O Level Physics (5054) — MCQs & Practice Questions

194 multiple-choice questions and 153 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

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01

Motion, forces and energy

Multiple choice · 62

Q1A student measures the same length five times and gets 4.71, 4.72, 4.71, 4.72, 4.71 cm. The true length is 5.20 cm. The measurements are:

  1. AAccurate and precise
  2. BPrecise but not accurate
  3. CAccurate but not precise
  4. DNeither accurate nor precise
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Precise but not accurate

The readings agree with each other to within 0.01 cm, so they are precise. They all sit about 0.49 cm below the true value, so they are not accurate. A consistent offset like this is the signature of a systematic error — a zero error on the instrument, most likely.

Q2Which of these is NOT an SI base unit?

  1. Akilogram
  2. Bnewton
  3. Ckelvin
  4. Dmole
Show answer

Correct answer: B — newton

The newton is derived: 1 N = 1 kg m s⁻², built from three base units. The kilogram, kelvin and mole are all base units. The tempting mistake is assuming that any famous unit must be fundamental.

Q3The dimensions of pressure are:

  1. AM L T⁻²
  2. BM L⁻¹ T⁻²
  3. CM L² T⁻²
  4. DM L⁻² T⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — M L⁻¹ T⁻²

Pressure is force ÷ area = (M L T⁻²) ÷ L² = M L⁻¹ T⁻². Option A is force itself and option C is energy, which is why both look plausible if you stop one step early.

Q42.5 m is multiplied by 3.14159 m. To the correct number of significant figures the answer is:

  1. A7.853975 m²
  2. B7.85 m²
  3. C7.9 m²
  4. D8 m²
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 7.9 m²

The least precise input, 2.5, carries two significant figures, so the answer does too: 7.9 m². Writing 7.85 keeps three and quietly claims the 2.5 was really 2.50.

Q5Repeating a measurement many times and averaging will reduce:

  1. ASystematic error only
  2. BRandom error only
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Random error only

Random errors scatter either side of the true value, so they partly cancel in an average. A systematic error pushes every single reading the same way, so it survives averaging untouched — you have to find its cause instead.

Q6A length is recorded as 0.00470 m. How many significant figures does it have?

  1. ATwo
  2. BThree
  3. CFive
  4. DSix
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Three

Three: 4, 7 and the trailing 0. The leading zeros only place the decimal point and never count, but the final zero is after the decimal point and after a non-zero digit, so it is a genuine claim about precision.

Q7An athlete runs exactly one lap of a 400 m circular track in 50 s. Their average velocity is:

  1. A8 m s⁻¹
  2. B0 m s⁻¹
  3. C400 m s⁻¹
  4. D4 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0 m s⁻¹

Average velocity is displacement ÷ time, and after a complete lap the displacement is zero — start and finish are the same point. The 8 m s⁻¹ answer is the average speed, which uses distance instead.

Q8A car moves at a constant 20 m s⁻¹ around a circular bend. Which statement is true?

  1. AIts velocity is constant
  2. BIts acceleration is zero
  3. CIt is accelerating because its direction is changing
  4. DIt cannot accelerate while its speed is constant
Show answer

Correct answer: C — It is accelerating because its direction is changing

Velocity is a vector, so changing direction changes the velocity even at constant speed — and a changing velocity is what acceleration means. The acceleration points toward the centre of the bend.

Q9An object has negative velocity and negative acceleration. It is:

  1. AMoving forwards and slowing down
  2. BMoving backwards and speeding up
  3. CMoving backwards and slowing down
  4. DStationary
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Moving backwards and speeding up

Matching signs mean the acceleration acts in the same direction as the motion, so the object speeds up. The common error is reading "negative acceleration" as "deceleration", which is only true when the velocity is positive.

Q10On a velocity–time graph, the area between the line and the time axis represents:

  1. AAcceleration
  2. BDisplacement
  3. CSpeed
  4. DForce
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Displacement

Velocity × time = displacement, and the area is that product accumulated. The gradient of the same graph gives acceleration — the two are the pair most often swapped.

Q11A horizontal line on a velocity–time graph means the object is:

  1. AStationary
  2. BMoving at constant velocity
  3. CAccelerating uniformly
  4. DChanging direction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Moving at constant velocity

Constant velocity, so zero acceleration. A stationary object would be a horizontal line sitting on the time axis itself, at v = 0 — a special case, not the general meaning.

Q12A stone is dropped from rest and falls for 3.0 s. Taking g = 10 m s⁻², how far does it fall?

  1. A15 m
  2. B30 m
  3. C45 m
  4. D90 m
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 45 m

s = ut + ½at² with u = 0 gives s = ½ × 10 × 3.0² = 45 m. Answer B is the mistake of calculating v = at = 30 and calling it a distance; answer A comes from forgetting to square the time.

Q13Which equation of motion would you choose if the question gives u, a and s, and asks for v?

  1. Av = u + at
  2. Bs = ut + ½at²
  3. Cv² = u² + 2as
  4. Ds = ½(u + v)t
Show answer

Correct answer: C — v² = u² + 2as

The unknown you neither have nor want is t, so use the equation that omits t. Options A and B both contain t and would need it to be found first — twice the work and twice the chance of an arithmetic slip.

Q14Two balls leave a table edge at the same moment — one dropped, one thrown horizontally at 5 m s⁻¹. Ignoring air resistance:

  1. AThe dropped ball lands first
  2. BThe thrown ball lands first
  3. CThey land at the same time
  4. DIt depends on their masses
Show answer

Correct answer: C — They land at the same time

Vertical and horizontal motion are independent. Both start with zero vertical velocity and fall the same height under the same g, so both take the same time. The thrown ball merely covers ground while it falls.

Q15At the highest point of a projectile's path, its velocity is:

  1. AZero
  2. BEqual to the horizontal component of the launch velocity
  3. CEqual to the launch velocity
  4. DDirected vertically upward
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Equal to the horizontal component of the launch velocity

Only the vertical component reaches zero at the top. Nothing acts horizontally, so that component is unchanged throughout the flight and is the whole of the velocity at the peak.

Q16A projectile is launched on level ground. Which launch angle gives the greatest range?

  1. A30°
  2. B45°
  3. C60°
  4. D90°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 45°

Range = u² sin 2θ / g, largest when sin 2θ = 1, so 2θ = 90° and θ = 45°. A 90° launch goes straight up and lands back at the launch point with zero range — the answer that catches anyone reasoning "higher must be further".

Q17The SUVAT equations may only be used when:

  1. AThe object is falling freely
  2. BThe acceleration is constant
  3. CThe velocity is constant
  4. DAir resistance is present
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The acceleration is constant

Constant acceleration is the one condition. Free fall is a common case of it, not the requirement. Where acceleration varies, you need the gradient and area of a graph, or calculus.

Q18Air resistance acts on a projectile. Compared with the ideal path, the actual path has:

  1. AA longer range and a symmetric shape
  2. BA shorter range and a steeper descent than ascent
  3. CThe same range but a lower peak
  4. DA longer time of flight
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A shorter range and a steeper descent than ascent

Drag opposes the motion throughout, cutting both range and maximum height, and the descent becomes steeper than the ascent — so the path is no longer a symmetric parabola.

Q19The SI unit of weight is:

  1. Akilogram
  2. Bnewton
  3. Cjoule
  4. DN kg⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — newton

Weight is a force, so it is measured in newtons. The kilogram is mass, and N kg⁻¹ is the unit of gravitational field strength.

Q20An astronaut travels from Earth to the Moon. Which is true?

  1. AMass and weight both decrease
  2. BMass stays the same, weight decreases
  3. CMass decreases, weight stays the same
  4. DNeither changes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Mass stays the same, weight decreases

Mass is the quantity of matter and is unchanged. Weight is mg, and g on the Moon is about a sixth of its value on Earth.

Q21A 4.0 kg object is on a planet where g = 5.0 N kg⁻¹. Its weight is:

  1. A0.8 N
  2. B9.0 N
  3. C20 N
  4. D4.0 N
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 20 N

W = mg = 4.0 × 5.0 = 20 N. Dividing instead of multiplying gives 0.8 and is the usual slip.

Q22Gravitational field strength is defined as:

  1. AWeight × mass
  2. BForce per unit mass
  3. CMass per unit weight
  4. DAcceleration × mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Force per unit mass

g = W/m. Numerically it equals the acceleration of free fall, but the definition is force per unit mass.

Q23Which instrument gives the same reading on the Moon as on Earth?

  1. ASpring balance
  2. BNewtonmeter
  3. CBeam balance
  4. DBathroom scales
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Beam balance

A beam balance compares two masses, and both are affected equally by a change in g. All the others respond to force and would read low on the Moon.

Q24Inertia is a measure of:

  1. AWeight
  2. BResistance to a change in motion
  3. CGravitational pull
  4. DVolume
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Resistance to a change in motion

Inertia depends on mass alone and exists with no gravity at all. It is why mass appears in F = ma.

Q25An object weighs 60 N where g = 10 N kg⁻¹. Its mass is:

  1. A600 kg
  2. B6.0 kg
  3. C0.17 kg
  4. D60 kg
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6.0 kg

m = W/g = 60 ÷ 10 = 6.0 kg. Multiplying gives 600 and should look obviously wrong for an object weighing 60 N.

Q26Which statement is written correctly?

  1. AMy weight is 55 kg
  2. BMy mass is 55 N
  3. CMy weight is 550 N
  4. DMy mass is 550 N
Show answer

Correct answer: C — My weight is 550 N

Weight is a force in newtons; mass is in kilograms. Mixing the two units is a mark lost on any paper that asks for either.

Q27The density of a substance is defined as:

  1. AMass × volume
  2. BMass per unit volume
  3. CVolume per unit mass
  4. DWeight per unit area
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Mass per unit volume

ρ = m/V. Volume per unit mass is its reciprocal, and weight per unit area is pressure — both are offered because both are genuinely easy to reach for under time pressure.

Q28A block is cut exactly in half. Its density:

  1. AHalves
  2. BDoubles
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDepends on which way it is cut
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays the same

Both the mass and the volume halve, so their ratio is unchanged. Density is a property of the material, not of the size of the sample.

Q29The SI unit of pressure is:

  1. AN
  2. BPa
  3. CJ
  4. DN m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Pa

The pascal, where 1 Pa = 1 N m⁻². The newton is force, the joule is energy, and N m is a moment.

Q30The pressure at the bottom of a column of liquid depends on:

  1. AThe width of the container
  2. BThe total volume of liquid
  3. CThe depth, density and g
  4. DThe shape of the container
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The depth, density and g

p = ρgh contains no term for width, volume or shape. A narrow tube 2 m tall gives exactly the same base pressure as a wide tank 2 m deep.

Q31A force of 20 N acts over an area of 0.5 m². The pressure is:

  1. A10 Pa
  2. B40 Pa
  3. C0.025 Pa
  4. D20 Pa
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 40 Pa

p = F/A = 20 ÷ 0.5 = 40 Pa. Dividing the other way round gives 0.025 and is the most common slip — check whether the answer should be larger or smaller than the force.

Q32A spring of natural length 10 cm stretches to 15 cm under a 4 N load. The spring constant is:

  1. A0.27 N m⁻¹
  2. B26.7 N m⁻¹
  3. C80 N m⁻¹
  4. D40 N m⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 80 N m⁻¹

The extension is 5 cm = 0.05 m, so k = 4 ÷ 0.05 = 80 N m⁻¹. Using the total length of 0.15 m gives 26.7 and is precisely the error the question is set to catch.

Q33Beyond the elastic limit, a spring:

  1. AReturns to its original length
  2. BDoes not return to its original length
  3. CObeys Hooke's law exactly
  4. DHas zero spring constant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Does not return to its original length

It is permanently deformed. The limit of proportionality is a separate and earlier point, where the force–extension graph stops being straight.

Q34Why do snowshoes stop a walker sinking into soft snow?

  1. AThey reduce the walker's weight
  2. BThey spread the weight over a larger area, lowering the pressure
  3. CThey increase the density of the snow
  4. DThey reduce the force of gravity
Show answer

Correct answer: B — They spread the weight over a larger area, lowering the pressure

The weight is unchanged — only the area over which it acts increases, so p = F/A falls. Nothing a shoe does can change a person's weight.

Q35A bullet is fired horizontally at the same instant an identical bullet is dropped from the same height. Which lands first?

  1. AThe fired bullet
  2. BThe dropped bullet
  3. CThey land at the same time
  4. DIt depends on the bullet mass
Show answer

Correct answer: C — They land at the same time

Vertical and horizontal motion are independent. Both bullets start with zero vertical velocity and fall under the same gravity, so both take identical time to reach the ground. The fired bullet simply travels much further horizontally while doing it.

Q36A projectile is launched at 30°. Which other angle gives the same horizontal range at the same speed?

  1. A45°
  2. B60°
  3. C75°
  4. DNone — 30° is unique
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 60°

Range depends on sin(2θ), and sin(60°) = sin(120°), so 30° and 60° pair up. The 60° shot goes higher and stays in the air longer but moves more slowly across; the two effects cancel exactly. Maximum range is at 45°.

Q37You push a wall and it pushes back equally. Why does nothing accelerate?

  1. AThe forces cancel out on the same object
  2. BThe two forces act on different objects, and the wall is anchored to the Earth
  3. CNewton's third law does not apply to walls
  4. DFriction removes both forces
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The two forces act on different objects, and the wall is anchored to the Earth

Your push acts on the wall; the wall's push acts on you. They never appear on the same free-body diagram, so they cannot cancel. Nothing accelerates because the wall is bolted to the ground and friction on your feet balances the force on you.

Q38A 2 kg ball is dropped from 5 m. Ignoring air resistance, its speed just before landing is about:

  1. A5 m/s
  2. B10 m/s
  3. C14 m/s
  4. D20 m/s
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10 m/s

Energy conservation: mgh = ½mv², and the mass cancels from both sides. So v = √(2gh) = √(2 × 9.81 × 5) = √98.1 ≈ 9.9 m/s, which rounds to 10 m/s. Note that a 5 kg ball dropped from the same height arrives at exactly the same speed.

Q39A pendulum swings with friction. What happens to the total energy?

  1. AIt is destroyed
  2. BIt converts to heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls
  3. CIt stays exactly constant
  4. DIt increases as the pendulum slows
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It converts to heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls

Energy is never destroyed. Friction converts the ordered kinetic energy into disordered thermal energy in the air and pivot. The mechanical total (KE + PE) falls, but the total including heat is unchanged.

Q40Two cars collide and lock together. Which quantity is definitely conserved?

  1. AKinetic energy only
  2. BMomentum only
  3. CBoth momentum and kinetic energy
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Momentum only

Momentum is conserved in every collision, since no external horizontal force acts during the impact. Kinetic energy is not: this is a perfectly inelastic collision, and a large fraction of it goes into crumpling metal, heat and noise.

Q41The unit of momentum is:

  1. AN s⁻¹
  2. Bkg m s⁻¹
  3. CJ
  4. DN m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kg m s⁻¹

p = mv gives kg × m s⁻¹. It is also equal to the newton second, since impulse and momentum share a unit.

Q42Momentum is conserved in:

  1. AElastic collisions only
  2. BInelastic collisions only
  3. CAll collisions with no external resultant force
  4. DNo collisions
Show answer

Correct answer: C — All collisions with no external resultant force

Momentum is always conserved provided no external resultant force acts. Kinetic energy is the quantity that separates elastic from inelastic.

Q43Two objects stick together after colliding. The collision is:

  1. AElastic
  2. BInelastic
  3. CImpossible
  4. DFrictionless
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Inelastic

Sticking together always means kinetic energy was lost to heat, sound and deformation. Momentum is still conserved.

Q44A 2 kg object moves at 3 m s⁻¹. Its momentum is:

  1. A1.5 kg m s⁻¹
  2. B6 kg m s⁻¹
  3. C9 kg m s⁻¹
  4. D0.67 kg m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6 kg m s⁻¹

p = mv = 2 × 3 = 6 kg m s⁻¹. Dividing gives 0.67 and confuses momentum with something that has no physical meaning here.

Q45Airbags reduce injury mainly because they:

  1. AReduce the change in momentum
  2. BIncrease the time of the collision, reducing the force
  3. CIncrease the mass of the passenger
  4. DAbsorb the momentum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increase the time of the collision, reducing the force

The change in momentum is fixed by the crash. Extending Δt reduces F, since F = Δp/Δt. Nothing "absorbs" momentum — it is transferred, not destroyed.

Q46A stationary object explodes into two fragments. Their total momentum afterwards is:

  1. AZero
  2. BEqual to the mass of the object
  3. CDoubled
  4. DImpossible to determine
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Zero

It was zero before, and momentum is conserved, so it must be zero after. The two fragments carry equal and opposite momenta.

Q47A ball of mass 0.2 kg hits a wall at 5 m s⁻¹ and rebounds at 5 m s⁻¹. The magnitude of its change in momentum is:

  1. A0
  2. B1 kg m s⁻¹
  3. C2 kg m s⁻¹
  4. D0.5 kg m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 2 kg m s⁻¹

The velocity changes from +5 to −5, a change of 10 m s⁻¹, so Δp = 0.2 × 10 = 2 kg m s⁻¹. Answer A treats the speeds as equal and therefore unchanged, which ignores direction.

Q48Force is best defined as the rate of change of:

  1. AVelocity
  2. BMomentum
  3. CEnergy
  4. DDisplacement
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Momentum

F = Δp/Δt is the general form of Newton's second law, and reduces to F = ma when the mass is constant.

Q49A waiter carries a tray horizontally at constant speed across a room. The work done by the waiter on the tray is:

  1. ALarge and positive
  2. BZero
  3. CNegative
  4. DEqual to the weight of the tray
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The supporting force is vertical and the movement is horizontal, so θ = 90° and cos 90° = 0. Effort is not the same as work — your arm gets tired maintaining the force, but no energy is transferred to the tray.

Q50A car doubles its speed. Its kinetic energy:

  1. ADoubles
  2. BHalves
  3. CQuadruples
  4. DStays the same
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Quadruples

KE = ½mv², so v → 2v gives (2v)² = 4v². This is why braking distance grows roughly fourfold when speed doubles: the brakes must dissipate four times the energy.

Q51A 2 kg ball is dropped from 5 m. Taking g = 10 m s⁻² and ignoring air resistance, its speed on landing is:

  1. A5 m s⁻¹
  2. B10 m s⁻¹
  3. C20 m s⁻¹
  4. D100 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10 m s⁻¹

mgh = ½mv², and the mass cancels: v = √(2gh) = √(2 × 10 × 5) = 10 m s⁻¹. The 100 answer is v² left un-square-rooted, and the mass being given at all is a deliberate distraction.

Q52A motor lifts a 50 kg load 4 m in 10 s. Taking g = 10 m s⁻², its useful power output is:

  1. A20 W
  2. B200 W
  3. C2000 W
  4. D500 W
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 200 W

Work = mgh = 50 × 10 × 4 = 2000 J, and power = 2000 ÷ 10 = 200 W. The 2000 W answer is the work in joules read off as watts — always check whether you have divided by the time.

Q53A pendulum swings back and forth with friction present. Over time:

  1. ATotal energy is destroyed
  2. BKE and PE both fall, and the difference becomes heat
  3. CPE is converted entirely into KE with no loss
  4. DThe period grows steadily longer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — KE and PE both fall, and the difference becomes heat

Energy is never destroyed — it leaves the pendulum as heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls. The period, notably, stays essentially the same as the swing dies away, which is the isochronism that made pendulum clocks work.

Q54A machine takes in 500 J and delivers 350 J of useful output. Its efficiency is:

  1. A70%
  2. B143%
  3. C150%
  4. D35%
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 70%

350 ÷ 500 × 100 = 70%. The remaining 150 J has not vanished; it has been dissipated as heat, sound and vibration. Any efficiency above 100% means you have divided the wrong way round.

Q55The moment of a force is calculated using:

  1. AForce × distance along the line of action
  2. BForce × perpendicular distance from the pivot
  3. CForce ÷ distance from the pivot
  4. DForce × time
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Force × perpendicular distance from the pivot

Only the perpendicular distance produces turning. A force pushing straight toward the pivot has zero perpendicular distance and therefore no turning effect at all, however large it is.

Q56The unit of moment is:

  1. AJ
  2. BN m
  3. CN/m
  4. DW
Show answer

Correct answer: B — N m

Newton metre. It shares its base units with the joule, but a moment and an energy are different quantities, so writing J for a moment loses the mark.

Q57A 2 N weight sits 0.6 m from a pivot. Where must a 3 N weight sit on the other side to balance it?

  1. A0.4 m
  2. B0.6 m
  3. C0.9 m
  4. D1.2 m
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0.4 m

Anticlockwise moment = 2 × 0.6 = 1.2 N m, so 3 × d = 1.2 and d = 0.4 m. The heavier weight sits closer — the common error is placing it further out.

Q58Two equal, opposite, parallel forces with different lines of action form:

  1. AAn equilibrium
  2. BA couple
  3. CA resultant force
  4. DA moment of zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A couple

That is the definition of a couple. It produces pure rotation, with no resultant force, which is why a steering wheel turns without the column sliding sideways.

Q59For a uniform metre rule, the centre of gravity is at:

  1. AThe 0 cm mark
  2. BThe 50 cm mark
  3. CThe 100 cm mark
  4. DWherever it is pivoted
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The 50 cm mark

Uniform means the mass is evenly distributed, so the centre of gravity is at the geometric centre. The word "uniform" in a question is always telling you this.

Q60An object topples when:

  1. AIts centre of gravity is high
  2. BIts base is narrow
  3. CThe vertical line through its centre of gravity falls outside its base
  4. DIt is displaced at all
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The vertical line through its centre of gravity falls outside its base

A high centre of gravity and a narrow base both make toppling easier, but neither causes it on its own. The condition is the line through the centre of gravity leaving the base.

Q61When taking moments, choosing the pivot on the line of action of an unknown force is useful because:

  1. AIt makes the force larger
  2. BThat force then has zero moment and drops out
  3. CIt changes the equilibrium
  4. DIt converts N m to joules
Show answer

Correct answer: B — That force then has zero moment and drops out

Its perpendicular distance from that point is zero, so its moment is zero. One unknown vanishes and the equation solves in a single line.

Q62A racing car is built low to the ground mainly because:

  1. AIt reduces air resistance only
  2. BIt lowers the centre of gravity, improving stability
  3. CIt increases the weight
  4. DIt increases the moment of the engine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It lowers the centre of gravity, improving stability

A lower centre of gravity means a larger tilt is needed before the vertical line through it leaves the wheelbase, so the car resists rolling in corners. Reduced drag is a genuine second benefit, but stability is the reason given in mark schemes.

Exam-style questions · 49

Q1[2 marks]
Differentiate between base and derived units, giving one example of each.
Answer

A base unit is one of the seven independent SI units, such as the metre. A derived unit is built from base units by multiplication or division, such as the newton, 1 N = 1 kg m s⁻².

Q2[2 marks]
What is meant by the least count of a measuring instrument?
Answer

The smallest measurement the instrument can read — the value of one division on its scale. A metre rule has a least count of 1 mm; a vernier calliper, 0.1 mm; a screw gauge, 0.01 mm.

Q3[2 marks]
Why is the mean of several readings more reliable than a single reading?
Answer

Random errors scatter either side of the true value, so averaging makes them partly cancel. A single reading may happen to be one of the extreme ones.

Q4[3 marks]
The length of a rod is measured as 12.5 cm with an uncertainty of 0.1 cm. Express this in metres and state the percentage uncertainty.
Mark scheme
  1. Convert: 12.5 cm = 0.125 m, 0.1 cm = 0.001 mdivide by 100[1]
  2. Percentage uncertainty = (Δl / l) × 100 = (0.1 / 12.5) × 100same units top and bottom, so the conversion cancels[1]
  3. = 0.8%[1]

0.125 ± 0.001 m, or 0.8%

Q5[4 marks]
A student measures the diameter of a wire five times with a screw gauge and records: 0.42, 0.43, 0.42, 0.51, 0.43 mm.
  1. Identify the anomalous reading and state what should be done with it.
  2. Calculate the mean diameter using the remaining readings.
Mark scheme
  1. 0.51 mm is anomalous — it lies well away from the others[1]
  2. It should be excluded from the mean, but reported rather than deletedthe reporting half is the mark most often missed[1]
  3. Mean = (0.42 + 0.43 + 0.42 + 0.43) / 4four readings, not five[1]
  4. = 0.425 ≈ 0.43 mm[1]

(a) 0.51 mm, excluded but reported (b) 0.43 mm

Q6[4 marks]
A cyclist travelling at 4.0 m s⁻¹ accelerates uniformly to 10.0 m s⁻¹ over a distance of 42 m.
  1. Calculate the acceleration of the cyclist.
  2. Calculate the time taken.
Mark scheme
  1. Selects v² = u² + 2asthe equation without t, since t is not given in part (a)[1]
  2. 10.0² = 4.0² + 2 × a × 42100 = 16 + 84aa = 1.0 m s⁻²unit required for the mark[1]
  3. Selects v = u + at (or s = ½(u+v)t)[1]
  4. 10.0 = 4.0 + 1.0tt = 6.0 s[1]

(a) 1.0 m s⁻² (b) 6.0 s

Q7[5 marks]
A stone is dropped from rest at the top of a cliff and hits the sea 3.2 s later. Take g = 9.81 m s⁻² and ignore air resistance.
  1. Calculate the height of the cliff.
  2. Calculate the speed at which the stone hits the water.
  3. State one effect of air resistance on your answer to (b).
Mark scheme
  1. Uses s = ut + ½at² with u = 0"dropped from rest" is what tells you u = 0[1]
  2. s = ½ × 9.81 × 3.2² = 50.2 ≈ 50 m[1]
  3. Uses v = u + ator v² = u² + 2as[1]
  4. v = 9.81 × 3.2 = 31.4 ≈ 31 m s⁻¹[1]
  5. The actual speed would be lower / the stone would reach terminal velocitya statement about direction of change is enough[1]

(a) 50 m (b) 31 m s⁻¹ (c) the speed would be less

Q8[6 marks]
The velocity–time graph of a train shows: a uniform rise from 0 to 20 m s⁻¹ over the first 40 s, a constant 20 m s⁻¹ for the next 60 s, then a uniform fall to rest over the final 30 s.
  1. Calculate the acceleration during the first 40 s.
  2. Calculate the total distance travelled.
  3. Calculate the average speed for the whole journey.
Mark scheme
  1. Acceleration = gradient = (20 − 0) / 40gradient of a velocity–time graph is acceleration[1]
  2. = 0.50 m s⁻²[1]
  3. Recognises distance = area under the graphthis is the mark most often missed[1]
  4. Triangle ½ × 40 × 20 = 400; rectangle 60 × 20 = 1200; triangle ½ × 30 × 20 = 300all three areas needed[1]
  5. Total = 1900 m[1]
  6. Average speed = 1900 / 130 = 14.6 ≈ 15 m s⁻¹total distance ÷ total time, not the mean of the velocities[1]

(a) 0.50 m s⁻² (b) 1900 m (c) 15 m s⁻¹

Q9[5 marks]
A ball is thrown horizontally at 15 m s⁻¹ from the top of a building 45 m high. Take g = 10 m s⁻² and ignore air resistance.
  1. Calculate the time the ball takes to reach the ground.
  2. Calculate the horizontal distance travelled.
  3. Explain why the time in (a) does not depend on the horizontal speed.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses vertical motion with u_y = 0: 45 = ½ × 10 × t²"thrown horizontally" means the initial vertical velocity is zero[1]
  2. t² = 9.0, t = 3.0 s[1]
  3. Uses s_x = u_x t with constant horizontal velocity[1]
  4. s_x = 15 × 3.0 = 45 m[1]
  5. Horizontal and vertical motion are independent / gravity acts only vertically, so the vertical motion is unaffected by the horizontal velocity[1]

(a) 3.0 s (b) 45 m (c) the two components are independent

Q10[3 marks]
Define displacement, and state one situation in which the magnitude of an object's displacement is smaller than the distance it has travelled.
Mark scheme
  1. Displacement is the straight-line distance from the starting point to the finishing point[1]
  2. …together with its direction / it is a vector quantitythe direction is required for the second mark[1]
  3. Any curved or non-straight path, e.g. a runner going round a bend, a car following a winding roada full circular lap, where displacement is zero, also earns this[1]
Q11[2 marks]
Differentiate between distance and displacement.
Answer

Distance is the total length of the path travelled, a scalar. Displacement is the straight line from start to finish together with its direction, a vector.

Q12[2 marks]
Can a body have zero velocity and non-zero acceleration? Explain.
Answer

Yes. A ball thrown vertically upward is momentarily at rest at the top of its flight, but gravity still acts, so its acceleration is g downward.

Q13[4 marks]
A car travelling at 25 m s⁻¹ brakes uniformly and stops in 5.0 s. Calculate the deceleration and the distance travelled while braking.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses a = (v − u)/t = (0 − 25)/5.0[1]
  2. a = −5.0 m s⁻², a deceleration of 5.0 m s⁻²the negative sign or the word deceleration, not both required[1]
  3. Uses s = ½(u + v)t or v² = u² + 2as[1]
  4. s = ½(25 + 0) × 5.0 = 62.5 m[1]

deceleration 5.0 m s⁻², distance 62.5 m

Q14[5 marks]
A rock has a mass of 25 kg. The gravitational field strength on Earth is 9.8 N kg⁻¹ and on the Moon is 1.6 N kg⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the weight of the rock on Earth.
  2. Calculate its weight on the Moon.
  3. State the mass of the rock on the Moon and explain your answer.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses W = mg[1]
  2. W = 25 × 9.8 = 245 N[1]
  3. W = 25 × 1.6 = 40 N[1]
  4. Mass is 25 kgunchanged[1]
  5. Mass is the quantity of matter and does not depend on gravitational field strengththe explanation mark[1]

(a) 245 N (b) 40 N (c) 25 kg — mass does not depend on location

Q15[4 marks]
A student uses a spring balance and a beam balance to measure the same object on Earth, then repeats both measurements on the Moon.
  1. State which reading changes and which does not.
  2. Explain both answers.
Mark scheme
  1. The spring balance reading changes; the beam balance reading does not[1]
  2. A spring balance measures force / weight, which depends on g[1]
  3. g is smaller on the Moon, so the weight and hence the reading is smaller[1]
  4. A beam balance compares two masses, and both are affected equally by the change in g, so the comparison is unaffectedthe harder mark[1]
Q16[3 marks]
An object weighs 96 N on a planet where the gravitational field strength is 3.2 N kg⁻¹. Calculate its mass, and state its weight on Earth where g = 9.8 N kg⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Rearranges to m = W/g[1]
  2. m = 96 / 3.2 = 30 kg[1]
  3. On Earth W = 30 × 9.8 = 294 Nthe mass is the quantity that carries across[1]

m = 30 kg, and 294 N on Earth

Q17[2 marks]
Define gravitational field strength and state its unit.
Answer

The force per unit mass acting on a body placed in the field, g = W/m. Unit: N kg⁻¹.

Q18[2 marks]
State what is meant by inertia and name the quantity that measures it.
Answer

The tendency of a body to resist a change in its state of motion. It is measured by its mass.

Q19[9 marks]
A satellite of mass 400 kg is being tested on Earth, where g = 9.8 N kg⁻¹, before being placed in orbit.
  1. Explain the difference between the mass and the weight of the satellite. [4]
  2. Calculate its weight on Earth. [2]
  3. The satellite is taken to a planet where its weight is 1480 N. Calculate the gravitational field strength there. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Mass is the quantity of matter in the satellite, a scalar measured in kilograms[1]
  2. It is the same wherever the satellite is taken[1]
  3. Weight is the gravitational force on that mass, a vector measured in newtons[1]
  4. It changes with the gravitational field strength of the location[1]
  5. Uses W = mg[1]
  6. W = 400 × 9.8 = 3920 N[1]
  7. Rearranges to g = W/m[1]
  8. g = 1480 / 400mass is unchanged at 400 kg[1]
  9. g = 3.7 N kg⁻¹roughly Mars[1]

(b) 3920 N (c) 3.7 N kg⁻¹

Q20[5 marks]
A rectangular block of wood has dimensions 20 cm × 10 cm × 5.0 cm and a mass of 0.80 kg.
  1. Calculate the density of the wood in kg m⁻³.
  2. The block is placed on a table on its largest face. Calculate the pressure it exerts. Take g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Volume = 0.20 × 0.10 × 0.050 = 1.0 × 10⁻³ m³converting every length to metres first[1]
  2. Density = 0.80 / 1.0 × 10⁻³ = 800 kg m⁻³[1]
  3. Weight = mg = 0.80 × 10 = 8.0 Npressure needs force, and the force here is the weight[1]
  4. Largest face area = 0.20 × 0.10 = 0.020 m²largest face gives the lowest pressure[1]
  5. Pressure = 8.0 / 0.020 = 400 Pa[1]

(a) 800 kg m⁻³ (b) 400 Pa

Q21[4 marks]
A diver is 12 m below the surface of a lake. The density of the water is 1000 kg m⁻³ and g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the pressure on the diver due to the water alone.
  2. The lake narrows sharply near the bottom. State and explain the effect of this on the pressure at 12 m depth.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p = ρgh[1]
  2. p = 1000 × 10 × 12 = 1.2 × 10⁵ Paunit required[1]
  3. No effect / the pressure is unchanged[1]
  4. Pressure in a liquid depends only on depth, density and g — not on the shape or width of the containerthe reasoning mark; the statement alone scores 1 of 2[1]

(a) 1.2 × 10⁵ Pa (b) no change — pressure depends only on depth

Q22[4 marks]
A spring of natural length 8.0 cm extends to 12.0 cm when a load of 5.0 N is hung from it.
  1. Calculate the spring constant.
  2. Calculate the length of the spring when a load of 8.0 N is applied, assuming the limit of proportionality is not exceeded.
Mark scheme
  1. Extension = 12.0 − 8.0 = 4.0 cm = 0.040 mextension, not total length — the mark most often lost on this topic[1]
  2. k = F/x = 5.0 / 0.040 = 125 N m⁻¹[1]
  3. New extension = 8.0 / 125 = 0.064 m = 6.4 cm[1]
  4. New length = 8.0 + 6.4 = 14.4 cmadding the natural length back on[1]

(a) 125 N m⁻¹ (b) 14.4 cm

Q23[2 marks]
Define density and state its SI unit.
Answer

Mass per unit volume, ρ = m/V. SI unit: kg m⁻³.

Q24[2 marks]
Why does a camel have broad feet?
Answer

Broad feet spread the camel's weight over a larger area, so the pressure on the sand is smaller and it does not sink.

Q25[2 marks]
State Hooke's law.
Answer

The extension of a spring is directly proportional to the load applied, provided the limit of proportionality is not exceeded.

Q26[4 marks]
A tank contains oil of density 800 kg m⁻³ to a depth of 1.5 m. Calculate the pressure at the base due to the oil, and the force this exerts on a base of area 2.0 m². Take g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p = ρgh[1]
  2. p = 800 × 10 × 1.5 = 12 000 Paunit required[1]
  3. Rearranges p = F/A to F = pA[1]
  4. F = 12 000 × 2.0 = 24 000 N[1]

p = 1.2 × 10⁴ Pa, F = 2.4 × 10⁴ N

Q27[2 marks]
State Newton's third law and give the two conditions an action–reaction pair must satisfy.
Answer

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The two forces are of the same type and act on different bodies.

Q28[2 marks]
Why does a passenger lurch forward when a bus brakes suddenly?
Answer

By Newton's first law the passenger continues moving at the same velocity because no resultant force acts on them; the bus decelerates beneath them, so they move forward relative to it.

Q29[2 marks]
Define momentum and state its SI unit.
Answer

The product of mass and velocity, p = mv. A vector quantity. SI unit: kg m s⁻¹.

Q30[4 marks]
A trolley of mass 2.0 kg moving at 3.0 m s⁻¹ collides with a stationary trolley of mass 4.0 kg. They stick together. Calculate their common velocity after the collision.
Mark scheme
  1. States conservation of momentum: total before = total after[1]
  2. Before: p = 2.0 × 3.0 + 4.0 × 0 = 6.0 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  3. After: combined mass = 6.0 kg, so 6.0 = 6.0 × vthey stick together, so they share one velocity[1]
  4. v = 1.0 m s⁻¹ in the original directiondirection expected for full marks[1]

1.0 m s⁻¹ in the direction of the original motion

Q31[4 marks]
A force of 15 N acts on a 3.0 kg block resting on a surface. Friction opposing the motion is 6.0 N. Calculate the acceleration of the block.
Mark scheme
  1. Resultant force = 15 − 6.0 = 9.0 Nfriction opposes, so it subtracts[1]
  2. Uses F = ma[1]
  3. a = F/m = 9.0 / 3.0[1]
  4. a = 3.0 m s⁻²unit required[1]

3.0 m s⁻²

Q32[6 marks]
A 1200 kg car travelling at 15 m s⁻¹ collides with a stationary 800 kg car. The two lock together.
  1. Calculate the total momentum before the collision.
  2. Calculate their common velocity immediately after.
  3. State whether kinetic energy is conserved, and name the type of collision.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p = mv[1]
  2. p = 1200 × 15 = 18 000 kg m s⁻¹the stationary car contributes nothing[1]
  3. Applies conservation: total after = 18 000 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  4. Combined mass 2000 kg, so v = 18 000 / 2000 = 9.0 m s⁻¹[1]
  5. Kinetic energy is not conserved[1]
  6. Inelastic collisionobjects sticking together is always inelastic[1]

(a) 1.8 × 10⁴ kg m s⁻¹ (b) 9.0 m s⁻¹ (c) not conserved; inelastic

Q33[5 marks]
A rifle of mass 4.0 kg fires a bullet of mass 0.020 kg at 400 m s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the recoil velocity of the rifle.
  2. Explain, using momentum, why a heavier rifle recoils more slowly.
Mark scheme
  1. Total momentum before is zeronothing is moving[1]
  2. 0 = 0.020 × 400 + 4.0 × v[1]
  3. v = −8.0 / 4.0 = −2.0 m s⁻¹, i.e. 2.0 m s⁻¹ backwardsdirection required[1]
  4. The rifle's momentum must equal the bullet's in size and be opposite in direction[1]
  5. Since p = mv is fixed, a larger m gives a smaller v[1]

2.0 m s⁻¹ backwards

Q34[4 marks]
A 0.15 kg ball hits a wall at 12 m s⁻¹ and rebounds at 8.0 m s⁻¹. The contact lasts 0.050 s. Calculate the average force on the ball.
Mark scheme
  1. Takes the initial direction as positive, so the rebound velocity is −8.0 m s⁻¹the sign is the whole question[1]
  2. Δp = m(v − u) = 0.15 × (−8.0 − 12) = −3.0 kg m s⁻¹a change of 20 m s⁻¹, not 4[1]
  3. Uses F = Δp/Δt[1]
  4. F = −3.0 / 0.050 = −60 N, i.e. 60 N away from the wall[1]

60 N, directed away from the wall

Q35[2 marks]
State the principle of conservation of momentum, including the condition under which it applies.
Answer

The total momentum of a system before an interaction equals the total momentum after it, provided no resultant external force acts on the system.

Q36[2 marks]
Explain why a cricketer moves their hands backwards while catching a fast ball.
Answer

It increases the time over which the ball is brought to rest. Since F = Δp/Δt and the change in momentum is fixed, a longer time means a smaller force on the hands.

Q37[9 marks]
A 0.045 kg golf ball is struck by a club. The ball leaves the tee at 60 m s⁻¹ and the contact lasts 0.50 ms.
  1. Calculate the change in momentum of the ball. [2]
  2. Calculate the average force exerted by the club. [3]
  3. The club has a mass of 0.30 kg and was moving at 70 m s⁻¹ before impact. Calculate its speed immediately afterwards. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses Δp = m(v − u) with u = 0the ball starts at rest on the tee[1]
  2. Δp = 0.045 × 60 = 2.7 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  3. Converts the time: 0.50 ms = 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ s[1]
  4. Uses F = Δp/Δt[1]
  5. F = 2.7 / 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ = 5400 N[1]
  6. Applies conservation of momentum to club and ball together[1]
  7. Before: 0.30 × 70 = 21 kg m s⁻¹the ball contributes nothing[1]
  8. After: 21 = 0.30 × v + 2.7[1]
  9. v = 18.3 / 0.30 = 61 m s⁻¹[1]

(a) 2.7 kg m s⁻¹ (b) 5400 N (c) 61 m s⁻¹

Q38[2 marks]
Define work done and state the condition under which it is zero even though a force acts.
Answer

Work = force × distance moved in the direction of the force, W = Fs cos θ. It is zero when the force is perpendicular to the motion, since cos 90° = 0.

Q39[2 marks]
State the law of conservation of energy.
Answer

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred from one store to another. The total energy of a closed system remains constant.

Q40[2 marks]
A ball bounces to a lower height each time. Has energy been destroyed? Explain.
Answer

No. Energy is transferred to heat and sound in the ball and the floor at each bounce, so less remains as gravitational potential energy. The total is unchanged.

Q41[4 marks]
A pump raises 300 kg of water through a height of 12 m in 40 s. Calculate the useful power output. Take g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = mghthe useful energy is the gravitational potential energy gained[1]
  2. E = 300 × 10 × 12 = 36 000 J[1]
  3. Uses P = E/t[1]
  4. P = 36 000 / 40 = 900 Wunit required[1]

900 W

Q42[4 marks]
A 1200 kg car accelerates from rest to 20 m s⁻¹. Calculate its gain in kinetic energy, and the average power developed if this takes 8.0 s.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses KE = ½mv²[1]
  2. KE = ½ × 1200 × 20² = 240 000 Jsquare the velocity before multiplying[1]
  3. Gain in KE = 240 000 J since it started from rest[1]
  4. P = 240 000 / 8.0 = 30 000 W = 30 kW[1]

2.4 × 10⁵ J and 30 kW

Q43[4 marks]
A uniform beam of weight 40 N and length 2.0 m rests on a pivot 0.50 m from its left end. A load of weight W hangs from the extreme left end, and the beam is in equilibrium.
  1. State where the weight of the beam acts.
  2. Calculate the value of W.
Mark scheme
  1. At the centre of gravity, which for a uniform beam is its midpoint, 1.0 m from the left end"uniform" is the word that tells you this[1]
  2. Takes moments about the pivot; the beam's weight acts 1.0 − 0.50 = 0.50 m to the right of it[1]
  3. Clockwise = anticlockwise: 40 × 0.50 = W × 0.50the load acts 0.50 m to the left of the pivot[1]
  4. W = 40 N[1]

(a) at the midpoint, 1.0 m from the left end (b) W = 40 N

Q44[3 marks]
Explain, in terms of centre of gravity and base, why a double-decker bus is more likely to topple when passengers stand on the upper deck than when they sit downstairs.
Mark scheme
  1. Passengers upstairs raise the centre of gravity of the bus[1]
  2. A higher centre of gravity means a smaller tilt is needed before the vertical line through it falls outside the base / wheelbasethis is the key reasoning mark[1]
  3. So the bus topples at a smaller angle / is less stable[1]
Q45[3 marks]
A force of 12 N is applied to a spanner at 30° to the handle, at a distance of 0.25 m from the nut. Calculate the moment of the force about the nut.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises that only the perpendicular component turns the nutor equivalently uses the perpendicular distance[1]
  2. Perpendicular component = 12 sin 30° = 6.0 N[1]
  3. Moment = 6.0 × 0.25 = 1.5 N munit required[1]

1.5 N m

Q46[2 marks]
Define the moment of a force and state its SI unit.
Answer

The turning effect of a force about a pivot, equal to force × perpendicular distance from the pivot to the line of action. SI unit: the newton metre, N m.

Q47[2 marks]
Why can a moment not be measured in joules, when N m is the unit of both?
Answer

They are different quantities. Work is force acting along a displacement; a moment is force acting across a distance from a pivot. Sharing base units does not make them the same thing.

Q48[2 marks]
State two conditions that must be satisfied for a body to be in complete equilibrium.
Answer

ΣF = 0 — no resultant force, so it does not accelerate. Σ moments = 0 — no resultant turning effect, so it does not rotate.

Q49[4 marks]
A uniform metre rule is pivoted at the 50 cm mark. A weight of 3.0 N hangs at the 20 cm mark. Calculate the weight that must hang at the 70 cm mark to balance it.
Mark scheme
  1. Left distance = 50 − 20 = 30 cm = 0.30 mdistance from the pivot, not from the end of the rule[1]
  2. Anticlockwise moment = 3.0 × 0.30 = 0.90 N m[1]
  3. Right distance = 70 − 50 = 20 cm = 0.20 m; for balance W₂ × 0.20 = 0.90principle of moments[1]
  4. W₂ = 4.5 Nunit required[1]

4.5 N

02

Thermal physics

Multiple choice · 24

Q1In which state are the particles arranged in a regular lattice and vibrating about fixed positions?

  1. ASolid
  2. BLiquid
  3. CGas
  4. DAll three
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Solid

That is the definition of the solid state. Liquid particles are irregularly arranged and can slide; gas particles move freely and randomly.

Q2Brownian motion is caused by:

  1. AConvection currents
  2. BUneven bombardment by fluid molecules
  3. CGravity
  4. DThe microscope light heating the cell
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Uneven bombardment by fluid molecules

The visible particle is struck unevenly by molecules too small to see, so the resultant force keeps changing direction. Convection would give steady drift, not random jerks.

Q3Gas pressure in a container is caused by:

  1. AThe weight of the gas
  2. BParticles colliding with the walls
  3. CParticles colliding with each other
  4. DGravity acting on the container
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Particles colliding with the walls

Each wall collision exerts a small force; pressure is the total force per unit area. Collisions between particles do not act on the wall at all.

Q4A gas is compressed to half its volume at constant temperature. Its pressure:

  1. AHalves
  2. BDoubles
  3. CStays the same
  4. DQuadruples
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Doubles

Boyle's law: pV is constant, so halving V doubles p. The same particles now strike a smaller area more frequently.

Q5Boyle's law applies only when:

  1. AThe pressure is constant
  2. BThe temperature is constant
  3. CThe gas is heated
  4. DThe container is open
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The temperature is constant

p₁V₁ = p₂V₂ holds for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature. Quoting the condition is usually worth a mark in itself.

Q6Heating a gas in a sealed rigid container causes the pressure to rise because the particles:

  1. AGet bigger
  2. BMove faster and hit the walls harder and more often
  3. CBecome heavier
  4. DMove closer together
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Move faster and hit the walls harder and more often

Temperature is a measure of average kinetic energy. Faster particles produce both more frequent and more forceful collisions. Their size and mass do not change.

Q7A bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the surface. Its volume:

  1. ADecreases
  2. BIncreases
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDepends on its mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increases

The pressure on the bubble falls as it rises, and by Boyle's law a lower pressure means a larger volume — which is why bubbles visibly swell as they surface.

Q8Which property of a gas explains why it fills its container?

  1. AStrong forces between particles
  2. BNegligible forces between particles and random rapid motion
  3. CRegular particle arrangement
  4. DHigh density
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Negligible forces between particles and random rapid motion

With almost no attraction holding them together, gas particles simply spread until they meet the walls. Strong forces would keep them together as a liquid or solid.

Q9Temperature is a measure of:

  1. AThe total energy of all the particles
  2. BThe average kinetic energy of the particles
  3. CThe mass of the substance
  4. DThe rate of heat flow
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The average kinetic energy of the particles

Temperature is the average per particle. The total energy of all the particles is thermal energy, which also depends on how many there are — which is why a spark and a bath differ so completely.

Q10−273 °C in kelvin is:

  1. A0 K
  2. B273 K
  3. C−273 K
  4. D546 K
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0 K

T(K) = θ + 273, so −273 + 273 = 0 K. This is absolute zero, the point at which particle motion is at its minimum.

Q11Which expands most for a given temperature rise?

  1. ASolids
  2. BLiquids
  3. CGases
  4. DAll expand equally
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gases

Gases expand most, then liquids, then solids. The more freely the particles already move, the more space the additional motion requires.

Q12A bimetallic strip bends when heated because:

  1. AOne metal melts
  2. BThe two metals expand by different amounts
  3. CThe strip absorbs latent heat
  4. DThe metals contract
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The two metals expand by different amounts

Different expansion rates force the strip to curve, toward the metal that expands less. This is the basis of a simple thermostat.

Q13In E = mcΔθ, Δθ represents:

  1. AThe final temperature
  2. BThe starting temperature
  3. CThe change in temperature
  4. DThe temperature in kelvin
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The change in temperature

The change — subtract the initial from the final before substituting. Using the final temperature alone is the single most common error in this topic.

Q14During melting, the temperature of a substance:

  1. ARises steadily
  2. BFalls
  3. CStays constant
  4. DRises then falls
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays constant

The energy supplied breaks bonds between particles rather than raising their kinetic energy, so the thermometer does not move until all the solid has melted.

Q15Water is used as a coolant in car engines mainly because it:

  1. AIs cheap
  2. BHas a high specific heat capacity
  3. CHas a low boiling point
  4. DExpands when heated
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Has a high specific heat capacity

About 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ means it absorbs a great deal of energy for a small temperature rise. Being cheap and available is a real practical advantage, but not the physics being examined.

Q16Ponds freeze from the surface downward because:

  1. AIce is denser than water
  2. BWater expands between 4 °C and 0 °C, so ice floats
  3. CCold air only touches the top
  4. DThe bottom is insulated by mud
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Water expands between 4 °C and 0 °C, so ice floats

Water is anomalous below 4 °C: it expands as it cools further, so ice is less dense and floats. Cold air does only touch the top, but that alone would not stop the ice sinking once formed.

Q17Which process can transfer thermal energy through a vacuum?

  1. AConduction
  2. BConvection
  3. CRadiation
  4. DAll three
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Radiation

Radiation is electromagnetic and needs no medium. Conduction and convection both require particles, which a vacuum does not have.

Q18Metals conduct heat well mainly because they contain:

  1. AFree electrons
  2. BTrapped air
  3. CConvection currents
  4. DMore protons
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Free electrons

Free electrons carry energy directly through the structure. Vibration alone, which is all a non-metal has, is far slower.

Q19Convection cannot occur in a solid because:

  1. ASolids are too cold
  2. BParticles cannot move past one another
  3. CSolids have no free electrons
  4. DSolids reflect radiation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Particles cannot move past one another

Convection requires the material itself to flow, and a solid lattice holds its particles in fixed positions.

Q20Warm air rises because:

  1. AIt is lighter than gravity
  2. BIt expands, so its density falls
  3. CIt is attracted to the ceiling
  4. DRadiation pushes it up
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It expands, so its density falls

Expansion means the same mass occupies more volume, so density falls and the air floats upward through denser surroundings.

Q21The best emitter of infrared radiation is:

  1. AShiny silver
  2. BMatt black
  3. CClear glass
  4. DPolished white
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Matt black

Matt black is the best emitter and the best absorber. Shiny silver is worst at both and the best reflector.

Q22Cooling fins on an engine are usually painted matt black because black surfaces are good:

  1. AReflectors
  2. BInsulators
  3. CEmitters of radiation
  4. DConductors
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Emitters of radiation

The fins are designed to lose energy, so the best emitter is wanted. Painting them silver would keep the heat in.

Q23Trapped air is used in insulation because it:

  1. AConducts well and cannot convect
  2. BConducts poorly and cannot convect
  3. CRadiates well
  4. DHas free electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Conducts poorly and cannot convect

Gases are poor conductors because their particles are far apart, and trapping the air stops convection currents forming. Both effects are needed.

Q24A tiled floor feels colder than a carpet at the same temperature because tiles:

  1. AAre at a lower temperature
  2. BConduct energy away from the foot faster
  3. CEmit more radiation
  4. DContain more trapped air
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Conduct energy away from the foot faster

Both are at room temperature. The tile conducts energy from the skin more rapidly, and that rate of loss is what is sensed as cold.

Exam-style questions · 19

Q1[5 marks]
A student observes smoke particles in a small glass cell using a microscope, and sees them moving in a random, jerky way.
  1. Name this effect.
  2. Explain, in terms of particles, what causes the motion.
  3. State what the observation tells us about air molecules.
Mark scheme
  1. Brownian motion[1]
  2. The smoke particles are bombarded by air molecules[1]
  3. The bombardment is uneven / random, so the resultant force keeps changing directionthe mark that separates a full answer[1]
  4. Air molecules are very smalltoo small to see individually[1]
  5. They are moving rapidly and randomly[1]
Q2[4 marks]
A sealed container of gas is heated while its volume stays constant.
  1. State what happens to the pressure.
  2. Explain your answer in terms of the particles.
Mark scheme
  1. The pressure increases[1]
  2. The particles gain kinetic energy and move faster[1]
  3. They collide with the walls more frequently[1]
  4. Each collision exerts a greater force, so the total force per unit area risesboth "more often" and "harder" are needed for full marks[1]
Q3[3 marks]
A bubble of gas of volume 2.0 cm³ at the bottom of a lake is at a pressure of 3.0 × 10⁵ Pa. It rises to the surface where the pressure is 1.0 × 10⁵ Pa. Assuming the temperature is unchanged, calculate the new volume.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p₁V₁ = p₂V₂temperature constant, so Boyle's law applies[1]
  2. 3.0 × 10⁵ × 2.0 = 1.0 × 10⁵ × V₂[1]
  3. V₂ = 6.0 cm³lower pressure, larger bubble — check the direction[1]

6.0 cm³

Q4[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why a gas can be compressed but a liquid cannot.
Answer

In a gas the particles are far apart with large spaces between them, which can be reduced. In a liquid the particles are already touching, so there is no space to remove.

Q5[2 marks]
State two ways in which the pressure of a fixed mass of gas in a sealed container can be increased.
Answer

Raise its temperature, so the particles move faster and collide harder and more often. Or reduce its volume, so the same particles strike a smaller area more frequently.

Q6[8 marks]
A cylinder contains 0.50 m³ of gas at a pressure of 2.0 × 10⁵ Pa.
  1. Explain, in terms of particles, what causes the gas to exert a pressure on the cylinder walls. [3]
  2. The gas is compressed to 0.20 m³ at constant temperature. Calculate the new pressure. [3]
  3. State and explain what would happen to the pressure if the gas were then heated at constant volume. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Particles move rapidly and randomly, colliding with the walls[1]
  2. Each collision exerts a small force on the wall[1]
  3. Pressure is the total force per unit area of wall[1]
  4. Uses p₁V₁ = p₂V₂, stating that the temperature is constant[1]
  5. 2.0 × 10⁵ × 0.50 = p₂ × 0.20[1]
  6. p₂ = 5.0 × 10⁵ Pa[1]
  7. The pressure would increase[1]
  8. The particles gain kinetic energy, so they hit the walls harder and more often[1]

(b) 5.0 × 10⁵ Pa (c) pressure rises

Q7[5 marks]
An electric heater of power 2.0 kW is used to heat 1.5 kg of water. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the energy needed to raise the temperature of the water from 18 °C to 88 °C.
  2. Calculate the minimum time this would take.
  3. In practice the heater takes longer than your answer to (b). Give one reason.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = mcΔθ with Δθ = 70 °C88 − 18, not 88[1]
  2. E = 1.5 × 4200 × 70 = 4.41 × 10⁵ J[1]
  3. Uses t = E/P with P = 2000 Wconverting kW to W[1]
  4. t = 441000 / 2000 = 220 saccept 220.5 s[1]
  5. Energy is lost to the surroundings / the container is also heatedeither reason accepted[1]

(a) 4.4 × 10⁵ J (b) 220 s (c) heat lost to surroundings

Q8[5 marks]
A student heats a block of ice at −10 °C steadily until it becomes steam. Sketch and describe the shape of the temperature–time graph.
Mark scheme
  1. Temperature rises from −10 °C to 0 °C[1]
  2. Horizontal section at 0 °C while the ice melts[1]
  3. Temperature rises from 0 °C to 100 °C[1]
  4. Longer horizontal section at 100 °C while the water boilsthe boiling plateau must be longer than the melting one[1]
  5. During the flat sections the energy supplied breaks bonds between particles rather than raising kinetic energythe explanation mark[1]
Q9[4 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why a bimetallic strip bends when heated, and state one use for it.
Mark scheme
  1. Heating makes particles vibrate more and push further apart, so each metal expands[1]
  2. The two metals expand by different amounts for the same temperature risethis is the essential point[1]
  3. The strip bends toward the metal that expands less[1]
  4. Used in a thermostat / fire alarm / oven switchany valid use[1]
Q10[2 marks]
Differentiate between heat and temperature.
Answer

Temperature is the average kinetic energy of the particles, measured in °C or K. Heat is the total thermal energy of all the particles, measured in joules, and depends on how many there are.

Q11[2 marks]
Why does a bimetallic strip bend on heating?
Answer

The two metals expand by different amounts for the same temperature rise, so the strip curves toward the metal that expands less.

Q12[2 marks]
Why does the temperature remain constant while ice is melting?
Answer

The energy supplied is used to break the bonds holding the particles in the lattice, not to increase their kinetic energy. Since temperature measures kinetic energy, it does not change.

Q13[5 marks]
Calculate the energy needed to convert 0.20 kg of ice at 0 °C completely into water at 20 °C. Take the specific latent heat of fusion of ice as 3.34 × 10⁵ J kg⁻¹ and the specific heat capacity of water as 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises two stages: melting, then warminga single-stage answer cannot score more than two[1]
  2. Melting: E₁ = mL = 0.20 × 3.34 × 10⁵ = 6.68 × 10⁴ J[1]
  3. Warming: E₂ = mcΔθ = 0.20 × 4200 × 20[1]
  4. E₂ = 1.68 × 10⁴ J[1]
  5. Total = 6.68 × 10⁴ + 1.68 × 10⁴ = 8.36 × 10⁴ Jadding the two stages[1]

8.36 × 10⁴ J

Q14[6 marks]
A vacuum flask keeps a hot drink hot for several hours.
  1. Explain how the vacuum between the walls reduces energy loss.
  2. Explain how the silvered surfaces reduce energy loss.
  3. State how the stopper reduces energy loss.
Mark scheme
  1. A vacuum contains no particles[1]
  2. So there is no conduction and no convection through itboth must be named[1]
  3. Silvered surfaces are poor emitters of infrared radiation[1]
  4. And good reflectors, so radiation is reflected back into the liquid[1]
  5. The stopper prevents convection currents / evaporation carrying energy away[1]
  6. And is made of an insulating material, so conduction through the top is small[1]
Q15[4 marks]
A room is heated by a radiator fixed near the floor.
  1. Name the main process by which the whole room becomes warm.
  2. Explain how this process warms air near the ceiling.
Mark scheme
  1. Convection[1]
  2. Air near the radiator is heated and expands[1]
  3. Its density decreases, so it risesthe density step is the mark most often skipped[1]
  4. Cooler denser air sinks to replace it, setting up a convection current[1]
Q16[3 marks]
Explain why a metal handrail feels colder than a wooden one in the same room, even though both are at the same temperature.
Mark scheme
  1. Metal is a much better conductor than wood[1]
  2. It conducts thermal energy away from the hand quickly[1]
  3. The rapid energy loss from the skin is what is sensed as cold — the rail is not actually colderthe point of the question[1]
Q17[2 marks]
Explain why the heating element of an electric kettle is placed at the bottom.
Answer

Water heated at the bottom expands, becomes less dense and rises, while cooler denser water sinks to replace it. This convection current heats the whole kettle.

Q18[2 marks]
Give one reason why houses in hot countries are often painted white.
Answer

A white, shiny surface is a poor absorber and a good reflector of infrared radiation, so less energy is absorbed and the interior stays cooler.

Q19[8 marks]
A solar water heater consists of a matt black metal panel containing water pipes, mounted on a roof and covered by a sheet of glass.
  1. Explain why the panel is painted matt black. [2]
  2. Explain why the panel is made of metal. [2]
  3. Explain how the glass sheet reduces energy loss from the panel. [2]
  4. Explain how the heated water is circulated to a storage tank placed above the panel. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Matt black is the best absorber of infrared radiation[1]
  2. So the panel absorbs as much of the Sun's energy as possible[1]
  3. Metal is a good conductor[1]
  4. So energy passes quickly from the panel surface to the water in the pipes[1]
  5. The glass traps a layer of air above the panel[1]
  6. Preventing convection currents from carrying energy away[1]
  7. Heated water expands, becomes less dense and rises[1]
  8. Cooler denser water from the tank sinks to replace it, forming a convection current[1]
03

Waves

Multiple choice · 30

Q1Which condition defines simple harmonic motion?

  1. AThe object moves in a circle
  2. BThe restoring force is proportional to displacement and directed toward equilibrium
  3. CThe speed is constant
  4. DThe acceleration is constant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The restoring force is proportional to displacement and directed toward equilibrium

F = −kx is the definition. Constant acceleration describes free fall, not SHM — in SHM the acceleration is largest at the extremes and zero at the centre, changing continuously.

Q2You double the amplitude of a mass-spring oscillator. The period:

  1. ADoubles
  2. BHalves
  3. CStays the same
  4. DQuadruples
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays the same

T = 2π√(m/k) contains no amplitude term. A larger swing covers more distance but also moves faster, and the two effects cancel exactly. This property, called isochronism, is what made pendulums useful as clocks.

Q3A wave has frequency 250 Hz and wavelength 1.4 m. Its speed is:

  1. A178 m/s
  2. B350 m/s
  3. C251 m/s
  4. D0.0056 m/s
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 350 m/s

v = fλ = 250 × 1.4 = 350 m/s — close to the speed of sound in air. Note the speed is set by the medium: change the frequency and the wavelength adjusts to keep the product fixed.

Q4Two identical waves meet exactly out of phase (180°). The result is:

  1. ADouble amplitude
  2. BComplete cancellation
  3. CHalf amplitude
  4. DA standing wave
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Complete cancellation

Every crest lands on a trough, and equal-and-opposite displacements sum to zero. The energy is not destroyed — it redistributes to regions where the interference is constructive, which is why interference patterns have bright and dark bands rather than uniform dimness.

Q5In a standing wave on a string, a node is a point that:

  1. AVibrates with maximum amplitude
  2. BNever moves
  3. CMoves along the string
  4. DHas the highest frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Never moves

At a node the two counter-travelling waves are permanently in antiphase, so they cancel there at every instant. The maximum-amplitude points between nodes are antinodes, and node spacing is exactly half a wavelength.

Q6Sound is a longitudinal wave. That means the air molecules:

  1. AMove perpendicular to the wave direction
  2. BOscillate back and forth along the wave direction
  3. CTravel with the wave to your ear
  4. DDo not move at all
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Oscillate back and forth along the wave direction

Longitudinal means the oscillation is parallel to travel — air compresses and rarefies along the line the sound moves. The molecules themselves only jiggle in place; the energy travels, not the air.

Q7The angle of incidence is measured between the incident ray and:

  1. AThe surface
  2. BThe normal
  3. CThe reflected ray
  4. DThe refracted ray
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The normal

Always the normal. Measuring from the surface gives 90° minus the correct value and scores nothing.

Q8Light bends toward the normal when it enters glass from air because it:

  1. ASpeeds up
  2. BSlows down
  3. CChanges frequency
  4. DIs reflected
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Slows down

Glass is optically denser, so light travels more slowly in it, and the ray bends toward the normal. Frequency is unchanged throughout.

Q9During refraction, which quantity does NOT change?

  1. ASpeed
  2. BWavelength
  3. CFrequency
  4. DDirection
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Frequency

Frequency is fixed by the source. Speed and wavelength change together so that v = fλ still holds.

Q10The image in a plane mirror is:

  1. AReal and inverted
  2. BVirtual and upright
  3. CReal and magnified
  4. DVirtual and inverted
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Virtual and upright

Rays only appear to come from behind the mirror, so the image is virtual, and it is upright and the same size — though laterally inverted.

Q11Total internal reflection requires that light travels:

  1. AFrom less dense to denser, below the critical angle
  2. BFrom denser to less dense, above the critical angle
  3. CThrough a vacuum
  4. DAt exactly the critical angle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — From denser to less dense, above the critical angle

Both conditions are needed. Going from less dense to denser, the ray always refracts and can never be totally internally reflected.

Q12For glass of refractive index 1.5, the critical angle is about:

  1. A30°
  2. B42°
  3. C48°
  4. D60°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 42°

sin c = 1/n = 0.667, so c ≈ 42°. The 48° answer comes from taking the complement, which is measuring from the surface again.

Q13A converging lens is used as a magnifying glass. The object must be:

  1. ABeyond 2F
  2. BAt 2F
  3. CBetween F and 2F
  4. DCloser than F
Show answer

Correct answer: D — Closer than F

Only inside the focal length does a converging lens give a virtual, upright, magnified image. Every other position gives a real, inverted one.

Q14Which image can be projected onto a screen?

  1. AA virtual image
  2. BA real image
  3. CBoth
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A real image

A real image forms where light rays actually converge, so a screen placed there catches it. Virtual images have no rays at the image position.

Q15All electromagnetic waves in a vacuum travel at:

  1. A340 m s⁻¹
  2. B3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹
  3. CDifferent speeds depending on frequency
  4. D1500 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹

The speed is the same for every region of the spectrum. 340 m s⁻¹ is the speed of sound in air, which is not an electromagnetic wave at all.

Q16Which has the longest wavelength?

  1. AGamma rays
  2. BRadio waves
  3. CUltraviolet
  4. DX-rays
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Radio waves

Radio waves sit at the long-wavelength, low-frequency end. Gamma rays are at the opposite extreme.

Q17Which region lies between infrared and ultraviolet?

  1. AMicrowaves
  2. BVisible light
  3. CX-rays
  4. DRadio waves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Visible light

The order is radio, microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-ray, gamma — so visible light sits exactly between them.

Q18Ionising radiation begins at:

  1. AInfrared
  2. BVisible light
  3. CUltraviolet
  4. DMicrowaves
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Ultraviolet

From ultraviolet upward the photon energy is enough to remove electrons from atoms. That is the boundary at which cell damage becomes possible.

Q19Which electromagnetic waves are used in thermal imaging cameras?

  1. AUltraviolet
  2. BInfrared
  3. CX-rays
  4. DRadio waves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Infrared

All warm objects emit infrared, so a camera detecting it can see people and heat leaks in complete darkness.

Q20A wave has frequency 1.0 × 10¹⁵ Hz. Its wavelength is:

  1. A3.0 × 10⁻⁷ m
  2. B3.0 × 10²³ m
  3. C3.3 × 10⁶ m
  4. D3.0 × 10⁸ m
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 3.0 × 10⁻⁷ m

λ = c/f = 3.0 × 10⁸ ÷ 1.0 × 10¹⁵ = 3.0 × 10⁻⁷ m, which is 300 nm — ultraviolet. Multiplying instead of dividing gives the absurd second answer.

Q21X-rays produce an image of bone because they are:

  1. AReflected by bone
  2. BAbsorbed by bone but transmitted by soft tissue
  3. CEmitted by bone
  4. DRefracted by bone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Absorbed by bone but transmitted by soft tissue

The denser bone absorbs them, leaving a shadow on the detector while soft tissue lets them through.

Q22Compared with visible light, ultraviolet has:

  1. ALower frequency and less energy
  2. BHigher frequency and more energy
  3. CThe same frequency
  4. DA longer wavelength
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Higher frequency and more energy

Ultraviolet sits just beyond violet, at higher frequency and shorter wavelength, so each photon carries more energy — which is why it can cause sunburn and light cannot.

Q23Sound is which type of wave?

  1. ATransverse
  2. BLongitudinal
  3. CElectromagnetic
  4. DStationary
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Longitudinal

The particles oscillate along the direction of travel, producing compressions and rarefactions. Light is the transverse, electromagnetic case.

Q24Sound cannot travel through a vacuum because:

  1. AIt travels too slowly
  2. BThere are no particles to compress
  3. CA vacuum is too cold
  4. DIt is absorbed
Show answer

Correct answer: B — There are no particles to compress

A longitudinal wave needs a medium whose particles can be squeezed together and spread apart. A vacuum has none.

Q25The pitch of a note is determined by its:

  1. AAmplitude
  2. BFrequency
  3. CSpeed
  4. DWavelength in air only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Frequency

Pitch follows frequency; loudness follows amplitude. Swapping the two is the most common error in this topic.

Q26On an oscilloscope, a louder sound produces waves that are:

  1. ACloser together
  2. BFurther apart
  3. CTaller
  4. DShorter
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Taller

Louder means greater amplitude, which shows as taller waves. Spacing shows frequency, and therefore pitch.

Q27Sound travels fastest in:

  1. AAir
  2. BWater
  3. CSteel
  4. DA vacuum
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Steel

Particles in a solid are closest together and strongly bonded, so the disturbance passes on fastest — about 5000 m s⁻¹ in steel.

Q28A person hears an echo 2.0 s after shouting at a cliff 340 m away. The speed of sound is:

  1. A170 m s⁻¹
  2. B340 m s⁻¹
  3. C680 m s⁻¹
  4. D1360 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 340 m s⁻¹

The sound covers 2 × 340 = 680 m in 2.0 s, giving 340 m s⁻¹. Forgetting to double the distance gives 170 and is the mistake the question is set to catch.

Q29Ultrasound is defined as sound with a frequency:

  1. ABelow 20 Hz
  2. BAbove 20 000 Hz
  3. CAbove 340 Hz
  4. DEqual to the speed of sound
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Above 20 000 Hz

It is simply too high in frequency for a human ear to detect. It is not louder or more energetic in any special sense.

Q30Ultrasound is preferred to X-rays for scanning a fetus because it is:

  1. ACheaper
  2. BFaster
  3. CNon-ionising
  4. DHigher energy
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Non-ionising

X-rays are ionising and can damage dividing cells. Ultrasound carries no such risk, which is why it is the standard choice in pregnancy.

Exam-style questions · 24

Q1[2 marks]
Define the wavelength and the frequency of a wave.
Answer

Wavelength is the distance between two neighbouring points that are in phase, for example crest to crest. Frequency is the number of complete waves passing a fixed point each second.

Q2[2 marks]
State two differences between transverse and longitudinal waves, and give one example of each.
Answer

In a transverse wave the vibration is perpendicular to the direction of travel, for example light. In a longitudinal wave it is parallel to the direction of travel, for example sound.

Q3[2 marks]
State what happens to the frequency, wavelength and speed of a water wave when it passes into shallower water.
Answer

The frequency stays the same. The speed decreases and, since v = fλ, the wavelength decreases in proportion.

Q4[4 marks]
A wave on a rope has a frequency of 12 Hz. Fifteen complete waves occupy a length of 3.0 m. Calculate the wavelength and the speed of the wave.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses λ = length ÷ number of waves[1]
  2. λ = 3.0 / 15 = 0.20 m[1]
  3. Uses v = fλ[1]
  4. v = 12 × 0.20 = 2.4 m s⁻¹[1]

λ = 0.20 m, v = 2.4 m s⁻¹

Q5[8 marks]
A ripple tank is used to study water waves. A straight barrier with a narrow gap is placed in the tank.
  1. Describe and explain what is observed as the waves pass through the gap. [3]
  2. State and explain what happens to the effect when the gap is made narrower. [2]
  3. The waves have a frequency of 8.0 Hz and a wavelength of 25 mm. Calculate their speed. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The waves spread out after passing through the gap[1]
  2. This is diffraction[1]
  3. The wavelength and frequency are unchanged; only the shape of the wavefront changes[1]
  4. The waves spread out more[1]
  5. Because the gap width is closer to the wavelengthmaximum spreading when gap ≈ λ[1]
  6. Converts 25 mm = 0.025 m[1]
  7. Uses v = fλ[1]
  8. v = 8.0 × 0.025 = 0.20 m s⁻¹[1]

(c) 0.20 m s⁻¹

Q6[7 marks]
A student uses a ripple tank to investigate refraction by placing a flat glass plate on the bottom to make part of the tank shallower.
  1. Describe what happens to the direction of the waves as they cross into the shallow region at an angle. [2]
  2. Explain this change in terms of the speed of the waves. [3]
  3. State what is observed if the waves meet the boundary head-on, and explain why. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The waves change direction at the boundary[1]
  2. They bend towards the normal[1]
  3. The waves travel more slowly in the shallow water[1]
  4. The end of each wavefront entering the shallow region slows first[1]
  5. So the wavefront pivots, changing the direction of travel[1]
  6. The direction does not change[1]
  7. Because the whole wavefront slows at the same instant, so there is nothing to pivot aboutthe wavelength still shortens[1]
Q7[6 marks]
A ray of light passes from air into a glass block of refractive index 1.50, striking the surface at an angle of incidence of 40°.
  1. Calculate the angle of refraction.
  2. Calculate the critical angle for this glass.
  3. State the two conditions required for total internal reflection.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses n = sin i / sin r[1]
  2. sin r = sin 40° / 1.50 = 0.643 / 1.50 = 0.4285[1]
  3. r = 25.4°accept 25°[1]
  4. Uses sin c = 1/n = 1/1.50 = 0.667, giving c = 41.8°accept 42°[1]
  5. Light must travel from a denser to a less dense medium[1]
  6. The angle of incidence must exceed the critical angleboth conditions needed[1]

(a) 25.4° (b) 41.8° (c) denser → less dense, and i > c

Q8[4 marks]
Explain how an optical fibre carries light around a bend without the light escaping.
Mark scheme
  1. Light strikes the boundary between the core and the cladding[1]
  2. The core is optically denser than the cladding[1]
  3. The angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle[1]
  4. So total internal reflection occurs, repeatedly, and the light follows the fibre[1]
Q9[4 marks]
An object is placed 15 cm from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm.
  1. State whether the image is real or virtual, and whether it is upright or inverted.
  2. State one device that uses a lens in this way.
  3. State what happens to the image if the object is moved to 5 cm from the lens.
Mark scheme
  1. Real and invertedthe object lies between F and 2F[1]
  2. It is also magnified[1]
  3. A projector (or a film projector / slide projector)[1]
  4. At 5 cm the object is inside F, so the image becomes virtual, upright and magnifieda magnifying glass[1]

(a) real, inverted, magnified (b) projector (c) becomes virtual, upright and magnified

Q10[2 marks]
State two differences between a real image and a virtual image.
Answer

A real image is formed where light rays actually meet and can be caught on a screen. A virtual image is formed where rays only appear to come from and cannot be projected.

Q11[2 marks]
Explain why a straw in a glass of water appears bent at the surface.
Answer

Light from the submerged part refracts as it leaves the water and enters the air, bending away from the normal. The eye assumes light travels in straight lines, so the straw appears displaced.

Q12[9 marks]
A ray of light travels from water of refractive index 1.33 toward the water–air surface.
  1. Calculate the critical angle for the water–air boundary. [3]
  2. The ray meets the surface at an angle of incidence of 60°. State and explain what happens to it. [3]
  3. Explain how an optical fibre uses this effect to carry a signal, and give one advantage of optical fibres over copper wires. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses sin c = 1/n[1]
  2. sin c = 1/1.33 = 0.752[1]
  3. c = 48.8°accept 49°[1]
  4. Total internal reflection occurs[1]
  5. Because 60° is greater than the critical angle of 48.8°[1]
  6. And the light is travelling from the denser medium to the less dense oneboth conditions[1]
  7. Light repeatedly totally internally reflects at the core–cladding boundary, so it follows the fibre even around bends[1]
  8. Advantage: much higher data capacity / less signal loss over distance / no electrical interferenceany one[1]
  9. Second valid point about the mechanism or the advantage[1]

(a) 48.8° (b) total internal reflection (c) repeated TIR at the core–cladding boundary

Q13[5 marks]
The electromagnetic spectrum is divided into seven regions.
  1. List the regions in order of increasing frequency.
  2. State the speed of all electromagnetic waves in a vacuum.
  3. Explain why gamma rays are more dangerous to living cells than radio waves.
Mark scheme
  1. Radio, microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-ray, gammatwo marks for the full correct order; one for a mostly correct order[2]
  2. 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹[1]
  3. Gamma rays have a much higher frequency, so each photon carries much more energy[1]
  4. They are ionising — able to remove electrons from atoms, which can damage or mutate cellsthe word "ionising" is what the mark scheme looks for[1]

Order as listed; 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹; gamma is ionising because of its far higher photon energy

Q14[3 marks]
A radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 96.0 MHz. Calculate the wavelength of the waves. Take c = 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts MHz to Hz: 96.0 × 10⁶ = 9.60 × 10⁷ Hzthe prefix is where this question is won or lost[1]
  2. Rearranges c = fλ to λ = c/f[1]
  3. λ = 3.0 × 10⁸ / 9.60 × 10⁷ = 3.1 m[1]

3.1 m

Q15[4 marks]
State one use and one danger for each of infrared and ultraviolet radiation.
Mark scheme
  1. Infrared use: remote controls / thermal imaging / heatersany one[1]
  2. Infrared danger: skin burns[1]
  3. Ultraviolet use: sterilising / security marking / detecting forgeriesany one[1]
  4. Ultraviolet danger: skin cancer / eye damage[1]
Q16[2 marks]
State two properties common to all electromagnetic waves.
Answer

They are all transverse waves, and they all travel at 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹ in a vacuum. (Also acceptable: none requires a medium; all carry energy.)

Q17[2 marks]
Explain why microwaves rather than infrared are used for satellite communication.
Answer

Microwaves pass through the atmosphere with little absorption, so the signal reaches the satellite and returns. Infrared is strongly absorbed by the atmosphere.

Q18[8 marks]
A hospital uses several parts of the electromagnetic spectrum.
  1. Explain why X-rays produce a useful image of a broken bone. [2]
  2. Explain why gamma rays can be used to treat a tumour but must be carefully targeted. [3]
  3. Explain why ultraviolet is used to sterilise equipment, and state one precaution staff must take. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. X-rays pass through soft tissue but are absorbed by the denser bone[1]
  2. Producing a shadow image on the detector[1]
  3. Gamma rays are ionising and can kill living cells[1]
  4. A focused beam destroys the tumour cells[1]
  5. But healthy cells would also be damaged or mutated, so exposure elsewhere must be minimised[1]
  6. Ultraviolet is ionising enough to kill bacteria[1]
  7. So it sterilises surfaces and instruments[1]
  8. Staff must wear eye protection / avoid skin exposure, since UV causes eye damage and skin cancer[1]
Q19[5 marks]
An electric bell is suspended inside a sealed glass jar. The air is slowly pumped out.
  1. State what is observed.
  2. Explain the observation.
  3. State what this shows about sound.
Mark scheme
  1. The sound gets quieter and eventually cannot be heard[1]
  2. The hammer is still seen to strike, so the bell is still vibratingthis detail is a mark — it rules out the bell simply stopping[1]
  3. There are fewer air particles to be compressed and to pass the vibration on[1]
  4. Sound requires a medium to travel through[1]
  5. It cannot travel through a vacuum[1]
Q20[4 marks]
A ship sends an ultrasound pulse vertically downward and receives the reflection from the seabed 0.40 s later. The speed of sound in water is 1500 m s⁻¹. Calculate the depth of the water.
Mark scheme
  1. Total distance travelled = v × t = 1500 × 0.40 = 600 m[1]
  2. Recognises this is the distance down and backthe mark the question exists to test[1]
  3. Depth = 600 / 2[1]
  4. = 300 m[1]

300 m

Q21[4 marks]
Two notes are displayed on an oscilloscope. Note B shows waves that are taller and closer together than note A.
  1. Compare the loudness of the two notes and justify your answer.
  2. Compare the pitch of the two notes and justify your answer.
Mark scheme
  1. B is louder than A[1]
  2. Because it has a larger amplitude[1]
  3. B has a higher pitch than A[1]
  4. Because waves closer together means a higher frequency[1]
Q22[2 marks]
Describe how a compression and a rarefaction are produced by a vibrating loudspeaker cone.
Answer

As the cone moves forward it pushes air particles together, forming a compression. As it moves back the particles spread apart, forming a rarefaction.

Q23[2 marks]
Explain why an echo is heard some time after the original sound.
Answer

The sound reflects from a distant hard surface and travels back to the listener. Because sound travels at a finite speed, the reflected sound arrives later than the direct one.

Q24[9 marks]
A student stands between two parallel cliffs and claps once. She hears the first echo after 0.60 s and a second echo after 1.0 s. The speed of sound in air is 340 m s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate her distance from the nearer cliff. [3]
  2. Calculate her distance from the further cliff. [3]
  3. Explain why sound travels faster in water than in air. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Distance travelled by the first echo = 340 × 0.60 = 204 m[1]
  2. Recognises this is there and back[1]
  3. Distance to the nearer cliff = 102 m[1]
  4. Distance travelled by the second echo = 340 × 1.0 = 340 m[1]
  5. Halves it[1]
  6. Distance to the further cliff = 170 m[1]
  7. Particles in water are much closer together than in air[1]
  8. So collisions between them are more frequent[1]
  9. And the vibration is passed on more quickly[1]

(a) 102 m (b) 170 m

04

Electricity and magnetism

Multiple choice · 46

Q1A bar magnet is cut exactly in half. The result is:

  1. AOne north magnet and one south magnet
  2. BTwo magnets, each with both poles
  3. CTwo unmagnetised bars
  4. DOne magnet and one non-magnet
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Two magnets, each with both poles

Poles always occur in pairs. Every cut produces two complete magnets, each with a north and a south — you can never isolate a single pole.

Q2Which of these is NOT a magnetic material?

  1. AIron
  2. BCobalt
  3. CAluminium
  4. DNickel
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Aluminium

Aluminium is not magnetic, despite being a metal. That assumption — metal therefore magnetic — is exactly what the question tests.

Q3The only reliable test that a bar is a magnet is:

  1. AIt attracts iron
  2. BIt repels one end of another magnet
  3. CIt is made of steel
  4. DIt attracts a compass needle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It repels one end of another magnet

Attraction happens with any magnetic material, magnetised or not. Only repulsion requires the object to be a magnet itself.

Q4Outside a bar magnet, field lines run:

  1. ASouth to north
  2. BNorth to south
  3. CIn both directions at once
  4. DIn straight lines only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — North to south

North to south outside, completing the loop south to north inside the magnet. The direction is defined by the force on a north pole.

Q5A region where field lines are close together indicates:

  1. AA weak field
  2. BA strong field
  3. CNo field
  4. DA neutral point
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A strong field

Line density represents field strength, which is why the lines crowd at the poles. A neutral point is where lines from two magnets cancel and the field is zero.

Q6Iron is preferred to steel for the core of an electromagnet because it:

  1. AIs stronger
  2. BMagnetises and demagnetises easily
  3. CRetains its magnetism permanently
  4. DIs cheaper
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Magnetises and demagnetises easily

An electromagnet must lose its magnetism the instant the current stops, so a soft material is essential. Steel would retain it and the device would not switch off.

Q7In an unmagnetised piece of iron, the domains are:

  1. AAll aligned
  2. BRandomly oriented so their effects cancel
  3. CAbsent
  4. DMade of steel
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Randomly oriented so their effects cancel

The domains exist and are individually magnetic, but point in random directions, so the sample shows no overall magnetism. Magnetising aligns them.

Q8The Earth's geographic North Pole is:

  1. AA magnetic north pole
  2. BA magnetic south pole
  3. CNot magnetic at all
  4. DBoth poles at once
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A magnetic south pole

The north-seeking pole of a compass points to it, and unlike poles attract, so it must be a magnetic south pole. The naming is historical and catches almost everyone once.

Q9A 12 V supply drives 0.5 A through a resistor. What is its resistance?

  1. A6 Ω
  2. B24 Ω
  3. C12.5 Ω
  4. D0.042 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 24 Ω

Rearrange V = IR to R = V/I = 12 / 0.5 = 24 Ω. Sanity check with power: P = VI = 6 W, and I²R = 0.25 × 24 = 6 W. Consistent.

Q10Two 10 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. The total resistance is:

  1. A20 Ω
  2. B10 Ω
  3. C5 Ω
  4. D0.2 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5 Ω

1/R = 1/10 + 1/10 = 2/10, so R = 5 Ω. Identical resistors in parallel always halve. Adding a second path makes it easier for charge to flow, so total resistance must fall below either individual value.

Q11In a series circuit, which quantity is the same through every component?

  1. AVoltage
  2. BCurrent
  3. CResistance
  4. DPower
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Current

One path means charge has nowhere else to go, so the current is identical everywhere. It is the voltage that divides, in proportion to each resistance. In parallel the situation is exactly reversed.

Q12Why are household appliances wired in parallel?

  1. AIt uses less copper
  2. BEach gets the full supply voltage and can be switched independently
  3. CIt reduces the total current
  4. DSeries wiring is illegal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Each gets the full supply voltage and can be switched independently

Parallel branches all sit across the full mains voltage, so every appliance works at its rated value and one failure does not break the others' circuit. It does increase total current, which is why the circuit is protected by a breaker.

Q13Electric field lines never cross. Why?

  1. AThey would break the inverse square law
  2. BAt a crossing point the field would need two directions at once, which is impossible
  3. CCrossing lines cancel to zero
  4. DThey do cross for like charges
Show answer

Correct answer: B — At a crossing point the field would need two directions at once, which is impossible

The field at any point has one definite direction — the direction a positive test charge would be pushed. Two lines crossing would specify two different directions at the same place, which is a contradiction.

Q14You double the distance from a point charge. The field strength becomes:

  1. AHalf
  2. BA quarter
  3. CDouble
  4. DUnchanged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A quarter

E = kQ/r² is an inverse square law. Doubling r multiplies the denominator by 4, so E drops to one quarter. Geometrically the same field lines are spread over four times the surface area.

Q15In a series circuit, the current is:

  1. ALargest near the battery
  2. BThe same at every point
  3. CDivided between components
  4. DZero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The same at every point

There is only one path, so the same charge passes every point each second. It is potential difference that divides in series.

Q16Two 6 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. The total resistance is:

  1. A12 Ω
  2. B6 Ω
  3. C3 Ω
  4. D0.33 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 3 Ω

1/R = 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/3, so R = 3 Ω. Two identical resistors in parallel always halve. The 0.33 answer is 1/R left un-inverted.

Q17Adding another resistor in parallel to a circuit causes the total resistance to:

  1. AIncrease
  2. BDecrease
  3. CStay the same
  4. DBecome zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decrease

Each new branch is an extra route for current, so more current flows for the same voltage — which means less resistance overall.

Q18In a parallel circuit, the potential difference across each branch is:

  1. ADivided equally
  2. BThe same
  3. CProportional to resistance
  4. DZero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The same

Every branch connects the same two points, so each has the full supply voltage across it. It is the current that divides.

Q19As a thermistor gets hotter, its resistance:

  1. AIncreases
  2. BDecreases
  3. CStays constant
  4. DBecomes infinite
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decreases

Thermistors and LDRs both decrease in resistance as their stimulus increases — a fact worth learning as a pair.

Q20A 12 V supply is across a 4 Ω and an 8 Ω resistor in series. The p.d. across the 8 Ω resistor is:

  1. A4 V
  2. B6 V
  3. C8 V
  4. D12 V
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 8 V

Total resistance 12 Ω, so I = 1 A, and V = 1 × 8 = 8 V. The two resistors share the 12 V in the ratio 4 : 8.

Q21A diode is used in a circuit to:

  1. AStore charge
  2. BAllow current in one direction only
  3. CIncrease resistance with light
  4. DMeasure current
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Allow current in one direction only

That one-way behaviour is what allows alternating current to be converted into direct current.

Q22One lamp in a parallel lighting circuit fails. The others:

  1. AAll go out
  2. BContinue to work
  3. CBecome brighter and burn out
  4. DReverse polarity
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Continue to work

Each branch is an independent path, so a break in one leaves the others complete. This is the main reason houses are wired in parallel.

Q23The kilowatt-hour is a unit of:

  1. APower
  2. BEnergy
  3. CCurrent
  4. DCharge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Energy

It is power multiplied by time, so it measures energy. The kilowatt on its own is the unit of power.

Q24A 100 W lamp runs for 10 hours. The energy used is:

  1. A1000 kWh
  2. B1.0 kWh
  3. C10 kWh
  4. D0.1 kWh
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1.0 kWh

0.100 kW × 10 h = 1.0 kWh. Leaving the power in watts gives 1000 and is the usual slip.

Q25The fuse in a plug must be fitted in the:

  1. ANeutral wire
  2. BEarth wire
  3. CLive wire
  4. DAny wire
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Live wire

Only a fuse in the live wire isolates the appliance from the dangerous side of the supply when it blows. In the neutral, the appliance would stay live.

Q26The earth wire is coloured:

  1. ABrown
  2. BBlue
  3. CGreen and yellow
  4. DBlack
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Green and yellow

Green and yellow is earth, brown is live, blue is neutral. Older wiring used different colours, which is why the modern standard is examined.

Q27An appliance draws 8.7 A in normal use. The correct fuse is:

  1. A3 A
  2. B5 A
  3. C13 A
  4. D30 A
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 13 A

The next standard rating above the working current. A 5 A fuse would blow immediately; a 30 A fuse would allow a dangerous fault current to keep flowing.

Q28Which expression does NOT give electrical power?

  1. AVI
  2. BI²R
  3. CV²/R
  4. DV/I
Show answer

Correct answer: D — V/I

V/I is resistance, not power. The other three are equivalent once V = IR is substituted in.

Q29A double-insulated appliance does not need an earth wire because:

  1. AIt uses less current
  2. BIt has no exposed metal parts
  3. CIt has a bigger fuse
  4. DIt runs on d.c.
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It has no exposed metal parts

With a plastic case there is no conductor a fault could make live, so there is nothing for an earth wire to protect.

Q30A circuit breaker is preferred to a fuse mainly because it:

  1. AIs cheaper
  2. BCan be reset and trips faster
  3. CCarries more current
  4. DDoes not need a live wire
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Can be reset and trips faster

It operates magnetically, so it acts faster than a wire has to melt, and it can be switched back on rather than replaced.

Q31Fleming's left-hand rule gives the direction of:

  1. AThe induced current in a generator
  2. BThe force on a current-carrying conductor
  3. CThe magnetic field around a wire
  4. DThe current in a transformer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The force on a current-carrying conductor

Left hand for the motor effect — the force. The right hand is used for the generator effect and the induced current.

Q32The force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field is zero when the current is:

  1. APerpendicular to the field
  2. BParallel to the field
  3. CAlternating
  4. DVery large
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Parallel to the field

A wire lying along the field lines experiences no force at all. The force is greatest at right angles.

Q33A split-ring commutator is used in a d.c. motor to:

  1. AIncrease the voltage
  2. BReverse the current every half turn
  3. CReduce friction
  4. DInduce an e.m.f.
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Reverse the current every half turn

Without it the coil would turn half a revolution and then be pushed back, so it would oscillate rather than rotate.

Q34A magnet is held stationary inside a coil. The induced e.m.f. is:

  1. ALarge
  2. BSmall but not zero
  3. CZero
  4. DAlternating
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Zero

Induction requires a changing magnetic field. A stationary magnet produces no change, however strong it is.

Q35Which of these would NOT increase the e.m.f. induced in a coil?

  1. AMoving the magnet faster
  2. BUsing more turns
  3. CUsing a stronger magnet
  4. DHolding the magnet closer without moving it
Show answer

Correct answer: D — Holding the magnet closer without moving it

Proximity without motion changes nothing over time, and only change induces an e.m.f. The other three all increase the rate of change of field.

Q36A transformer has 100 primary turns and 400 secondary turns. A 20 V a.c. input gives an output of:

  1. A5 V
  2. B20 V
  3. C80 V
  4. D400 V
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 80 V

V_s = 20 × 400/100 = 80 V. Four times the turns gives four times the voltage — a step-up transformer.

Q37Transformers do not work on direct current because d.c. produces:

  1. AToo much heat
  2. BA constant magnetic field
  3. CNo magnetic field
  4. DToo high a voltage
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A constant magnetic field

D.C. does produce a field — but a steady one. With no change there is no induction in the secondary coil.

Q38Electricity is transmitted at high voltage mainly to reduce:

  1. AThe cost of cables
  2. BEnergy lost as heat in the cables
  3. CThe risk of lightning
  4. DThe number of transformers needed
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Energy lost as heat in the cables

Higher voltage means lower current for the same power, and loss is I²R — so the saving is proportional to the square of the current reduction.

Q39On an oscilloscope, the horizontal axis represents:

  1. AVoltage
  2. BTime
  3. CCurrent
  4. DFrequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Time

The time-base sweeps the spot across the screen at a set rate, so horizontal distance is time. Voltage is the vertical axis.

Q40One complete cycle spans 4 divisions with the time-base at 5 ms/div. The period is:

  1. A20 ms
  2. B1.25 ms
  3. C9 ms
  4. D0.8 ms
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 20 ms

T = 4 × 5 = 20 ms. Dividing instead of multiplying gives 1.25 and is the usual slip.

Q41A signal has a period of 0.020 s. Its frequency is:

  1. A0.02 Hz
  2. B20 Hz
  3. C50 Hz
  4. D500 Hz
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 50 Hz

f = 1/T = 1/0.020 = 50 Hz. Answer B comes from reading the period as 20 without converting from milliseconds.

Q42The amplitude of a trace is measured from:

  1. ATrough to crest
  2. BThe centre line to a peak
  3. CThe left edge to the right edge
  4. DZero to the time-base setting
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The centre line to a peak

Centre line to peak. Trough to crest is peak-to-peak, which is twice the amplitude.

Q43A trace on an oscilloscope is a straight horizontal line above the centre. The input is:

  1. AA.C.
  2. BD.C.
  3. CZero
  4. DA sound wave
Show answer

Correct answer: B — D.C.

A constant voltage gives a steady line displaced from the centre. A.C. would give a repeating wave, and zero volts would sit on the centre line.

Q44The Y-gain is set to 5 V/div and the trace reaches 3 divisions above the centre. The amplitude is:

  1. A0.6 V
  2. B8 V
  3. C15 V
  4. D30 V
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 15 V

3 × 5 = 15 V. The 30 V answer is the peak-to-peak value, which the question did not ask for.

Q45Two notes are compared. Note X shows waves closer together than note Y. Note X has:

  1. ALower frequency
  2. BHigher frequency
  3. CGreater amplitude
  4. DLower amplitude
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Higher frequency

Closer together means a shorter period, and f = 1/T, so the frequency is higher — a higher-pitched note.

Q46An oscilloscope is preferred to a voltmeter when the signal:

  1. AIs very small
  2. BChanges very rapidly
  3. CIs direct current
  4. DIs at mains voltage
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Changes very rapidly

A meter cannot follow a rapidly changing voltage, and shows only an average. The oscilloscope draws the whole waveform against time.

Exam-style questions · 37

Q1[4 marks]
A student is given two identical-looking steel bars. One is a permanent magnet and one is unmagnetised.
  1. Describe a test, using only the two bars, that identifies which is the magnet.
  2. Explain why attraction alone would not be enough.
Mark scheme
  1. Bring an end of one bar near the middle of the other, or bring the two ends together and reverse oneany workable procedure[1]
  2. If repulsion is observed at any point, that bar is the magnet[1]
  3. A magnet attracts any magnetic material, magnetised or not[1]
  4. So attraction does not distinguish the two; only repulsion does[1]
Q2[4 marks]
Explain, in terms of domains, what happens when a steel bar is magnetised by stroking, and why heating it strongly destroys the magnetism.
Mark scheme
  1. The bar contains domains, small regions that are already magnetic[1]
  2. Initially the domains point in random directions and their effects cancel[1]
  3. Stroking aligns the domains so they point the same way, and their effects add[1]
  4. Heating makes the domains vibrate and return to random directions, so the magnetism is lost[1]
Q3[2 marks]
State why the Earth's geographic North Pole must be a magnetic south pole.
Mark scheme
  1. The north-seeking pole of a compass points toward geographic north[1]
  2. Unlike poles attract, so the pole attracting a north pole must itself be a south pole[1]
Q4[2 marks]
Why is repulsion, and not attraction, the reliable test for a magnet?
Answer

A magnet attracts any magnetic material, whether or not it is magnetised, so attraction proves nothing. Only another magnet can be repelled, so repulsion is conclusive.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of domains, why an iron bar is not always magnetic.
Answer

The bar contains domains that are individually magnetic. When they point in random directions their effects cancel and the bar shows no magnetism; when they are aligned, the effects add and the bar is a magnet.

Q6[2 marks]
Why is soft iron, rather than steel, used for the core of an electromagnet?
Answer

Soft iron magnetises and demagnetises easily, so the electromagnet loses its magnetism the moment the current stops. Steel would retain it and the device could not be switched off.

Q7[3 marks]
A plotting compass is placed at three points around a bar magnet: due north of the north pole, midway along the side, and due south of the south pole. State the direction the north-seeking pole of the compass points in each case, and explain your reasoning.
Mark scheme
  1. Beyond the north pole: away from the magnetfield lines leave the north pole[1]
  2. At the side: roughly parallel to the magnet, pointing from N toward Sthe compass lies along the field line[1]
  3. Beyond the south pole: toward the magnet, because field lines re-enter at the south pole[1]

Away from N, along the side N→S, and back toward S — the compass always lies along the field line.

Q8[2 marks]
Define electric current and state its unit.
Answer

The rate of flow of electric charge, I = Q/t. Its unit is the ampere (A), where one ampere is one coulomb per second.

Q9[2 marks]
State Ohm's law and the condition under which it holds.
Answer

The current through a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across it, provided the temperature stays constant.

Q10[2 marks]
Explain why the resistance of a metal wire increases as it gets hotter.
Answer

The metal ions vibrate more strongly, so the moving electrons collide with them more often. Each collision impedes the flow, so the resistance rises.

Q11[5 marks]
A wire of length 2.0 m and cross-sectional area 0.50 mm² has a resistance of 0.068 Ω. Calculate the resistivity of the metal, and state the resistance of a 4.0 m length of the same wire.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts the area: 0.50 mm² = 0.50 × 10⁻⁶ m²the step most often dropped[1]
  2. Uses ρ = RA/L[1]
  3. ρ = (0.068 × 0.50 × 10⁻⁶) / 2.0[1]
  4. ρ = 1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ω mcopper[1]
  5. Doubling the length doubles the resistance: 0.136 Ω[1]

ρ = 1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ω m; R = 0.14 Ω

Q12[8 marks]
A student connects a 6.0 V battery to a filament lamp and records the current for a range of potential differences.
  1. Sketch and describe the shape of the I–V graph obtained. [3]
  2. Explain the shape in terms of what happens inside the filament. [3]
  3. At 6.0 V the current is 0.50 A. Calculate the resistance and the power at that point. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The graph passes through the origin[1]
  2. It is a straight line at low potential difference[1]
  3. It then curves towards the V axis, so the gradient falls[1]
  4. A larger current heats the filament[1]
  5. The ions vibrate more and the electrons collide with them more often[1]
  6. So the resistance increases and the current no longer rises in proportion[1]
  7. R = V/I = 6.0 / 0.50 = 12 Ω[1]
  8. P = VI = 6.0 × 0.50 = 3.0 W[1]

(c) 12 Ω and 3.0 W

Q13[7 marks]
A 9.0 V supply is connected in series with a 20 Ω resistor and a thermistor. At room temperature the thermistor has a resistance of 25 Ω.
  1. Calculate the current in the circuit at room temperature. [3]
  2. Calculate the potential difference across the thermistor. [2]
  3. State and explain what happens to that potential difference as the thermistor is warmed. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Total resistance = 20 + 25 = 45 Ω[1]
  2. Uses I = V/R[1]
  3. I = 9.0 / 45 = 0.20 A[1]
  4. Uses V = IR for the thermistor[1]
  5. V = 0.20 × 25 = 5.0 V[1]
  6. The potential difference across the thermistor decreases[1]
  7. Its resistance falls as it warms, so it takes a smaller share of the supply voltage[1]

(a) 0.20 A (b) 5.0 V (c) it falls

Q14[6 marks]
A 9.0 V battery is connected to a 3.0 Ω resistor in series with two resistors of 8.0 Ω and 8.0 Ω which are in parallel with each other.
  1. Calculate the resistance of the parallel combination.
  2. Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.
  3. Calculate the current drawn from the battery.
  4. Calculate the potential difference across the 3.0 Ω resistor.
Mark scheme
  1. 1/R = 1/8.0 + 1/8.0 = 0.25, so R = 4.0 Ωone mark for the method, one for inverting correctly[2]
  2. Total = 3.0 + 4.0 = 7.0 Ω[1]
  3. I = V/R = 9.0 / 7.0 = 1.3 Aaccept 1.29[1]
  4. Uses V = IR for the 3.0 Ω resistor[1]
  5. V = 1.29 × 3.0 = 3.9 V[1]

(a) 4.0 Ω (b) 7.0 Ω (c) 1.3 A (d) 3.9 V

Q15[4 marks]
A potential divider is made from a fixed 2.0 kΩ resistor in series with a thermistor, across a 6.0 V supply. The output is taken across the fixed resistor.
  1. State what happens to the resistance of the thermistor as it gets warmer.
  2. Explain what happens to the output voltage as the thermistor warms.
Mark scheme
  1. Its resistance decreases[1]
  2. The thermistor now takes a smaller share of the supply voltage[1]
  3. So a larger share appears across the fixed resistor[1]
  4. The output voltage therefore increases[1]
Q16[4 marks]
Explain why the lamps in a house are wired in parallel rather than in series, giving two reasons.
Mark scheme
  1. Each lamp receives the full mains voltage[1]
  2. So each operates at its correct brightness[1]
  3. If one lamp fails, the circuit through the others is unbroken[1]
  4. So the rest continue to work, and each can be switched independently[1]
Q17[2 marks]
State what happens to the total resistance of a circuit when a second identical resistor is added in parallel, and explain why.
Mark scheme
  1. The total resistance halves[1]
  2. Because the second branch gives the current an additional path, so more current flows for the same potential difference[1]

It halves. The second branch gives the current an additional path, so more current flows for the same potential difference.

Q18[2 marks]
A lamp and a resistor are connected in series. Explain why the current through both is the same.
Mark scheme
  1. There is only one path for the charge to follow[1]
  2. So the same charge passes through each component every second[1]

There is only one path for the charge to follow, so the same charge passes through each component every second.

Q19[9 marks]
A 12 V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected to a 6.0 Ω resistor in series with a parallel combination of a 4.0 Ω and a 12 Ω resistor.
  1. Calculate the resistance of the parallel combination. [3]
  2. Calculate the current drawn from the battery. [3]
  3. Calculate the current through the 12 Ω resistor. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses 1/R = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂[1]
  2. 1/R = 1/4.0 + 1/12 = 0.25 + 0.0833 = 0.3333[1]
  3. R = 3.0 Ωinverting is a separate mark[1]
  4. Total resistance = 6.0 + 3.0 = 9.0 Ω[1]
  5. Uses I = V/R[1]
  6. I = 12 / 9.0 = 1.33 A[1]
  7. P.d. across the parallel section = 1.33 × 3.0 = 4.0 Vboth branches share this[1]
  8. Uses I = V/R for the 12 Ω branch[1]
  9. I = 4.0 / 12 = 0.33 A[1]

(a) 3.0 Ω (b) 1.33 A (c) 0.33 A

Q20[6 marks]
An electric kettle is rated 2.3 kW and is used on a 230 V mains supply. It is used for a total of 15 minutes each day. Electricity costs 25 rupees per kWh.
  1. Calculate the current drawn by the kettle.
  2. State the most suitable fuse from 3 A, 5 A and 13 A, and justify your choice.
  3. Calculate the daily cost of running the kettle.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses I = P/V = 2300 / 230converting kW to W[1]
  2. I = 10 A[1]
  3. 13 A fuse[1]
  4. It is the next standard rating above the normal working current of 10 A — a 5 A fuse would blow in normal usethe justification is a separate mark[1]
  5. Energy = 2.3 kW × 0.25 h = 0.575 kWh15 minutes is 0.25 hours[1]
  6. Cost = 0.575 × 25 = 14.4 rupees[1]

(a) 10 A (b) 13 A, the next rating above 10 A (c) about 14 rupees per day

Q21[5 marks]
A metal-cased electric drill is connected to the mains with a three-core cable.
  1. State the colour of the earth wire and where it is connected.
  2. Explain how the earth wire and fuse together protect the user if the live wire touches the metal case.
Mark scheme
  1. Green and yellow[1]
  2. Connected to the metal case[1]
  3. A fault would send a very large current from the live wire through the case to earth[1]
  4. This large current melts the fuse[1]
  5. Which disconnects the live supply, so the case cannot give a shockthe fuse must be in the live wire for this to work[1]
Q22[4 marks]
A 60 W lamp is left on for 8.0 hours. Calculate the energy used in kilowatt-hours and in joules.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts to kilowatts: 60 W = 0.060 kW[1]
  2. E = 0.060 × 8.0 = 0.48 kWh[1]
  3. Converts hours to seconds: 8.0 × 3600 = 28 800 s[1]
  4. E = 60 × 28 800 = 1.73 × 10⁶ J[1]

0.48 kWh, or 1.7 × 10⁶ J

Q23[2 marks]
Explain why a fuse must be fitted in the live wire and not the neutral wire.
Answer

When the fuse blows it must disconnect the appliance from the dangerous side of the supply. A fuse in the neutral would leave the appliance connected to the live wire and still dangerous.

Q24[2 marks]
State what is meant by the kilowatt-hour.
Answer

The energy transferred by an appliance of power 1 kilowatt operating for 1 hour. It is a unit of energy, not power.

Q25[9 marks]
A household uses a 3.0 kW immersion heater for 2.5 hours a day and five 12 W LED lamps for 6.0 hours a day. Electricity costs 22 rupees per kWh.
  1. Calculate the daily energy used by the immersion heater, in kWh. [2]
  2. Calculate the daily energy used by the five lamps, in kWh. [3]
  3. Calculate the total daily cost. [2]
  4. The immersion heater runs on 230 V. Calculate the current it draws and state a suitable fuse. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = Pt with power in kW and time in hours[1]
  2. E = 3.0 × 2.5 = 7.5 kWh[1]
  3. Total lamp power = 5 × 12 = 60 W = 0.060 kW[1]
  4. Uses E = 0.060 × 6.0[1]
  5. = 0.36 kWh[1]
  6. Total = 7.5 + 0.36 = 7.86 kWh[1]
  7. Cost = 7.86 × 22 = 173 rupees[1]
  8. I = P/V = 3000 / 230 = 13.0 A[1]
  9. A 13 A fuse is marginal — a higher-rated fuse or a dedicated circuit is neededaccept 13 A with a comment, or a stated higher rating[1]

(a) 7.5 kWh (b) 0.36 kWh (c) about 173 rupees (d) 13 A

Q26[6 marks]
A transformer has 200 turns on its primary coil and 5000 turns on its secondary. The primary is connected to a 230 V alternating supply.
  1. Calculate the secondary voltage.
  2. State whether this is a step-up or step-down transformer.
  3. Explain why the transformer would not work on a direct current supply.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses V_s/V_p = N_s/N_p[1]
  2. V_s = 230 × 5000/200[1]
  3. V_s = 5750 V[1]
  4. Step-upmore turns on the secondary[1]
  5. Direct current produces a constant magnetic field in the core[1]
  6. A changing field is required to induce an e.m.f., so nothing is induced in the secondarythe word "changing" is the mark[1]

(a) 5750 V (b) step-up (c) d.c. gives a constant field, and induction needs a changing one

Q27[5 marks]
A student moves a bar magnet into a coil connected to a sensitive centre-zero meter.
  1. State what is observed on the meter.
  2. State two changes that would increase the reading.
  3. State what happens if the magnet is held stationary inside the coil, and explain why.
Mark scheme
  1. The needle deflects to one side while the magnet is moving[1]
  2. Move the magnet faster[1]
  3. Use a stronger magnet, or a coil with more turnsany second valid change[1]
  4. The needle returns to zero — no deflection[1]
  5. There is no change in the magnetic field through the coil, and induction requires a change[1]
Q28[4 marks]
Explain why electrical energy is transmitted across the country at very high voltage, and state the role of transformers at each end.
Mark scheme
  1. For a given power, a higher voltage means a smaller currentfrom P = VI[1]
  2. Power lost as heat in the cables is I²R, so a smaller current wastes much less energythe I² is the key point[1]
  3. A step-up transformer raises the voltage at the power station[1]
  4. A step-down transformer lowers it again for safe use in homes[1]
Q29[2 marks]
State two ways of increasing the speed of a simple d.c. motor.
Answer

Increase the current through the coil, or use a stronger magnetic field. (Also acceptable: increase the number of turns on the coil.)

Q30[2 marks]
Explain why a transformer core is made of soft iron.
Answer

Soft iron is easily magnetised and demagnetised, so it follows the rapidly alternating field of the primary and carries the changing flux efficiently to the secondary.

Q31[9 marks]
A power station generates 20 MW of electrical power at 25 kV. This is transmitted through cables of total resistance 4.0 Ω.
  1. Calculate the current in the cables if the power is transmitted at 25 kV. [2]
  2. Calculate the power lost as heat in the cables at this voltage. [2]
  3. A transformer steps the voltage up to 400 kV. Calculate the new current and the new power loss. [4]
  4. State the turns ratio of the transformer used. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses I = P/V = 20 × 10⁶ / 25 × 10³[1]
  2. I = 800 A[1]
  3. Uses P = I²R = 800² × 4.0[1]
  4. = 2.56 × 10⁶ W = 2.56 MWnearly 13% of the output[1]
  5. New current = 20 × 10⁶ / 400 × 10³ = 50 A[1]
  6. New loss = 50² × 4.0[1]
  7. = 1.0 × 10⁴ W = 10 kW[1]
  8. A reduction by a factor of 256, because the current fell by 16 and the loss depends on I²the point of the question[1]
  9. Turns ratio N_s : N_p = 400 : 25 = 16 : 1[1]

(a) 800 A (b) 2.56 MW (c) 50 A and 10 kW (d) 16 : 1

Q32[6 marks]
An oscilloscope displays a sinusoidal signal. One complete cycle occupies 6.0 horizontal divisions, and the trace extends 2.5 divisions above and 2.5 divisions below the centre line. The time-base is set to 2.0 ms/div and the Y-gain to 4.0 V/div.
  1. Calculate the period of the signal.
  2. Calculate its frequency.
  3. State the amplitude and the peak-to-peak voltage.
Mark scheme
  1. T = 6.0 × 2.0 ms = 12 ms[1]
  2. = 0.012 sconversion needed before finding f[1]
  3. Uses f = 1/T[1]
  4. f = 83 Hzaccept 83.3[1]
  5. Amplitude = 2.5 × 4.0 = 10 Vcentre to peak[1]
  6. Peak-to-peak = 20 Vtwice the amplitude[1]

T = 0.012 s, f = 83 Hz, amplitude 10 V, peak-to-peak 20 V

Q33[4 marks]
A microphone is connected to an oscilloscope and two notes are played in turn. Note B produces a trace with waves that are half as far apart and twice as tall as note A.
  1. Compare the frequencies of the two notes.
  2. Compare their loudness.
Mark scheme
  1. B has twice the frequency of A[1]
  2. Because the period is halved, and f = 1/T[1]
  3. B is louder than A[1]
  4. Because its amplitude is twice as large[1]
Q34[3 marks]
Describe how the trace on an oscilloscope differs when it is connected to a d.c. supply rather than an a.c. supply, and explain the difference.
Mark scheme
  1. D.C. gives a straight horizontal linedisplaced from the centre by an amount showing the voltage[1]
  2. A.C. gives a repeating wave[1]
  3. Because d.c. has a constant voltage while a.c. reverses direction and varies continuously with time[1]
Q35[2 marks]
State what the time-base control and the Y-gain control each adjust.
Answer

The time-base sets the time represented by each horizontal division. The Y-gain sets the voltage represented by each vertical division.

Q36[2 marks]
Describe how the trace differs between a d.c. and an a.c. input of the same peak voltage.
Answer

D.C. gives a straight horizontal line displaced from the centre. A.C. gives a repeating wave that rises the same distance above and below the centre line.

Q37[8 marks]
An oscilloscope is connected to a signal generator. The time-base is 0.50 ms/div and the Y-gain is 0.20 V/div. One complete cycle occupies 8.0 divisions and the trace reaches 3.5 divisions above the centre line.
  1. Calculate the period of the signal. [2]
  2. Calculate its frequency. [2]
  3. State the amplitude and the peak-to-peak voltage. [2]
  4. The frequency is doubled with no other change. Describe how the trace changes. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. T = 8.0 × 0.50 ms = 4.0 ms[1]
  2. = 4.0 × 10⁻³ s[1]
  3. Uses f = 1/T[1]
  4. f = 250 Hz[1]
  5. Amplitude = 3.5 × 0.20 = 0.70 V[1]
  6. Peak-to-peak = 1.4 V[1]
  7. Twice as many complete waves appear across the screeneach cycle now takes 4 divisions[1]
  8. The height of the trace is unchanged, since the voltage has not alteredthe mark most often missed[1]

(a) 4.0 ms (b) 250 Hz (c) 0.70 V and 1.4 V (d) twice as many waves, same height

05

Nuclear physics

Multiple choice · 16

Q1Which particle has no charge?

  1. AProton
  2. BNeutron
  3. CElectron
  4. DAlpha particle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Neutron

The neutron is neutral, with a relative mass of 1. Protons are +1, electrons −1, and alpha particles +2.

Q2The nucleon number of an atom is the number of:

  1. AProtons
  2. BNeutrons
  3. CProtons and neutrons
  4. DElectrons
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Protons and neutrons

A counts everything in the nucleus. The proton number Z counts only protons, and neutrons are the difference A − Z.

Q3An atom is ²⁷₁₃Al. How many neutrons does it have?

  1. A13
  2. B14
  3. C27
  4. D40
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 14

Neutrons = A − Z = 27 − 13 = 14. Answer D adds the two numbers instead of subtracting.

Q4Isotopes of an element have the same number of:

  1. ANeutrons
  2. BProtons
  3. CNucleons
  4. DNothing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Protons

Same protons, different neutrons. The proton number is what makes it the same element in the first place.

Q5Isotopes of an element react chemically in the same way because they have the same:

  1. AMass
  2. BNumber of neutrons
  3. CElectron arrangement
  4. DDensity
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Electron arrangement

Chemistry is governed by electrons, and isotopes have identical electron arrangements. Their masses differ, which is why they can be separated physically.

Q6In the alpha-scattering experiment, most alpha particles passing straight through showed that:

  1. AThe nucleus is negative
  2. BThe atom is mostly empty space
  3. CElectrons are heavy
  4. DGold is transparent
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The atom is mostly empty space

If the atom were solid throughout, almost nothing would get past. Free passage means most of the atom is empty.

Q7A small number of alpha particles bounced almost straight back. This showed the nucleus is:

  1. ALarge and light
  2. BSmall, dense and positively charged
  3. CNegatively charged
  4. DMade of electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Small, dense and positively charged

Only a concentrated positive charge with most of the mass could repel a fast, heavy, positive alpha particle back the way it came.

Q8Almost all the mass of an atom is located in the:

  1. AElectron shells
  2. BNucleus
  3. CSpace between shells
  4. DOuter surface
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nucleus

Protons and neutrons each have relative mass 1; an electron has about 1/1840. The nucleus holds essentially all of it.

Q9An alpha particle is:

  1. AA fast electron
  2. BA helium nucleus
  3. CAn electromagnetic wave
  4. DA neutron
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A helium nucleus

Two protons and two neutrons, so charge +2 and relative mass 4. The fast electron is a beta particle.

Q10Which radiation is stopped by a few millimetres of aluminium?

  1. AAlpha
  2. BBeta
  3. CGamma
  4. DAll three
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Beta

Alpha is stopped by paper, gamma needs centimetres of lead. Beta sits between them.

Q11In alpha decay the nucleon number:

  1. AIncreases by 4
  2. BDecreases by 4
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDecreases by 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decreases by 4

An alpha particle carries away 2 protons and 2 neutrons, so A falls by 4 and Z falls by 2.

Q12In beta decay the proton number:

  1. ADecreases by 1
  2. BIncreases by 1
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDecreases by 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increases by 1

A neutron becomes a proton and an emitted electron, so Z rises by 1 while A is unchanged.

Q13Half-life is affected by:

  1. ATemperature
  2. BPressure
  3. CChemical state
  4. DNone of these
Show answer

Correct answer: D — None of these

Half-life is a fixed property of the isotope. No chemical or physical treatment changes the rate of nuclear decay.

Q14A sample has a half-life of 2 days. After 6 days the fraction remaining is:

  1. A1/2
  2. B1/4
  3. C1/8
  4. D1/6
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/8

Six days is three half-lives: 1 → ½ → ¼ → ⅛. Dividing 1 by 6 is the error the last option is there to catch.

Q15Which radiation is NOT deflected by a magnetic field?

  1. AAlpha
  2. BBeta
  3. CGamma
  4. DAll are deflected
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gamma

Gamma has no charge, so a magnetic field has no effect on it. Alpha and beta are deflected in opposite directions because their charges are opposite.

Q16An alpha source is most dangerous when it is:

  1. AHeld at arm's length
  2. BBehind lead shielding
  3. CInside the body
  4. DIn a sealed container
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Inside the body

Outside the body alpha cannot even pass through skin. Swallowed or inhaled, its very strong ionising power acts directly on living tissue.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[6 marks]
An atom is represented as ²³⁵₉₂U.
  1. State the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in a neutral atom of this isotope.
  2. Another isotope is ²³⁸₉₂U. State what is the same and what is different about it.
  3. Explain why the two isotopes behave identically in chemical reactions.
Mark scheme
  1. 92 protonsthe proton number[1]
  2. 235 − 92 = 143 neutrons[1]
  3. 92 electrons, since the atom is neutral[1]
  4. Same number of protons (92); different number of neutrons (146 instead of 143)[1]
  5. Chemical behaviour depends on the electrons[1]
  6. Both have 92 electrons arranged identically, so they react in the same way[1]

(a) 92 p, 143 n, 92 e (b) same Z, different A (c) identical electron arrangement

Q2[6 marks]
In the alpha-scattering experiment, alpha particles were directed at a thin gold foil.
  1. State the three main observations.
  2. State the conclusion drawn from each.
Mark scheme
  1. Most alpha particles passed straight through[1]
  2. So the atom is mostly empty space[1]
  3. Some were deflected through large angles[1]
  4. So there is a concentrated positive charge repelling them[1]
  5. A very few were reflected almost straight back[1]
  6. So the nucleus is very small and contains most of the atom's mass[1]
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why the plum-pudding model could not account for the results of the alpha-scattering experiment.
Mark scheme
  1. In that model the positive charge is spread thinly throughout the atom[1]
  2. So the repulsive force on an alpha particle anywhere would be small[1]
  3. It could not produce the large-angle deflections or backscattering that were observed[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State what is meant by the nucleon number and the proton number of a nuclide.
Answer

The nucleon number A is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. The proton number Z is the number of protons alone.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties.
Answer

They have the same number of protons and therefore the same number of electrons in the same arrangement. Chemical behaviour is decided by the electrons, not by the number of neutrons.

Q6[8 marks]
In the Geiger–Marsden experiment, alpha particles were fired at a very thin gold foil.
  1. State the two observations that were made. [2]
  2. Explain what each observation shows about the structure of the atom. [4]
  3. Explain why the foil had to be extremely thin. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Almost all the alpha particles passed straight through[1]
  2. A very small fraction were deflected through large angles, some straight back[1]
  3. Passing straight through shows the atom is mostly empty space[1]
  4. Large deflections show a concentrated region of positive charge[1]
  5. Which repels the positive alpha particle[1]
  6. Backward scattering shows that region is also very massive, and very small[1]
  7. So each alpha particle meets at most one nucleus[1]
  8. A thicker foil would cause multiple scattering and the result could not be interpreted[1]
Q7[6 marks]
A radioactive source has a half-life of 6.0 hours. The initial count rate, corrected for background, is 800 counts per minute.
  1. Calculate the corrected count rate after 18 hours.
  2. Explain why the count rate never reaches exactly zero.
  3. State two factors that do not affect the half-life.
Mark scheme
  1. 18 hours is 3 half-lives18 ÷ 6[1]
  2. Halves three times: 800 → 400 → 200 → 100[1]
  3. 100 counts per minute[1]
  4. Each half-life removes only half of what remains, so some always remains[1]
  5. Temperature or pressure[1]
  6. Chemical state or physical form of the sampleany second valid factor[1]

(a) 100 counts/min (b) halving never reaches zero (c) temperature, pressure, chemical state

Q8[5 marks]
Polonium-218 has proton number 84 and decays by alpha emission to lead. The lead isotope then decays by beta emission.
  1. Write the nucleon and proton numbers of the lead isotope formed.
  2. Write the nucleon and proton numbers of the nucleus formed after the beta decay.
  3. State what happens inside the nucleus during beta decay.
Mark scheme
  1. Alpha: A = 218 − 4 = 214[1]
  2. Z = 84 − 2 = 82lead[1]
  3. Beta: A unchanged at 214[1]
  4. Z = 82 + 1 = 83bismuth[1]
  5. A neutron changes into a proton and an electron, and the electron is emitted[1]

(a) ²¹⁴₈₂Pb (b) ²¹⁴₈₃ (c) a neutron becomes a proton plus an emitted electron

Q9[4 marks]
A source is to be used as a medical tracer, injected into a patient and detected from outside the body.
  1. State which type of radiation is most suitable and why.
  2. State why the half-life should be short but not too short.
Mark scheme
  1. Gamma[1]
  2. It is penetrating enough to leave the body and be detected, and least ionising so it does least damageboth halves wanted[1]
  3. Short, so the activity falls quickly and the patient is not exposed for long[1]
  4. But not so short that it decays away before the scan can be completedthe balance is the point of the question[1]
Q10[2 marks]
State two safety precautions when handling a radioactive source in a school laboratory.
Answer

Handle it with long tongs to increase the distance from the body, and return it to its lead-lined container immediately after use. (Also acceptable: never point it at anyone; minimise exposure time.)

Q11[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by background radiation and name two of its sources.
Answer

The low level of ionising radiation always present in the environment. Sources include radon gas from rocks, cosmic rays, medical X-rays and food.

Q12[9 marks]
A sample of a radioactive isotope gives a corrected count rate of 640 counts per minute. Its half-life is 8.0 days.
  1. Explain what is meant by half-life. [2]
  2. Calculate the corrected count rate after 32 days. [3]
  3. A detector near the sample reads 655 counts per minute at the start. Explain the difference and how it is dealt with. [2]
  4. The isotope emits beta particles. State what happens to the proton number and nucleon number of the nucleus. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The time taken for the number of undecayed nuclei in the sample to halve[1]
  2. Equivalently, the time for the count rate to fall to half its value; the process is random so this is an average[1]
  3. 32 days is 4 half-lives[1]
  4. Uses 640 ÷ 2⁴[1]
  5. = 40 counts per minute[1]
  6. The extra 15 counts per minute is background radiation[1]
  7. It is measured with the source removed and subtracted from every reading[1]
  8. The proton number increases by 1[1]
  9. The nucleon number is unchangeda neutron becomes a proton plus an electron[1]

(b) 40 counts per minute

06

Space physics

Multiple choice · 16

Q1Day and night are caused by:

  1. AThe Earth orbiting the Sun
  2. BThe Earth rotating on its axis
  3. CThe tilt of the Earth's axis
  4. DThe Moon orbiting the Earth
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The Earth rotating on its axis

One rotation takes 24 hours, turning each part of the surface toward and away from the Sun. The orbit gives the year, and the tilt gives the seasons.

Q2The seasons are caused by:

  1. AThe Earth's changing distance from the Sun
  2. BThe tilt of the Earth's axis
  3. CThe Earth's rotation
  4. DSunspots
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The tilt of the Earth's axis

The 23.5° tilt changes both the angle of the sunlight and the length of the day. Distance varies too little, and in the wrong direction, to explain anything.

Q3Which planet is fourth from the Sun?

  1. AEarth
  2. BMars
  3. CJupiter
  4. DVenus
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Mars

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars — so Mars is fourth, and the last of the rocky inner planets before the asteroid belt.

Q4Compared with the inner planets, the outer planets are:

  1. ASmaller and rocky
  2. BLarger and gaseous
  3. CHotter
  4. DFaster in orbit
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Larger and gaseous

The four outer planets are gas giants. They also orbit more slowly, because the Sun's gravity is weaker at that distance.

Q5What provides the force that keeps a planet in orbit?

  1. AIts own motion
  2. BThe Sun's gravitational attraction
  3. CMagnetism
  4. DAir resistance
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The Sun's gravitational attraction

Gravity acts toward the Sun, continually changing the planet's direction. Without it the planet would travel in a straight line.

Q6A comet moves fastest when it is:

  1. AFurthest from the Sun
  2. BClosest to the Sun
  3. CHalfway round
  4. DOutside the Solar System
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Closest to the Sun

Gravitational attraction is strongest at closest approach, so the comet is travelling fastest there and slowest at the far end of its ellipse.

Q7A satellite has orbital radius r and period T. Its speed is:

  1. Ar/T
  2. B2πr/T
  3. CT/2πr
  4. D2πrT
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2πr/T

It travels one circumference, 2πr, in one period T. The other options do not have units of speed.

Q8As distance from the Sun increases, the orbital period:

  1. ADecreases
  2. BIncreases
  3. CStays the same
  4. DVaries randomly
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increases

A larger orbit at a slower speed takes far longer to complete — Neptune needs about 165 Earth years for one orbit.

Q9Stars release energy by:

  1. ABurning hydrogen chemically
  2. BNuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium
  3. CNuclear fission of uranium
  4. DFriction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium

Fusion joins light nuclei and releases far more energy than any chemical process. Describing it as burning is the error the option is there to catch.

Q10A main-sequence star is stable because:

  1. AIt has stopped fusing
  2. BGravity inward balances radiation pressure outward
  3. CIt has no gravity
  4. DIt is cooling steadily
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Gravity inward balances radiation pressure outward

The two opposing effects are equal, so the star neither collapses nor expands. When the fuel runs low the balance is lost and the star leaves the main sequence.

Q11A star of similar mass to the Sun ends its life as a:

  1. ASupernova
  2. BBlack hole
  3. CWhite dwarf
  4. DNeutron star
Show answer

Correct answer: C — White dwarf

It becomes a red giant, sheds a planetary nebula, and leaves a white dwarf. Supernovae and black holes require far greater mass.

Q12Which is the correct order for a massive star?

  1. ANebula → white dwarf → supernova
  2. BNebula → main sequence → red supergiant → supernova
  3. CRed giant → nebula → black dwarf
  4. DSupernova → main sequence → nebula
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nebula → main sequence → red supergiant → supernova

Birth in a nebula, a stable main sequence, expansion to a supergiant, then the supernova and its remnant.

Q13A more massive star has a shorter lifetime because it:

  1. AContains less hydrogen
  2. BFuses its hydrogen much faster
  3. CHas weaker gravity
  4. DIs further from other stars
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Fuses its hydrogen much faster

It has more fuel, but its hotter, denser core consumes it disproportionately faster. Rate beats supply.

Q14A light-year is a unit of:

  1. ATime
  2. BDistance
  3. CBrightness
  4. DMass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Distance

It is the distance light travels in a year, about 9.5 × 10¹⁵ m. The word "year" in the name is what makes this a reliable exam trap.

Q15Redshift of light from distant galaxies shows that they are:

  1. AMoving toward us
  2. BMoving away from us
  3. CStationary
  4. DGetting hotter
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Moving away from us

A receding source stretches the wavelength toward the red end. Approaching sources would be blueshifted.

Q16Which observation, besides redshift, supports the Big Bang theory?

  1. AThe phases of the Moon
  2. BCosmic microwave background radiation
  3. CThe existence of comets
  4. DSunspots
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Cosmic microwave background radiation

The CMB arrives uniformly from every direction and is the cooled remnant of the early hot Universe — very difficult to explain any other way.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[6 marks]
The Earth rotates on its axis and orbits the Sun.
  1. State what causes day and night.
  2. State what causes the seasons, and explain how.
  3. Explain why the varying distance between the Earth and the Sun is not the cause of the seasons.
Mark scheme
  1. The Earth's rotation on its axis, once every 24 hours[1]
  2. The tilt of the Earth's axis, about 23.5°[1]
  3. A hemisphere tilted toward the Sun receives light at a steeper angle, concentrated over a smaller area[1]
  4. And has more hours of daylight, so it is warmer[1]
  5. The distance varies by only a few per cent[1]
  6. And the Earth is actually closest to the Sun during the northern winter, which is the opposite of what that explanation would predictthe decisive point[1]

(a) rotation (b) axial tilt, giving steeper light and longer days (c) distance varies little and in the wrong direction

Q2[4 marks]
The Moon orbits the Earth at an average radius of 3.8 × 10⁸ m with a period of 27.3 days. Calculate its orbital speed in m s⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts the period to seconds: 27.3 × 24 × 3600 = 2.36 × 10⁶ sdays → hours → seconds[1]
  2. Uses v = 2πr/T[1]
  3. v = 2π × 3.8 × 10⁸ / 2.36 × 10⁶[1]
  4. v = 1.0 × 10³ m s⁻¹about 1 km/s[1]

1.0 × 10³ m s⁻¹

Q3[4 marks]
Compare the orbit of a comet with the orbit of a planet, and explain why a comet's speed varies so much.
Mark scheme
  1. A planet's orbit is nearly circular; a comet's is highly elliptical[1]
  2. A comet's distance from the Sun therefore varies enormously[1]
  3. Gravitational attraction is much stronger when it is close to the Sun[1]
  4. So it moves fastest at its closest approach and slowest when far away[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State two differences between a planet and a comet in the Solar System.
Answer

A planet follows a nearly circular orbit and stays at a roughly constant distance from the Sun. A comet follows a highly elliptical orbit, so its distance and speed change greatly.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why an astronaut in orbit appears weightless even though gravity still acts.
Answer

The astronaut and the spacecraft are both falling freely towards the Earth with the same acceleration. There is no contact force between them, so the astronaut feels no weight.

Q6[8 marks]
A satellite orbits the Earth at a constant speed in a circular path.
  1. Explain why the satellite is accelerating even though its speed is constant. [3]
  2. State the direction of the resultant force on the satellite and name that force. [2]
  3. Explain why a satellite in a lower orbit must travel faster than one in a higher orbit. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The direction of motion is continually changing[1]
  2. So the velocity is changing, because velocity is a vector[1]
  3. A changing velocity is an acceleration[1]
  4. The resultant force acts towards the centre of the orbit[1]
  5. It is the gravitational attraction of the Earth[1]
  6. Gravitational field strength is greater closer to the Earth[1]
  7. So a larger centripetal force is needed to hold the satellite in that orbit[1]
  8. Which requires a greater orbital speed, so the period is shorter[1]
Q7[6 marks]
A star with a mass similar to that of the Sun eventually runs out of hydrogen in its core.
  1. Name the process by which a star releases energy, and state what it converts.
  2. Describe the stages this star passes through after leaving the main sequence.
  3. State how the sequence would differ for a star of much greater mass.
Mark scheme
  1. Nuclear fusionnot burning[1]
  2. Hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium[1]
  3. It expands to become a red giant[1]
  4. Then throws off its outer layers as a planetary nebula, leaving a white dwarf[1]
  5. A much more massive star becomes a red supergiant and explodes as a supernova[1]
  6. Leaving a neutron star or a black hole[1]

Fusion of hydrogen to helium; red giant → planetary nebula → white dwarf; massive stars instead go supergiant → supernova → neutron star or black hole

Q8[5 marks]
Light from distant galaxies is observed to be redshifted.
  1. State what redshift indicates about these galaxies.
  2. State the relationship between a galaxy's distance and its redshift.
  3. Explain how these observations support the Big Bang theory, and name one other piece of supporting evidence.
Mark scheme
  1. They are moving away from us[1]
  2. The further away a galaxy is, the greater its redshift — so the faster it is receding[1]
  3. This shows the Universe is expanding[1]
  4. So in the past everything was closer together, in a hot dense state[1]
  5. The cosmic microwave background radiation[1]

Receding; further means greater redshift; therefore expansion, therefore a hot dense origin; plus the CMB

Q9[3 marks]
Explain why a star of ten times the Sun's mass has a much shorter lifetime than the Sun, even though it contains far more hydrogen.
Mark scheme
  1. A more massive star has a much stronger inward gravitational force[1]
  2. So the core is hotter and denser, and fusion proceeds much faster[1]
  3. It therefore uses up its hydrogen far more quickly than the extra supply lasts[1]
Q10[2 marks]
State the source of a star's energy and name the process involved.
Answer

Nuclear fusion in the core, in which hydrogen nuclei join to form helium and release energy.

Q11[2 marks]
Explain what red-shift tells us about distant galaxies.
Answer

The light from distant galaxies is shifted towards longer wavelengths, which shows they are moving away from us. The further away a galaxy is, the greater its red-shift and so the faster it recedes.

Q12[9 marks]
Our Sun is a stable main-sequence star.
  1. Explain what keeps a main-sequence star stable over billions of years. [3]
  2. Describe what will happen to the Sun once the hydrogen in its core runs out. [3]
  3. Explain how the observed red-shift of distant galaxies supports the Big Bang theory. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Gravity pulls the material of the star inwards[1]
  2. The outward pressure from the energy released by fusion pushes outwards[1]
  3. The two are balanced, so the star neither collapses nor expands[1]
  4. The core contracts and the outer layers expand and cool[1]
  5. The Sun becomes a red giant[1]
  6. It then sheds its outer layers and the core remains as a white dwarf[1]
  7. Light from almost every distant galaxy is red-shifted, so they are all moving away[1]
  8. The more distant the galaxy the greater the red-shift, so the universe is expanding[1]
  9. Running that expansion backwards means everything began from a single point[1]

These questions come from the O Level Physics (5054) lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.