10th Class Biology — MCQs & Practice Questions

72 multiple-choice questions and 47 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

New to a topic? Read the 10th Class Biology notes first, then come back to practise.

10

Gaseous Exchange

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Gas exchange in the lungs happens in the:

  1. Atrachea
  2. Bbronchi
  3. Calveoli
  4. Ddiaphragm
Show answer

Correct answer: C — alveoli

The alveoli are the tiny air sacs where oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse between air and blood.

Q2Which is NOT a feature of a good exchange surface?

  1. Alarge area
  2. Bthick walls
  3. Cmoist lining
  4. Dgood blood supply
Show answer

Correct answer: B — thick walls

A good surface is thin, not thick, so the diffusion distance is short.

Q3When you breathe in, the diaphragm:

  1. Arelaxes and rises
  2. Bcontracts and flattens
  3. Cstays still
  4. Ddisappears
Show answer

Correct answer: B — contracts and flattens

The diaphragm contracts and flattens, increasing chest volume and drawing air in.

Q4Gases move across an exchange surface by:

  1. Aactive transport
  2. Bdiffusion
  3. Cosmosis
  4. Dbreathing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — diffusion

Oxygen and carbon dioxide move down their concentration gradients by diffusion.

Q5Plants exchange gases mainly through the:

  1. Aroots
  2. Bstomata
  3. Cxylem
  4. Dflowers
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stomata

Stomata on the leaves are the main gas-exchange pores in plants.

Q6Respiration differs from breathing because respiration:

  1. Amoves air
  2. Breleases energy in cells
  3. Chappens only in lungs
  4. Dneeds no oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — releases energy in cells

Respiration is the chemical release of energy in every cell; breathing just moves the air.

Q7During vigorous exercise, breathing becomes faster and deeper to:

  1. Acool the body
  2. Bsupply more oxygen and remove more CO₂
  3. Cmake lactic acid
  4. Dreduce heart rate
Show answer

Correct answer: B — supply more oxygen and remove more CO₂

Faster, deeper breathing meets the muscles' increased oxygen demand and clears extra carbon dioxide.

Q8The cilia in the airways are paralysed by:

  1. Aoxygen
  2. Btar in tobacco smoke
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dwater vapour
Show answer

Correct answer: B — tar in tobacco smoke

Tar paralyses the cilia, so mucus and trapped dirt are no longer swept out.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[3 marks]
Describe how the alveoli are adapted for efficient gaseous exchange.
Answer

There are millions of alveoli giving a large surface area; their walls are one cell thick for a short diffusion distance; they have a moist lining so gases dissolve; and they are surrounded by many capillaries that keep the concentration gradient steep.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain the difference between breathing and respiration.
Answer

Breathing is the physical movement of air in and out of the lungs (ventilation). Respiration is the chemical process in cells that releases energy from glucose. Breathing supplies the oxygen respiration needs.

Q3[6 marks]
The human breathing system supplies oxygen to the blood.
  1. Name, in order, the structures air passes through from the mouth to the site of exchange. [2]
  2. Explain the changes that cause air to move into the lungs. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Trachea → bronchi → bronchioles[1]
  2. → alveoli[1]
  3. The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract[1]
  4. the diaphragm flattens and the ribcage moves up and out[1]
  5. so the volume of the chest increases and the pressure inside falls[1]
  6. air moves in from the higher outside pressure to the lower pressure in the lungs[1]

Trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli; muscles contract, chest volume rises, internal pressure falls, so air flows in.

Q4[2 marks]
Explain why a person continues to breathe deeply for some time after finishing hard exercise.
Answer

During hard exercise the muscles respire anaerobically and build up lactic acid. Extra oxygen (the oxygen debt) is needed afterwards to break down this lactic acid, so deep breathing continues until it is cleared.

Q5[3 marks]
Describe three ways smoking damages the gas-exchange system.
Answer

Tar contains carcinogens that cause lung cancer; tar paralyses the cilia so mucus and dirt build up, causing infection; and the alveoli walls break down (emphysema), reducing the surface area for gas exchange. (Carbon monoxide also reduces oxygen transport.)

Q6[5 marks]
Gas exchange supplies oxygen for respiration.
  1. State the features that make the alveoli efficient at gas exchange. [3]
  2. Explain how carbon monoxide from smoke reduces the oxygen a smoker's blood can carry. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A large surface area (millions of alveoli)[1]
  2. walls one cell thick for a short diffusion distance[1]
  3. a moist lining and a rich capillary blood supply (steep gradient)[1]
  4. Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin in red blood cells[1]
  5. taking the place of oxygen, so the blood carries less oxygen[1]

Alveoli: large area, thin walls, moist lining, rich blood supply; CO binds haemoglobin, cutting oxygen transport.

11

Homeostasis

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Homeostasis is the maintenance of a constant:

  1. Aexternal environment
  2. Binternal environment
  3. Cbody size
  4. Dheart rate only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — internal environment

Homeostasis keeps the internal environment steady despite outside changes.

Q2The nitrogenous waste removed by the kidneys is:

  1. Aglucose
  2. Burea
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dprotein
Show answer

Correct answer: B — urea

The kidneys remove urea, made in the liver from excess amino acids.

Q3When you are too hot, the skin blood vessels:

  1. Anarrow (vasoconstriction)
  2. Bwiden (vasodilation)
  3. Cdisappear
  4. Dstop flowing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — widen (vasodilation)

Vasodilation brings more blood near the surface to lose heat.

Q4Insulin lowers blood glucose by making the liver:

  1. Arelease glucose
  2. Bstore glucose as glycogen
  3. Cmake urea
  4. Dsweat
Show answer

Correct answer: B — store glucose as glycogen

Insulin causes glucose to be taken up and stored as glycogen.

Q5Most homeostatic control works by:

  1. Apositive feedback
  2. Bnegative feedback
  3. Cdiffusion only
  4. Dactive transport only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — negative feedback

Negative feedback opposes a change, returning the level to normal.

Q6When short of water, the kidneys produce urine that is:

  1. Adilute and plentiful
  2. Bconcentrated and small in volume
  3. Cfull of glucose
  4. Dfull of protein
Show answer

Correct answer: B — concentrated and small in volume

ADH makes the kidneys reabsorb more water, giving small volumes of concentrated urine.

Q7In dialysis, wastes leave the blood by:

  1. Aactive transport
  2. Bdiffusion across a partially permeable membrane
  3. Cosmosis of glucose
  4. Dboiling
Show answer

Correct answer: B — diffusion across a partially permeable membrane

Wastes diffuse from the blood into the dialysis fluid across a partially permeable membrane.

Q8Type 1 diabetes is caused by the pancreas producing:

  1. Atoo much insulin
  2. Blittle or no insulin
  3. Ctoo much glucagon
  4. Durea
Show answer

Correct answer: B — little or no insulin

In Type 1 diabetes the pancreas makes little or no insulin, so it must be injected.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Define homeostasis and give one example of a factor it keeps constant.
Answer

Homeostasis is the maintenance of a constant internal environment despite changes outside. An example is keeping body temperature (~37 °C), blood glucose, or water balance constant.

Q2[3 marks]
Describe how the body responds to being too cold.
Answer

It shivers — rapid muscle contractions release heat; the skin blood vessels narrow (vasoconstriction) to reduce heat loss; and hairs stand up to trap an insulating layer of air.

Q3[6 marks]
Blood glucose is controlled by hormones from the pancreas.
  1. Name the hormone released when blood glucose is high and describe its effect. [3]
  2. Name the hormone released when blood glucose is low and describe its effect. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Insulin is released when blood glucose is high[1]
  2. it makes the liver and muscles take up glucose[1]
  3. storing it as glycogen, so blood glucose falls[1]
  4. Glucagon is released when blood glucose is low[1]
  5. it makes the liver break down glycogen[1]
  6. releasing glucose so blood glucose rises[1]

High glucose → insulin → store as glycogen (falls); low glucose → glucagon → release glucose (rises).

Q4[3 marks]
Explain how a dialysis machine removes urea from the blood but does not remove useful glucose.
Answer

The blood flows next to a partially permeable membrane with dialysis fluid on the other side. Urea diffuses out into the fluid because there is none in the fluid (a concentration gradient). Glucose is kept in the dialysis fluid at the same concentration as normal blood, so there is no gradient and glucose does not diffuse out.

Q5[5 marks]
Blood glucose must be kept within safe limits.
  1. Describe how the body lowers blood glucose after a meal. [3]
  2. State one difference between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The rise in glucose is detected by the pancreas[1]
  2. which releases insulin[1]
  3. insulin makes the liver and muscles take up glucose and store it as glycogen, lowering blood glucose[1]
  4. Type 1: the pancreas makes little/no insulin (treated by injection)[1]
  5. Type 2: the body no longer responds well to insulin (managed by diet/exercise)[1]

Pancreas detects high glucose → insulin → liver stores glycogen (glucose falls); Type 1 = no insulin made, Type 2 = poor response to insulin.

12

Coordination and Control

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Nervous messages are carried as:

  1. Ahormones in the blood
  2. Belectrical impulses along neurones
  3. Cchemicals in the air
  4. Ddiffusion of glucose
Show answer

Correct answer: B — electrical impulses along neurones

The nervous system uses fast electrical impulses along neurones.

Q2The correct reflex arc is:

  1. Areceptor → motor → sensory → effector
  2. Breceptor → sensory → relay → motor → effector
  3. Ceffector → motor → receptor
  4. Dbrain → receptor → effector
Show answer

Correct answer: B — receptor → sensory → relay → motor → effector

Receptor → sensory → relay → motor → effector is the reflex arc.

Q3The central nervous system consists of the:

  1. Aheart and lungs
  2. Bbrain and spinal cord
  3. Cnerves and muscles
  4. Dglands
Show answer

Correct answer: B — brain and spinal cord

The central nervous system is the brain and spinal cord, which process information and coordinate the body’s responses.

Q4Adrenaline prepares the body for:

  1. Asleep
  2. B'fight or flight'
  3. Cdigestion
  4. Dgrowth
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 'fight or flight'

Adrenaline triggers the fight-or-flight response.

Q5A plant shoot growing toward light is:

  1. Aa reflex
  2. Bphototropism
  3. Chomeostasis
  4. Ddiffusion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — phototropism

Growing toward light is positive phototropism, controlled by auxins.

Q6Compared with nervous control, hormonal control is:

  1. Afaster and briefer
  2. Bslower and longer-lasting
  3. Celectrical
  4. Donly in plants
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slower and longer-lasting

Hormones act more slowly but last longer than nerve impulses.

Q7The gap between two neurones is called a:

  1. Asynapse
  2. Breflex arc
  3. Creceptor
  4. Deffector
Show answer

Correct answer: A — synapse

A synapse is the tiny gap where a neurotransmitter carries the signal to the next neurone.

Q8A signal crosses a synapse by means of a:

  1. Aelectrical spark
  2. Bneurotransmitter chemical
  3. Chormone in the blood
  4. Dmuscle contraction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — neurotransmitter chemical

A neurotransmitter diffuses across the gap and triggers the next neurone.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[3 marks]
State three differences between nervous and hormonal control.
Answer

Nervous uses electrical impulses, hormonal uses chemicals; nervous travels along neurones, hormonal in the blood; nervous is fast and brief, hormonal is slower and longer-lasting.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why a reflex action is fast.
Answer

It follows a fixed short pathway (the reflex arc) through the spinal cord, bypassing conscious processing in the brain, so the response is quick and protects the body.

Q3[6 marks]
A person touches a hot pan and immediately pulls their hand away.
  1. Name the type of response and state its purpose. [2]
  2. Describe the pathway of the impulse from stimulus to response. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. It is a reflex action[1]
  2. its purpose is to protect the body from harm quickly[1]
  3. A receptor in the skin detects the heat and a sensory neurone carries the impulse to the spinal cord[1]
  4. a relay neurone passes it on within the spinal cord[1]
  5. a motor neurone carries the impulse to the muscle (effector)[1]
  6. the muscle contracts to pull the hand away[1]

A protective reflex; receptor → sensory neurone → relay neurone → motor neurone → effector muscle contracts.

Q4[3 marks]
Describe how a nerve impulse passes from one neurone to the next across a synapse.
Answer

The impulse arrives at the end of the first neurone and triggers the release of a neurotransmitter chemical. This diffuses across the synapse gap and binds to receptors on the next neurone, setting off a new impulse in it.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain how the pupil reflex protects the eye in bright light.
Answer

In bright light, circular muscles in the iris contract to make the pupil smaller, letting in less light. This protects the light-sensitive retina from damage by too much light.

Q6[5 marks]
The nervous system detects and responds to stimuli.
  1. Name the type of neurone that carries impulses from a receptor to the CNS, and the type that carries them to an effector. [2]
  2. Explain why a synapse ensures impulses travel in only one direction. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Sensory neurone (receptor to CNS)[1]
  2. motor neurone (CNS to effector)[1]
  3. Only the end of one neurone releases neurotransmitter[1]
  4. and only the next neurone has receptors for it[1]
  5. so the signal can only pass from the first neurone to the second, not backwards[1]

Sensory = receptor→CNS, motor = CNS→effector; a synapse is one-way because only one side releases transmitter and only the other has receptors.

13

Support and Movement

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Which is NOT a function of the skeleton?

  1. Asupport
  2. Bprotection
  3. Cphotosynthesis
  4. Dmovement
Show answer

Correct answer: C — photosynthesis

The skeleton supports, protects, allows movement and makes blood cells — photosynthesis is a plant process.

Q2The elbow is an example of a:

  1. Aball-and-socket joint
  2. Bhinge joint
  3. Cfixed joint
  4. Dgliding joint
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hinge joint

The elbow is a hinge joint, moving in one plane.

Q3A tendon attaches:

  1. Abone to bone
  2. Bmuscle to bone
  3. Cmuscle to muscle
  4. Dskin to bone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — muscle to bone

Tendons attach muscle to bone; ligaments attach bone to bone.

Q4Muscles work in antagonistic pairs because a muscle can only:

  1. Apush
  2. Bpull (contract)
  3. Ctwist
  4. Dgrow
Show answer

Correct answer: B — pull (contract)

Muscles contract (pull) but cannot push, so a partner returns the bone.

Q5To bend the arm at the elbow, the biceps:

  1. Arelaxes
  2. Bcontracts
  3. Cdisappears
  4. Dpushes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — contracts

The biceps contracts to bend the arm while the triceps relaxes.

Q6Synovial fluid in a joint:

  1. Aholds bones together
  2. Blubricates the joint
  3. Cmakes blood
  4. Dcontracts
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lubricates the joint

Synovial fluid lubricates the joint, reducing friction.

Q7Bone is strengthened mainly by:

  1. Aglucose
  2. Bcalcium and phosphate salts
  3. Cchlorophyll
  4. Durea
Show answer

Correct answer: B — calcium and phosphate salts

Calcium and phosphate salts around protein fibres make bone hard yet slightly flexible.

Q8In the arm acting as a lever, the joint is the:

  1. Aeffort
  2. Bload
  3. Cpivot
  4. Dmuscle
Show answer

Correct answer: C — pivot

The joint acts as the pivot (fulcrum); the bone is the lever and the muscle provides the effort.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
State two functions of the skeleton other than movement.
Answer

Any two of: support and shape, protection of vital organs, and making blood cells in the bone marrow.

Q2[3 marks]
Describe the roles of cartilage, synovial fluid and ligaments at a joint.
Answer

Cartilage cushions the bone ends and reduces friction; synovial fluid lubricates the joint so it moves smoothly; ligaments hold the bones together.

Q3[6 marks]
The arm is moved by an antagonistic pair of muscles.
  1. Explain why muscles must work in antagonistic pairs. [2]
  2. Describe how the biceps and triceps bend and then straighten the arm. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. A muscle can only contract (pull), not push[1]
  2. so a second muscle is needed to move the bone back[1]
  3. To bend the arm the biceps contracts[1]
  4. while the triceps relaxes[1]
  5. to straighten the arm the triceps contracts[1]
  6. while the biceps relaxes[1]

Muscles only pull, so they need a partner; biceps contracts (triceps relaxes) to bend, triceps contracts (biceps relaxes) to straighten.

Q4[2 marks]
Give two pieces of evidence that bone is living tissue.
Answer

A broken bone can heal (it grows and repairs), and bone marrow makes blood cells — both show bone has living cells and a blood supply.

Q5[5 marks]
The skeleton, joints and muscles work together to produce movement.
  1. Explain why muscles must work in antagonistic pairs. [2]
  2. Describe how the biceps and triceps move the forearm, and identify the pivot. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. A muscle can only pull (contract), not push[1]
  2. so a second muscle is needed to move the bone back the other way[1]
  3. The biceps contracts (triceps relaxes) to bend the arm[1]
  4. the triceps contracts (biceps relaxes) to straighten it[1]
  5. the elbow joint is the pivot[1]

Muscles only pull, so they need a partner; biceps bends and triceps straightens the forearm, with the elbow as the pivot.

14

Reproduction

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are:

  1. Agenetically varied
  2. Bgenetically identical
  3. Calways male
  4. Dhaploid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — genetically identical

With one parent and no gamete fusion, offspring are clones — genetically identical.

Q2In humans, sperm are made in the:

  1. Aovaries
  2. Btestes
  3. Cuterus
  4. Doviduct
Show answer

Correct answer: B — testes

The testes produce sperm and testosterone.

Q3Fertilisation in humans normally occurs in the:

  1. Auterus
  2. Bovary
  3. Coviduct
  4. Dvagina
Show answer

Correct answer: C — oviduct

The egg is usually fertilised in the oviduct (fallopian tube).

Q4The release of an egg from the ovary is called:

  1. Amenstruation
  2. Bovulation
  3. Cfertilisation
  4. Dimplantation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ovulation

Ovulation is the monthly release of an egg.

Q5The placenta lets the mother supply the fetus with oxygen without:

  1. Aa heartbeat
  2. Bthe two blood supplies mixing
  3. Cthe uterus
  4. Dhormones
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the two blood supplies mixing

The placenta exchanges materials between the two blood supplies without them mixing.

Q6An advantage of sexual reproduction is that it produces:

  1. Aidentical offspring
  2. Bgenetic variation
  3. Cfaster growth
  4. Dno gametes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — genetic variation

Mixing genes from two parents gives variation, aiding survival when conditions change.

Q7The hormone that triggers ovulation is:

  1. Aprogesterone
  2. BLH
  3. Cinsulin
  4. Dtestosterone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — LH

LH from the brain triggers the release of the egg (ovulation).

Q8The uterus lining breaks down as a period when the level of which hormone falls?

  1. AFSH
  2. Bprogesterone
  3. Cinsulin
  4. Dadrenaline
Show answer

Correct answer: B — progesterone

A fall in progesterone at the end of the cycle causes the lining to break down.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[3 marks]
State three differences between asexual and sexual reproduction.
Answer

Asexual needs one parent, sexual needs two; asexual has no gametes, sexual involves gamete fusion; asexual offspring are identical (clones), sexual offspring are genetically varied.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why variation from sexual reproduction can be an advantage.
Answer

Variation means offspring differ, so if the environment changes some are more likely to have features that let them survive and reproduce, helping the species adapt.

Q3[6 marks]
The menstrual cycle prepares the body for pregnancy.
  1. Describe what happens during ovulation and to the uterus lining in the cycle. [3]
  2. Explain what happens if the egg is fertilised, and if it is not. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. At ovulation an egg is released from the ovary[1]
  2. the egg travels into the oviduct[1]
  3. the uterus lining thickens ready to receive an embryo[1]
  4. If fertilised, the embryo implants in the lining[1]
  5. and develops into a fetus[1]
  6. if not fertilised, the lining breaks down and is lost as the period[1]

Ovulation releases an egg and the lining thickens; if fertilised the embryo implants and develops, if not the lining is shed as the period.

Q4[2 marks]
State the roles of oestrogen and progesterone in the menstrual cycle.
Answer

Oestrogen rebuilds the uterus lining and leads to ovulation; progesterone maintains the thickened lining ready for pregnancy, and its fall causes the lining to break down.

Q5[5 marks]
Reproduction in humans is controlled by hormones.
  1. Name the hormone that stimulates an egg to mature and the one that triggers its release. [2]
  2. Explain how a hormonal contraceptive pill prevents pregnancy. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. FSH stimulates an egg to mature[1]
  2. LH triggers ovulation (release of the egg)[1]
  3. The pill contains hormones (e.g. oestrogen/progesterone)[1]
  4. that prevent an egg from maturing or being released (no ovulation)[1]
  5. so there is no egg to be fertilised[1]

FSH matures the egg, LH triggers ovulation; the pill's hormones stop ovulation, so no egg is released to be fertilised.

15

Inheritance

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A version of a gene is called a(n):

  1. Achromosome
  2. Ballele
  3. Cphenotype
  4. Dgamete
Show answer

Correct answer: B — allele

Alleles are the different versions of a gene.

Q2An organism with two different alleles for a gene is:

  1. Ahomozygous
  2. Bheterozygous
  3. Crecessive
  4. Dhaploid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — heterozygous

Two different alleles (e.g. Bb) means heterozygous.

Q3A recessive characteristic is shown only when the organism is:

  1. Aheterozygous
  2. Bhomozygous recessive
  3. Chomozygous dominant
  4. Da carrier
Show answer

Correct answer: B — homozygous recessive

A recessive trait appears only with two recessive alleles (bb).

Q4Crossing Tt × Tt gives a phenotype ratio of:

  1. A1 : 1
  2. B3 : 1
  3. C9 : 3 : 3 : 1
  4. Dall dominant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3 : 1

Tt × Tt gives genotypes 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt; since T is dominant, that is a 3 dominant : 1 recessive phenotype ratio.

Q5Human females have the sex chromosomes:

  1. AXY
  2. BXX
  3. CYY
  4. DXO
Show answer

Correct answer: B — XX

Human females have two X chromosomes (XX); males have one X and one Y (XY), the Y carrying the male-determining genes.

Q6The observable characteristic of an organism is its:

  1. Agenotype
  2. Bphenotype
  3. Callele
  4. Dgene
Show answer

Correct answer: B — phenotype

The phenotype is what is actually shown; the genotype is the alleles carried.

Q7Blood group AB is an example of:

  1. Aa recessive trait
  2. Bcodominance
  3. Ca dominant disorder
  4. Dsex linkage
Show answer

Correct answer: B — codominance

In group AB both the A and B alleles are expressed together — codominance.

Q8A healthy person who carries one recessive disease allele is a:

  1. Asufferer
  2. Bcarrier
  3. Chomozygote for the disease
  4. Dmutant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carrier

A carrier has one recessive allele, is healthy, but can pass it on.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[3 marks]
Define the terms allele, genotype and phenotype.
Answer

Allele: a version of a gene. Genotype: the alleles an organism carries. Phenotype: the characteristic actually shown by the organism.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain how the sex of a human child is determined.
Answer

The mother's egg always carries an X chromosome; the father's sperm carries either an X or a Y. If an X sperm fertilises the egg the child is XX (female); if a Y sperm does, the child is XY (male) — a 50:50 chance.

Q3[6 marks]
In humans, the allele for brown eyes (B) is dominant to blue eyes (b). A heterozygous brown-eyed man and a blue-eyed woman have children.
  1. State the genotypes of both parents. [2]
  2. Use a genetic diagram to find the ratio of brown-eyed to blue-eyed children. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. The man is Bb (heterozygous brown)[1]
  2. the woman is bb (blue, homozygous recessive)[1]
  3. Man's gametes B and b; woman's gametes b and b[1]
  4. Offspring: Bb, Bb, bb, bb[1]
  5. genotypes 2 Bb : 2 bb[1]
  6. phenotype ratio 1 brown : 1 blue (50%)[1]

Parents Bb × bb; offspring 2 Bb : 2 bb = 1 brown : 1 blue.

Q4[2 marks]
Explain the difference between a dominant allele and codominant alleles.
Answer

A dominant allele is expressed even when paired with a recessive one, so only it shows. Codominant alleles are both expressed together in the heterozygote, so both features appear (as in blood group AB).

Q5[6 marks]
Cystic fibrosis is caused by a recessive allele (f). Two parents who are both carriers (Ff) have children.
  1. State the genotypes of children who would have cystic fibrosis and who would be carriers. [2]
  2. Use a genetic diagram to find the probability that a child has cystic fibrosis. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. A child with cystic fibrosis is ff (homozygous recessive)[1]
  2. a carrier is Ff (heterozygous)[1]
  3. Parents Ff × Ff; gametes F and f from each[1]
  4. Offspring: FF, Ff, Ff, ff[1]
  5. genotypes 1 FF : 2 Ff : 1 ff[1]
  6. probability of cystic fibrosis (ff) = 1 in 4 (25%)[1]

Affected = ff, carrier = Ff; Ff × Ff gives 1 FF : 2 Ff : 1 ff, so a 1 in 4 chance of cystic fibrosis.

16

Man and His Environment

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The producer in most ecosystems is a:

  1. Aherbivore
  2. Bgreen plant
  3. Ccarnivore
  4. Ddecomposer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — green plant

Green plants capture light energy by photosynthesis, beginning the food chain.

Q2About what percentage of energy passes to the next trophic level?

  1. A10%
  2. B50%
  3. C90%
  4. D100%
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 10%

Roughly 10% passes on; about 90% is lost at each level.

Q3Organisms that break down dead material are:

  1. Aproducers
  2. Bdecomposers
  3. Cpredators
  4. Dherbivores
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decomposers

Decomposers (bacteria and fungi) recycle nutrients from dead matter.

Q4Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

  1. Arespiration
  2. Bcombustion
  3. Cphotosynthesis
  4. Ddecomposition
Show answer

Correct answer: C — photosynthesis

Photosynthesis takes CO₂ out of the air; respiration and combustion return it.

Q5Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert:

  1. Anitrates into nitrogen gas
  2. Bnitrogen gas into usable compounds
  3. Cammonia into carbon
  4. Dprotein into nitrates
Show answer

Correct answer: B — nitrogen gas into usable compounds

They fix nitrogen gas into compounds plants can absorb.

Q6A major human cause of habitat loss is:

  1. Aconservation
  2. Bdeforestation
  3. Cphotosynthesis
  4. Ddecomposition
Show answer

Correct answer: B — deforestation

Clearing forests destroys habitats and reduces biodiversity.

Q7The largest population an environment can support long-term is its:

  1. Abiomass
  2. Bcarrying capacity
  3. Ctrophic level
  4. Dfood web
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carrying capacity

Carrying capacity is the maximum sustainable population for that environment.

Q8A pyramid of biomass almost always tapers toward the top because:

  1. Atop predators are large
  2. Benergy is lost at each trophic level
  3. Cproducers are rare
  4. Dthere is no sunlight
Show answer

Correct answer: B — energy is lost at each trophic level

About 90% of energy is lost at each level, so less living material is supported higher up.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why there is usually more mass of producers than of top predators in an ecosystem.
Answer

Energy is lost (about 90%) at each trophic level, so less energy is available higher up the chain. Less energy supports less living mass, so top predators are far fewer than producers.

Q2[3 marks]
Describe the roles of photosynthesis, respiration and decomposers in the carbon cycle.
Answer

Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the air and fixes it into glucose; respiration (and combustion) returns carbon dioxide to the air; decomposers break down dead organisms, releasing their carbon back as carbon dioxide.

Q3[6 marks]
Energy flows through a food chain: grass → rabbit → fox.
  1. Name the trophic level of each organism. [3]
  2. Explain what happens to the energy as it passes along the chain. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Grass is the producer[1]
  2. the rabbit is the primary consumer (herbivore)[1]
  3. the fox is the secondary consumer (carnivore)[1]
  4. Energy is lost at each level[1]
  5. in respiration, movement, heat and undigested waste[1]
  6. so only about 10% passes on, and the chain cannot support many more levels[1]

Grass = producer, rabbit = primary consumer, fox = secondary consumer; ~90% of energy is lost at each step, so little reaches the top.

Q4[3 marks]
State three factors that could cause a population of rabbits to decrease.
Answer

Any three: a shortage of food, water or space; an increase in predators (e.g. foxes); the spread of disease; or increased competition.

Q5[5 marks]
Energy flows through an ecosystem and can be shown as pyramids.
  1. Explain why only about 10% of energy passes to the next trophic level. [3]
  2. Explain why a pyramid of biomass is a better representation than a pyramid of numbers. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Energy is lost at each level as heat from respiration[1]
  2. in movement and in undigested waste[1]
  3. so only about 10% is passed on to the next level[1]
  4. A pyramid of biomass accounts for the size/mass of organisms, not just their number[1]
  5. so it is always a true pyramid, unlike numbers (where one large producer can support many consumers)[1]

~90% of energy is lost (respiration, movement, waste), so ~10% passes on; biomass pyramids reflect mass so they always taper, unlike number pyramids.

17

Biotechnology

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Yeast is used in bread-making because it produces:

  1. Alactic acid
  2. Bcarbon dioxide
  3. Cantibiotics
  4. Dinsulin
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbon dioxide

Yeast ferments sugar to ethanol and carbon dioxide; the CO₂ makes the bread rise.

Q2Yoghurt is made when bacteria ferment milk sugar into:

  1. Aethanol
  2. Blactic acid
  3. Cglucose
  4. Dinsulin
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lactic acid

Lactic-acid bacteria turn the sugar in milk into lactic acid, forming yoghurt.

Q3Genetic engineering to make insulin transfers the human insulin gene into:

  1. Ayeast bread
  2. Bbacteria
  3. Cmilk
  4. Da fermenter only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — bacteria

The gene is inserted into bacteria, which then produce insulin.

Q4Antibiotics such as penicillin are produced by:

  1. Afermenting microbes in large vessels
  2. Bphotosynthesis
  3. Cdistillation
  4. Dgenetic testing
Show answer

Correct answer: A — fermenting microbes in large vessels

Microbes are grown in large fermenters to produce antibiotics.

Q5A major advantage of making insulin from bacteria is that it is:

  1. Aslower
  2. Bcheap and pure human insulin
  3. Cextracted from animals
  4. Dless effective
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cheap and pure human insulin

Engineered bacteria make pure human insulin cheaply and in large amounts.

Q6Biotechnology is best defined as using living organisms to:

  1. Adestroy ecosystems
  2. Bmake useful products
  3. Cincrease pollution
  4. Dreplace all farming
Show answer

Correct answer: B — make useful products

Biotechnology uses organisms or their processes to make useful products.

Q7Cooling water is circulated through a fermenter to:

  1. Aadd nutrients
  2. Bremove the heat from respiration and keep the optimum temperature
  3. Csterilise it
  4. Dadd oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — remove the heat from respiration and keep the optimum temperature

Respiring microbes release heat; cooling keeps the temperature at the optimum for their enzymes.

Q8Producing genetically identical plants from small pieces of a parent is:

  1. Agenetic engineering
  2. Btissue culture (cloning)
  3. Cfermentation
  4. Dnatural selection
Show answer

Correct answer: B — tissue culture (cloning)

Tissue culture clones many identical plants from a parent — a form of cloning.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Explain the role of yeast in both brewing and bread-making.
Answer

Yeast ferments sugars, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide. In brewing the ethanol makes the alcoholic drink; in bread-making the carbon dioxide is trapped in the dough and makes it rise.

Q2[3 marks]
Give one benefit and one concern of genetic engineering, and one product it makes.
Answer

Benefit: it produces cheap, pure medicines such as human insulin (or pest-resistant crops). Concern: possible safety, ethical or ecological risks. Product: human insulin.

Q3[6 marks]
Human insulin for treating diabetes is made using genetically engineered bacteria.
  1. Describe the steps used to make the bacteria produce insulin. [4]
  2. State two advantages of this method over extracting insulin from animals. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The human insulin gene is cut out of human DNA using enzymes[1]
  2. it is inserted into the DNA of a bacterium[1]
  3. the bacteria are grown in large numbers in a fermenter[1]
  4. the insulin they make is collected and purified[1]
  5. It produces pure human insulin (fewer allergic reactions)[1]
  6. in large amounts, cheaply and reliably[1]

Cut out the insulin gene, insert it into bacteria, grow them in a fermenter, purify the insulin; advantages: pure human insulin, cheap and plentiful.

Q4[3 marks]
State three conditions that must be controlled in an industrial fermenter and why each matters.
Answer

Temperature — kept at the optimum for the microbe's enzymes (and cooled to remove respiration heat); pH — kept optimal so the enzymes work; sterility — to stop contamination by unwanted microbes. (Oxygen/nutrient supply and stirring are also valid.)

Q5[5 marks]
Biotechnology is used to modify and clone organisms.
  1. Explain what a genetically modified crop is and give one benefit. [3]
  2. State one benefit and one concern of GM technology. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A GM crop has had a gene from another organism inserted into its DNA[1]
  2. so it gains a useful characteristic[1]
  3. e.g. resistance to pests, higher yield or added nutrients[1]
  4. Benefit: more or better food / medicines produced[1]
  5. Concern: possible effects on health or ecosystems, or ethical objections[1]

A GM crop carries an inserted gene for a useful trait (e.g. pest resistance); benefit = better food/yield, concern = health/ecological/ethical risks.

18

Pharmacology

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Antibiotics are effective against:

  1. Aviruses
  2. Bbacteria
  3. Call microbes
  4. Dthe common cold
Show answer

Correct answer: B — bacteria

Antibiotics kill bacteria but do not affect viruses.

Q2Antibiotic resistance develops when:

  1. Aantibiotics are never used
  2. Bbacteria that survive pass on resistance
  3. Cviruses mutate
  4. Ddoses are too high
Show answer

Correct answer: B — bacteria that survive pass on resistance

Surviving bacteria pass on resistance, producing strains the antibiotic can't kill.

Q3Alcohol is classed as a:

  1. Astimulant
  2. Bdepressant
  3. Cantibiotic
  4. Dpainkiller
Show answer

Correct answer: B — depressant

Alcohol slows the nervous system, so it is a depressant.

Q4Nicotine in tobacco is a:

  1. Adepressant
  2. Bstimulant
  3. Cantibiotic
  4. Dvitamin
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stimulant

Nicotine speeds up the nervous system, so it is a stimulant (and addictive).

Q5Taking antibiotics for a cold is unwise because:

  1. Acolds are bacterial
  2. Bcolds are viral, so antibiotics won't work and it breeds resistance
  3. Cantibiotics cure viruses
  4. Dit is too cheap
Show answer

Correct answer: B — colds are viral, so antibiotics won't work and it breeds resistance

Colds are viral; antibiotics don't help and unnecessary use promotes resistance.

Q6An addictive drug is one that causes:

  1. Ainstant cure
  2. Bdependence and withdrawal
  3. Cno effect
  4. Dresistance in viruses
Show answer

Correct answer: B — dependence and withdrawal

Addiction means dependence, with withdrawal symptoms when the drug is stopped.

Q7A placebo is used in a drug trial to:

  1. Acure more patients
  2. Bcompare against the real drug so its true effect is clear
  3. Cincrease the dose
  4. Dreplace the drug
Show answer

Correct answer: B — compare against the real drug so its true effect is clear

The placebo controls for patients feeling better simply because they expect to, making the trial fair.

Q8A vaccine works by making the body produce antibodies and:

  1. Aantibiotics
  2. Bmemory cells
  3. Cred blood cells
  4. Dhormones
Show answer

Correct answer: B — memory cells

Memory cells allow a fast response if the real pathogen invades later, giving immunity.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why antibiotics should not be used to treat a cold.
Answer

A cold is caused by a virus, and antibiotics only kill bacteria, so they would have no effect. Using them unnecessarily also helps breed antibiotic-resistant bacteria.

Q2[3 marks]
Explain how antibiotic resistance arises and one way to reduce it.
Answer

When antibiotics are used, any bacteria with resistance survive and reproduce, passing on the resistance, so resistant strains spread. It can be reduced by not over-prescribing antibiotics and by patients finishing the full course.

Q3[6 marks]
Drugs affect the body in different ways.
  1. Explain the difference between a depressant and a stimulant, with an example of each. [4]
  2. State two harmful effects of smoking tobacco. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A depressant slows down the nervous system[1]
  2. e.g. alcohol[1]
  3. a stimulant speeds up the nervous system[1]
  4. e.g. nicotine (in tobacco)[1]
  5. Tobacco damages the lungs / causes lung cancer[1]
  6. and is addictive (also raises heart disease risk)[1]

Depressant slows the nervous system (alcohol); stimulant speeds it up (nicotine); smoking damages the lungs, causes cancer and is addictive.

Q4[2 marks]
Explain why a new drug is tested on small numbers of people before large numbers.
Answer

Small-scale testing first checks that the drug is safe and finds the correct dose, with fewer people at risk. Only once it is shown to be safe is it given to large groups to test how effective it is.

Q5[6 marks]
Vaccines protect people from infectious disease.
  1. Describe how a vaccine makes a person immune to a disease. [4]
  2. Explain what herd immunity is and why it matters. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The vaccine contains a weakened/dead pathogen (or part of it)[1]
  2. this triggers the immune system to respond[1]
  3. producing antibodies and memory cells[1]
  4. so if the real pathogen invades later, the memory cells respond quickly and destroy it before illness develops[1]
  5. Herd immunity is when enough people are immune that the disease cannot spread easily[1]
  6. protecting even those who cannot be vaccinated[1]

A vaccine exposes the immune system to a harmless form, making antibodies and memory cells for a fast future response; herd immunity stops spread when most are immune.

These questions come from the 10th Class Biology lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.