answer

Correct answer: C — toxic carbon monoxide

Limited oxygen gives carbon monoxide (a toxic, colourless gas) and soot rather than CO₂.

Q4Which decolourises bromine water?

  1. AAn alkane
  2. BAn alkene
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — An alkene

The C=C of an alkene adds bromine, using up the colour; a saturated alkane leaves it orange.

Q5Poly(ethene) is made from ethene by:

  1. Acracking
  2. Baddition polymerisation
  3. Cfractional distillation
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition polymerisation

Many ethene monomers join into a long chain as the double bonds open — addition polymerisation.

Q6Most addition polymers are non-biodegradable because:

  1. Athey are made of metal
  2. Btheir unreactive C–C backbone does not break down
  3. Cthey dissolve in water
  4. Dthey contain oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — their unreactive C–C backbone does not break down

The strong, unreactive carbon chain resists breakdown, so the plastics persist in the environment.

Q7Reacting ethene with hydrogen and a nickel catalyst produces:

  1. Aethanol
  2. Bethane
  3. Cpoly(ethene)
  4. Ddibromoethane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethane

Hydrogenation adds H₂ across the C=C double bond, turning the alkene ethene into the alkane ethane.

Q8Addition polymers such as poly(ethene) are hard to dispose of because they are:

  1. Ahighly reactive
  2. Bnon-biodegradable
  3. Csoluble in water
  4. Dmagnetic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — non-biodegradable

Their unreactive carbon backbone is not broken down by microbes, so they persist for a very long time.

Q9The step Cl₂ → 2Cl• in the reaction of methane with chlorine is called:

  1. Apropagation
  2. Binitiation
  3. Ctermination
  4. Dsubstitution
Show answer

Correct answer: B — initiation

UV light splitting the halogen into radicals is the initiation step.

Q10Propene reacts with HBr. The major product predicted by Markovnikov's rule is:

  1. A1-bromopropane
  2. B2-bromopropane
  3. Cpropan-1-ol
  4. Dpropane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2-bromopropane

The H adds to the carbon with more hydrogens, giving the more stable secondary carbocation, so 2-bromopropane is the major product.

Q11The functional group of an alcohol is:

  1. A–COOH
  2. B–OH
  3. CC=C
  4. D–O–
Show answer

Correct answer: B — –OH

Alcohols contain the hydroxyl group –OH; –COOH is a carboxylic acid.

Q12Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to give a salt, water and:

  1. Ahydrogen
  2. Boxygen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dan ester
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide (the fizz that confirms a carboxylic acid).

Q13An ester is formed by reacting a carboxylic acid with a(n):

  1. Ametal
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Calcohol
  4. Dalkene
Show answer

Correct answer: C — alcohol

Esterification combines a carboxylic acid and an alcohol (with an acid catalyst) to give an ester and water.

Exam-style questions · 10

Q1[2 marks]
Define the term homologous series.
Answer

A family of organic compounds with the same general formula and similar chemical properties, where each member differs from the next by CH₂.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to distinguish an alkane from an alkene.
Answer

Add bromine water: an alkene decolourises it (orange to colourless); an alkane does not (stays orange).

Q3[3 marks]
Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation to form poly(ethene). Explain what this means and give the repeat unit.
Answer

Many ethene monomers (with C=C double bonds) join together, with no other product, to form a long-chain polymer. Repeat unit: –(CH₂–CH₂)–.

Q4[6 marks]
Ethanol can be made by fermentation or by the hydration of ethene.
  1. Write the equation for the fermentation of glucose to ethanol. [2]
  2. State the conditions for making ethanol by hydration of ethene, and write the equation. [3]
  3. Give one advantage of the hydration method over fermentation. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂[1]
  2. correct formulae / balanced[1]
  3. Steam / water, ~300 °C, ~60 atm, phosphoric acid catalyst[1]
  4. C₂H₄ + H₂O → C₂H₅OH[1]
  5. balanced equation[1]
  6. It is a continuous process / faster / gives purer ethanol (any one)[1]

Fermentation: C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂; hydration: C₂H₄ + H₂O → C₂H₅OH (steam, ~300 °C, ~60 atm, H₃PO₄); hydration is continuous/faster/purer.

Q5[2 marks]
Describe the test to distinguish ethane from ethene, giving the result for each.
Answer

Add bromine water: ethene (an alkene) decolourises it from orange to colourless; ethane (an alkane) leaves it orange (no reaction).

Q6[6 marks]
Ethene (C₂H₄) is an important product of cracking.
  1. Explain what cracking is and why it is done. [3]
  2. Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation. Describe what this means and name the product. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Cracking breaks long-chain hydrocarbons into shorter ones[1]
  2. using heat and a catalyst[1]
  3. to make more useful small molecules (fuels) and alkenes for plastics[1]
  4. Many ethene monomers (with C=C double bonds) join together[1]
  5. the double bonds open and link into a long chain, with no other product[1]
  6. The product is poly(ethene)[1]

Cracking breaks long hydrocarbons (heat + catalyst) into useful short molecules and alkenes; addition polymerisation joins many ethene monomers into poly(ethene).

Q7[3 marks]
Methane reacts with chlorine in ultraviolet light. Name the type of mechanism and write the initiation and the two propagation steps.
Answer

Free-radical substitution. Initiation: Cl₂ → 2Cl• (UV). Propagation: Cl• + CH₄ → •CH₃ + HCl, then •CH₃ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + Cl•.

Q8[6 marks]
But-1-ene reacts with hydrogen bromide.
  1. Name the mechanism and describe the role of the C=C double bond. [2]
  2. Explain, using Markovnikov's rule, which product forms in the greater amount. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. The mechanism is electrophilic addition[1]
  2. the electron-rich C=C double bond attracts the electrophile (the δ+ H of HBr)[1]
  3. The H can add to either carbon, giving either a secondary or a primary carbocation[1]
  4. the secondary carbocation is more stable than the primary[1]
  5. so the H adds to the terminal (CH₂) carbon (Markovnikov's rule)[1]
  6. giving mainly 2-bromobutane[1]

Electrophilic addition; the C=C attracts the electrophile; via the more stable secondary carbocation the major product is 2-bromobutane.

Q9[3 marks]
Ethanol can be made by fermentation. Give the equation, the conditions, and one advantage of this method over hydration of ethene.
Answer

C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂, using yeast at about 30 °C in the absence of air. An advantage is that it uses a renewable resource (sugar/plant crops) rather than crude oil.

Q10[6 marks]
Ethanol, ethanoic acid and their reactions are important in the O Level organic chapter.
  1. Describe how ethanoic acid can be made from ethanol. [2]
  2. State what you would observe when ethanoic acid is added to magnesium, and write the equation. [2]
  3. Name the ester and other product formed when ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, and state the catalyst. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate (warm/reflux)[1]
  2. (or ferment ethanol in air) to give ethanoic acid[1]
  3. The magnesium fizzes / dissolves, giving off hydrogen gas[1]
  4. Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂[1]
  5. Ethyl ethanoate is formed, plus water[1]
  6. using a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]

Oxidise ethanol → ethanoic acid; with magnesium it fizzes giving H₂ (Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂); with ethanol it makes ethyl ethanoate + water (conc. H₂SO₄ catalyst).

10

Monohydroxy Alkanes (Alcohols)

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A primary alcohol is fully oxidised to a:

  1. Aketone
  2. Bcarboxylic acid
  3. Calkene
  4. Dnothing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carboxylic acid

Primary → aldehyde → carboxylic acid; secondary stops at a ketone; tertiary does not oxidise.

Q2A secondary alcohol oxidises to a:

  1. Acarboxylic acid
  2. Bketone
  3. Caldehyde only, then stops
  4. Dphenol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ketone

Secondary alcohols oxidise to ketones and no further.

Q3A tertiary alcohol warmed with acidified dichromate:

  1. Aturns it green
  2. Bdoes not react (stays orange)
  3. Cexplodes
  4. Dforms an ester
Show answer

Correct answer: B — does not react (stays orange)

There is no hydrogen on the OH carbon to remove, so it resists oxidation and the dichromate stays orange.

Q4Alcohols have relatively high boiling points because they:

  1. Aare ionic
  2. Bhydrogen-bond
  3. Care large
  4. Dcontain metals
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hydrogen-bond

The O–H group forms hydrogen bonds between molecules, raising the boiling point.

Q5Phenol differs from an ordinary alcohol in that it is:

  1. Abasic
  2. Bweakly acidic
  3. Cunreactive
  4. Da gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — weakly acidic

The benzene ring stabilises the anion, so phenol loses H⁺ and is weakly acidic (reacts with NaOH).

Q6An alcohol reacting with a carboxylic acid forms an:

  1. Aether
  2. Bester (+ water)
  3. Camine
  4. Dalkane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ester (+ water)

Esterification gives a sweet-smelling ester and water.

Q7Dehydrating ethanol over a hot catalyst produces:

  1. Aethane
  2. Bethene
  3. Cethanoic acid
  4. Dan ester
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethene

Dehydration removes water from the alcohol, forming the alkene ethene by elimination.

Q8Which reagent reacts with a carboxylic acid but NOT with phenol?

  1. Asodium hydroxide
  2. Bsodium carbonate
  3. Cwater
  4. Dbromine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sodium carbonate

A carboxylic acid is strong enough to fizz with a carbonate; phenol is too weak, so carbonate distinguishes them.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Classify butan-2-ol as a primary, secondary or tertiary alcohol and justify your answer.
Answer

Secondary — the carbon bearing the –OH group is attached to two other carbon atoms.

Q2[2 marks]
State the products of oxidising a primary alcohol with acidified potassium dichromate.
Answer

First an aldehyde, then on further oxidation a carboxylic acid; the dichromate turns from orange to green.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why phenol is acidic but ethanol is essentially neutral.
Answer

When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring, stabilising the ion, so H⁺ is released. Ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺.

Q4[6 marks]
Three alcohols — propan-1-ol, propan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol — are each warmed with acidified potassium dichromate.
  1. State the product (if any) from each alcohol. [3]
  2. Describe the colour change seen for those that react. [1]
  3. Explain why the tertiary alcohol does not react. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Propan-1-ol (primary) → propanal then propanoic acid[1]
  2. Propan-2-ol (secondary) → propanone (a ketone)[1]
  3. 2-methylpropan-2-ol (tertiary) → no reaction[1]
  4. Those that react turn the dichromate from orange to green[1]
  5. The tertiary alcohol has no hydrogen on the carbon bearing the –OH[1]
  6. so there is nothing for the oxidising agent to remove[1]

1° → aldehyde/acid, 2° → ketone, 3° → no reaction (orange→green for the first two); tertiary resists because there is no H on the OH carbon.

Q5[2 marks]
Give one advantage of making ethanol by hydration of ethene rather than by fermentation.
Answer

Hydration is a fast, continuous process that gives pure ethanol directly, whereas fermentation is slow, works in batches and produces a dilute impure mixture that must be distilled.

Q6[6 marks]
Phenol and ethanol both contain an –OH group but behave differently.
  1. Explain why phenol is weakly acidic while ethanol is essentially neutral. [3]
  2. Describe a chemical test, with results, that distinguishes phenol from a carboxylic acid. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring[1]
  2. this stabilises the phenoxide ion, so H⁺ is released — weakly acidic[1]
  3. ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺[1]
  4. Add sodium carbonate solution to each[1]
  5. the carboxylic acid fizzes, releasing CO₂[1]
  6. phenol shows no reaction (too weak an acid)[1]

Phenol is acidic because the ring stabilises the phenoxide ion; ethanol's is not. Sodium carbonate fizzes with a carboxylic acid but not with phenol.

11

Carboxylic Acids

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The functional group of a carboxylic acid is:

  1. A–OH
  2. B–CHO
  3. C–COOH
  4. D–NH₂
Show answer

Correct answer: C — –COOH

The carboxyl group –COOH (a carbonyl plus a hydroxyl on one carbon) defines carboxylic acids.

Q2Carboxylic acids are:

  1. Astrong acids
  2. Bweak acids
  3. Cbases
  4. Dneutral
Show answer

Correct answer: B — weak acids

They only partly ionise in water — weak acids — though the stabilised carboxylate makes them acidic at all.

Q3A carboxylic acid added to a carbonate produces:

  1. Asalt + hydrogen
  2. Bsalt + water + carbon dioxide
  3. Can ester
  4. Dno reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — salt + water + carbon dioxide

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + CO₂; the fizz (CO₂) confirms a carboxylic acid.

Q4Esterification combines a carboxylic acid with a(n):

  1. Ametal
  2. Balcohol
  3. Ccarbonate
  4. Dhalogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — alcohol

Acid + alcohol (with an acid catalyst) → ester + water.

Q5Esters are best known for their:

  1. Ahigh acidity
  2. Bsweet, fruity smells
  3. Cmetallic conductivity
  4. Dexplosiveness
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sweet, fruity smells

Esters have pleasant fruity smells and are used as flavourings and perfumes.

Q6Why is a carboxylic acid acidic but an alcohol is not?

  1. Ait has more carbons
  2. Bthe carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation
  3. Cit contains a metal
  4. Dit is a gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation

Spreading the negative charge over both oxygens stabilises the ion, so the H⁺ is lost more readily.

Q7The most reactive derivative of a carboxylic acid, used to make the others, is the:

  1. Aester
  2. Bamide
  3. Cacyl chloride
  4. Dsalt
Show answer

Correct answer: C — acyl chloride

Acyl chlorides are the most reactive derivative and are used to prepare esters and amides.

Q8Boiling a fat with sodium hydroxide to make soap is called:

  1. Aesterification
  2. Bsaponification
  3. Chydrogenation
  4. Dpolymerisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — saponification

Alkaline hydrolysis of a fat (an ester) to make soap is saponification.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Name the functional group in a carboxylic acid and state whether such acids are strong or weak.
Answer

The carboxyl group, –COOH; carboxylic acids are weak acids (only partly ionised in water).

Q2[2 marks]
Give the products and observation when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
Answer

Sodium ethanoate, water and carbon dioxide are formed; effervescence (fizzing) is seen.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why a carboxylic acid is more acidic than the corresponding alcohol.
Answer

When a carboxylic acid loses H⁺, the negative charge on the carboxylate ion is delocalised over both oxygen atoms, stabilising it; an alcohol's anion is not stabilised in this way.

Q4[6 marks]
Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of a little concentrated sulfuric acid.
  1. Name the type of reaction and the organic product. [2]
  2. Write the equation for the reaction. [2]
  3. State the role of the concentrated sulfuric acid, and one use of the product. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The reaction is esterification (condensation)[1]
  2. The product is ethyl ethanoate (an ester)[1]
  3. CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
  4. balanced with water as the other product[1]
  5. The sulfuric acid is a catalyst (and dehydrating agent)[1]
  6. Esters are used as flavourings / perfumes / solvents (any one)[1]

Esterification → ethyl ethanoate; CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O; H₂SO₄ is the catalyst; esters used as flavourings/perfumes/solvents.

Q5[2 marks]
Name the ester formed from ethanoic acid and propan-1-ol, and state the catalyst used.
Answer

Propyl ethanoate, formed with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst (which also removes water).

Q6[6 marks]
Esters can be made from carboxylic acids and hydrolysed back again.
  1. Write the equation and conditions for making ethyl ethanoate from ethanoic acid and ethanol. [3]
  2. State the products of hydrolysing ethyl ethanoate with (i) dilute acid and (ii) sodium hydroxide. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
  2. conditions: warm with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]
  3. the reaction is reversible[1]
  4. (i) with dilute acid: ethanoic acid + ethanol[1]
  5. (ii) with sodium hydroxide: sodium ethanoate[1]
  6. plus ethanol[1]

CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O (conc. H₂SO₄); acid hydrolysis → acid + alcohol; alkaline hydrolysis → sodium ethanoate + ethanol.

12

Polymers

Multiple choice · 10

Q1The building blocks of proteins are:

  1. Amonosaccharides
  2. Bamino acids
  3. Cfatty acids
  4. Dnucleotides
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amino acids

Amino acids join by peptide bonds into protein chains; monosaccharides build carbohydrates and fatty acids build lipids.

Q2Which is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?

  1. AGlucose
  2. BStarch
  3. CCellulose
  4. DGlycerol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Starch

Starch stores energy in plants; cellulose (also a polysaccharide) is structural, and glucose is the monosaccharide unit.

Q3A protein loses its function when heated strongly because it:

  1. Agains energy
  2. Bdenatures (loses its shape)
  3. Cturns into a carbohydrate
  4. Ddissolves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures (loses its shape)

Heat unfolds the protein's precise shape — denaturing — and the shape is what its function depends on.

Q4Lipids differ from carbohydrates in that they:

  1. Astore more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
  2. Bare made of amino acids
  3. Cdissolve easily in water
  4. Dcannot store energy
Show answer

Correct answer: A — store more energy per gram and are insoluble in water

Fats and oils pack more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are water-insoluble; they also form membranes and insulation.

Q5An enzyme is best described as a:

  1. Acarbohydrate that stores energy
  2. Bbiological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
  3. Ctype of lipid
  4. Dsource of quick energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — biological catalyst that is specific to its substrate

Enzymes are protein catalysts, each shaped to fit one substrate (lock and key), speeding a reaction without being used up.

Q6Enzyme activity falls sharply far from its optimum pH because the enzyme:

  1. Aruns out
  2. Bdenatures
  3. Cbecomes a substrate
  4. Dgains energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures

As a protein, an extreme pH unfolds (denatures) the enzyme, destroying the shape it needs to work.

Q7Monomers join to form a polymer in a reaction that releases water. This is:

  1. Ahydrolysis
  2. Bcondensation
  3. Ccombustion
  4. Doxidation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — condensation

Condensation joins monomers and releases a small molecule such as water; hydrolysis is the reverse.

Q8A brick-red precipitate on warming with Benedict's solution shows the presence of:

  1. Astarch
  2. Bprotein
  3. Ca reducing sugar
  4. Da lipid
Show answer

Correct answer: C — a reducing sugar

Benedict's solution turns from blue to brick-red with a reducing sugar such as glucose.

Q9An amino acid normally exists as a zwitterion because:

  1. Ait has two amino groups
  2. Ba proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
  3. Cit is non-polar
  4. Dit contains a benzene ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂

The acidic –COOH donates a proton to the basic –NH₂, giving a species with + and − charges but no net charge.

Q10At a pH below its isoelectric point, an amino acid will be:

  1. Anegatively charged
  2. Bpositively charged
  3. Cneutral zwitterion only
  4. Duncharged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — positively charged

In more acidic conditions it gains H⁺ on the –COO⁻, giving an overall positive charge.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Name the three main classes of nutrients that are large biological molecules, and the smaller units each is built from.
Answer

Carbohydrates (from simple sugars), proteins (from amino acids) and fats/lipids (from fatty acids and glycerol).

Q2[2 marks]
Describe the test for a protein and its positive result.
Answer

Add biuret reagent (sodium hydroxide then copper(II) sulfate solution); a positive result is a colour change from blue to purple/violet.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain what happens when a carbohydrate such as starch is digested, and why enzymes are needed.
Answer

Starch is broken down (hydrolysed) into simple sugars such as glucose. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up this reaction at body temperature, which would otherwise be far too slow.

Q4[6 marks]
Enzymes control the reactions in living organisms.
  1. Explain what is meant by an enzyme being a catalyst. [2]
  2. Describe and explain the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity up to and beyond the optimum. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. It speeds up a reaction[1]
  2. without being used up / by lowering the activation energy[1]
  3. As temperature rises up to the optimum, activity increases[1]
  4. because particles collide more frequently and with more energy[1]
  5. Above the optimum, activity falls sharply[1]
  6. because the enzyme is denatured — its shape (active site) changes so substrate no longer fits[1]

Catalyst = speeds a reaction without being used up; activity rises to an optimum then falls as the enzyme denatures (active site changes shape).

Q5[2 marks]
Explain the difference between condensation and hydrolysis reactions in biological molecules.
Answer

Condensation joins two monomers together and releases a small molecule (usually water), building a polymer. Hydrolysis is the reverse: it adds water to split a polymer back into its monomers, as in digestion.

Q6[6 marks]
A student is given an unknown food sample to analyse.
  1. Describe the tests for starch and for protein, with their positive results. [4]
  2. The sample gives a cloudy emulsion in the emulsion test. What does this show, and how is the test carried out? [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Starch: add iodine solution[1]
  2. a blue-black colour is a positive result[1]
  3. Protein: add biuret solution[1]
  4. a purple/violet colour is a positive result[1]
  5. A cloudy emulsion shows a lipid (fat) is present[1]
  6. dissolve the sample in ethanol then add water — a cloudy white emulsion forms[1]

Starch → iodine blue-black; protein → biuret purple; lipid → cloudy emulsion (ethanol then water).

Q7[3 marks]
Explain what a zwitterion is and why amino acids can act as buffers.
Answer

A zwitterion is an amino acid that has transferred a proton internally from its –COOH to its –NH₂, giving –NH₃⁺ and –COO⁻ ends and no overall charge. It can accept H⁺ (onto –COO⁻) in acid and donate H⁺ (from –NH₃⁺) in alkali, so it resists pH change — acting as a buffer.

These questions come from the 10th Class Chemistry lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.