O Level Mathematics (4024) — MCQs & Practice Questions

260 multiple-choice questions and 198 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

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01

Number

Multiple choice · 56

Q1Which of these numbers is irrational?

  1. A√49
  2. B0.2727…
  3. C22/7
  4. D√11
Show answer

Correct answer: D — √11

√49 = 7 is an integer. 0.2727… recurs, so it is rational. 22/7 is a fraction — a common approximation to π, but a rational number itself. √11 has no exact square root, so its decimal never terminates or repeats.

Q2Simplify √98.

  1. A7√2
  2. B2√7
  3. C49√2
  4. D14√2
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 7√2

98 = 49 × 2, and 49 is a perfect square, so √98 = √49 × √2 = 7√2. Checking: (7√2)² = 49 × 2 = 98.

Q3Rationalising 5/(2 − √3) gives:

  1. A5(2 + √3)
  2. B5(2 − √3)
  3. C5(2 + √3)/7
  4. D10 + 5√3 / 1
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 5(2 + √3)

Multiply by the conjugate 2 + √3. The denominator becomes 2² − (√3)² = 4 − 3 = 1, so the whole fraction is just 5(2 + √3). The denominator being 1 is the point students miss.

Q4Which property is shown by 4 + 9 = 9 + 4?

  1. AAssociative
  2. BCommutative
  3. CDistributive
  4. DClosure
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Commutative

The order of the two terms has been swapped and nothing else has changed — that is commutativity. Associativity would involve moving brackets between three terms.

Q5Every integer is:

  1. Airrational
  2. Brational
  3. Cnatural
  4. Da surd
Show answer

Correct answer: B — rational

Any integer n can be written as n/1, which fits the definition p/q with q ≠ 0. So ℤ ⊂ ℚ. It is not necessarily natural, because negatives and zero are integers too.

Q6√2 × √8 equals:

  1. A√10
  2. B4
  3. C2√2
  4. D16
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

Roots do distribute over multiplication: √2 × √8 = √16 = 4. Compare with addition, where √2 + √8 = 3√2 ≈ 4.24, not √10.

Q70.121212… written as a fraction in lowest terms is:

  1. A12/99
  2. B4/33
  3. C12/100
  4. D6/50
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4/33

x = 0.1212…, 100x = 12.1212…, so 99x = 12 and x = 12/99. Dividing top and bottom by 3 gives 4/33. Option A is correct but not in lowest terms, which loses the final mark.

Q8Which statement is FALSE?

  1. AEvery whole number is an integer
  2. BEvery rational number is real
  3. CEvery real number is rational
  4. DEvery natural number is rational
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Every real number is rational

ℝ contains the irrationals as well as the rationals, so a real number need not be rational — √2 is the standard counterexample. The other three statements follow from ℕ ⊂ W ⊂ ℤ ⊂ ℚ ⊂ ℝ.

Q9If A = {a, b, c}, how many proper subsets does A have?

  1. A8
  2. B7
  3. C6
  4. D3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 7

A has 2³ = 8 subsets in total. A proper subset must not equal A itself, so we discard one, leaving 7. The empty set still counts as a proper subset.

Q10If n(A) = 5, n(B) = 7 and n(A ∩ B) = 3, then n(A ∪ B) is:

  1. A15
  2. B12
  3. C9
  4. D10
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 9

5 + 7 = 12 counts the 3 shared elements twice, so subtract one copy: 12 − 3 = 9. Option B is what you get by forgetting to subtract the overlap.

Q11Which of these is NOT a function from {1,2,3} to {4,5}?

  1. A{(1,4),(2,4),(3,5)}
  2. B{(1,4),(1,5),(2,4)}
  3. C{(1,5),(2,5),(3,5)}
  4. D{(1,4),(2,5),(3,4)}
Show answer

Correct answer: B — {(1,4),(1,5),(2,4)}

In option B the input 1 appears twice with different outputs, and 3 is missing altogether. Both faults are fatal. Option C reuses the output 5 three times, which is permitted — it just is not one-one.

Q12(A ∩ B)′ is equal to:

  1. AA′ ∩ B′
  2. BA′ ∪ B′
  3. CA ∪ B
  4. D(A ∪ B)′
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A′ ∪ B′

De Morgan: complementing swaps ∩ for ∪. Shade it on a Venn diagram if you ever doubt which way round it goes — the complement of the small overlap is almost the whole rectangle, which matches a union.

Q13If A = {1,2} and B = {x, y}, then n(A × B) is:

  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C6
  4. D8
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

n(A × B) = n(A) × n(B) = 2 × 2 = 4, namely (1,x), (1,y), (2,x), (2,y).

Q14The empty set ∅ is:

  1. Aa subset of every set
  2. Ba subset of no set
  3. Cequal to {0}
  4. Dnot a set at all
Show answer

Correct answer: A — a subset of every set

There is no element of ∅ that fails to be in another set, so the subset condition holds vacuously. Note {0} is not empty — it contains the number zero and has one element.

Q15A function f: A → B is bijective when it is:

  1. Ainto only
  2. Bonto only
  3. Cone-one only
  4. Dboth one-one and onto
Show answer

Correct answer: D — both one-one and onto

A bijection pairs every element of A with a distinct element of B and uses all of B. That is exactly what is needed for an inverse function to exist.

Q16For sets A and B, A − B is:

  1. Athe same as B − A
  2. Bthe elements of A not in B
  3. Cthe elements common to both
  4. Dthe complement of A
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the elements of A not in B

Set difference removes from A anything that also lies in B. It is not commutative: with A = {1,2,3} and B = {3,4}, A − B = {1,2} while B − A = {4}.

Q173⁴ × 3² equals:

  1. A3⁸
  2. B3⁶
  3. C9⁶
  4. D
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3⁶

Same base, so the indices add: 4 + 2 = 6. Multiplying them would give 3⁸, which is the rule for a power of a power.

Q18(x²)⁵ equals:

  1. Ax⁷
  2. Bx¹⁰
  3. C
  4. D2x⁵
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x¹⁰

A power of a power multiplies the indices: 2 × 5 = 10.

Q195⁻¹ equals:

  1. A−5
  2. B1/5
  3. C−1/5
  4. D0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1/5

A negative index means a reciprocal. The result is positive and smaller than 1, never negative.

Q2049^(1/2) equals:

  1. A24.5
  2. B7
  3. C98
  4. D2401
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 7

An index of 1/2 is the square root, and 7 × 7 = 49.

Q212.5 × 10³ written in full is:

  1. A2500
  2. B250
  3. C25 000
  4. D0.0025
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 2500

The index of 3 moves the point three places right: 2.5 becomes 2500.

Q220.00072 in standard form is:

  1. A7.2 × 10⁻³
  2. B7.2 × 10⁻⁴
  3. C72 × 10⁻⁵
  4. D7.2 × 10⁴
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 7.2 × 10⁻⁴

The point moves four places right to reach 7.2, so the index is −4. Option C has the right value but 72 is not between 1 and 10.

Q23(4 × 10⁵) ÷ (8 × 10²) equals:

  1. A0.5 × 10³
  2. B5 × 10²
  3. C5 × 10³
  4. D2 × 10³
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 5 × 10²

4 ÷ 8 = 0.5 and 10⁵ ÷ 10² = 10³, giving 0.5 × 10³. That is not standard form, so adjust to 5 × 10².

Q24x⁵ ÷ x⁵ equals:

  1. A0
  2. B1
  3. Cx
  4. Dx¹⁰
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1

Subtracting the indices gives x⁰, and any non-zero base to the power 0 is 1. This is exactly where the a⁰ = 1 rule comes from.

Q25Decreasing a value by 30% means multiplying by:

  1. A0.30
  2. B0.70
  3. C1.30
  4. D−0.30
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0.70

100% − 30% = 70%, so the multiplier is 0.70. Multiplying by 0.30 would leave only 30% of it.

Q26A price rises from 40 to 46. The percentage increase is:

  1. A6%
  2. B13.04%
  3. C15%
  4. D46%
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 15%

Change ÷ original × 100 = 6/40 × 100 = 15%. Option B is what you get by dividing by the NEW price of 46 instead of the original — the commonest error in percentage change questions.

Q27A jacket costs Rs 3450 after a 15% increase. The original price was:

  1. ARs 2932.50
  2. BRs 3000
  3. CRs 3967.50
  4. DRs 3105
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Rs 3000

3450 is 115% of the original, so divide by 1.15 to get 3000. Subtracting 15% would give 2932.50, which is option A and the standard error.

Q28A 25% increase followed by a 25% decrease leaves the value at:

  1. Athe same as before
  2. B93.75% of the original
  3. C106.25%
  4. D75%
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 93.75% of the original

The combined multiplier is 1.25 × 0.75 = 0.9375. The decrease acts on a larger amount than the increase did, so it removes more.

Q29Compound interest differs from simple interest because it:

  1. Auses a higher rate
  2. Bis calculated on the growing total
  3. Cis paid monthly
  4. Dis tax free
Show answer

Correct answer: B — is calculated on the growing total

Each period's interest is calculated on the amount currently there, so it includes interest already earned. Simple interest always uses the original principal.

Q30Rs 20 000 at 10% compound for 2 years grows to:

  1. ARs 24 000
  2. BRs 24 200
  3. CRs 22 000
  4. DRs 20 200
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Rs 24 200

20 000 × 1.1² = 20 000 × 1.21 = 24 200. Simple interest would have given 24 000, and the Rs 200 difference is the interest earned on interest.

Q310.6 as a fraction in lowest terms is:

  1. A6/10
  2. B3/5
  3. C2/3
  4. D6/100
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3/5

0.6 = 6/10, and dividing top and bottom by 2 gives 3/5. The question asks for lowest terms, so 6/10 is incomplete.

Q32Which form is exact for one third?

  1. A0.33
  2. B0.333
  3. C33%
  4. D1/3
Show answer

Correct answer: D — 1/3

The decimal never terminates, so any decimal written down is an approximation. Fractions are the right form whenever an exact answer is wanted.

Q330.005 093 to 2 significant figures is:

  1. A0.01
  2. B0.0051
  3. C0.0050
  4. D0.00509
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0.0051

The first significant figure is 5 and the second is 0; the next digit 9 rounds that 0 up to 1, giving 0.0051.

Q34A mass is 6.3 kg to 1 decimal place. Its lower bound is:

  1. A6.25 kg
  2. B6.2 kg
  3. C6.35 kg
  4. D6.0 kg
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 6.25 kg

Half of 0.1 is 0.05, so the bounds are 6.25 and 6.35. Anything from 6.25 upwards rounds to 6.3.

Q35To estimate 4.87 × 21.3 you would calculate:

  1. A5 × 20
  2. B4 × 21
  3. C5 × 21.3
  4. D4.9 × 21
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 5 × 20

Round every number to one significant figure, giving 5 × 20 = 100. The true value is 103.7, so the estimate confirms the order of magnitude.

Q36A value is 400 to the nearest 10. Its bounds are:

  1. A350 to 450
  2. B395 to 405
  3. C399.5 to 400.5
  4. D390 to 410
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 395 to 405

Half of 10 is 5, so the bounds are 400 ± 5.

Q37To find the maximum of a − b you use:

  1. Aupper a − upper b
  2. Bupper a − lower b
  3. Clower a − upper b
  4. Dlower a − lower b
Show answer

Correct answer: B — upper a − lower b

Subtracting the smallest possible amount from the largest possible value gives the biggest difference.

Q38To find the maximum of a ÷ b you use:

  1. Aupper a ÷ upper b
  2. Bupper a ÷ lower b
  3. Clower a ÷ lower b
  4. Dlower a ÷ upper b
Show answer

Correct answer: B — upper a ÷ lower b

Dividing by a smaller number gives a larger result, so pair the largest numerator with the smallest denominator.

Q39Which measurement is most precise?

  1. A5 m to the nearest metre
  2. B500 cm to the nearest 10 cm
  3. C5.0 m to 1 d.p.
  4. D5000 mm to the nearest mm
Show answer

Correct answer: D — 5000 mm to the nearest mm

Its bounds are 4999.5 to 5000.5 mm — an interval of 1 mm. The others span 1 m, 10 cm and 10 cm respectively.

Q400.0499 to 2 significant figures is:

  1. A0.05
  2. B0.049
  3. C0.050
  4. D0.04
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 0.050

The two significant figures are 4 and 9; the next digit 9 rounds the 9 up, carrying into the 4 to give 0.050. The trailing zero must be written, because it is the second significant figure.

Q41In the ratio 2 : 5, the second part is what fraction of the total?

  1. A5/2
  2. B2/7
  3. C5/7
  4. D5/10
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5/7

The parts total 2 + 5 = 7, so the second part is 5/7 of the whole.

Q42Rs 720 shared in the ratio 4 : 5 gives:

  1. ARs 320 and Rs 400
  2. BRs 288 and Rs 432
  3. CRs 360 and Rs 360
  4. DRs 300 and Rs 420
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Rs 320 and Rs 400

4 + 5 = 9 parts, one part is 720 ÷ 9 = 80, so the shares are 320 and 400. They add back to 720 ✓

Q43If y is directly proportional to x and y = 12 when x = 3, then k is:

  1. A36
  2. B4
  3. C9
  4. D15
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

y = kx gives 12 = 3k, so k = 4. Multiplying instead of dividing gives 36, which would be the inverse case.

Q44If 5 taps fill a tank in 8 hours, 10 taps take:

  1. A16 hours
  2. B4 hours
  3. C8 hours
  4. D40 hours
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4 hours

More taps means less time — inverse proportion. The product is 5 × 8 = 40, so 10 × t = 40 and t = 4.

Q45A journey of 40 km at 80 km/h then 40 km at 40 km/h has an average speed of:

  1. A60 km/h
  2. Bcirca 53.3 km/h
  3. C120 km/h
  4. D40 km/h
Show answer

Correct answer: B — circa 53.3 km/h

Times are 0.5 h and 1 h, so 80 km in 1.5 h gives 53.3 km/h. The mean of 80 and 40 would be 60, but twice as long is spent at the slower speed.

Q46Which is an example of inverse proportion?

  1. Acost and number of items bought
  2. Bdistance and time at constant speed
  3. Cspeed and time for a fixed distance
  4. Dperimeter and side of a square
Show answer

Correct answer: C — speed and time for a fixed distance

Going faster over the same distance takes less time, and speed × time = distance stays fixed. The other three all increase together.

Q472 hours 45 minutes as a decimal number of hours is:

  1. A2.45
  2. B2.75
  3. C2.45 or 2.75
  4. D165
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2.75

45 minutes is 45/60 = 0.75 of an hour. Writing 2.45 treats minutes as hundredths and is the standard error in speed calculations.

Q48The ratio 1.5 : 2 in whole numbers is:

  1. A3 : 4
  2. B15 : 2
  3. C1 : 2
  4. D3 : 2
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 3 : 4

Multiply both parts by 2 to clear the decimal, giving 3 : 4. A ratio is unchanged when both parts are multiplied by the same number.

Q49An item costing Rs 250 is sold for Rs 300. The percentage profit is:

  1. A16.7%
  2. B20%
  3. C50%
  4. D120%
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 20%

Profit is 50, and 50 ÷ 250 × 100 = 20%. Option A comes from dividing by the selling price instead of the cost.

Q50If 1 US$ = 280 PKR, then $75 is:

  1. ARs 21 000
  2. BRs 3.73
  3. CRs 355
  4. DRs 20 000
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Rs 21 000

Dollars to rupees multiplies: 75 × 280 = 21 000. The answer must be far larger than 75, which rules out the others immediately.

Q511 hour 45 minutes as a decimal is:

  1. A1.45
  2. B1.75
  3. C1.45 hours
  4. D105
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1.75

45 ÷ 60 = 0.75. Writing 1.45 treats minutes as hundredths and corrupts any speed calculated from it.

Q52A train leaves at 08:50 and arrives at 11:20. The journey takes:

  1. A3 h 30 min
  2. B2 h 30 min
  3. C2 h 70 min
  4. D3 h 70 min
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 h 30 min

08:50 to 11:50 is 3 hours; arrival is 30 minutes earlier, so 2 h 30 min. Subtracting the readings directly gives 3:30 and is wrong.

Q53A value decaying by 20% per year is multiplied each year by:

  1. A0.20
  2. B0.80
  3. C1.20
  4. D−0.20
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0.80

100% − 20% = 80%, so the multiplier is 0.8. Multiplying by 0.2 would remove 80% each year.

Q54Rs 10 000 growing at 5% per year for 3 years becomes:

  1. ARs 11 500
  2. BRs 11 576
  3. CRs 11 025
  4. DRs 15 000
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Rs 11 576

10 000 × 1.05³ = 10 000 × 1.157625 = 11 576. Simple growth would give 11 500, and the Rs 76 difference is growth on the growth.

Q55Net pay is:

  1. Apay before deductions
  2. Bpay after deductions
  3. Covertime only
  4. Dcommission only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — pay after deductions

Gross is the figure before tax and other deductions; net is what actually reaches the worker.

Q56A car worth Rs 2 000 000 depreciating 15% a year is worth, after 2 years:

  1. ARs 1 400 000
  2. BRs 1 445 000
  3. CRs 1 700 000
  4. DRs 1 445 500
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Rs 1 445 000

2 000 000 × 0.85² = 2 000 000 × 0.7225 = 1 445 000. Taking 30% off in one step would give 1 400 000 and ignores that the second year is 15% of a smaller amount.

Exam-style questions · 42

Q1[2 marks]
Define a rational number and give one example that is not an integer.
Answer

A rational number is any number that can be written in the form p/q where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0. Example: −3/4.

Q2[2 marks]
Is every irrational number a real number? Justify your answer.
Answer

Yes. The real numbers are defined as the rationals together with the irrationals, so every irrational number is real. The converse is false: not every real number is irrational.

Q3[2 marks]
Name the property used in each step: (i) 5 + (3 + 2) = (5 + 3) + 2 (ii) 7 × 1 = 7.
Answer

(i) Associative property of addition. (ii) Multiplicative identity.

Q4[3 marks]
Express the recurring decimal 0.363636… as a fraction in its lowest terms.
Mark scheme
  1. Let x = 0.3636… and multiply by 100 because the repeating block has two digits: 100x = 36.3636…the power of 10 must match the length of the repeating block[1]
  2. Subtract: 100x − x = 36.3636… − 0.3636… gives 99x = 36every decimal place cancels[1]
  3. x = 36/99 = 4/11lowest terms required; 36/99 alone does not get the final mark[1]

4/11

Q5[4 marks]
Simplify (√7 + √3) / (√7 − √3), leaving your answer with a rational denominator.
Mark scheme
  1. Multiply numerator and denominator by the conjugate √7 + √3the same conjugate top and bottom, so the value is unchanged[1]
  2. Denominator: (√7 − √3)(√7 + √3) = 7 − 3 = 4difference of two squares[1]
  3. Numerator: (√7 + √3)² = 7 + 2√21 + 3 = 10 + 2√21the middle term is 2√(7×3), not √21[1]
  4. (10 + 2√21)/4 = (5 + √21)/2cancel the factor 2 for the final mark[1]

(5 + √21) / 2

Q6[6 marks]
A student claims that √2 + √8 = √10.
  1. Show, by simplifying the left-hand side, that the claim is false.
  2. State the correct value of √2 + √8 in simplest form.
  3. Explain the general rule the student has broken.
Mark scheme
  1. √8 = √(4 × 2) = 2√2extracting the perfect square factor[1]
  2. √2 + √8 = √2 + 2√2 = 3√2[1]
  3. 3√2 = √(9 × 2) = √18, and √18 ≠ √10or compare decimals: 4.243 against 3.162[1]
  4. Correct value 3√2 (accept √18)[1]
  5. The student has assumed √a + √b = √(a + b)naming the false rule[1]
  6. Radicals distribute over multiplication and division, not over addition and subtraction√(ab) = √a√b is true; √(a+b) = √a + √b is not[1]

(a) √2 + √8 = 3√2 ≈ 4.243 while √10 ≈ 3.162 (b) 3√2 (c) roots do not distribute over addition

Q7[2 marks]
Define a set and explain why "the set of tall students in a class" is not a set in the mathematical sense.
Answer

A set is a well-defined collection of distinct objects, meaning that for any object it can be decided without dispute whether it belongs. "Tall" has no agreed boundary, so membership cannot be decided, and the collection is not well defined.

Q8[2 marks]
If A = {1, 2, 3}, write P(A) and state n(P(A)).
Answer

P(A) = { ∅, {1}, {2}, {3}, {1,2}, {1,3}, {2,3}, {1,2,3} } and n(P(A)) = 2³ = 8.

Q9[2 marks]
Distinguish between a relation and a function.
Answer

A relation from A to B is any subset of A × B. A function is a relation in which every element of A appears exactly once as a first component — every input is used, and none has more than one output. So every function is a relation, but not every relation is a function.

Q10[4 marks]
U = {1,2,3,…,10}, A = {1,2,3,4,5} and B = {4,5,6,7}. Verify that (A ∪ B)′ = A′ ∩ B′.
Mark scheme
  1. A ∪ B = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7}, so (A ∪ B)′ = {8,9,10}complement taken with respect to U[1]
  2. A′ = {6,7,8,9,10}[1]
  3. B′ = {1,2,3,8,9,10}, so A′ ∩ B′ = {8,9,10}[1]
  4. Both sides equal {8, 9, 10}, therefore the law is verifiedthe concluding statement is a mark in its own right[1]

Both sides equal {8, 9, 10}, so the law holds.

Q11[4 marks]
The relation R = {(1,2), (2,4), (3,6), (4,8)} is defined from A = {1,2,3,4} to B = {2,4,6,8}.
  1. State the domain and range of R.
  2. Determine, with a reason, whether R is a function.
  3. State whether it is one-one and whether it is onto.
Mark scheme
  1. Domain = {1, 2, 3, 4}; Range = {2, 4, 6, 8}first components and second components respectively[1]
  2. R is a function, because every element of A appears exactly once as a first componenta reason is required, not just the verdict[1]
  3. It is one-one, since no two different inputs share an output[1]
  4. It is onto, since the range equals B and no element of B is unusedso R is a bijection[1]

(a) Domain {1,2,3,4}, Range {2,4,6,8} (b) yes, a function (c) one-one and onto, so bijective

Q12[6 marks]
In a class of 40 students, 24 study Physics, 20 study Chemistry and 8 study both.
  1. Draw a Venn diagram to represent this information.
  2. Find the number of students studying at least one of the two subjects.
  3. Find the number studying neither subject.
Mark scheme
  1. Two overlapping circles inside a rectangle labelled U, with 8 written in the overlapalways fill the intersection first[1]
  2. Physics only = 24 − 8 = 16; Chemistry only = 20 − 8 = 12the given totals include the overlap[1]
  3. Uses n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) − n(A ∩ B)the inclusion–exclusion principle[1]
  4. = 24 + 20 − 8 = 36 students study at least oneor 16 + 8 + 12 from the diagram[1]
  5. Neither = n(U) − n(A ∪ B)[1]
  6. = 40 − 36 = 4 students[1]

(b) 36 students (c) 4 students

Q13[2 marks]
Simplify (x³)⁴ ÷ x⁵.
Answer

(x³)⁴ = x¹² by the power law, then x¹² ÷ x⁵ = x⁷ by subtracting the indices.

Q14[2 marks]
Write 0.000 402 in standard form.
Answer

The first significant figure is 4, so a = 4.02. The point moves four places right to get there, so n = −4: 4.02 × 10⁻⁴.

Q15[2 marks]
Evaluate 27^(2/3).
Answer

The cube root of 27 is 3, and 3² = 9.

Q16[4 marks]
Simplify, leaving your answer in index form: (2a²b)³ × (4a⁻¹b²) ÷ (8a³b⁴).
Mark scheme
  1. (2a²b)³ = 8a⁶b³ — every factor inside the bracket is cubed, including the 2forgetting to cube the 2 is the usual slip[1]
  2. Multiply: 8a⁶b³ × 4a⁻¹b² = 32a⁵b⁵coefficients multiply, indices add[1]
  3. Divide: 32 ÷ 8 = 4, and indices subtract[1]
  4. = 4a²ba⁵⁻³ = a², b⁵⁻⁴ = b¹[1]

4a²b

Q17[4 marks]
Light travels at 3 × 10⁸ m/s. Calculate the distance it covers in one year of 3.15 × 10⁷ seconds, in standard form to 3 significant figures.
Mark scheme
  1. Distance = speed × time = (3 × 10⁸) × (3.15 × 10⁷)[1]
  2. Number parts: 3 × 3.15 = 9.45[1]
  3. Indices: 10⁸ × 10⁷ = 10¹⁵add the indices[1]
  4. = 9.45 × 10¹⁵ m, already in standard form9.45 lies between 1 and 10, so no adjustment is needed[1]

9.45 × 10¹⁵ metres

Q18[6 marks]
A single grain of sand has a mass of 1.5 × 10⁻⁵ kg.
  1. Find the mass of 2 × 10⁶ grains, in standard form.
  2. A beach contains 8 × 10¹⁸ grains. Find its total mass in kilograms.
  3. Express that mass in tonnes, given 1 tonne = 1000 kg, in standard form.
Mark scheme
  1. (1.5 × 10⁻⁵) × (2 × 10⁶) = 3 × 10¹1.5 × 2 = 3 and −5 + 6 = 1[1]
  2. = 30 kgaccept either form[1]
  3. (1.5 × 10⁻⁵) × (8 × 10¹⁸) = 12 × 10¹³[1]
  4. Adjusted to standard form: 1.2 × 10¹⁴ kg12 is not between 1 and 10[1]
  5. Divide by 1000, that is by 10³: subtract 3 from the index[1]
  6. = 1.2 × 10¹¹ tonnes[1]

(a) 3 × 10¹ kg (b) 1.2 × 10¹⁴ kg (c) 1.2 × 10¹¹ tonnes

Q19[2 marks]
Increase 350 by 24%.
Answer

Multiply by 1.24: 350 × 1.24 = 434.

Q20[2 marks]
A price falls from Rs 80 to Rs 68. Calculate the percentage decrease.
Answer

Change = 12. Percentage change = (12 ÷ 80) × 100 = 15%, dividing by the original price.

Q21[2 marks]
Write 0.375 as a fraction in its lowest terms and as a percentage.
Answer

0.375 = 375/1000 = 3/8, and 0.375 × 100 = 37.5%.

Q22[4 marks]
A car costs Rs 1 495 000 including 15% sales tax. Calculate the price before tax.
Mark scheme
  1. The stated price is 115% of the pre-tax priceidentifying this is the key step[1]
  2. So divide by the multiplier: 1 495 000 ÷ 1.15not subtract 15%[1]
  3. = Rs 1 300 000[1]
  4. Check: 1 300 000 × 1.15 = 1 495 000a verification is expected in reverse percentage questions[1]

Rs 1 300 000

Q23[4 marks]
Rs 50 000 is invested at 8% per year compound interest. Find the amount after 3 years and the interest earned.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses A = P(1 + R/100)ᵀ with P = 50 000, R = 8, T = 3[1]
  2. A = 50 000 × 1.08³the multiplier raised to the power of the years[1]
  3. = 50 000 × 1.259712 = Rs 62 985.60[1]
  4. Interest = 62 985.60 − 50 000 = Rs 12 985.60the formula gives the total, so the principal must be subtracted[1]

Amount Rs 62 985.60; interest Rs 12 985.60

Q24[6 marks]
A shop buys a phone for Rs 30 000 and marks it up by 40%. In a sale the marked price is reduced by 25%.
  1. Calculate the marked price.
  2. Calculate the sale price.
  3. Calculate the shop's percentage profit on the sale price, and comment on whether a 40% markup followed by a 25% discount returns to the cost price.
Mark scheme
  1. Marked price = 30 000 × 1.40[1]
  2. = Rs 42 000[1]
  3. Sale price = 42 000 × 0.75a 25% reduction is a multiplier of 0.75[1]
  4. = Rs 31 500[1]
  5. Profit = 1500, so percentage profit = (1500 ÷ 30 000) × 100 = 5%divided by the cost price, the original[1]
  6. No — the combined multiplier is 1.40 × 0.75 = 1.05, a net 5% gain, because the 25% is taken from the larger marked price rather than from the costthe explanation is the mark[1]

(a) Rs 42 000 (b) Rs 31 500 (c) 5% profit — the percentages act on different amounts

Q25[2 marks]
Write 0.040 782 to 3 significant figures.
Answer

The first significant figure is the 4, so the three are 4, 0 and 7. The next digit is 8, which rounds up: 0.0408.

Q26[2 marks]
A length is 24 cm to the nearest centimetre. Write down its lower and upper bounds.
Answer

Half a centimetre either side: 23.5 ≤ length < 24.5 cm.

Q27[2 marks]
Estimate the value of (0.51 × 397) ÷ 19.8.
Answer

Rounding to 1 s.f.: (0.5 × 400) ÷ 20 = 200 ÷ 20 = 10.

Q28[4 marks]
A rectangle measures 12 cm by 8 cm, each to the nearest centimetre. Find the upper and lower bounds of its area.
Mark scheme
  1. Bounds of the length: 11.5 ≤ l < 12.5[1]
  2. Bounds of the width: 7.5 ≤ w < 8.5[1]
  3. Maximum area = 12.5 × 8.5 = 106.25 cm²both upper bounds, since multiplying[1]
  4. Minimum area = 11.5 × 7.5 = 86.25 cm²[1]

86.25 cm² ≤ area < 106.25 cm²

Q29[4 marks]
A car travels 150 m, measured to the nearest 10 m, in 12 s, measured to the nearest second. Find the maximum possible average speed.
Mark scheme
  1. Distance bounds: 145 ≤ d < 155 mhalf of 10 either side[1]
  2. Time bounds: 11.5 ≤ t < 12.5 shalf of 1 either side[1]
  3. Maximum speed uses the largest distance and the smallest timethis reversal is the point of the question[1]
  4. 155 ÷ 11.5 = 13.5 m/s (3 s.f.)[1]

13.5 m/s

Q30[6 marks]
A square tile has side 15 cm measured to the nearest centimetre. A floor 3 m by 2 m is to be covered.
  1. Write down the bounds of the tile's side length.
  2. Calculate the bounds of its area.
  3. Explain why the number of tiles needed cannot be calculated exactly, and state which bound a builder should use when ordering.
Mark scheme
  1. 14.5 ≤ s < 15.5 cm[1]
  2. Minimum area = 14.5² = 210.25 cm²[1]
  3. Maximum area = 15.5² = 240.25 cm²[1]
  4. The floor area is 60 000 cm², so the number of tiles lies between 60 000 ÷ 240.25 ≈ 250 and 60 000 ÷ 210.25 ≈ 285note the reversal — larger tiles mean fewer needed[1]
  5. The exact number cannot be found because the true tile size is unknown within that range[1]
  6. A builder should order for the smallest tile size, that is 285, since ordering too few would leave the floor unfinishedthe practical judgement is the mark[1]

(a) 14.5 ≤ s < 15.5 (b) 210.25 to 240.25 cm² (c) between 250 and 285 tiles; order 285

Q31[2 marks]
Simplify the ratio 45 : 60 : 75.
Answer

The highest common factor is 15, so dividing each part gives 3 : 4 : 5.

Q32[2 marks]
In a ratio of 3 : 5, what fraction of the total is the first part?
Answer

There are 3 + 5 = 8 parts altogether, so the first part is 3/8 of the total.

Q33[2 marks]
A car covers 150 km in 2 hours 30 minutes. Find its average speed.
Answer

2 hours 30 minutes is 2.5 hours, so speed = 150 ÷ 2.5 = 60 km/h.

Q34[4 marks]
A sum of money is divided between Ali, Sara and Bilal in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. Bilal receives Rs 2400 more than Ali. Find the total sum.
Mark scheme
  1. The difference between Bilal and Ali is 8 − 5 = 3 partswork with the difference in parts, not the shares[1]
  2. 3 parts = 2400, so one part = 800[1]
  3. Total parts = 5 + 7 + 8 = 20[1]
  4. Total sum = 20 × 800 = Rs 16 000check: shares 4000, 5600, 6400 differ by 2400 ✓[1]

Rs 16 000

Q35[4 marks]
y is inversely proportional to x. When x = 4, y = 15. Find y when x = 10, and x when y = 12.
Mark scheme
  1. Inverse proportion means y = k/x, so xy = k[1]
  2. k = 4 × 15 = 60find k from the given pair[1]
  3. When x = 10: y = 60 ÷ 10 = 6x went up, y went down ✓[1]
  4. When y = 12: x = 60 ÷ 12 = 5[1]

y = 6; x = 5

Q36[6 marks]
A recipe for 4 people uses 300 g of rice and takes 25 minutes to cook.
  1. How much rice is needed for 10 people?
  2. Would the cooking time for 10 people be 62.5 minutes? Explain.
  3. Eight workers can paint a house in 6 days. How long would 3 workers take, and what assumption have you made?
Mark scheme
  1. Rice is in direct proportion to the number of people: 300 ÷ 4 = 75 g each[1]
  2. 75 × 10 = 750 g[1]
  3. No — cooking time is not proportional to quantity[1]
  4. Rice cooks by absorbing water at a rate that does not depend on how much is in the pot, so a larger quantity takes only a little longer, not two and a half times as longthe reason is the mark[1]
  5. Painting is inverse: 8 × 6 = 48 worker-days, so 48 ÷ 3 = 16 days[1]
  6. Assumption: all workers paint at the same rate and do not obstruct one another[1]

(a) 750 g (b) no — cooking time is not proportional to quantity (c) 16 days, assuming equal and independent working rates

Q37[2 marks]
An article is bought for Rs 600 and sold for Rs 750. Calculate the percentage profit.
Answer

Profit = 150. Percentage profit = (150 ÷ 600) × 100 = 25%, dividing by the cost price.

Q38[2 marks]
Given 1 GBP = 350 PKR, convert Rs 91 000 into pounds.
Answer

Rupees to pounds divides: 91 000 ÷ 350 = £260.

Q39[2 marks]
Write 3 hours 45 minutes as a decimal number of hours.
Answer

45 ÷ 60 = 0.75, so the time is 3.75 hours.

Q40[4 marks]
A worker earns Rs 950 per hour for the first 40 hours in a week and time and a half beyond that. Calculate the gross pay for a 46-hour week.
Mark scheme
  1. Basic pay = 40 × 950 = Rs 38 000[1]
  2. Overtime hours = 46 − 40 = 6[1]
  3. Overtime rate = 950 × 1.5 = Rs 1425 per hour"time and a half" means the rate is multiplied by 1.5[1]
  4. Total = 38 000 + (6 × 1425) = 38 000 + 8550 = Rs 46 550[1]

Rs 46 550

Q41[4 marks]
A population of 24 000 grows by 3% per year. Find the population after 5 years, and the increase.
Mark scheme
  1. Multiplier = 1.03 per year[1]
  2. P = 24 000 × 1.03⁵the multiplier raised to the number of years[1]
  3. = 24 000 × 1.159274 = 27 823 (nearest whole)a population must be a whole number[1]
  4. Increase = 27 823 − 24 000 = 3823 people[1]

27 823 people, an increase of 3823

Q42[6 marks]
A shopkeeper buys 200 shirts at Rs 850 each. He sells 150 at a 40% markup and the remaining 50 at a 10% loss in a clearance sale.
  1. Calculate his total cost.
  2. Calculate his total revenue.
  3. Calculate his overall percentage profit or loss.
Mark scheme
  1. Total cost = 200 × 850 = Rs 170 000[1]
  2. Marked-up selling price = 850 × 1.40 = Rs 1190, so 150 × 1190 = Rs 178 500[1]
  3. Clearance price = 850 × 0.90 = Rs 765, so 50 × 765 = Rs 38 250a 10% loss is a multiplier of 0.9[1]
  4. Total revenue = 178 500 + 38 250 = Rs 216 750[1]
  5. Profit = 216 750 − 170 000 = Rs 46 750[1]
  6. Percentage profit = (46 750 ÷ 170 000) × 100 = 27.5%of the total cost price[1]

(a) Rs 170 000 (b) Rs 216 750 (c) 27.5% profit

02

Algebra and graphs

Multiple choice · 70

Q15a + 3a² − 2a simplifies to:

  1. A6a²
  2. B3a² + 3a
  3. C6a³
  4. D3a + 3a²
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3a² + 3a

Only the a terms combine: 5a − 2a = 3a. The a² term has no like term to join, so it stays as it is.

Q2−4(2x − 3) expands to:

  1. A−8x − 12
  2. B−8x + 12
  3. C8x − 12
  4. D−8x − 3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — −8x + 12

The −4 multiplies both terms, and −4 × −3 = +12. Keeping the second term negative is the standard error.

Q3(x + 5)² equals:

  1. Ax² + 25
  2. Bx² + 10x + 25
  3. Cx² + 5x + 25
  4. D2x + 10
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x² + 10x + 25

The bracket means (x+5)(x+5), giving four products. Testing x = 1 confirms it: 36, not 26.

Q4When x = −3, the value of is:

  1. A−9
  2. B9
  3. C−6
  4. D6
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 9

Squaring a negative gives a positive: (−3) × (−3) = 9. Writing −3² without brackets would give −9 and is a different expression.

Q5v = u + at rearranged for a gives:

  1. Aa = v − u − t
  2. Ba = (v − u)/t
  3. Ca = v/t − u
  4. Da = t(v − u)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a = (v − u)/t

Subtract u from both sides, then divide the whole of v − u by t. The bracket matters: option C divides only v by t.

Q6(2x − 1)(x + 3) equals:

  1. A2x² + 5x − 3
  2. B2x² − 3
  3. C2x² + 6x − 3
  4. D2x² + 5x + 3
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 2x² + 5x − 3

The four products are 2x², +6x, −x and −3. Combining the middle two gives +5x.

Q73x + 2 = 14 is a:

  1. Aexpression
  2. Bequation
  3. Cformula
  4. Didentity
Show answer

Correct answer: B — equation

It has an equals sign and is true only for one value of x, which is what makes it an equation rather than an identity.

Q8When a = 2 and b = −5, ab² equals:

  1. A−50
  2. B50
  3. C−20
  4. D100
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 50

Only b is squared: 2 × (−5)² = 2 × 25 = 50. Squaring the whole product would give 100.

Q9Factorise x² − 7x + 12.

  1. A(x − 3)(x − 4)
  2. B(x + 3)(x + 4)
  3. C(x − 2)(x − 6)
  4. D(x − 1)(x − 12)
Show answer

Correct answer: A — (x − 3)(x − 4)

You need two numbers multiplying to +12 and adding to −7. Both must be negative: −3 and −4. Option C multiplies to 12 but adds to −8.

Q10Factorise 9a² − 30ab + 25b².

  1. A(3a − 5b)²
  2. B(3a + 5b)²
  3. C(9a − 5b)²
  4. D(3a − 5b)(3a + 5b)
Show answer

Correct answer: A — (3a − 5b)²

The outer terms are (3a)² and (5b)², and 2 × 3a × 5b = 30ab matches the middle term with a minus sign, so it is a perfect square (3a − 5b)². Option D would give no middle term at all.

Q11ax + ay + bx + by factorises to:

  1. A(a + b)(x + y)
  2. B(a + x)(b + y)
  3. C(ax + by)(a + b)
  4. Dab(x + y)
Show answer

Correct answer: A — (a + b)(x + y)

Group as a(x + y) + b(x + y), then take the common bracket out: (a + b)(x + y). Expanding option A back gives the original four terms.

Q12If a − b = 4 and ab = 5, then a² + b² equals:

  1. A21
  2. B26
  3. C11
  4. D16
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 26

a² + b² = (a − b)² + 2ab = 16 + 10 = 26. Note the plus sign: the −2ab in the expansion of (a − b)² has to be added back.

Q13Which is the complete factorisation of 5x² − 45?

  1. A5(x² − 9)
  2. B(5x − 15)(x + 3)
  3. C5(x − 3)(x + 3)
  4. D(x − 3)(5x + 15)
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5(x − 3)(x + 3)

Take out the 5, then factorise x² − 9 as a difference of two squares. Option A stops one step early, and options B and D still hide a common factor inside a bracket.

Q14The factorisation of x³ + 27 is:

  1. A(x + 3)³
  2. B(x + 3)(x² − 3x + 9)
  3. C(x + 3)(x² + 3x + 9)
  4. D(x − 3)(x² + 3x + 9)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (x + 3)(x² − 3x + 9)

Sum of cubes with b = 3: (a + b)(a² − ab + b²). The middle sign inside the quadratic is the opposite of the sign in the first bracket, which rules out option C.

Q15Split the middle term of 2x² + 7x + 3 using:

  1. A2 and 5
  2. B6 and 1
  3. C3 and 4
  4. D7 and 0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6 and 1

The product ac = 2 × 3 = 6 and the sum must be 7, so the pair is 6 and 1. That gives 2x² + 6x + x + 3 = 2x(x + 3) + 1(x + 3) = (2x + 1)(x + 3).

Q16The HCF of (x + 1)²(x − 2) and (x + 1)(x − 2)² is:

  1. A(x + 1)²(x − 2)²
  2. B(x + 1)(x − 2)
  3. C(x + 1)²(x − 2)
  4. D(x + 1) + (x − 2)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (x + 1)(x − 2)

Each common factor is taken to its lowest power: (x + 1) appears to the power 1 in the second expression and (x − 2) to the power 1 in the first. Option A is the LCM, not the HCF.

Q17Simplify (x² − 4)/(x − 2).

  1. Ax − 2
  2. Bx + 2
  3. Cx² − 2
  4. D(x + 2)/(x − 2)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x + 2

Factorising gives (x − 2)(x + 2)/(x − 2) = x + 2, valid for x ≠ 2. The restriction remains even though x + 2 alone is defined everywhere.

Q18For which value is (x + 1)/(x − 6) undefined?

  1. Ax = −1
  2. Bx = 6
  3. Cx = 0
  4. Dx = 1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x = 6

Only the denominator matters. It is zero at x = 6. A numerator of zero simply makes the fraction zero, which is perfectly legal.

Q191/x + 1/y equals:

  1. A1/(x + y)
  2. B2/(xy)
  3. C(x + y)/(xy)
  4. D(y + x)/(x + y)
Show answer

Correct answer: C — (x + y)/(xy)

Common denominator xy gives y/xy + x/xy = (x + y)/xy. Option A is the standard wrong answer and can be disproved with x = y = 1: 1 + 1 = 2, not 1/2.

Q20(a/b) ÷ (c/d) equals:

  1. Aac/bd
  2. Bad/bc
  3. Cbc/ad
  4. Dbd/ac
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ad/bc

Invert the divisor and multiply: (a/b) × (d/c) = ad/bc. Inverting the first fraction instead is the usual slip.

Q21Which cancels correctly?

  1. A(x + 2)/(x + 4) → 2/4
  2. B3x/(3x + 6) → x/(x + 6)
  3. C(2x + 4)/(x + 2) → 2
  4. D(x² + 1)/x → x + 1
Show answer

Correct answer: C — (2x + 4)/(x + 2) → 2

2x + 4 = 2(x + 2), so the whole factor (x + 2) cancels and 2 is left. Each other option cancels a term rather than a factor.

Q22The LCM of the denominators in 1/(x − 1) + 1/(x² − 1) is:

  1. A(x − 1)(x² − 1)
  2. Bx² − 1
  3. C(x − 1)²(x + 1)
  4. Dx − 1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x² − 1

x² − 1 = (x − 1)(x + 1), which already contains x − 1 as a factor, so the LCM is just x² − 1. Multiplying the two denominators together would give an unnecessarily large fraction.

Q23After cancelling (x − 3) from (x − 3)(x + 1)/[(x − 3)(x − 5)], the restrictions are:

  1. Ax ≠ 5 only
  2. Bx ≠ 3 only
  3. Cx ≠ 3 and x ≠ 5
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: C — x ≠ 3 and x ≠ 5

Both values came from the original denominator, and cancelling does not undo that. x = 3 gives a hole in the graph and x = 5 gives an asymptote, but neither is in the domain.

Q24The square root of x² + 6x + 9 is:

  1. Ax + 3
  2. Bx + 9
  3. Cx² + 3
  4. Dx − 3
Show answer

Correct answer: A — x + 3

The expression is the perfect square (x + 3)², since 2 × x × 3 = 6x matches the middle term exactly.

Q25Solve 3(x + 4) = 2x + 15.

  1. Ax = 3
  2. Bx = 27
  3. Cx = 1
  4. Dx = −3
Show answer

Correct answer: A — x = 3

Expanding gives 3x + 12 = 2x + 15, so x = 3. Option C comes from writing 3x + 4 instead of 3x + 12.

Q26Solve −5x ≥ 20.

  1. Ax ≥ 4
  2. Bx ≤ 4
  3. Cx ≥ −4
  4. Dx ≤ −4
Show answer

Correct answer: D — x ≤ −4

Dividing by −5 reverses the sign, giving x ≤ −4. Keeping the sign the same gives option C, which is the mistake this question exists to catch.

Q27How many solutions does |x + 2| = 6 have?

  1. ANone
  2. BOne
  3. CTwo
  4. DInfinitely many
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Two

Since 6 is positive there are two cases: x + 2 = 6 giving x = 4, and x + 2 = −6 giving x = −8.

Q28The solution of |x| ≥ 3 is:

  1. A−3 ≤ x ≤ 3
  2. Bx ≤ −3 or x ≥ 3
  3. C0 ≤ x ≤ 3
  4. Dx ≥ 3 only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x ≤ −3 or x ≥ 3

"Distance from zero at least 3" means at least 3 away in either direction, so the answer is two rays. Option D forgets the negative side entirely.

Q29Solve x/2 − x/3 = 1.

  1. Ax = 1
  2. Bx = 6
  3. Cx = 5
  4. Dx = 1/6
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x = 6

Multiply through by 6: 3x − 2x = 6, so x = 6. Check: 3 − 2 = 1 ✓.

Q30Which operation does NOT change the direction of an inequality?

  1. AMultiplying by −2
  2. BDividing by −3
  3. CSubtracting 7
  4. DMultiplying by −1
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Subtracting 7

Adding and subtracting shift both sides equally along the number line, so their order is untouched. All three other options involve a negative multiplier.

Q31Solve the double inequality −1 ≤ 2x − 5 < 7.

  1. A2 ≤ x < 6
  2. B−2 ≤ x < 6
  3. C2 ≤ x < 1
  4. D3 ≤ x < 6
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 2 ≤ x < 6

Add 5 to all three parts: 4 ≤ 2x < 12. Divide all three by 2: 2 ≤ x < 6. The inequality types stay as they were because 2 is positive.

Q32On a number line, x > 5 is shown by:

  1. Aa filled circle at 5, arrow left
  2. Ban open circle at 5, arrow right
  3. Ca filled circle at 5, arrow right
  4. Dan open circle at 5, arrow left
Show answer

Correct answer: B — an open circle at 5, arrow right

Strictly greater means 5 itself is excluded, so the circle is open, and the values satisfying the inequality lie to the right.

Q33The equation 2x² + 3x + 5 = 0 has:

  1. ATwo distinct real roots
  2. BOne repeated real root
  3. CNo real roots
  4. DThree roots
Show answer

Correct answer: C — No real roots

Δ = b² − 4ac = 9 − 40 = −31. A negative discriminant means no real roots. Since a > 0 the parabola opens upward, and its minimum lies entirely above the x-axis.

Q34For x² − 6x + 9 = 0, the discriminant is:

  1. A0
  2. B36
  3. C−36
  4. D72
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0

Δ = (−6)² − 4(1)(9) = 36 − 36 = 0, so the roots are equal. The expression is (x − 3)², and the graph touches the x-axis at x = 3 instead of cutting it.

Q35If α and β are the roots of x² − 7x + 12 = 0, then α + β equals:

  1. A−7
  2. B7
  3. C12
  4. D−12
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 7

α + β = −b/a = −(−7)/1 = 7. The two negative signs cancel, which is where most errors occur. Check: the roots are 3 and 4, and 3 + 4 = 7, 3 × 4 = 12 = c/a.

Q36Solving x² = 4x by dividing both sides by x gives x = 4. The error is that:

  1. AThere is no error
  2. BThe root x = 0 has been lost
  3. CThe sign is wrong
  4. Dx² cannot be divided
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The root x = 0 has been lost

Dividing by x assumes x ≠ 0 and discards that root. Correct method: x² − 4x = 0, so x(x − 4) = 0, giving x = 0 or x = 4.

Q37The graph of y = −2x² + 3x + 1 has:

  1. AA minimum point
  2. BA maximum point
  3. CNo turning point
  4. DTwo turning points
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A maximum point

a = −2 is negative, so the parabola opens downward and its turning point is a maximum. Every quadratic has exactly one turning point.

Q38The quadratic equation whose roots are 2 and −5 is:

  1. Ax² + 3x − 10 = 0
  2. Bx² − 3x − 10 = 0
  3. Cx² + 3x + 10 = 0
  4. Dx² − 7x + 10 = 0
Show answer

Correct answer: A — x² + 3x − 10 = 0

Sum = −3 and product = −10, so x² − (−3)x + (−10) = x² + 3x − 10 = 0. Expanding (x − 2)(x + 5) confirms it. Option B comes from dropping the negative sign in the sum formula.

Q39The 15th term of the AP 3, 7, 11, … is:

  1. A59
  2. B63
  3. C55
  4. D60
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 59

a = 3 and d = 4, so a₁₅ = 3 + 14(4) = 59. Using 15 × 4 instead of 14 × 4 gives 63, the standard off-by-one.

Q40The common ratio of 81, 27, 9, 3, … is:

  1. A−3
  2. B3
  3. C1/3
  4. D−1/3
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/3

Divide any term by the one before: 27/81 = 1/3. The terms are shrinking, so r must be less than 1 in size.

Q41The sum to infinity of 6 + 3 + 1.5 + … is:

  1. A9
  2. B12
  3. C18
  4. Dit does not exist
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 12

a = 6 and r = 0.5, and |r| < 1 so the sum exists: 6/(1 − 0.5) = 12.

Q42The series 2 + 6 + 18 + 54 + … has a sum to infinity of:

  1. A3
  2. B−1
  3. C0
  4. Dnone — it diverges
Show answer

Correct answer: D — none — it diverges

r = 3, so |r| ≥ 1 and the terms grow rather than shrink. Applying the formula anyway would give 2/(1−3) = −1, an obviously impossible negative total for a series of positive terms.

Q43Inserting three arithmetic means between 4 and 20 gives a sequence with how many terms?

  1. A3
  2. B4
  3. C5
  4. D6
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5

The two given numbers plus the three inserted make five terms in all, so 20 = 4 + 4d and d = 4.

Q44The geometric mean of 4 and 25 is:

  1. A14.5
  2. B10
  3. C29
  4. D100
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10

√(4 × 25) = √100 = 10. Option A is the arithmetic mean, which is larger — as AM ≥ GM guarantees.

Q45Σr from r = 1 to 20 equals:

  1. A210
  2. B400
  3. C190
  4. D420
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 210

Use the standard result Σr = n(n+1)/2 with n = 20: (20 × 21)/2 = 210. Adding the twenty numbers by hand gives the same answer, but the formula is the point — it turns a twenty-step addition into one multiplication and one division, and the same idea scales to Σr² and Σr³.

Q46The sum of the first n terms of an AP is quadratic in n because:

  1. Athe terms are squared
  2. BSₙ = (n/2)[2a + (n−1)d] expands to include n²
  3. Cd is always 2
  4. Dthe terms alternate in sign
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Sₙ = (n/2)[2a + (n−1)d] expands to include n²

Multiplying out gives an + n(n−1)d/2, which contains an n² term. That is why the running-total line on the diagram curves while the terms themselves lie on a straight line.

Q47On a distance–time graph, a steeper line means:

  1. Aslower
  2. Bfaster
  3. Cstopped
  4. Dreversing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — faster

The gradient is the speed, so a steeper gradient is a greater speed.

Q48A horizontal line on a speed–time graph means the object is:

  1. Astationary
  2. Bmoving at constant speed
  3. Caccelerating
  4. Ddecelerating
Show answer

Correct answer: B — moving at constant speed

The speed is not changing, but it is not zero. It is only stationary where the graph meets the horizontal axis.

Q49The area under a speed–time graph gives:

  1. Aacceleration
  2. Bdistance
  3. Caverage speed
  4. Dnothing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — distance

Speed × time = distance, so the product represented by the area has the units of distance.

Q50A speed–time graph rises from 0 to 12 m/s in 6 s. The acceleration is:

  1. A72 m/s²
  2. B2 m/s²
  3. C0.5 m/s²
  4. D18 m/s²
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 m/s²

Gradient = change in speed ÷ time = 12 ÷ 6 = 2 m/s².

Q51On a distance–time graph, a line sloping downwards means:

  1. Anegative distance
  2. Breturning towards the start
  3. Caccelerating
  4. Dan error in the graph
Show answer

Correct answer: B — returning towards the start

The distance from the starting point is decreasing, so the object is coming back.

Q52A phone tariff graph starts at Rs 500 at zero minutes. This is:

  1. Athe cost per minute
  2. Ba fixed monthly charge
  3. Can error
  4. Dthe total bill
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a fixed monthly charge

It is charged before any minutes are used. The gradient of the line gives the cost per minute on top of it.

Q53A container fills at a constant rate and the depth–time graph curves and flattens. The container is:

  1. Agetting narrower upwards
  2. Bgetting wider upwards
  3. Ca uniform cylinder
  4. Dleaking
Show answer

Correct answer: B — getting wider upwards

A flattening curve means the level rises more slowly, which happens when the same volume has a larger area to cover.

Q54The area under a distance–time graph:

  1. Agives the speed
  2. Bgives the acceleration
  3. Chas no useful meaning
  4. Dgives the total distance
Show answer

Correct answer: C — has no useful meaning

Its units would be metre-seconds. Checking the units of an area before computing it prevents this standard error.

Q55The graph of y = −x² + 4 is:

  1. Aa parabola opening upward
  2. Ba parabola opening downward
  3. Ca straight line
  4. Da hyperbola
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a parabola opening downward

The coefficient of x² is −1, which is negative, so the parabola opens downward with a maximum at (0, 4).

Q56A curve crosses the x-axis at x = −2 and x = 5. Its equation could be:

  1. Ay = (x − 2)(x + 5)
  2. By = (x + 2)(x − 5)
  3. Cy = (x + 2)(x + 5)
  4. Dy = x² + 10
Show answer

Correct answer: B — y = (x + 2)(x − 5)

A root at x = −2 needs the factor (x + 2), and a root at x = 5 needs (x − 5). The signs inside the brackets are always the opposite of the roots.

Q57The y-intercept of y = 3x² − 2x + 7 is:

  1. A3
  2. B−2
  3. C7
  4. D0
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 7

Substituting x = 0 kills the first two terms and leaves 7. The constant term is always the y-intercept for a polynomial written in this form.

Q58Two lines are drawn and do not intersect anywhere. The simultaneous equations have:

  1. Aone solution
  2. Bno solution
  3. Ctwo solutions
  4. Dinfinitely many solutions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — no solution

No intersection means no pair (x, y) satisfies both equations. The lines have equal gradients but different intercepts.

Q59To solve x² − x = 3 using the graph of y = x² − x, you would draw:

  1. Ay = 0
  2. By = 3
  3. Cy = x + 3
  4. Dy = 3x
Show answer

Correct answer: B — y = 3

The left-hand side is already the curve, so the right-hand side is drawn as the horizontal line y = 3. Where they cross gives the values of x.

Q60The turning point of y = x² − 6x + 5 is at x =

  1. A3
  2. B5
  3. C1
  4. D6
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 3

The roots are x = 1 and x = 5, and the turning point sits midway between them, at x = 3. Substituting back gives the minimum point (3, −4).

Q61The graph of y = 6/x:

  1. Apasses through the origin
  2. Bhas two branches and never meets the axes
  3. Cis a straight line through (1,6)
  4. Dis a parabola
Show answer

Correct answer: B — has two branches and never meets the axes

x = 0 is not in the domain and y is never zero, so both axes are asymptotes. The two branches lie in the first and third quadrants because 6 is positive.

Q62A cubic graph has ends going in opposite directions because:

  1. Ait has three roots
  2. Bits highest power is odd
  3. Cit has two turning points
  4. Dit crosses the y-axis
Show answer

Correct answer: B — its highest power is odd

For large negative x an odd power gives a large negative value, and for large positive x a large positive one. An even highest power would send both ends the same way, as a parabola does.

Q63The domain of f(x) = 1/(x − 7) is:

  1. Aall real x
  2. Bx > 7
  3. Call real x except 7
  4. Dx ≥ 7
Show answer

Correct answer: C — all real x except 7

The only forbidden value is the one making the denominator zero, namely x = 7. Everything else, including negatives, is allowed.

Q64The range of f(x) = |x| is:

  1. Aall real y
  2. By ≥ 0
  3. Cy > 0
  4. Dy ≤ 0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — y ≥ 0

A modulus is never negative, and it reaches 0 at x = 0. So the range includes zero, which rules out option C.

Q65If f(x) = 5x − 2, then f⁻¹(x) is:

  1. A(x + 2)/5
  2. B(x − 2)/5
  3. C5x + 2
  4. D1/(5x − 2)
Show answer

Correct answer: A — (x + 2)/5

From y = 5x − 2 we get x = (y + 2)/5. Check: f((x+2)/5) = 5(x+2)/5 − 2 = x ✓. Option D confuses the inverse function with the reciprocal.

Q66If f(x) = x + 3 and g(x) = 2x, then fg(4) equals:

  1. A11
  2. B14
  3. C8
  4. D20
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 11

The inner function acts first: g(4) = 8, then f(8) = 11. Option B is gf(4), which shows why the order matters.

Q67Which function has no inverse over all of ℝ?

  1. Af(x) = 2x
  2. Bf(x) = x³
  3. Cf(x) = x²
  4. Df(x) = x − 5
Show answer

Correct answer: C — f(x) = x²

x² is not one-one, since x and −x share an image. A cubic is one-one over all of ℝ because it is always increasing, so it does have an inverse.

Q68The graph of y = 3ˣ passes through:

  1. A(0, 0)
  2. B(0, 1)
  3. C(1, 0)
  4. D(0, 3)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (0, 1)

Any positive base to the power 0 equals 1, so every exponential graph of this form passes through (0, 1) and never touches the x-axis.

Q69The range of f(x) = −x² + 5 is:

  1. Ay ≥ 5
  2. By ≤ 5
  3. Call real y
  4. Dy ≥ 0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — y ≤ 5

The negative coefficient turns the parabola downward, so the vertex (0, 5) is a maximum and every output is 5 or less.

Q70For a function to have an inverse it must be:

  1. Acontinuous
  2. Bincreasing
  3. Cbijective
  4. Dquadratic
Show answer

Correct answer: C — bijective

One-one guarantees each output identifies its input; onto guarantees every element of the codomain has one. Both together — bijective — are exactly what an inverse needs.

Exam-style questions · 54

Q1[2 marks]
Simplify 7p − 3q − 2p + 5q.
Answer

p terms: 7p − 2p = 5p. q terms: −3q + 5q = 2q. So the answer is 5p + 2q.

Q2[2 marks]
Expand and simplify 3(2x − 1) − 2(x − 4).
Answer

6x − 3 − 2x + 8 = 4x + 5.

Q3[2 marks]
Make t the subject of v = u + at.
Answer

Subtract u: v − u = at. Divide by a: t = (v − u)/a.

Q4[4 marks]
Expand and simplify (2x + 3)(x − 5) and (3y − 2)².
Mark scheme
  1. (2x + 3)(x − 5) = 2x² − 10x + 3x − 15all four products[1]
  2. = 2x² − 7x − 15the middle terms combine[1]
  3. (3y − 2)² = (3y − 2)(3y − 2) = 9y² − 6y − 6y + 4writing the bracket twice prevents the missing middle term[1]
  4. = 9y² − 12y + 4not 9y² + 4[1]

2x² − 7x − 15; 9y² − 12y + 4

Q5[4 marks]
Given a = −2, b = 3 and c = −1, evaluate 2a²b − 3bc + c³.
Mark scheme
  1. 2a²b = 2 × (−2)² × 3 = 2 × 4 × 3 = 24the square of −2 is +4[1]
  2. −3bc = −3 × 3 × (−1) = +9two negatives make a positive[1]
  3. c³ = (−1)³ = −1an odd power keeps the sign negative[1]
  4. Total = 24 + 9 − 1 = 32[1]

32

Q6[6 marks]
A rectangle has length (3x + 2) cm and width (x − 1) cm.
  1. Write and simplify an expression for its perimeter.
  2. Write and expand an expression for its area.
  3. If the perimeter is 36 cm, find x and hence the area.
Mark scheme
  1. Perimeter = 2[(3x + 2) + (x − 1)] = 2(4x + 1)[1]
  2. = 8x + 2the 2 multiplies both terms[1]
  3. Area = (3x + 2)(x − 1) = 3x² − 3x + 2x − 2all four products[1]
  4. = 3x² − x − 2[1]
  5. 8x + 2 = 36, so 8x = 34 and x = 4.25[1]
  6. Area = 3(4.25)² − 4.25 − 2 = 54.19 − 6.25 = 48.1 cm² (3 s.f.)check: length 14.75, width 3.25, product 47.9 — accept either from rounding[1]

(a) 8x + 2 (b) 3x² − x − 2 (c) x = 4.25, area ≈ 48 cm²

Q7[2 marks]
Factorise 25x² − 49y².
Answer

Both terms are perfect squares with a minus between them, so this is a difference of two squares: (5x)² − (7y)² = (5x − 7y)(5x + 7y).

Q8[2 marks]
If a + b = 9 and ab = 20, find a² + b².
Answer

Using a² + b² = (a + b)² − 2ab = 81 − 40 = 41.

Q9[2 marks]
Factorise x³ − 8.
Answer

This is a difference of two cubes with b = 2: x³ − 2³ = (x − 2)(x² + 2x + 4).

Q10[4 marks]
Factorise completely: 3x³ − 27x.
Mark scheme
  1. Take out the common factor 3x: 3x(x² − 9)both the number and the variable come out[1]
  2. Recognises x² − 9 as a difference of two squares[1]
  3. x² − 9 = (x − 3)(x + 3)[1]
  4. Complete factorisation 3x(x − 3)(x + 3)stopping at 3x(x² − 9) does not earn the final mark[1]

3x(x − 3)(x + 3)

Q11[4 marks]
Factorise 4x² − 12x + 9 − y².
Mark scheme
  1. Groups the first three terms: (4x² − 12x + 9) − y²a 3-and-1 grouping, not 2-and-2 — the three terms form a perfect square[1]
  2. 4x² − 12x + 9 = (2x − 3)²check the middle term: 2 × 2x × 3 = 12x ✓[1]
  3. Now a difference of two squares: (2x − 3)² − y²[1]
  4. = (2x − 3 − y)(2x − 3 + y)[1]

(2x − 3 − y)(2x − 3 + y)

Q12[6 marks]
Consider the expressions p = x² − 5x + 6 and q = x² − 4.
  1. Factorise p and q completely.
  2. Find the HCF and the LCM of p and q.
  3. Verify that HCF × LCM = p × q.
Mark scheme
  1. p = (x − 2)(x − 3)two numbers multiplying to 6 and adding to −5[1]
  2. q = (x − 2)(x + 2)difference of two squares[1]
  3. HCF = (x − 2), the only common factor[1]
  4. LCM = (x − 2)(x − 3)(x + 2)every distinct factor at its highest power[1]
  5. HCF × LCM = (x − 2)² (x − 3)(x + 2)[1]
  6. p × q = (x − 2)(x − 3) × (x − 2)(x + 2) = (x − 2)²(x − 3)(x + 2), the same expression, so the identity is verifiedthe concluding statement is required[1]

(a) p = (x−2)(x−3), q = (x−2)(x+2) (b) HCF = x − 2, LCM = (x−2)(x−3)(x+2) (c) both sides equal (x−2)²(x−3)(x+2)

Q13[2 marks]
Simplify (x² − 16)/(x + 4) and state any restriction.
Answer

Factorising, (x − 4)(x + 4)/(x + 4) = x − 4, provided x ≠ −4.

Q14[2 marks]
Explain why (x + 5)/(x + 7) cannot be simplified.
Answer

The x values are terms inside sums, not factors of the whole numerator and denominator. Cancelling is only permitted for factors that multiply the entire expression, and here neither the numerator nor the denominator factorises further.

Q15[2 marks]
State the values of x for which (x + 1) / (x² − 5x + 6) is undefined.
Answer

Factorising the denominator gives (x − 2)(x − 3), which is zero at x = 2 and x = 3. The expression is undefined at those two values.

Q16[4 marks]
Simplify 2/(x − 3) + 3/(x + 2).
Mark scheme
  1. Common denominator (x − 3)(x + 2)no shared factor, so the LCM is the product[1]
  2. Numerator = 2(x + 2) + 3(x − 3)each numerator multiplied by the missing factor[1]
  3. = 2x + 4 + 3x − 9 = 5x − 5[1]
  4. = 5(x − 1) / [(x − 3)(x + 2)], with x ≠ 3, −2factorising the numerator shows nothing further cancels[1]

5(x − 1) / [(x − 3)(x + 2)], x ≠ 3, −2

Q17[4 marks]
Simplify (x² − 1)/(x² + 4x + 3) × (x + 3)/(x − 1).
Mark scheme
  1. x² − 1 = (x − 1)(x + 1)difference of two squares[1]
  2. x² + 4x + 3 = (x + 1)(x + 3)[1]
  3. Cancels (x + 1), (x + 3) and (x − 1) across the two fractionsin a multiplication you may cancel a numerator factor against either denominator[1]
  4. Result 1, with x ≠ 1, −1, −3the restrictions are needed for the mark[1]

1, provided x ≠ 1, −1, −3

Q18[6 marks]
Consider the expression E = [1/(x − 2) − 1/(x + 2)] ÷ [4/(x² − 4)].
  1. Simplify the expression inside the first bracket.
  2. Hence simplify E completely.
  3. State all the values of x for which E is undefined.
Mark scheme
  1. Common denominator (x − 2)(x + 2) = x² − 4; numerator = (x + 2) − (x − 2) = 4the x terms cancel — that is the design of the question[1]
  2. First bracket = 4/(x² − 4)[1]
  3. Division becomes multiplication by the reciprocal: [4/(x² − 4)] × [(x² − 4)/4][1]
  4. E = 1[1]
  5. Denominators vanish at x = 2 and x = −2[1]
  6. Those are the only exclusions; the divisor 4/(x² − 4) is never zero, since its numerator is the constant 4checking whether the divisor can be zero is the step being tested[1]

(a) 4/(x² − 4) (b) E = 1 (c) undefined only at x = 2 and x = −2

Q19[2 marks]
Solve 5(x − 2) = 3x + 4.
Answer

Expanding, 5x − 10 = 3x + 4. Collecting: 2x = 14, so x = 7.

Q20[2 marks]
Why does the inequality sign reverse when both sides are divided by a negative number?
Answer

Multiplying or dividing by a negative number reflects every point in the number line about zero, so the left-to-right order of the two values is reversed. For example 3 < 5, but −3 > −5.

Q21[2 marks]
Solve |2x + 1| = −4.
Answer

No solution. The modulus of any expression is a distance from zero and can never be negative, so no value of x can make |2x + 1| equal to −4.

Q22[4 marks]
Solve (x + 2)/4 − (x − 3)/6 = 1.
Mark scheme
  1. Multiply every term by the LCM 12: 3(x + 2) − 2(x − 3) = 12the right-hand side must be multiplied too[1]
  2. Expand: 3x + 6 − 2x + 6 = 12the minus sign in front of the second bracket changes both signs inside it[1]
  3. Collect: x + 12 = 12[1]
  4. x = 0zero is a perfectly good answer — students often assume they have made an error[1]

x = 0

Q23[4 marks]
Solve the inequality |x − 4| < 3 and show the solution set on a number line.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses the rule |a| < k ⟺ −k < a < k: −3 < x − 4 < 3one interval because the sign is less-than[1]
  2. Add 4 to all three partsthe same operation on every part[1]
  3. 1 < x < 7[1]
  4. Number line with open circles at 1 and 7 and the segment between them shadedcircles must be open because the inequality is strict[1]

1 < x < 7

Q24[6 marks]
A rectangle has length (2x + 3) cm and width (x − 1) cm.
  1. Write an expression for its perimeter and solve for x if the perimeter is 34 cm.
  2. Find the length and the width.
  3. For what values of x is the width greater than 4 cm? Explain why very small values of x must be rejected.
Mark scheme
  1. Perimeter = 2[(2x + 3) + (x − 1)] = 2(3x + 2) = 6x + 4perimeter is twice the sum of length and width[1]
  2. 6x + 4 = 34 so 6x = 30 and x = 5[1]
  3. Length = 2(5) + 3 = 13 cm[1]
  4. Width = 5 − 1 = 4 cm; check 2(13 + 4) = 34[1]
  5. x − 1 > 4 gives x > 5[1]
  6. Values with x ≤ 1 make the width zero or negative, which is impossible for a real rectanglethe physical restriction must be stated[1]

(a) x = 5 (b) 13 cm by 4 cm (c) x > 5; values x ≤ 1 give a non-positive width

Q25[2 marks]
State what the discriminant of a quadratic tells you, and write it down.
Answer

The discriminant is b² − 4ac. It gives the number of real roots: two if positive, one repeated if zero, none if negative.

Q26[3 marks]
Find the value of k for which x² + kx + 9 = 0 has exactly one real root.
Answer

b² − 4ac = 0 → k² − 36 = 0 → k = ±6

Q27[2 marks]
Write down the coordinates of the turning point of y = (x − 3)² + 5 and state whether it is a maximum or a minimum.
Answer

(3, 5), a minimum, because the coefficient of the squared term is positive.

Q28[6 marks]
Solve 2x² − 7x + 3 = 0 by two different methods and show that they agree.
Mark scheme
  1. Factorising: (2x − 1)(x − 3) = 0[1]
  2. x = 1/2 or x = 3[1]
  3. Formula: identifies a = 2, b = −7, c = 3[1]
  4. x = [7 ± √(49 − 24)] / 4[1]
  5. = (7 ± 5)/4[1]
  6. x = 3 or x = 1/2, the same pair[1]

x = 1/2 and x = 3

Q29[7 marks]
A ball is thrown upward. Its height in metres after t seconds is h = 20t − 5t².
  1. Write h in completed square form. [3]
  2. Hence state the greatest height reached and the time at which it occurs. [2]
  3. Find the total time the ball is in the air. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Takes out the factor: h = −5(t² − 4t)[1]
  2. Completes the square inside: t² − 4t = (t − 2)² − 4[1]
  3. h = −5[(t − 2)² − 4] = 20 − 5(t − 2)²[1]
  4. Greatest height = 20 mthe squared term is zero there[1]
  5. At t = 2 s[1]
  6. Sets h = 0: t(20 − 5t) = 0[1]
  7. t = 4 st = 0 is the moment of throwing[1]

(a) 20 − 5(t − 2)² (b) 20 m at t = 2 s (c) 4 s

Q30[6 marks]
The line y = x + k is a tangent to the curve y = x² + 3x + 4.
  1. Show that x² + 2x + (4 − k) = 0. [2]
  2. Use the discriminant to find k. [3]
  3. Find the coordinates of the point of contact. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Equates the two expressions: x + k = x² + 3x + 4[1]
  2. Rearranges to x² + 2x + 4 − k = 0[1]
  3. A tangent means one repeated root, so b² − 4ac = 0[1]
  4. 4 − 4(4 − k) = 0[1]
  5. 4 − 16 + 4k = 0 → k = 3[1]
  6. x² + 2x + 1 = 0 → x = −1, so the point is (−1, 2)[1]

k = 3, touching at (−1, 2)

Q31[2 marks]
Distinguish between a sequence and a series.
Answer

A sequence is an ordered list of terms, such as 2, 5, 8, 11. A series is the sum of the terms of a sequence, such as 2 + 5 + 8 + 11 = 26.

Q32[2 marks]
Find the 20th term of the AP 7, 11, 15, …
Answer

a = 7 and d = 4, so a₂₀ = 7 + 19(4) = 7 + 76 = 83.

Q33[2 marks]
State the condition for an infinite geometric series to have a sum, and give the formula.
Answer

The sum to infinity exists only when |r| < 1, and then S∞ = a / (1 − r).

Q34[4 marks]
The sum of the first 10 terms of an AP is 155 and the sum of the first 20 is 610. Find a and d.
Mark scheme
  1. S₁₀ = 5[2a + 9d] = 155, so 2a + 9d = 31divide through by 5 immediately to keep the numbers small[1]
  2. S₂₀ = 10[2a + 19d] = 610, so 2a + 19d = 61[1]
  3. Subtracting: 10d = 30, so d = 3the 2a terms cancel[1]
  4. 2a + 27 = 31, so a = 2check: S₁₀ = 5(4 + 27) = 155 ✓[1]

a = 2, d = 3

Q35[4 marks]
Express the recurring decimal 0.4747… as a fraction by summing an infinite geometric series.
Mark scheme
  1. Writes it as 0.47 + 0.0047 + 0.000047 + …each block of two digits is one term[1]
  2. Identifies a = 0.47 and r = 0.01each term is the previous one divided by 100[1]
  3. |r| < 1, so S∞ = 0.47 / (1 − 0.01) = 0.47 / 0.99the condition should be stated[1]
  4. = 47/99[1]

47/99

Q36[6 marks]
A ball is dropped from a height of 8 m. After each bounce it rises to three quarters of its previous height.
  1. Find the height it reaches after the fourth bounce.
  2. Find the total distance travelled before it comes to rest.
  3. Explain why the total distance is finite even though the ball bounces infinitely often.
Mark scheme
  1. Heights form a GP with a = 8 and r = 0.75; after the 4th bounce the height is 8(0.75)⁴the drop height is the term before the first bounce[1]
  2. = 2.53 m (3 s.f.)[1]
  3. Total distance = the initial 8 m drop + twice each subsequent rise, since each bounce goes up and comes back downthe factor of 2 is the mark most often missed[1]
  4. Rises form a GP with first term 8(0.75) = 6 and r = 0.75, so their sum is 6/(1 − 0.75) = 24[1]
  5. Total = 8 + 2(24) = 56 m[1]
  6. Because |r| < 1, the heights shrink geometrically towards zero fast enough for the infinite sum to converge to a finite limitthe explanation must refer to |r| < 1[1]

(a) 2.53 m (b) 56 m (c) the heights form a convergent GP since |r| < 1

Q37[2 marks]
What does a horizontal section represent on (i) a distance–time graph and (ii) a speed–time graph?
Answer

(i) The object is stationary — its distance from the start is not changing. (ii) The object is moving at a constant speed — the speed is not changing, but it is still moving.

Q38[2 marks]
What does the area under a speed–time graph represent, and why?
Answer

The distance travelled. Speed multiplied by time gives distance — metres per second times seconds gives metres — so the area, which is a product of the two axes, has the units of distance.

Q39[2 marks]
A taxi fare graph crosses the vertical axis at Rs 150. Explain what this means.
Answer

It is a fixed charge of Rs 150 applied before any distance is travelled — a flag-fall or booking fee. The gradient of the line then gives the additional cost per kilometre.

Q40[4 marks]
A cyclist travels 6 km in 20 minutes, rests for 10 minutes, then returns to the start in 30 minutes. Describe the distance–time graph and calculate the speed of each moving stage in km/h.
Mark scheme
  1. A straight line rising from (0, 0) to (20, 6)time in minutes on the horizontal axis[1]
  2. A horizontal section from (20, 6) to (30, 6) for the restdistance unchanged means stationary[1]
  3. Outward speed = 6 km ÷ (1/3) h = 18 km/h20 minutes is one third of an hour[1]
  4. A line falling from (30, 6) to (60, 0); return speed = 6 ÷ 0.5 = 12 km/hthe downward slope means returning towards the start[1]

Rise, horizontal, then fall to zero. Out at 18 km/h, back at 12 km/h.

Q41[4 marks]
A train accelerates uniformly from rest to 30 m/s in 15 s, travels at that speed for 45 s, then decelerates uniformly to rest in 30 s. Find the total distance.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises that the distance is the area under the speed–time graphthis is the mark most often missed[1]
  2. Acceleration triangle: ½ × 15 × 30 = 225 m[1]
  3. Constant rectangle: 45 × 30 = 1350 m[1]
  4. Deceleration triangle: ½ × 30 × 30 = 450 m; total = 2025 m[1]

2025 m

Q42[6 marks]
A tank is filled with water at a constant rate. The tank is a cylinder for its lower half and then widens into a cone shape above.
  1. Sketch the graph of water depth against time, describing its shape.
  2. Explain why the shape changes partway up.
  3. A second tank narrows towards the top. Describe how its graph would differ.
Mark scheme
  1. The first part is a straight line rising steadilyconstant cross-section means constant rate of rise[1]
  2. The second part is a curve that becomes progressively shallowerstill rising, but more slowly[1]
  3. The rate of water entering is constant, so equal volumes arrive in equal times[1]
  4. As the tank widens, that same volume spreads over a larger area and so raises the level by less — the depth increases more slowlythe explanation must connect area to rate of rise[1]
  5. A narrowing tank gives the opposite: the curve becomes progressively STEEPER[1]
  6. because the same volume is confined to a smaller area and therefore raises the level more[1]

(a) straight, then a flattening curve (b) a wider section spreads the same volume over more area (c) a narrowing tank steepens instead

Q43[2 marks]
State the gradient and the y-intercept of the line 2y = 6x − 8.
Answer

Divide by 2 to reach y = 3x − 4. Gradient 3, y-intercept −4.

Q44[2 marks]
How can the roots of y = x² − 5x + 6 be found from its graph?
Answer

The roots are the x-coordinates of the points where the curve crosses the x-axis, because y = 0 at every point on that axis. Here they are x = 2 and x = 3.

Q45[2 marks]
Two simultaneous linear equations are graphed and the lines turn out to be parallel. What does this tell you?
Answer

The lines never intersect, so the pair of equations has no solution. Algebraically this shows up as a contradiction such as 0 = 5 during elimination.

Q46[4 marks]
Complete a table of values for y = x² − 2x − 3 for x = −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, and state the coordinates of the turning point and the roots.
Mark scheme
  1. y values: 5, 0, −3, −4, −3, 0, 5one wrong value is tolerated; two is not[1]
  2. Roots at x = −1 and x = 3the two x values where y = 0[1]
  3. Turning point at x = 1 by symmetry, midway between the roots[1]
  4. Minimum point (1, −4); it is a minimum because the coefficient of x² is positivethe reason is required for the mark[1]

Roots at x = −1 and x = 3; minimum at (1, −4).

Q47[4 marks]
Solve graphically: y = x + 2 and y = −2x + 8.
Mark scheme
  1. First line through (0, 2) with gradient 1two correct points are enough to draw a line[1]
  2. Second line through (0, 8) with gradient −2[1]
  3. Lines cross at (2, 4)[1]
  4. Check by substitution: 4 = 2 + 2 ✓ and 4 = −4 + 8 ✓a substitution check is expected in a graphical solution[1]

x = 2, y = 4

Q48[6 marks]
The graph of y = x³ − 3x is to be drawn for −2 ≤ x ≤ 2.
  1. Complete the table of values for x = −2, −1, 0, 1, 2.
  2. Describe the shape of the graph and state the number of times it crosses the x-axis.
  3. Explain how the graph could be used to solve x³ − 3x = 1.
Mark scheme
  1. y values: −2, 2, 0, −2, 2e.g. at x = −1: (−1)³ − 3(−1) = −1 + 3 = 2[1]
  2. A cubic curve rising, turning down, then rising againtwo turning points[1]
  3. The ends go in opposite directions because the highest power is odd[1]
  4. It crosses the x-axis three timesat x = 0, √3 and −√3[1]
  5. Draw the horizontal line y = 1 on the same axesthe left-hand side is already the drawn curve[1]
  6. The x-coordinates of the three intersections are the solutionsthe number of solutions must be stated as three[1]

(a) −2, 2, 0, −2, 2 (b) a cubic with two turning points, crossing the x-axis three times (c) draw y = 1 and read the x values where it meets the curve

Q49[2 marks]
State the domain of f(x) = 1 / (x² − 9).
Answer

The denominator is zero when x² = 9, that is at x = 3 and x = −3. The domain is therefore all real numbers except 3 and −3.

Q50[2 marks]
Explain why f(x) = x² defined on all of ℝ has no inverse function.
Answer

It is not one-one: f(3) = f(−3) = 9, so the output 9 does not identify a unique input. An inverse would have to assign two values to 9, which no function may do. Restricting the domain to x ≥ 0 makes it one-one and the inverse √x then exists.

Q51[2 marks]
State the range of f(x) = x² + 3.
Answer

Since x² ≥ 0 for every real x, the smallest value of f is 3, reached at x = 0. The range is f(x) ≥ 3.

Q52[4 marks]
Given f(x) = 2x + 1 and g(x) = x² − 3, find fg(x), gf(x) and the value of x for which fg(x) = gf(x).
Mark scheme
  1. fg(x) = f(x² − 3) = 2(x² − 3) + 1 = 2x² − 5substitute the whole of g into f[1]
  2. gf(x) = g(2x + 1) = (2x + 1)² − 3 = 4x² + 4x − 2expand the bracket fully[1]
  3. Set them equal: 2x² − 5 = 4x² + 4x − 2, so 2x² + 4x + 3 = 0[1]
  4. Discriminant = 16 − 24 = −8 < 0, so there is no real value of x for which they are equala reasoned "no solution" is the answer, not an omission[1]

fg(x) = 2x² − 5; gf(x) = 4x² + 4x − 2; no real x makes them equal

Q53[4 marks]
The function f(x) = (2x − 3)/(x + 1) is defined for x ≠ −1. Find f⁻¹(x).
Mark scheme
  1. Let y = (2x − 3)/(x + 1) and multiply up: y(x + 1) = 2x − 3clear the fraction before rearranging[1]
  2. xy + y = 2x − 3, so xy − 2x = −3 − ygather every term containing x on one side[1]
  3. x(y − 2) = −(3 + y), so x = −(y + 3)/(y − 2)factorising out x is the key step[1]
  4. f⁻¹(x) = −(x + 3)/(x − 2), or equivalently (x + 3)/(2 − x)either form accepted[1]

f⁻¹(x) = (x + 3)/(2 − x), x ≠ 2

Q54[6 marks]
The function f is defined by f(x) = √(x − 4).
  1. State the domain and the range of f.
  2. Find f⁻¹(x) and state its domain.
  3. Explain the relationship between the domain and range of f and those of f⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Need x − 4 ≥ 0, so the domain is x ≥ 4a square root requires a non-negative argument[1]
  2. A square root is never negative, so the range is f(x) ≥ 0[1]
  3. y = √(x − 4) gives y² = x − 4, so x = y² + 4squaring is safe here because y ≥ 0[1]
  4. f⁻¹(x) = x² + 4[1]
  5. Domain of f⁻¹ is x ≥ 0not all of ℝ — it must match the range of f[1]
  6. The domain of f⁻¹ is the range of f, and the range of f⁻¹ is the domain of f — the inverse swaps the two sets[1]

(a) domain x ≥ 4, range f(x) ≥ 0 (b) f⁻¹(x) = x² + 4 with domain x ≥ 0 (c) inverting swaps domain and range

03

Coordinate geometry

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The distance between (0, 0) and (5, 12) is:

  1. A17
  2. B13
  3. C7
  4. D√17
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 13

√(25 + 144) = √169 = 13. This is the 5–12–13 triple, which examiners use often — recognising it saves time.

Q2The midpoint of (−3, 7) and (5, −1) is:

  1. A(1, 3)
  2. B(2, 6)
  3. C(4, 4)
  4. D(1, 4)
Show answer

Correct answer: A — (1, 3)

x: (−3 + 5)/2 = 1. y: (7 + (−1))/2 = 3. Averaging each coordinate separately gives (1, 3).

Q3A line has gradient −2. A line perpendicular to it has gradient:

  1. A2
  2. B−1/2
  3. C1/2
  4. D−2
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/2

The negative reciprocal of −2 is +1/2, and (−2)(1/2) = −1 as required. Option B keeps the negative sign that should have been cancelled.

Q4Which pair of points determines a line with undefined gradient?

  1. A(2, 3) and (5, 3)
  2. B(2, 3) and (2, 9)
  3. C(0, 0) and (1, 1)
  4. D(−1, 4) and (3, 4)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (2, 3) and (2, 9)

Both points have x = 2, so the run is zero and the line is vertical. Options A and D are horizontal, with gradient 0.

Q5The points (1, 2), (2, 4) and (4, 8) are:

  1. Athe vertices of a triangle
  2. Bcollinear
  3. Cperpendicular
  4. Da right-angled triangle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — collinear

Gradient from the first to the second is 2, and from the second to the third is (8 − 4)/(4 − 2) = 2. Equal gradients through a shared point means all three lie on the line y = 2x.

Q6The gradient of the line 2x − 5y + 10 = 0 is:

  1. A2/5
  2. B−2/5
  3. C5/2
  4. D−5/2
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 2/5

Rearranged: 5y = 2x + 10, so y = (2/5)x + 2. Using the shortcut −a/b gives −2/(−5) = 2/5, the same answer.

Q7The line through (2, 5) with gradient 3 has equation:

  1. Ay = 3x + 5
  2. By = 3x − 1
  3. Cy = 3x + 2
  4. Dy − 5 = 3x
Show answer

Correct answer: B — y = 3x − 1

y − 5 = 3(x − 2) gives y = 3x − 6 + 5 = 3x − 1. Option A wrongly treats the given y-coordinate as the intercept.

Q8In which quadrant does the point (5, −2) lie?

  1. AFirst
  2. BSecond
  3. CThird
  4. DFourth
Show answer

Correct answer: D — Fourth

Positive x with negative y puts the point below the axis on the right, which is the fourth quadrant. Quadrants are numbered anticlockwise starting from the top right.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Find the distance between A(−2, 3) and B(4, −5).
Answer

|AB| = √[(4 −(−2))² + (−5 − 3)²] = √(36 + 64) = √100 = 10 units.

Q2[2 marks]
The gradient of a line is 3/4. State the gradient of any line perpendicular to it.
Answer

The negative reciprocal: m = −4/3, since (3/4) × (−4/3) = −1.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain the difference between a line of gradient 0 and a line whose gradient is undefined.
Answer

A gradient of 0 means the rise is zero, so the line is horizontal. An undefined gradient means the run is zero, so the formula divides by zero and the line is vertical.

Q4[4 marks]
The midpoint of the segment joining A(3, k) and B(−1, 8) is M(1, 5). Find k, and hence the length of AB.
Mark scheme
  1. The y-coordinate of M gives (k + 8)/2 = 5the x-coordinates already check out: (3 + (−1))/2 = 1 ✓[1]
  2. k + 8 = 10, so k = 2[1]
  3. Uses the distance formula with A(3, 2) and B(−1, 8)[1]
  4. |AB| = √[(−1 − 3)² + (8 − 2)²] = √(16 + 36) = √52 = 2√13simplified surd required[1]

k = 2; |AB| = 2√13 ≈ 7.21 units

Q5[4 marks]
Show that the points P(1, 1), Q(3, 5) and R(6, 11) are collinear.
Mark scheme
  1. Gradient of PQ = (5 − 1)/(3 − 1) = 4/2 = 2[1]
  2. Gradient of QR = (11 − 5)/(6 − 3) = 6/3 = 2[1]
  3. The two gradients are equal[1]
  4. PQ and QR share the point Q, so the three points lie on one straight line and are collinearthe shared point must be mentioned — equal gradients alone only prove the segments are parallel[1]

Gradient PQ = gradient QR = 2, and they share Q, so P, Q and R are collinear.

Q6[6 marks]
A(0, 0), B(6, 0), C(8, 4) and D(2, 4) are the vertices of a quadrilateral.
  1. Find the gradients of AB, BC, CD and DA.
  2. What kind of quadrilateral is ABCD? Justify your answer.
  3. Find the length of the diagonal AC.
Mark scheme
  1. AB: (0 − 0)/(6 − 0) = 0; CD: (4 − 4)/(2 − 8) = 0both horizontal[1]
  2. BC: (4 − 0)/(8 − 6) = 2; DA: (0 − 4)/(0 − 2) = 2[1]
  3. AB is parallel to CD and BC is parallel to DA, since each pair has equal gradients[1]
  4. Both pairs of opposite sides are parallel, so ABCD is a parallelogramadjacent gradients 0 and 2 do not multiply to −1, so it is not a rectangle[1]
  5. Uses the distance formula on A(0,0) and C(8,4)[1]
  6. |AC| = √(64 + 16) = √80 = 4√5[1]

(a) 0, 2, 0, 2 (b) a parallelogram — both pairs of opposite sides are parallel (c) 4√5 ≈ 8.94 units

04

Geometry

Multiple choice · 48

Q1The interior angles of a hexagon add to:

  1. A1080°
  2. B720°
  3. C360°
  4. D900°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 720°

(6 − 2) × 180 = 4 × 180 = 720°. Using 6 × 180 instead gives 1080 and is the standard error.

Q2Each exterior angle of a regular pentagon is:

  1. A108°
  2. B72°
  3. C60°
  4. D36°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 72°

360 ÷ 5 = 72°. The interior angle is then 180 − 72 = 108°.

Q3Co-interior angles between parallel lines:

  1. Aare equal
  2. Badd to 180°
  3. Cadd to 360°
  4. Dare vertically opposite
Show answer

Correct answer: B — add to 180°

They are supplementary. Corresponding and alternate angles are the two that are equal.

Q4A regular polygon has an interior angle of 144°. The number of sides is:

  1. A8
  2. B10
  3. C12
  4. D9
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10

The exterior angle is 180 − 144 = 36°, and 360 ÷ 36 = 10.

Q5The exterior angles of a 100-sided polygon add to:

  1. A36 000°
  2. B17 640°
  3. C360°
  4. D18 000°
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 360°

The exterior sum is 360° for every polygon regardless of the number of sides — walking round it is always one full turn.

Q6In a triangle, an exterior angle equals:

  1. Athe adjacent interior angle
  2. Bthe sum of the two opposite interior angles
  3. C180°
  4. Dhalf the interior sum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the sum of the two opposite interior angles

It is supplementary to its own interior angle, and those three interior angles total 180° — subtracting gives the result.

Q7Which regular polygons tile a plane on their own?

  1. Apentagons only
  2. Btriangles, squares and hexagons
  3. Cany regular polygon
  4. Doctagons only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — triangles, squares and hexagons

Their interior angles of 60°, 90° and 120° all divide exactly into 360°. Pentagons at 108° do not.

Q8A quadrilateral with exactly one pair of parallel sides is a:

  1. Aparallelogram
  2. Btrapezium
  3. Crhombus
  4. Dkite
Show answer

Correct answer: B — trapezium

A parallelogram has two pairs. The word "exactly" is what distinguishes the trapezium.

Q9The locus of points 3 cm from a fixed point is:

  1. Aa line
  2. Ba circle of radius 3 cm
  3. Ctwo parallel lines
  4. Da single point
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a circle of radius 3 cm

Every point exactly 3 cm from the fixed point lies on a circle of that radius. The interior is closer than 3 cm and the exterior further, so only the circle itself satisfies "exactly 3 cm".

Q10The locus of points equidistant from two parallel lines is:

  1. Aa circle
  2. Ba third parallel line midway between them
  3. Ca perpendicular line
  4. Dthe angle bisector
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a third parallel line midway between them

The points equally far from both lines form a line parallel to each and exactly halfway between. There is no angle to bisect, because parallel lines never meet.

Q11The locus of points 2 cm from a given straight line is:

  1. Aone parallel line
  2. Btwo parallel lines
  3. Ca circle of radius 2 cm
  4. Da perpendicular bisector
Show answer

Correct answer: B — two parallel lines

There is a line 2 cm above and another 2 cm below. Drawing only one of them is the standard error in this chapter.

Q12To construct an angle bisector you need:

  1. Aa protractor
  2. Bcompasses and a straight edge
  3. Ca set square
  4. Da ruler with millimetre markings
Show answer

Correct answer: B — compasses and a straight edge

Constructions are done with compasses and a straight edge alone. The arcs are what earn the marks; a protractor answer earns none.

Q13The centre of the circle passing through all three vertices of a triangle is found by:

  1. Abisecting the angles
  2. Bdrawing the medians
  3. Cthe perpendicular bisectors of the sides
  4. Djoining the midpoints
Show answer

Correct answer: C — the perpendicular bisectors of the sides

A point equidistant from two vertices lies on the perpendicular bisector of the side joining them. Where two such bisectors meet is equidistant from all three, so it is the circumcentre.

Q14The centre of the circle touching all three sides of a triangle is found by:

  1. Athe angle bisectors
  2. Bthe perpendicular bisectors
  3. Cthe altitudes
  4. Dthe medians
Show answer

Correct answer: A — the angle bisectors

A point equidistant from two sides lies on the bisector of the angle between them. The intersection of the angle bisectors is the incentre, equidistant from all three sides.

Q15A point must be nearer to A than to B. The region is:

  1. Athe whole plane
  2. Bthe side of AB's perpendicular bisector containing A
  3. Ca circle centred on A
  4. Dthe segment AB
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the side of AB's perpendicular bisector containing A

The perpendicular bisector separates the points nearer to A from those nearer to B. Everything on A's side qualifies, and the bisector itself is the boundary where the distances are equal.

Q16A goat is tied by a 4 m rope to a corner of a square shed. The region it can graze outside the shed is:

  1. Aa full circle of radius 4 m
  2. Bthree-quarters of a circle of radius 4 m
  3. Ca semicircle of radius 4 m
  4. Da square of side 4 m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — three-quarters of a circle of radius 4 m

The shed blocks the quarter-turn occupied by its own corner, so the goat sweeps 270° of a circle of radius 4 m. Corner-of-a-building questions are the standard application of this locus.

Q17Two similar triangles have sides in the ratio 2 : 5. Their areas are in the ratio:

  1. A2 : 5
  2. B4 : 25
  3. C8 : 125
  4. D2 : 25
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4 : 25

Areas scale by k², so the ratio is 2² : 5² = 4 : 25. Option C is the volume ratio, which would apply to similar solids.

Q18Which pair of figures must be similar?

  1. AAny two rectangles
  2. BAny two isosceles triangles
  3. CAny two circles
  4. DAny two rhombuses
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Any two circles

A circle is fixed by one length, its radius, so all circles are enlargements of one another. The other three families each need a second independent measurement.

Q19In triangle ABC, DE ∥ BC with AD = 3, DB = 6, AE = 4. Then EC is:

  1. A2
  2. B8
  3. C12
  4. D6
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 8

AD/DB = AE/EC gives 3/6 = 4/EC, so 3 × EC = 24 and EC = 8. Option A comes from inverting the ratio.

Q20Two similar cones have volumes 27 cm³ and 64 cm³. The ratio of their heights is:

  1. A27 : 64
  2. B3 : 4
  3. C9 : 16
  4. D√27 : √64
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3 : 4

Volumes scale by k³, so take cube roots: ∛27 : ∛64 = 3 : 4. Option C would be the ratio of surface areas.

Q21A photograph 8 cm by 12 cm is enlarged so its longer side becomes 30 cm. The shorter side becomes:

  1. A20 cm
  2. B24 cm
  3. C18 cm
  4. D26 cm
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 20 cm

k = 30/12 = 2.5, so the shorter side becomes 8 × 2.5 = 20 cm. Both sides must be multiplied by the same factor or the shape changes.

Q22If all lengths of a solid are halved, its volume becomes:

  1. Ahalf
  2. Ba quarter
  3. Can eighth
  4. Da sixteenth
Show answer

Correct answer: C — an eighth

k = 1/2, so the volume factor is k³ = 1/8. This is why halving the size of a container reduces its capacity so dramatically.

Q23Congruent figures are:

  1. Anever similar
  2. Balways similar
  3. Csimilar only if they are triangles
  4. Dsimilar only if k > 1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — always similar

Congruence is similarity with scale factor 1, so congruent figures satisfy the definition of similarity exactly. The converse fails: similar figures need not be congruent.

Q24Triangle ABC ~ triangle DEF with AB = 8, DE = 12 and BC = 10. Then EF is:

  1. A6
  2. B15
  3. C14
  4. D13.3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 15

k = DE/AB = 12/8 = 1.5, and EF corresponds to BC, so EF = 10 × 1.5 = 15. Reading the letter order correctly is what identifies EF as the partner of BC.

Q25Which transformation changes the size of a shape?

  1. ATranslation
  2. BReflection
  3. CRotation
  4. DEnlargement
Show answer

Correct answer: D — Enlargement

The other three are congruent transformations, producing an image identical in size and shape.

Q26To describe a reflection fully you must give:

  1. Athe direction
  2. Bthe equation of the mirror line
  3. Cthe scale factor
  4. Dthe centre
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the equation of the mirror line

The equation identifies exactly where the mirror is. "A vertical line" leaves infinitely many possibilities.

Q27A shape is enlarged by scale factor 4. Its area is multiplied by:

  1. A4
  2. B8
  3. C16
  4. D64
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 16

Areas scale by k² = 16. Option D would be the volume factor for a solid.

Q28An enlargement with scale factor −2:

  1. Ais impossible
  2. Bputs the image on the opposite side of the centre, twice the size
  3. Cshrinks the shape
  4. Dis the same as a reflection
Show answer

Correct answer: B — puts the image on the opposite side of the centre, twice the size

The negative reverses the direction from the centre and the 2 doubles the distance, so the image is inverted and twice as large.

Q29A rectangle has how many lines of symmetry?

  1. A4
  2. B2
  3. C1
  4. D0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2

Two — through the midpoints of each pair of opposite sides. The diagonals are not lines of symmetry unless it is a square.

Q30Rotational symmetry of order 1 means:

  1. Aone line of symmetry
  2. Bthe shape only fits onto itself after a full turn
  3. Cno symmetry of any kind
  4. Dthe shape is a circle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the shape only fits onto itself after a full turn

Every shape returns to itself after 360°, so order 1 is the minimum and means effectively no rotational symmetry.

Q31The point (3, 5) is reflected in the x-axis. Its image is:

  1. A(−3, 5)
  2. B(3, −5)
  3. C(−3, −5)
  4. D(5, 3)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (3, −5)

Reflecting in the x-axis changes the sign of the y-coordinate and leaves x alone. Option A would be reflection in the y-axis.

Q32A translation:

  1. Acan change orientation
  2. Bnever changes orientation
  3. Calways changes size
  4. Drequires a centre
Show answer

Correct answer: B — never changes orientation

Every point moves the same distance in the same direction, so the shape cannot turn or flip. If the image is inverted, it is not a translation.

Q33A tangent meets a radius at the point of contact at:

  1. A45°
  2. B60°
  3. C90°
  4. Da variable angle
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 90°

The tangent is always perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact — the shortest distance from the centre to the tangent line is along that radius.

Q34An arc subtends 80° at the centre. The angle it subtends at the circumference is:

  1. A40°
  2. B80°
  3. C160°
  4. D100°
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 40°

The angle at the circumference is half the angle at the centre: 80 ÷ 2 = 40°.

Q35In a cyclic quadrilateral, one angle is 115°. Its opposite angle is:

  1. A115°
  2. B65°
  3. C245°
  4. D45°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 65°

Opposite angles are supplementary: 180 − 115 = 65°.

Q36PQ is a diameter and R is on the circle. Angle PRQ equals:

  1. A45°
  2. B60°
  3. C90°
  4. D180°
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 90°

The angle in a semicircle is a right angle, wherever R is placed on the arc. This is the angle-at-the-centre theorem applied to a straight 180°.

Q37Two tangents drawn from a point 13 cm from the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm each have length:

  1. A8 cm
  2. B12 cm
  3. C18 cm
  4. D√194 cm
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 12 cm

The radius, the tangent and the line to the centre form a right-angled triangle with the 13 cm line as hypotenuse: √(169 − 25) = √144 = 12 cm.

Q38The angle between a tangent and a chord is 47°. The angle in the alternate segment is:

  1. A43°
  2. B47°
  3. C94°
  4. D133°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 47°

The alternate segment theorem makes them equal. Option A is the complement, which is what the tangent–radius right angle would give — a different quantity.

Q39Angles APB and AQB are subtended by the same chord AB on the same side. They are:

  1. Asupplementary
  2. Bequal
  3. Ccomplementary
  4. Din the ratio 2 : 1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — equal

Both are half the same angle at the centre, so they are equal. They would be supplementary only if P and Q were on opposite arcs, making APBQ cyclic.

Q40The exterior angle of a cyclic quadrilateral is equal to:

  1. Athe adjacent interior angle
  2. Bthe interior opposite angle
  3. Chalf the central angle
  4. D90°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the interior opposite angle

The exterior angle and the adjacent interior angle sum to 180°, and so do the two opposite interior angles. Comparing the two gives the result directly.

Q41The perpendicular from the centre of a circle to a chord:

  1. Abisects the chord
  2. Bis equal to the radius
  3. Cbisects the arc angle only
  4. Dis parallel to the tangent
Show answer

Correct answer: A — bisects the chord

It creates two congruent right-angled triangles with equal hypotenuses (radii), so the two halves of the chord must be equal.

Q42A chord 10 cm long lies 12 cm from the centre. The radius is:

  1. A13 cm
  2. B22 cm
  3. C√244 cm
  4. D17 cm
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 13 cm

r² = 12² + 5² = 144 + 25 = 169, so r = 13 cm. Half the chord, not the whole chord, goes into Pythagoras.

Q43A sector is bounded by:

  1. Aa chord and an arc
  2. Btwo chords
  3. Ctwo radii and an arc
  4. Dtwo tangents
Show answer

Correct answer: C — two radii and an arc

Two radii and the arc between them make the pie-slice sector. A chord and an arc bound a segment instead.

Q44Which chord of a circle is nearest to the centre?

  1. Athe shortest one
  2. Bthe longest one
  3. Call are equidistant
  4. Dit depends on the arc
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the longest one

r² = d² + (c/2)² with r fixed: as c increases d must decrease. The diameter, the longest chord, is at distance zero.

Q45The arc length of a 45° sector in a circle of radius 8 cm (π = 3.14) is:

  1. A6.28 cm
  2. B12.56 cm
  3. C3.14 cm
  4. D50.24 cm
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 6.28 cm

(45/360) × 2 × 3.14 × 8 = (1/8) × 50.24 = 6.28 cm. Option D is the full circumference.

Q46Two chords of the same circle are equidistant from the centre. They are:

  1. Aperpendicular
  2. Bequal in length
  3. Cparallel
  4. Ddiameters
Show answer

Correct answer: B — equal in length

With r and d both fixed, r² = d² + (c/2)² leaves only one possible value for c. They need not be parallel or perpendicular.

Q47The area of a segment equals:

  1. Asector + triangle
  2. Bsector − triangle
  3. Ctriangle − sector
  4. Dhalf the sector
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sector − triangle

The triangle formed by the two radii and the chord sits inside the sector; removing it leaves exactly the segment.

Q48In a circle of radius 5 cm, a chord subtends 90° at the centre. Its length is:

  1. A5 cm
  2. B10 cm
  3. C5√2 cm
  4. D2.5 cm
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5√2 cm

The triangle is right-angled with both legs equal to the radius, so the chord is the hypotenuse: √(25 + 25) = 5√2 ≈ 7.07 cm.

Exam-style questions · 36

Q1[2 marks]
Find the sum of the interior angles of a decagon.
Answer

A decagon has 10 sides, so the sum is (10 − 2) × 180 = 8 × 180 = 1440°.

Q2[2 marks]
Each exterior angle of a regular polygon is 30°. How many sides does it have?
Answer

The exterior angles total 360°, so n = 360 ÷ 30 = 12 sides.

Q3[2 marks]
Two parallel lines are cut by a transversal. One co-interior angle is 115°. Find the other, giving a reason.
Answer

180 − 115 = 65°, because co-interior angles add to 180°.

Q4[4 marks]
A regular polygon has interior angles of 162°. Find the number of sides and the sum of its interior angles.
Mark scheme
  1. Exterior angle = 180 − 162 = 18°interior and exterior lie on a straight line[1]
  2. n = 360 ÷ 18 = 20 sidesthe exterior angles total 360°[1]
  3. Interior sum = (20 − 2) × 180[1]
  4. = 3240°; check 3240 ÷ 20 = 162[1]

20 sides; interior angles total 3240°

Q5[4 marks]
In triangle ABC, angle A = 3x, angle B = 2x + 10 and angle C = x + 50. Find x and the largest angle.
Mark scheme
  1. Angles in a triangle sum to 180°: 3x + (2x + 10) + (x + 50) = 180the reason should be stated[1]
  2. 6x + 60 = 180collecting terms[1]
  3. 6x = 120, so x = 20[1]
  4. Angles are 60°, 50° and 70°, so the largest is 70°; check they total 180 ✓the largest is C, not A — worth checking rather than assuming[1]

x = 20; the largest angle is 70°

Q6[6 marks]
A tiling pattern is made from regular polygons meeting at a point with no gaps.
  1. Explain why regular pentagons cannot tile a plane on their own.
  2. Show that regular hexagons can.
  3. Determine whether squares and regular octagons can be combined around a point.
Mark scheme
  1. A regular pentagon has interior angle (5 − 2) × 180 ÷ 5 = 108°[1]
  2. 360 ÷ 108 = 3.33, not a whole number, so pentagons cannot fit round a point without a gap or an overlapthe whole-number requirement is the key idea[1]
  3. A regular hexagon has interior angle (6 − 2) × 180 ÷ 6 = 120°[1]
  4. 360 ÷ 120 = 3 exactly, so three hexagons meet at each point — which is why honeycomb is hexagonal[1]
  5. A regular octagon has interior angle (8 − 2) × 180 ÷ 8 = 135°[1]
  6. Two octagons and one square give 135 + 135 + 90 = 360° exactly, so yes — this is a common floor tiling[1]

(a) 360 ÷ 108 is not a whole number (b) 120° × 3 = 360° (c) yes — two octagons and a square give exactly 360°

Q7[2 marks]
Define a locus and give one everyday example.
Answer

A locus is the set of all points that satisfy a given condition. Example: the locus of points 5 m from a fixed post is a circle of radius 5 m centred on the post — the path traced by a goat at the end of a taut 5 m rope.

Q8[2 marks]
State the locus of points equidistant from two fixed points A and B, and say how it is constructed.
Answer

The perpendicular bisector of AB. Construct it by drawing arcs of equal radius (greater than half AB) from A and from B, above and below the line, and joining the two intersections.

Q9[2 marks]
Why must construction arcs be left visible in a geometry answer?
Answer

The marks in a construction question are awarded for the method, which is shown by the arcs. A line drawn accurately by measurement, with no arcs, earns no marks even if it is in exactly the right place.

Q10[4 marks]
Construct triangle ABC in which AB = 7 cm, BC = 5 cm and AC = 6 cm. Then construct the perpendicular bisector of AB.
Mark scheme
  1. Draws AB = 7 cm accurately as the basestart with the longest side; it makes the arcs easier to cross[1]
  2. Arc of radius 6 cm from A and arc of radius 5 cm from B, crossing at Cboth arcs must be visible[1]
  3. Completes triangle ABC with straight lineswithin 2 mm tolerance[1]
  4. Perpendicular bisector of AB drawn with arcs from A and from B of equal radiusthe bisector must pass through the midpoint at right angles[1]

Triangle constructed by SSS, with the bisector of AB drawn using equal arcs from A and B.

Q11[4 marks]
Two towns P and Q are 8 km apart. A radio mast is to be built less than 6 km from P and nearer to Q than to P. Describe and construct the region in which it can be built.
Mark scheme
  1. Circle centred P with radius 6 km, and the required region is inside itscale drawing, e.g. 1 cm to 1 km[1]
  2. Perpendicular bisector of PQ constructed with arcs[1]
  3. Identifies the side of the bisector containing Q as "nearer to Q"[1]
  4. Shades the overlap: inside the circle and on Q's side of the bisectorshading the union instead of the intersection loses this mark[1]

The region inside the 6 km circle about P and on Q's side of the perpendicular bisector of PQ.

Q12[6 marks]
A rectangular garden ABCD has AB = 10 m and BC = 6 m. A tree is to be planted so that it is at least 3 m from the wall AB and equidistant from the corners A and D.
  1. Describe the locus of points at least 3 m from AB.
  2. Describe the locus of points equidistant from A and D.
  3. Explain how the two loci combine to locate the possible positions of the tree.
Mark scheme
  1. A line parallel to AB at a distance of 3 m from itinside the garden only, since the tree must be in the garden[1]
  2. The required region is on the far side of that line from AB"at least" makes this a region, not just a line[1]
  3. The perpendicular bisector of AD[1]
  4. Which, since AD is a side of the rectangle, runs parallel to AB through the midpoint of AD[1]
  5. The tree lies where the bisector meets the allowed region[1]
  6. That is the part of the perpendicular bisector of AD that is 3 m or more from AB, i.e. a segment of it inside the gardenaccept a clearly drawn and labelled answer[1]

(a) a parallel line 3 m from AB, with the region beyond it (b) the perpendicular bisector of AD (c) the part of the bisector lying at least 3 m from AB

Q13[2 marks]
Distinguish between congruent and similar figures.
Answer

Congruent figures have the same shape and the same size, so corresponding sides are equal. Similar figures have the same shape only; corresponding sides are in a constant ratio k, and congruence is the case k = 1.

Q14[2 marks]
Two similar triangles have areas in the ratio 9 : 25. Find the ratio of their corresponding sides.
Answer

Areas scale by k², so k² = 9/25 and k = 3/5. The sides are in the ratio 3 : 5.

Q15[2 marks]
Explain why all circles are similar but not all rectangles are.
Answer

A circle is determined completely by its radius, so any circle is an enlargement of any other. A rectangle needs two independent lengths, so two rectangles are similar only if their length-to-width ratios match — a 2 × 5 and a 3 × 5 rectangle are not similar.

Q16[4 marks]
In triangle ABC, DE is parallel to BC with D on AB and E on AC. AD = 4 cm, DB = 6 cm and AE = 5 cm. Find EC and the ratio DE : BC.
Mark scheme
  1. By the intercept theorem AD/DB = AE/EC, so 4/6 = 5/ECpieces compared with pieces[1]
  2. 4 × EC = 30, so EC = 7.5 cm[1]
  3. For the ratio of DE to BC use whole sides: AD/AB = 4/10 = 2/5AB = AD + DB = 10 cm — this is the step most often skipped[1]
  4. DE : BC = 2 : 5accept 0.4[1]

EC = 7.5 cm; DE : BC = 2 : 5

Q17[4 marks]
A model aeroplane is built to a scale of 1 : 50. The model has a wing area of 120 cm² and a volume of 400 cm³.
  1. Find the wing area of the real aeroplane in cm².
  2. Find the volume of the real aeroplane in cm³.
Mark scheme
  1. Area scale factor = 50² = 2500areas scale by the square of the length ratio[1]
  2. Real wing area = 120 × 2500 = 300 000 cm²accept 30 m²[1]
  3. Volume scale factor = 50³ = 125 000[1]
  4. Real volume = 400 × 125 000 = 5 × 10⁷ cm³accept 50 000 000 cm³ or 50 m³[1]

(a) 300 000 cm² (b) 5 × 10⁷ cm³

Q18[6 marks]
Two similar cylindrical water tanks have heights 1.2 m and 1.8 m.
  1. Find the scale factor from the smaller tank to the larger.
  2. The smaller tank has a curved surface area of 4.8 m². Find the curved surface area of the larger.
  3. The larger tank holds 2 430 litres. Find the capacity of the smaller.
Mark scheme
  1. k = 1.8 / 1.2 = 1.5from smaller to larger, so k > 1[1]
  2. Area factor = k² = 2.25[1]
  3. Larger surface area = 4.8 × 2.25 = 10.8 m²[1]
  4. Volume factor = k³ = 3.375[1]
  5. Going from larger to smaller, divide: 2430 / 3.375direction of the scale factor matters here[1]
  6. = 720 litres[1]

(a) k = 1.5 (b) 10.8 m² (c) 720 litres

Q19[2 marks]
State the three pieces of information needed to describe a rotation fully.
Answer

The angle of rotation, the direction (clockwise or anticlockwise), and the centre of rotation.

Q20[2 marks]
A shape is enlarged by scale factor 3. What happens to its area?
Answer

The area is multiplied by 3² = 9, since area involves two lengths and each has been tripled.

Q21[2 marks]
How many lines of symmetry does a parallelogram have, and what is its rotational symmetry order?
Answer

No lines of symmetry, but rotational symmetry of order 2 — a half turn maps it onto itself.

Q22[4 marks]
Triangle P has vertices (2,1), (5,1), (2,3). It is enlarged by scale factor 2, centre (0,0), to give triangle Q.
  1. Write down the coordinates of Q.
  2. State the ratio of the area of Q to the area of P.
Mark scheme
  1. With centre at the origin, each coordinate is multiplied by the scale factorthis shortcut only works when the centre is (0, 0)[1]
  2. Q has vertices (4,2), (10,2) and (4,6)[1]
  3. Areas scale by k² = 2² = 4[1]
  4. Ratio = 4 : 1; check by calculating both areas — P is 3 and Q is 12 ✓[1]

(a) (4,2), (10,2), (4,6) (b) 4 : 1

Q23[4 marks]
Shape A maps to shape B under a transformation. Every point of B is 3 units right and 2 units down from the matching point of A, and B is the same size as A. Describe the transformation, and state what would change if B were also upside down.
Mark scheme
  1. Same size and same orientation with every point moving equally means a translation[1]
  2. Column vector (3, −2)right is positive, down is negative[1]
  3. If B were upside down as well, it could not be a translation, since a translation never changes orientation[1]
  4. It would be a rotation of 180° about some centre, which produces the same displacement with the orientation reversedaccept an enlargement with k = −1[1]

A translation by (3, −2); if inverted, a 180° rotation instead.

Q24[6 marks]
A logo is designed from a regular hexagon.
  1. State its lines of symmetry and its rotational symmetry order.
  2. The hexagon is enlarged by scale factor 1.5 about one of its vertices. Describe what happens to its perimeter and area.
  3. Explain why an enlargement with scale factor −1 gives the same result as a rotation of 180° about the same centre.
Mark scheme
  1. 6 lines of symmetrythree through opposite vertices, three through opposite edge midpoints[1]
  2. Rotational symmetry of order 6 — a regular n-gon always has n of each[1]
  3. Perimeter is a length, so it is multiplied by 1.5[1]
  4. Area is multiplied by 1.5² = 2.25[1]
  5. A scale factor of −1 keeps every distance from the centre the same but reverses the directionmagnitude 1 means no change of size[1]
  6. Reversing the direction of every point about a centre is exactly a half turn, so the two produce identical images[1]

(a) 6 and order 6 (b) perimeter × 1.5, area × 2.25 (c) k = −1 reverses direction without changing distance, which is a 180° rotation

Q25[2 marks]
State the relationship between a tangent to a circle and the radius at the point of contact.
Answer

The tangent is perpendicular to the radius drawn to the point of contact — they meet at exactly 90°.

Q26[2 marks]
PA and PB are tangents from an external point P to a circle with centre O. State two properties of this configuration.
Answer

PA = PB, the two tangents from an external point are equal in length; and OP bisects ∠APB. Also, both ∠OAP and ∠OBP are right angles.

Q27[2 marks]
Why is the angle in a semicircle always 90°?
Answer

The diameter subtends a straight angle of 180° at the centre. By the angle-at-the-centre theorem, the angle it subtends at the circumference is half of that, namely 90°, wherever the point is chosen on the arc.

Q28[4 marks]
A, B and C lie on a circle centre O. ∠BOC = 130°, and A is on the major arc BC. Find ∠BAC. Given also that OB = OC = 9 cm, find the length of the chord BC to 3 significant figures.
Mark scheme
  1. Angle at the centre is twice the angle at the circumference: ∠BAC = 130°/2A is on the major arc, so the non-reflex central angle is the right one[1]
  2. ∠BAC = 65°[1]
  3. Triangle OBC is isosceles with OB = OC = 9 and included angle 130°; using the cosine rule or dropping the perpendicular: BC = 2 × 9 × sin 65°the perpendicular from O bisects both BC and the 130° angle[1]
  4. BC = 18 × 0.9063 = 16.3 cm[1]

∠BAC = 65°; BC ≈ 16.3 cm

Q29[4 marks]
In cyclic quadrilateral PQRS, ∠P = 3x + 10 and ∠R = 2x + 20. Find x and hence both angles.
Mark scheme
  1. P and R are opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral, so they sum to 180°naming the theorem earns this mark[1]
  2. (3x + 10) + (2x + 20) = 180, so 5x + 30 = 180[1]
  3. 5x = 150, giving x = 30[1]
  4. ∠P = 100° and ∠R = 80°; check 100 + 80 = 180[1]

x = 30; ∠P = 100° and ∠R = 80°

Q30[6 marks]
TA is a tangent to a circle at A. AB is a chord, and C is a point on the major arc AB. ∠TAB = 58°.
  1. State the alternate segment theorem.
  2. Find ∠ACB, giving a reason.
  3. If O is the centre, find ∠AOB and explain how you obtained it.
Mark scheme
  1. The angle between a tangent and a chord equals the angle subtended by that chord in the alternate segment[1]
  2. ∠ACB is in the alternate segment to ∠TABC is on the far side of the chord AB from the angle TAB[1]
  3. ∠ACB = 58°[1]
  4. Uses the angle at the centre being twice the angle at the circumference[1]
  5. ∠AOB = 2 × 58° = 116°[1]
  6. Alternative check: ∠OAT = 90° since the tangent is perpendicular to the radius, so ∠OAB = 90 − 58 = 32°; triangle OAB is isosceles, giving ∠AOB = 180 − 2(32) = 116°either route is accepted[1]

(b) 58°, by the alternate segment theorem (c) 116°, twice the angle at the circumference

Q31[2 marks]
Define a chord and state which chord of a circle is the longest.
Answer

A chord is a straight line segment whose two endpoints lie on the circle. The longest chord is the diameter, which passes through the centre.

Q32[2 marks]
State the theorem about the perpendicular drawn from the centre of a circle to a chord, and its converse.
Answer

The perpendicular from the centre to a chord bisects the chord. Conversely, the line from the centre to the midpoint of a chord is perpendicular to it.

Q33[2 marks]
Explain why two equal chords of the same circle are equidistant from its centre.
Answer

The perpendicular from the centre bisects each chord, forming a right-angled triangle with the radius as hypotenuse and half the chord as one leg. Equal chords give equal halves, and the radii are equal, so by Pythagoras the third sides — the distances from the centre — must also be equal.

Q34[4 marks]
A chord of a circle is 24 cm long and lies 5 cm from the centre. Find the radius, and the length of a second chord that lies 12 cm from the centre.
Mark scheme
  1. Half the chord is 12 cm; r² = 5² + 12² = 25 + 144 = 169perpendicular from the centre bisects the chord[1]
  2. r = 13 cm[1]
  3. For the second chord, (c/2)² = 13² − 12² = 169 − 144 = 25, so c/2 = 5same circle, so the same radius[1]
  4. Second chord = 10 cm[1]

r = 13 cm; the second chord is 10 cm long

Q35[4 marks]
A sector has radius 14 cm and central angle 90°. Find its arc length, its area, and the perimeter of the sector. Take π = 22/7.
Mark scheme
  1. Fraction = 90/360 = 1/4[1]
  2. Arc = ¼ × 2 × (22/7) × 14 = ¼ × 88 = 22 cm[1]
  3. Area = ¼ × (22/7) × 196 = ¼ × 616 = 154 cm²[1]
  4. Perimeter = arc + two radii = 22 + 14 + 14 = 50 cmthe two radii are part of the boundary and are often forgotten[1]

Arc 22 cm; area 154 cm²; perimeter 50 cm

Q36[6 marks]
In a circle of radius 10 cm, a chord AB subtends an angle of 90° at the centre O.
  1. Find the length of AB.
  2. Find the area of the minor sector OAB.
  3. Hence find the area of the minor segment cut off by AB. Take π = 3.14.
Mark scheme
  1. Triangle OAB is right-angled at O with OA = OB = 10 cmboth are radii[1]
  2. AB = √(100 + 100) = √200 = 14.1 cmaccept 10√2[1]
  3. Sector area = (90/360) × 3.14 × 100a quarter of the circle[1]
  4. = 78.5 cm²[1]
  5. Triangle area = ½ × 10 × 10 = 50 cm²the two radii are perpendicular, so they are the base and the height[1]
  6. Segment = 78.5 − 50 = 28.5 cm²segment = sector minus triangle[1]

(a) 14.1 cm (b) 78.5 cm² (c) 28.5 cm²

05

Mensuration

Multiple choice · 16

Q1A triangle has base 12 cm and perpendicular height 5 cm. Its area is:

  1. A60 cm²
  2. B30 cm²
  3. C17 cm²
  4. D34 cm²
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 30 cm²

½ × 12 × 5 = 30. Forgetting the half gives 60, which is the area of the surrounding parallelogram.

Q21 m² equals:

  1. A100 cm²
  2. B1000 cm²
  3. C10 000 cm²
  4. D1 000 000 cm²
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 10 000 cm²

A square metre is 100 cm by 100 cm. The length factor is squared, so 100² = 10 000.

Q3The area of a parallelogram uses:

  1. Athe slanted side
  2. Bthe perpendicular height
  3. Cthe diagonal
  4. Dthe perimeter
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the perpendicular height

The perpendicular height is the distance between the two parallel sides. The slanted side is longer and gives too large an area.

Q4The perimeter of a semicircular region of radius r is:

  1. Aπr
  2. Bπr + 2r
  3. C2πr
  4. Dπr²
Show answer

Correct answer: B — πr + 2r

Half the circumference is πr, and the flat side is the diameter 2r. Omitting the straight edge is the standard error.

Q5A 3 m path runs inside the edge of a rectangular field. Each dimension reduces by:

  1. A3 m
  2. B6 m
  3. C9 m
  4. D1.5 m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6 m

The path takes 3 m from each of the two opposite sides, so 6 m in total from each dimension.

Q6A trapezium has parallel sides 5 and 9 cm and height 4 cm. Its area is:

  1. A28 cm²
  2. B36 cm²
  3. C56 cm²
  4. D18 cm²
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 28 cm²

½(5 + 9) × 4 = ½ × 14 × 4 = 28 cm². The average of the parallel sides is 7, times the height 4.

Q7A rectangle 2 m by 40 cm has an area of:

  1. A80 cm²
  2. B8000 cm²
  3. C80 m²
  4. D0.8 cm²
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 8000 cm²

Convert first: 200 cm × 40 cm = 8000 cm². Multiplying 2 by 40 without converting gives 80 in no consistent unit.

Q8Which is the better method for a rectangle with a circle cut out of it?

  1. Asplit into pieces and add
  2. Bfind the rectangle and subtract the circle
  3. Cmeasure the perimeter
  4. Duse ½bh
Show answer

Correct answer: B — find the rectangle and subtract the circle

Subtraction is one step. Splitting the remaining region into standard shapes would need several curved pieces that have no simple formula.

Q9The volume of any prism is:

  1. Alength × width × height
  2. Bcross-section area × length
  3. C⅓ × base × height
  4. D4⁄3 πr³
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cross-section area × length

This single rule covers cuboids, cylinders and triangular prisms alike, because all have a constant cross-section.

Q10A cylinder has radius 3 and height 10. Its volume is:

  1. A30π
  2. B90π
  3. C60π
  4. D
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 90π

πr²h = π × 9 × 10 = 90π. Using 3 instead of 3² gives 30π and is the standard slip.

Q11The curved surface area of a cylinder is:

  1. Aπr²
  2. B2πr²
  3. C2πrh
  4. Dπrh
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 2πrh

Unrolled it is a rectangle: the circumference 2πr wide and h tall.

Q12The volume of a cone uses:

  1. Athe slant height
  2. Bthe vertical height
  3. Cthe circumference
  4. Dthe diameter
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the vertical height

The volume uses the perpendicular height h. The slant height l appears only in the curved surface area πrl.

Q13A cone has r = 6 and h = 8. Its slant height is:

  1. A10
  2. B14
  3. C48
  4. D2
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 10

l² = 36 + 64 = 100, so l = 10 — a 6-8-10 triangle. The slant height is always the longest of the three.

Q14A cone holds what fraction of the cylinder with the same base and height?

  1. Aone half
  2. Bone third
  3. Ctwo thirds
  4. Dthe same
Show answer

Correct answer: B — one third

V = ⅓πr²h against πr²h. This is worth remembering as a check on any cone calculation.

Q15All lengths of a solid are doubled. Its volume is multiplied by:

  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C6
  4. D8
Show answer

Correct answer: D — 8

Volumes scale by k³ = 2³ = 8. The surface area would be multiplied by 4.

Q16When two solids are joined, the faces where they meet:

  1. Acount twice in the surface area
  2. Bare excluded from the surface area
  3. Care subtracted from the volume
  4. Ddouble the volume
Show answer

Correct answer: B — are excluded from the surface area

They are inside the composite solid and cannot be painted or covered. The volumes, by contrast, simply add.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[2 marks]
A trapezium has parallel sides 8 cm and 12 cm, and a perpendicular height of 5 cm. Find its area.
Answer

A = ½(8 + 12) × 5 = ½ × 20 × 5 = 50 cm².

Q2[2 marks]
Convert 3.5 m² into cm².
Answer

1 m² = 10 000 cm², so 3.5 × 10 000 = 35 000 cm².

Q3[2 marks]
A circle has radius 7 cm. Find its circumference, taking π = 22/7.
Answer

C = 2πr = 2 × (22/7) × 7 = 44 cm.

Q4[4 marks]
A rectangular garden 20 m by 14 m has a circular pond of radius 3 m. Find the area of grass remaining, taking π = 3.142.
Mark scheme
  1. Rectangle area = 20 × 14 = 280[1]
  2. Pond area = π × 3² = 3.142 × 9[1]
  3. = 28.278[1]
  4. Grass = 280 − 28.278 = 251.7 m² (1 d.p.)surround and subtract[1]

251.7 m²

Q5[4 marks]
A shape consists of a rectangle 10 cm by 6 cm with a semicircle of diameter 6 cm attached to one short side. Find the perimeter, taking π = 3.142.
Mark scheme
  1. The semicircle has radius 3 cm and its arc length is ½ × 2π × 3 = 9.426 cmhalf the circumference[1]
  2. The 6 cm side where the semicircle joins is not part of the perimeterthis is the key mark[1]
  3. Remaining straight edges: 10 + 6 + 10 = 26 cmtwo long sides and one short side[1]
  4. Perimeter = 26 + 9.426 = 35.4 cm (1 d.p.)[1]

35.4 cm

Q6[6 marks]
A rectangular field measures 120 m by 85 m. A path 2 m wide runs all the way around the inside edge.
  1. Find the area of the field in hectares.
  2. Find the dimensions of the region inside the path.
  3. Find the area of the path.
Mark scheme
  1. Field area = 120 × 85 = 10 200[1]
  2. 1 hectare = 10 000 m², so the field is 1.02 hectares[1]
  3. The path takes 2 m from each side, so 4 m from each dimensionthe doubling is the mark most often missed[1]
  4. Inner region = 116 m by 81 m[1]
  5. Inner area = 116 × 81 = 9396[1]
  6. Path area = 10 200 − 9396 = 804subtracting is far quicker than adding four strips[1]

(a) 1.02 hectares (b) 116 m by 81 m (c) 804 m²

Q7[2 marks]
A cuboid measures 8 cm by 5 cm by 3 cm. Find its volume and surface area.
Answer

Volume = 8 × 5 × 3 = 120 cm³. Surface area = 2(40 + 24 + 15) = 158 cm².

Q8[2 marks]
State the difference between the vertical height and the slant height of a cone.
Answer

The vertical height is the perpendicular distance from the centre of the base to the apex, used in the volume. The slant height is measured along the sloping surface from the rim to the apex, used in the curved surface area. They are related by l² = r² + h².

Q9[2 marks]
A sphere has radius 6 cm. Find its volume, taking π = 3.142.
Answer

V = 4⁄3 πr³ = 4⁄3 × 3.142 × 216 = 904.9 cm³.

Q10[4 marks]
A cylindrical tank has radius 1.5 m and height 4 m. Find its volume in m³ and its capacity in litres. Take π = 3.142 and 1 m³ = 1000 litres.
Mark scheme
  1. V = πr²h = 3.142 × 1.5² × 4square the radius, do not double it[1]
  2. = 3.142 × 2.25 × 4 = 28.278[1]
  3. Capacity = 28.278 × 1000[1]
  4. = 28 278 litres, about 28 300 litres to 3 s.f.[1]

28.3 m³, about 28 300 litres

Q11[4 marks]
A solid cone has base radius 8 cm and slant height 17 cm. Find its vertical height and its volume, taking π = 3.142.
Mark scheme
  1. By Pythagoras h² = l² − r² = 289 − 64 = 225the slant height is the hypotenuse, so it is squared and the radius subtracted[1]
  2. h = 15 cman 8-15-17 triple[1]
  3. V = ⅓πr²h = ⅓ × 3.142 × 64 × 15the volume uses the vertical height[1]
  4. = 1005.4 cm³[1]

Height 15 cm; volume 1005 cm³

Q12[6 marks]
A silo consists of a cylinder of radius 3 m and height 10 m with a hemisphere of the same radius on top.
  1. Find the total volume, taking π = 3.142.
  2. Find the external surface area, excluding the flat base.
  3. A scale model is built with all lengths one tenth of the real ones. State the ratio of the model's surface area and volume to the real silo's.
Mark scheme
  1. Cylinder = πr²h = 3.142 × 9 × 10 = 282.78[1]
  2. Hemisphere = ½ × 4⁄3 πr³ = ⅔ × 3.142 × 27 = 56.56 m³; total = 339.3half a sphere[1]
  3. Curved cylinder = 2πrh = 2 × 3.142 × 3 × 10 = 188.5[1]
  4. Hemisphere = ½ × 4πr² = 2 × 3.142 × 9 = 56.6 m²; total = 245.1the circle where they join is internal and excluded[1]
  5. Surface area ratio = (1/10)² = 1 : 100[1]
  6. Volume ratio = (1/10)³ = 1 : 1000[1]

(a) 339.3 m³ (b) 245.1 m² (c) areas 1 : 100, volumes 1 : 1000

06

Trigonometry

Multiple choice · 6

Q1On the unit circle, what does cos θ represent?

  1. AThe height of the point above the centre
  2. BThe horizontal distance of the point from the centre
  3. CThe length of the radius
  4. DThe arc length swept out
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The horizontal distance of the point from the centre

The point sits at (cos θ, sin θ). Cosine is the x-coordinate — how far across — and sine is the y-coordinate — how far up. This is why cos starts at 1 (fully right) while sin starts at 0.

Q2Why is tan(90°) undefined?

  1. ABecause sin(90°) = 0
  2. BBecause cos(90°) = 0 and you cannot divide by zero
  3. CBecause 90° is not on the unit circle
  4. DBecause tan only works below 45°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because cos(90°) = 0 and you cannot divide by zero

tan θ = sin θ / cos θ. At 90° the point is straight up at (0, 1), so cos(90°) = 0 and the fraction has a zero denominator. On a graph tan shoots off to infinity there — a vertical asymptote.

Q3What is sin(210°)?

  1. A+0.5
  2. B−0.5
  3. C+0.866
  4. D−0.866
Show answer

Correct answer: B — −0.5

210° is 30° past the 180° mark, putting the point in the third quadrant — left and below centre. The height has the same magnitude as sin(30°) = 0.5 but is now below the axis, so sin(210°) = −0.5.

Q4Convert 60° to radians.

  1. Aπ/2
  2. Bπ/3
  3. Cπ/6
  4. D2π/3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — π/3

Since 180° = π rad, one degree is π/180 rad. So 60° = 60π/180 = π/3. Quick check: π/3 ≈ 1.047 rad, and 1.047 × 57.3 ≈ 60°.

Q5sin²θ + cos²θ equals:

  1. A0
  2. B1
  3. Cθ
  4. Dtan θ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1

It is Pythagoras applied to the radius. The point (cos θ, sin θ) is 1 unit from the origin, so cos²θ + sin²θ = 1². It holds for every angle without exception, which is why it is the workhorse identity of trigonometry.

Q6The graph of y = sin x is shifted so it starts at its maximum. What function is that?

  1. Acos x
  2. B−sin x
  3. Ctan x
  4. Dsin(2x)
Show answer

Correct answer: A — cos x

Cosine is sine shifted left by 90°: cos x = sin(x + 90°). At x = 0 cosine is at its peak of 1, while sine is at 0 and climbing. Both are the same wave viewed from a different starting angle.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State the sine rule and say when it is used in preference to the cosine rule.
Answer

a/sin A = b/sin B = c/sin C. Use it when you have a matched pair — a side and the angle opposite it — plus one more piece of information.

Q2[2 marks]
Write down the exact values of sin 30°, cos 60° and tan 45°.
Answer

sin 30° = 1/2, cos 60° = 1/2, tan 45° = 1

Q3[3 marks]
Prove that (1 − cos²θ)/(sin θ cos θ) = tan θ.
Answer

1 − cos²θ = sin²θ, so the expression is sin²θ/(sin θ cos θ) = sin θ/cos θ = tan θ.

Q4[6 marks]
In triangle ABC, AB = 7.0 cm, AC = 9.0 cm and angle BAC = 52°.
  1. Calculate BC. [3]
  2. Calculate the area of the triangle. [2]
  3. Calculate angle ABC. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses the cosine rule a² = b² + c² − 2bc cos Atwo sides and the included angle[1]
  2. BC² = 49 + 81 − 2(7)(9)cos 52°[1]
  3. BC = 7.29 cm[1]
  4. Uses ½ab sin C = ½(7)(9)sin 52°[1]
  5. = 24.8 cm²[1]
  6. Sine rule: sin B = 9 sin 52° / 7.29 → B = 76.6°[1]

(a) 7.29 cm (b) 24.8 cm² (c) 76.6°

Q5[7 marks]
A vertical mast stands on level ground. From a point P the angle of elevation of the top is 34°. From a point Q, 45 m closer to the mast and in line with P, the angle of elevation is 58°.
  1. Draw a labelled diagram of the situation. [1]
  2. Calculate the height of the mast. [5]
  3. Calculate the distance of Q from the foot of the mast. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Diagram with the mast vertical, both angles marked at ground level and PQ = 45 m[1]
  2. Lets the height be h and the distance from Q be d[1]
  3. From Q: h = d tan 58°[1]
  4. From P: h = (d + 45) tan 34°[1]
  5. Equates: d tan 58° = (d + 45) tan 34°[1]
  6. Solves: d(1.600 − 0.6745) = 30.35 → d = 32.8 m[1]
  7. h = 32.8 × tan 58° = 52.5 m[1]

height ≈ 52.5 m, Q is ≈ 32.8 m from the foot

Q6[5 marks]
Solve 2 sin θ = 1 for 0° ≤ θ ≤ 360°.
  1. Find the principal value. [2]
  2. Find all solutions in the given range and justify how you found the second. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. sin θ = 1/2[1]
  2. θ = 30°[1]
  3. Sine is also positive in the second quadrant[1]
  4. θ = 180° − 30° = 150°[1]
  5. No further solutions in the range, so θ = 30° and 150°[1]

θ = 30° and 150°

07

Transformations and vectors

Multiple choice · 16

Q1Which transformation changes the size of a shape?

  1. ATranslation
  2. BReflection
  3. CRotation
  4. DEnlargement
Show answer

Correct answer: D — Enlargement

The other three are congruent transformations, producing an image identical in size and shape.

Q2To describe a reflection fully you must give:

  1. Athe direction
  2. Bthe equation of the mirror line
  3. Cthe scale factor
  4. Dthe centre
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the equation of the mirror line

The equation identifies exactly where the mirror is. "A vertical line" leaves infinitely many possibilities.

Q3A shape is enlarged by scale factor 4. Its area is multiplied by:

  1. A4
  2. B8
  3. C16
  4. D64
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 16

Areas scale by k² = 16. Option D would be the volume factor for a solid.

Q4An enlargement with scale factor −2:

  1. Ais impossible
  2. Bputs the image on the opposite side of the centre, twice the size
  3. Cshrinks the shape
  4. Dis the same as a reflection
Show answer

Correct answer: B — puts the image on the opposite side of the centre, twice the size

The negative reverses the direction from the centre and the 2 doubles the distance, so the image is inverted and twice as large.

Q5A rectangle has how many lines of symmetry?

  1. A4
  2. B2
  3. C1
  4. D0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2

Two — through the midpoints of each pair of opposite sides. The diagonals are not lines of symmetry unless it is a square.

Q6Rotational symmetry of order 1 means:

  1. Aone line of symmetry
  2. Bthe shape only fits onto itself after a full turn
  3. Cno symmetry of any kind
  4. Dthe shape is a circle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the shape only fits onto itself after a full turn

Every shape returns to itself after 360°, so order 1 is the minimum and means effectively no rotational symmetry.

Q7The point (3, 5) is reflected in the x-axis. Its image is:

  1. A(−3, 5)
  2. B(3, −5)
  3. C(−3, −5)
  4. D(5, 3)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (3, −5)

Reflecting in the x-axis changes the sign of the y-coordinate and leaves x alone. Option A would be reflection in the y-axis.

Q8A translation:

  1. Acan change orientation
  2. Bnever changes orientation
  3. Calways changes size
  4. Drequires a centre
Show answer

Correct answer: B — never changes orientation

Every point moves the same distance in the same direction, so the shape cannot turn or flip. If the image is inverted, it is not a translation.

Q9Which of these is a vector quantity?

  1. AMass
  2. BTemperature
  3. CVelocity
  4. DTime
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Velocity

Velocity is speed together with a direction. Speed on its own would be a scalar, which is precisely the distinction being tested.

Q10If u = ⟨2, 3⟩ and v = ⟨5, −1⟩, then u + v is:

  1. A⟨7, 2⟩
  2. B⟨3, 4⟩
  3. C⟨10, −3⟩
  4. D⟨7, 4⟩
Show answer

Correct answer: A — ⟨7, 2⟩

Add componentwise: 2 + 5 = 7 and 3 + (−1) = 2.

Q11The magnitude of ⟨6, 8⟩ is:

  1. A14
  2. B10
  3. C48
  4. D√14
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10

√(36 + 64) = √100 = 10. This is the 3–4–5 triple scaled by 2, which examiners use frequently.

Q12If A = (2, 7) and B = (5, 3), then AB is:

  1. A⟨7, 10⟩
  2. B⟨3, −4⟩
  3. C⟨−3, 4⟩
  4. D⟨3, 4⟩
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ⟨3, −4⟩

AB = b − a = ⟨5 − 2, 3 − 7⟩ = ⟨3, −4⟩. Option C is BA, the vector in the opposite direction.

Q13A unit vector in the direction of ⟨0, 4⟩ is:

  1. A⟨0, 4⟩
  2. B⟨0, 1⟩
  3. C⟨1, 0⟩
  4. D⟨0, 1/4⟩
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ⟨0, 1⟩

The magnitude is 4, so dividing gives ⟨0, 1⟩, which points the same way and has length 1.

Q14⟨6, −9⟩ is parallel to:

  1. A⟨2, −3⟩
  2. B⟨9, 6⟩
  3. C⟨−3, −2⟩
  4. D⟨3, 9⟩
Show answer

Correct answer: A — ⟨2, −3⟩

⟨6, −9⟩ = 3⟨2, −3⟩, a scalar multiple, so they are parallel. Option B is perpendicular to it, not parallel.

Q15If AB = DC in quadrilateral ABCD, then ABCD is:

  1. Aa rectangle
  2. Ba parallelogram
  3. Ca rhombus
  4. Da trapezium only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a parallelogram

Equal vectors mean the sides are the same length and parallel, which defines a parallelogram. It might additionally be a rectangle or rhombus, but nothing here establishes that.

Q163⟨2, −1⟩ − 2⟨1, 4⟩ equals:

  1. A⟨4, −11⟩
  2. B⟨8, 5⟩
  3. C⟨4, 5⟩
  4. D⟨8, −11⟩
Show answer

Correct answer: A — ⟨4, −11⟩

3⟨2, −1⟩ = ⟨6, −3⟩ and 2⟨1, 4⟩ = ⟨2, 8⟩. Subtracting gives ⟨6 − 2, −3 − 8⟩ = ⟨4, −11⟩.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[2 marks]
State the three pieces of information needed to describe a rotation fully.
Answer

The angle of rotation, the direction (clockwise or anticlockwise), and the centre of rotation.

Q2[2 marks]
A shape is enlarged by scale factor 3. What happens to its area?
Answer

The area is multiplied by 3² = 9, since area involves two lengths and each has been tripled.

Q3[2 marks]
How many lines of symmetry does a parallelogram have, and what is its rotational symmetry order?
Answer

No lines of symmetry, but rotational symmetry of order 2 — a half turn maps it onto itself.

Q4[4 marks]
Triangle P has vertices (2,1), (5,1), (2,3). It is enlarged by scale factor 2, centre (0,0), to give triangle Q.
  1. Write down the coordinates of Q.
  2. State the ratio of the area of Q to the area of P.
Mark scheme
  1. With centre at the origin, each coordinate is multiplied by the scale factorthis shortcut only works when the centre is (0, 0)[1]
  2. Q has vertices (4,2), (10,2) and (4,6)[1]
  3. Areas scale by k² = 2² = 4[1]
  4. Ratio = 4 : 1; check by calculating both areas — P is 3 and Q is 12 ✓[1]

(a) (4,2), (10,2), (4,6) (b) 4 : 1

Q5[4 marks]
Shape A maps to shape B under a transformation. Every point of B is 3 units right and 2 units down from the matching point of A, and B is the same size as A. Describe the transformation, and state what would change if B were also upside down.
Mark scheme
  1. Same size and same orientation with every point moving equally means a translation[1]
  2. Column vector (3, −2)right is positive, down is negative[1]
  3. If B were upside down as well, it could not be a translation, since a translation never changes orientation[1]
  4. It would be a rotation of 180° about some centre, which produces the same displacement with the orientation reversedaccept an enlargement with k = −1[1]

A translation by (3, −2); if inverted, a 180° rotation instead.

Q6[6 marks]
A logo is designed from a regular hexagon.
  1. State its lines of symmetry and its rotational symmetry order.
  2. The hexagon is enlarged by scale factor 1.5 about one of its vertices. Describe what happens to its perimeter and area.
  3. Explain why an enlargement with scale factor −1 gives the same result as a rotation of 180° about the same centre.
Mark scheme
  1. 6 lines of symmetrythree through opposite vertices, three through opposite edge midpoints[1]
  2. Rotational symmetry of order 6 — a regular n-gon always has n of each[1]
  3. Perimeter is a length, so it is multiplied by 1.5[1]
  4. Area is multiplied by 1.5² = 2.25[1]
  5. A scale factor of −1 keeps every distance from the centre the same but reverses the directionmagnitude 1 means no change of size[1]
  6. Reversing the direction of every point about a centre is exactly a half turn, so the two produce identical images[1]

(a) 6 and order 6 (b) perimeter × 1.5, area × 2.25 (c) k = −1 reverses direction without changing distance, which is a 180° rotation

Q7[2 marks]
Distinguish between a scalar and a vector, giving one example of each.
Answer

A scalar has magnitude only — for example a mass of 5 kg. A vector has both magnitude and direction — for example a displacement of 5 m due east.

Q8[2 marks]
If u = ⟨3, −4⟩, find |u| and a unit vector in the direction of u.
Answer

|u| = √(9 + 16) = 5, and the unit vector is ⟨3/5, −4/5⟩.

Q9[2 marks]
Given AB = ⟨4, −2⟩, write down BA and explain the relationship.
Answer

BA = ⟨−4, 2⟩. It is the same length but in the exactly opposite direction, so BA = −AB.

Q10[4 marks]
P is (1, 3), Q is (5, 6) and R is (9, 9). Show that P, Q and R are collinear.
Mark scheme
  1. PQ = ⟨5 − 1, 6 − 3⟩ = ⟨4, 3⟩head minus tail[1]
  2. QR = ⟨9 − 5, 9 − 6⟩ = ⟨4, 3⟩[1]
  3. PQ = QR, so PQ is a scalar multiple of QR with k = 1, hence they are parallel[1]
  4. They share the point Q, so P, Q and R lie on a single straight line and are collinearthe shared point is essential — parallel alone is not enough[1]

PQ = QR = ⟨4, 3⟩ and they share Q, so the three points are collinear (with Q the midpoint of PR).

Q11[4 marks]
Given a = ⟨2, 5⟩ and b = ⟨−3, 1⟩, find 2a − 3b and its magnitude.
Mark scheme
  1. 2a = ⟨4, 10⟩both components multiplied[1]
  2. 3b = ⟨−9, 3⟩[1]
  3. 2a − 3b = ⟨4 − (−9), 10 − 3⟩ = ⟨13, 7⟩subtracting a negative is where marks are lost[1]
  4. |2a − 3b| = √(169 + 49) = √218 ≈ 14.8exact surd or 3 s.f. both accepted[1]

⟨13, 7⟩, magnitude √218 ≈ 14.8

Q12[6 marks]
A quadrilateral has vertices A(1, 1), B(5, 2), C(6, 6) and D(2, 5).
  1. Find the vectors AB and DC.
  2. Show that ABCD is a parallelogram.
  3. Find the position vector of the point where the diagonals meet.
Mark scheme
  1. AB = ⟨5 − 1, 2 − 1⟩ = ⟨4, 1⟩[1]
  2. DC = ⟨6 − 2, 6 − 5⟩ = ⟨4, 1⟩take the vertices in the order that makes DC correspond to AB[1]
  3. AB = DC, so AB and DC are equal in length and parallel[1]
  4. One pair of opposite sides equal and parallel is sufficient for a parallelogramthe reason must be stated, not just the equality[1]
  5. The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other, so they meet at the midpoint of ACor the midpoint of BD, which gives the same point[1]
  6. Midpoint = (a + c)/2 = (⟨1,1⟩ + ⟨6,6⟩)/2 = ⟨3.5, 3.5⟩checking with BD: (⟨5,2⟩ + ⟨2,5⟩)/2 = ⟨3.5, 3.5⟩ ✓[1]

(a) AB = DC = ⟨4, 1⟩ (b) equal and parallel, so a parallelogram (c) ⟨3.5, 3.5⟩

08

Probability

Multiple choice · 16

Q1A fair die is rolled. P(an even number) is:

  1. A1/6
  2. B1/3
  3. C1/2
  4. D2/3
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/2

Three of the six faces (2, 4, 6) are even, so P = 3/6 = 1/2.

Q2If P(E) = 0.28, then P(E′) is:

  1. A0.72
  2. B0.28
  3. C1.28
  4. D0.5
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0.72

The complement rule gives 1 − 0.28 = 0.72. An event and its complement always account for the whole sample space, so they must total 1.

Q3Two coins are tossed. P(exactly one head) is:

  1. A1/4
  2. B1/2
  3. C1/3
  4. D3/4
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1/2

The sample space is {HH, HT, TH, TT}. Two of the four outcomes have exactly one head, so P = 2/4 = 1/2. Treating HT and TH as the same outcome gives the wrong answer 1/3.

Q4A card is drawn from 52. P(a red king) is:

  1. A2/52
  2. B4/52
  3. C13/52
  4. D26/52
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 2/52

There are exactly two red kings, hearts and diamonds, so P = 2/52 = 1/26. Option B counts all four kings, including the black ones.

Q5Which value could NOT be a probability?

  1. A0
  2. B0.999
  3. C5/4
  4. D1
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5/4

5/4 = 1.25 exceeds 1, which is impossible: an event cannot be more than certain. Zero and one are both perfectly valid, representing impossible and certain events.

Q6A bag has 4 red and 6 blue balls. Two are drawn with replacement. P(both red) is:

  1. A16/100
  2. B12/90
  3. C4/10
  4. D2/5
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 16/100

With replacement the bag is restored, so both draws have P(red) = 4/10 and the events are independent: (4/10)(4/10) = 16/100 = 4/25. Option B would be the answer without replacement.

Q7Events A and B are mutually exclusive with P(A) = 0.3 and P(B) = 0.45. P(A or B) is:

  1. A0.135
  2. B0.75
  3. C0.615
  4. D0.15
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0.75

Mutually exclusive means the overlap is zero, so the general rule reduces to simple addition: 0.3 + 0.45 = 0.75. Option A multiplies instead of adding.

Q8P(at least one head in three tosses of a fair coin) is:

  1. A3/8
  2. B1/2
  3. C7/8
  4. D1/8
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 7/8

Use the complement: P(no heads) = (1/2)³ = 1/8, so P(at least one) = 1 − 1/8 = 7/8. Listing all the favourable cases would take seven lines to reach the same answer.

Q9Two events are mutually exclusive when:

  1. Athey are independent
  2. Bthey cannot occur together
  3. Cthey always occur together
  4. Dthey have equal probability
Show answer

Correct answer: B — they cannot occur together

Mutual exclusivity means the intersection is empty, so P(A ∩ B) = 0. It says nothing about the events being equally likely.

Q10A fair die is rolled twice. P(two sixes) is:

  1. A1/3
  2. B1/12
  3. C1/36
  4. D2/6
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/36

The rolls are independent, so multiply: (1/6)(1/6) = 1/36. Adding would be the rule for OR, which is a different question.

Q11For independent events with P(A) = 0.5 and P(B) = 0.4, P(A ∪ B) is:

  1. A0.9
  2. B0.2
  3. C0.7
  4. D0.1
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 0.7

P(A ∩ B) = 0.5 × 0.4 = 0.2, so P(A ∪ B) = 0.5 + 0.4 − 0.2 = 0.7. Simply adding gives 0.9, which double-counts the overlap.

Q12From a bag of 3 red and 2 blue, two are drawn without replacement. P(both red) is:

  1. A9/25
  2. B3/10
  3. C6/20
  4. D1/2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3/10

(3/5) × (2/4) = 6/20 = 3/10. Option A is the answer with replacement, and option C is the same value unsimplified — the paper expects lowest terms.

Q13P(at least one head in 4 tosses of a fair coin) is:

  1. A1/16
  2. B4/16
  3. C15/16
  4. D1/2
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 15/16

P(no heads) = (1/2)⁴ = 1/16, so P(at least one) = 1 − 1/16 = 15/16.

Q14On a tree diagram, the probabilities on the branches from one node must:

  1. Asum to 1
  2. Bbe equal
  3. Cmultiply to 1
  4. Dsum to the number of branches
Show answer

Correct answer: A — sum to 1

Those branches cover every possibility at that stage, so their probabilities must total exactly 1. It is the fastest check for an error before you go further.

Q15P(B|A) = P(B) tells you that:

  1. AA and B are mutually exclusive
  2. BA and B are independent
  3. CB is impossible
  4. DA implies B
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A and B are independent

The occurrence of A has left the probability of B unchanged, which is exactly the definition of independence.

Q16A coin has landed tails eight times. The probability of tails on the ninth toss is:

  1. Aless than 1/2
  2. Bmore than 1/2
  3. Cexactly 1/2
  4. Dimpossible to say
Show answer

Correct answer: C — exactly 1/2

Tosses are independent, so the coin carries no memory of what has already happened. Expecting a correction is the gambler's fallacy.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[2 marks]
Define the sample space of an experiment, and write the sample space for tossing two coins.
Answer

The sample space is the set of all possible outcomes of the experiment. For two coins, S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}, so n(S) = 4.

Q2[2 marks]
What does it mean for two events to be mutually exclusive? Give an example.
Answer

Two events are mutually exclusive if they cannot occur at the same time, so P(A and B) = 0. Example: on a single roll of a die, "getting a 2" and "getting a 5".

Q3[2 marks]
The probability that it rains tomorrow is 0.35. What is the probability that it does not rain?
Answer

P(no rain) = 1 − 0.35 = 0.65, using the complement rule P(E′) = 1 − P(E).

Q4[3 marks]
A bag holds 5 red, 4 green and 3 blue marbles. One marble is drawn at random. Find the probability that it is (i) green, (ii) not blue.
Mark scheme
  1. Total n(S) = 5 + 4 + 3 = 12the total is the denominator throughout[1]
  2. P(green) = 4/12 = 1/3lowest terms expected[1]
  3. P(not blue) = 1 − 3/12 = 9/12 = 3/4accept counting 5 + 4 = 9 favourable outcomes directly[1]

(i) 1/3 (ii) 3/4

Q5[4 marks]
Two dice are rolled. Find the probability that (i) the total is 7, (ii) the total is at least 10.
Mark scheme
  1. n(S) = 6 × 6 = 36ordered pairs, so (2,5) and (5,2) both count[1]
  2. Total 7 arises from (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), (6,1) — six ways, so P = 6/36 = 1/67 is the most likely total on two dice[1]
  3. At least 10 means 10, 11 or 12: (4,6), (5,5), (6,4), (5,6), (6,5), (6,6) — six wayslisting them is safer than trying to count in your head[1]
  4. P = 6/36 = 1/6[1]

(i) 1/6 (ii) 1/6

Q6[6 marks]
A box contains 7 white and 3 black balls. Two balls are drawn one after the other without replacement.
  1. Draw a tree diagram showing the probabilities.
  2. Find the probability that both balls are white.
  3. Find the probability that the two balls are of different colours.
Mark scheme
  1. First-stage branches 7/10 white and 3/10 black[1]
  2. Second-stage branches with denominator 9 throughout: 6/9, 3/9 after white; 7/9, 2/9 after blackone ball fewer, so the denominator drops to 9[1]
  3. P(both white) = (7/10) × (6/9)multiply along the branch[1]
  4. = 42/90 = 7/15[1]
  5. Different colours = white then black, or black then white: (7/10)(3/9) + (3/10)(7/9)both orders are needed[1]
  6. = 21/90 + 21/90 = 42/90 = 7/15[1]

(b) 7/15 (c) 7/15

Q7[2 marks]
Distinguish between mutually exclusive and independent events.
Answer

Mutually exclusive events cannot occur together, so P(A ∩ B) = 0. Independent events can occur together, but one occurring does not affect the probability of the other, so P(A ∩ B) = P(A) × P(B).

Q8[2 marks]
A fair coin is tossed 6 times and lands heads every time. What is the probability of heads on the seventh toss? Explain.
Answer

1/2. Successive tosses are independent, so the coin has no memory of previous results and the probability is unchanged. Expecting a tail to "even things out" is the gambler's fallacy.

Q9[2 marks]
Two balls are drawn from a bag without replacement. Are the two draws independent? Explain.
Answer

No. Removing the first ball changes both the number of balls left and the composition of the bag, so the probability for the second draw depends on what the first was. The draws are dependent, and the second-stage probabilities are conditional.

Q10[4 marks]
A card is drawn from a standard pack of 52. Find the probability that it is a heart or a face card (jack, queen or king).
Mark scheme
  1. P(heart) = 13/52 and P(face) = 12/52twelve face cards: three in each of four suits[1]
  2. The events are not mutually exclusive; there are 3 cards that are bothjack, queen and king of hearts[1]
  3. Uses P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B) = 13/52 + 12/52 − 3/52[1]
  4. = 22/52 = 11/26[1]

11/26

Q11[4 marks]
The probability that Aisha passes an exam is 0.8 and that Bilal passes is 0.6. The results are independent. Find the probability that (i) both pass, (ii) at least one passes.
Mark scheme
  1. Independent, so P(both) = 0.8 × 0.6[1]
  2. = 0.48[1]
  3. P(neither) = 0.2 × 0.4 = 0.08multiply the two failure probabilities[1]
  4. P(at least one) = 1 − 0.08 = 0.92accept the direct route 0.48 + 0.32 + 0.12 = 0.92[1]

(i) 0.48 (ii) 0.92

Q12[6 marks]
A box contains 4 defective and 6 good bulbs. Two bulbs are chosen at random without replacement.
  1. Draw a tree diagram for the two selections.
  2. Find the probability that both bulbs are good.
  3. Find the probability that at least one bulb is defective.
Mark scheme
  1. First stage: P(good) = 6/10, P(defective) = 4/10the two branches must sum to 1[1]
  2. Second stage after a good bulb: 5/9 good, 4/9 defective; after a defective: 6/9 good, 3/9 defectivedenominator 9 throughout, since one bulb has gone[1]
  3. P(both good) = (6/10) × (5/9)multiply along the branch[1]
  4. = 30/90 = 1/3[1]
  5. Uses the complement: P(at least one defective) = 1 − P(both good)"at least one defective" is the exact opposite of "both good"[1]
  6. = 1 − 1/3 = 2/3[1]

(b) 1/3 (c) 2/3

09

Statistics

Multiple choice · 24

Q1The median of 3, 7, 9, 15, 21 is:

  1. A9
  2. B11
  3. C7
  4. D15
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 9

The data is already in order and there are five values, so the middle one is the third: 9. Option B is the mean, which is a different statistic.

Q2The class boundaries of the class 30–39 are:

  1. A30 and 39
  2. B29.5 and 39.5
  3. C30.5 and 38.5
  4. D29 and 40
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 29.5 and 39.5

Boundaries lie half a unit outside the limits so that consecutive classes meet without a gap. The class 30–39 really covers everything from 29.5 up to 39.5.

Q3Which average is most affected by an extreme value?

  1. AMode
  2. BMedian
  3. CMean
  4. DRange
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Mean

The mean is calculated from every value, so a single very large or very small one shifts it substantially. The median depends only on position, and the mode only on frequency.

Q4For grouped data, the mean is calculated using:

  1. Aclass limits
  2. Bclass midpoints
  3. Cclass boundaries
  4. Dthe modal class
Show answer

Correct answer: B — class midpoints

The original values are lost after grouping, so every value in a class is assumed to sit at its midpoint. This is why the answer is an estimate rather than the exact mean.

Q5A shopkeeper wants to know which size of shirt to order most of. He should use the:

  1. Amean
  2. Bmedian
  3. Cmode
  4. Drange
Show answer

Correct answer: C — mode

The mode is the most frequently occurring size, which is exactly what "order most of" asks for. A mean size of 39.6 would not correspond to any shirt he can buy.

Q6The range of 14, 22, 9, 30, 18 is:

  1. A21
  2. B16
  3. C30
  4. D9
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 21

Largest 30 minus smallest 9 gives 21. The range is a single number, not an interval, so writing "9 to 30" would not be accepted.

Q7Two data sets have the same mean but different standard deviations. This tells you:

  1. Athey are identical
  2. Bone is more spread out than the other
  3. Cone has more values
  4. Done has a larger range only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — one is more spread out than the other

The standard deviation measures spread. A larger one means values sit typically further from the mean, even though the centres of the two sets coincide.

Q8Why are deviations squared when calculating variance?

  1. ATo make the arithmetic easier
  2. BBecause the deviations would otherwise total zero
  3. CTo convert to percentages
  4. DTo remove the frequencies
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because the deviations would otherwise total zero

By the definition of the mean, the positive and negative deviations cancel exactly, so their sum is always zero. Squaring makes them all positive so the spread survives the addition.

Q9On a histogram with unequal class widths, the vertical axis shows:

  1. Afrequency
  2. Bfrequency density
  3. Ccumulative frequency
  4. Dclass width
Show answer

Correct answer: B — frequency density

Area must represent frequency, so height must be frequency ÷ width. Plotting raw frequency would exaggerate the wider classes.

Q10Cumulative frequency is plotted against:

  1. Athe class midpoint
  2. Bthe lower class boundary
  3. Cthe upper class boundary
  4. Dthe frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: C — the upper class boundary

The running total for a class is only complete at the top of that class, so the upper boundary is the correct horizontal position.

Q11For 60 observations, the median is read from the ogive at a cumulative frequency of:

  1. A30
  2. B15
  3. C45
  4. D60
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 30

N/2 = 30. Q₁ would be read at 15 and Q₃ at 45.

Q12If Q₁ = 12 and Q₃ = 28, the interquartile range is:

  1. A40
  2. B16
  3. C8
  4. D20
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 16

IQR = Q₃ − Q₁ = 28 − 12 = 16. Option C is the semi-interquartile range, which is half of it.

Q13A class 20–30 has frequency 24 and a class 30–50 has frequency 24. On a histogram:

  1. Aboth bars have the same height
  2. Bthe second bar is half as tall
  3. Cthe second bar is twice as tall
  4. Dthe bars have equal area but different heights
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the second bar is half as tall

Densities are 24/10 = 2.4 and 24/20 = 1.2, so the second bar is half as tall. Its double width keeps the areas equal, which is exactly the point of frequency density.

Q14The mean of grouped data is described as an estimate because:

  1. Athe frequencies are approximate
  2. Bindividual values are replaced by class midpoints
  3. Cthe classes overlap
  4. Dthe total is rounded
Show answer

Correct answer: B — individual values are replaced by class midpoints

Grouping discards the actual values, so every observation in a class is assumed to sit at its midpoint. That assumption is what makes the answer an estimate.

Q15If the mean is noticeably greater than the median, the distribution is:

  1. Asymmetrical
  2. Bskewed with a tail to the right
  3. Cskewed with a tail to the left
  4. Dbimodal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — skewed with a tail to the right

A few unusually large values pull the mean up while leaving the median where it is. That long right-hand tail is positive skew.

Q16Which measure of spread is least affected by an extreme value?

  1. ARange
  2. BInterquartile range
  3. CMean
  4. DClass width
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Interquartile range

The IQR is built only from Q₁ and Q₃, so the top and bottom quarters of the data — where any extreme value lives — have no effect on it.

Q17Points falling from top left to bottom right show:

  1. Apositive correlation
  2. Bnegative correlation
  3. Cno correlation
  4. Dcausation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — negative correlation

As one variable increases the other decreases, which is negative correlation. Its strength depends on how closely the points follow the trend.

Q18A line of best fit should pass through:

  1. Athe origin
  2. Bthe first and last points
  3. Cthe middle of the points and the two means
  4. Dthe highest point
Show answer

Correct answer: C — the middle of the points and the two means

It summarises the trend, so it belongs among the points with roughly equal numbers above and below. There is no reason for it to pass through the origin.

Q19Predicting beyond the range of the data is called:

  1. Ainterpolation
  2. Bextrapolation
  3. Ccorrelation
  4. Dregression
Show answer

Correct answer: B — extrapolation

It assumes the relationship continues where nothing was measured, and is the less reliable of the two.

Q20A prediction from a line of best fit is most reliable when:

  1. Athe correlation is weak
  2. Bthe value is far outside the range
  3. Cthe correlation is strong and the value is inside the range
  4. Dthere are few points
Show answer

Correct answer: C — the correlation is strong and the value is inside the range

Strong correlation means the points lie close to the line, and staying inside the range means the pattern has actually been observed there.

Q21Ice cream sales correlate with drowning deaths because:

  1. Aice cream causes drowning
  2. Bhot weather causes both
  3. Cdrowning causes ice cream sales
  4. Dthe data is wrong
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hot weather causes both

Temperature is a third factor driving both independently — the standard illustration that correlation is not causation.

Q22Towns with more doctors have more illness. The likely explanation is:

  1. Adoctors cause illness
  2. Bpopulation size causes both
  3. Cillness causes doctors to be born
  4. Dcoincidence only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — population size causes both

Bigger towns have more of everything. Comparing doctors and illness per head of population would test whether any real relationship remains.

Q23On a scatter diagram showing no correlation, you should:

  1. Adraw a horizontal line of best fit
  2. Bdraw no line of best fit
  3. Cextrapolate carefully
  4. Dplot more axes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — draw no line of best fit

There is no trend to summarise, so a line would suggest a relationship the data does not support.

Q24Correlation between two variables means:

  1. Aone causes the other
  2. Bthey tend to change together
  3. Cthey are equal
  4. Dthe data is reliable
Show answer

Correct answer: B — they tend to change together

It describes a tendency to move together and nothing more. Establishing a cause requires a controlled investigation.

Exam-style questions · 18

Q1[2 marks]
Define class boundaries and explain how they differ from class limits.
Answer

Class limits are the values written in the table, such as 20–29. Class boundaries are the true dividing values, 19.5 and 29.5, obtained by going half a unit beyond each limit so that consecutive classes meet with no gap.

Q2[2 marks]
Why is the mean unsuitable as an average for a data set containing one extremely large value?
Answer

The mean uses every value in its calculation, so one very large value pulls it far above the bulk of the data and it no longer represents a typical member of the set. The median should be used instead, because it depends only on position and is unaffected by extremes.

Q3[2 marks]
The shoe sizes sold in a shop in one day were: 7, 8, 8, 9, 8, 10, 7. Which average should the manager use for restocking, and why?
Answer

The mode, which is size 8. The manager needs to know which size sells most often; a mean of 8.14 is not a size that can be ordered.

Q4[4 marks]
Find the mean, median and mode of: 12, 15, 11, 15, 18, 14, 15, 20.
Mark scheme
  1. Σx = 12 + 15 + 11 + 15 + 18 + 14 + 15 + 20 = 120, n = 8[1]
  2. Mean = 120/8 = 15[1]
  3. In order: 11, 12, 14, 15, 15, 15, 18, 20. Median is the mean of the 4th and 5th values = (15 + 15)/2 = 15the data must be ordered first — this is where marks are lost[1]
  4. Mode = 15, occurring three times[1]

Mean = 15, median = 15, mode = 15

Q5[4 marks]
The heights of 30 plants are grouped as: 10–14 (f = 4), 15–19 (f = 7), 20–24 (f = 11), 25–29 (f = 6), 30–34 (f = 2). Estimate the mean height and state the modal class.
Mark scheme
  1. Midpoints 12, 17, 22, 27, 32midpoint of 10–14 is (10 + 14)/2 = 12[1]
  2. fx values 48, 119, 242, 162, 64, so Σfx = 635[1]
  3. x̄ = 635 / 30 = 21.2 cm (1 d.p.)accept 21.17[1]
  4. Modal class is 20–24, the class with the highest frequencythe class is required, not a single value[1]

Estimated mean ≈ 21.2 cm; modal class 20–24

Q6[6 marks]
Two students have the following marks in five tests. Ali: 60, 62, 58, 61, 59. Bilal: 40, 80, 55, 75, 50.
  1. Find the mean mark of each student.
  2. Find the range for each student.
  3. Which student is more consistent? Justify your answer using both statistics.
Mark scheme
  1. Ali: Σx = 300, mean = 300/5 = 60[1]
  2. Bilal: Σx = 300, mean = 300/5 = 60the means are identical, which is the point of the question[1]
  3. Ali's range = 62 − 58 = 4[1]
  4. Bilal's range = 80 − 40 = 40[1]
  5. Ali is more consistent[1]
  6. Both have the same mean, so the mean cannot separate them; Ali's much smaller range shows his marks are clustered close together, while Bilal's vary widelythe justification must refer to the equal means as well as the ranges[1]

(a) both 60 (b) Ali 4, Bilal 40 (c) Ali — same mean but far smaller spread

Q7[2 marks]
State two differences between a bar chart and a histogram.
Answer

A bar chart displays discrete categories with gaps between the bars, and only the heights are meaningful. A histogram displays continuous data with no gaps, and it is the area of each bar that represents the frequency.

Q8[2 marks]
Why is cumulative frequency plotted against the upper class boundary?
Answer

Because the cumulative total for a class counts every observation up to and including the top of that class. The count "36 or fewer" is only complete at the upper boundary, so plotting at the midpoint would claim the total was reached earlier than it was.

Q9[2 marks]
Define the interquartile range and state one advantage it has over the range.
Answer

IQR = Q₃ − Q₁, the spread of the middle 50% of the data. Unlike the range it is unaffected by extreme values, since it depends only on the quartiles and ignores the top and bottom quarters entirely.

Q10[4 marks]
The masses of 50 parcels are grouped: 0–5 kg (6), 5–10 kg (14), 10–15 kg (18), 15–20 kg (9), 20–25 kg (3). Estimate the mean mass and state the modal class.
Mark scheme
  1. Midpoints 2.5, 7.5, 12.5, 17.5, 22.5[1]
  2. fx values 15, 105, 225, 157.5, 67.5 with Σfx = 570[1]
  3. x̄ = 570 / 50 = 11.4 kgaccept 11.4 kg[1]
  4. Modal class 10–15 kg, having the greatest frequency of 18a class, not a single value[1]

Estimated mean 11.4 kg; modal class 10–15 kg

Q11[4 marks]
A cumulative frequency curve for 80 students gives Q₁ = 42, median = 55 and Q₃ = 68 marks. Find the interquartile range, the semi-interquartile range, and estimate how many students scored above 68.
Mark scheme
  1. IQR = 68 − 42 = 26 marks[1]
  2. Semi-IQR = 26 / 2 = 13 marks[1]
  3. Q₃ is the value below which three quarters of the data lie, so 3/4 × 80 = 60 students scored 68 or less[1]
  4. 80 − 60 = 20 students scored above 68a quarter of the data lies above Q₃, by definition[1]

IQR 26 marks; semi-IQR 13 marks; 20 students above 68

Q12[6 marks]
The lifetimes of 100 bulbs in hours are grouped: 0–200 (10), 200–400 (25), 400–600 (35), 600–800 (20), 800–1000 (10).
  1. Construct the cumulative frequency table.
  2. Describe how you would use the ogive to estimate the median.
  3. Estimate the mean lifetime and comment on how it compares with the median.
Mark scheme
  1. Cumulative frequencies 10, 35, 70, 90, 100the last value must equal 100[1]
  2. Points plotted at the upper boundaries 200, 400, 600, 800, 1000, starting from (0, 0)[1]
  3. Draw a horizontal line at N/2 = 50 to the curve and read down to the horizontal axisthe median is about 490 hours[1]
  4. Midpoints 100, 300, 500, 700, 900 with Σfx = 1000 + 7500 + 17500 + 14000 + 9000 = 49 000[1]
  5. x̄ = 49 000 / 100 = 490 hours[1]
  6. The mean and median are almost identical, which indicates that the distribution is roughly symmetrical with no strong skewthe comment is required, not just the two numbers[1]

(a) 10, 35, 70, 90, 100 (b) read across at 50 and down to the axis (c) mean ≈ 490 h, almost equal to the median, so the data is nearly symmetrical

Q13[2 marks]
Describe the correlation you would expect between a car's age and its value.
Answer

Negative correlation — as age increases, value decreases. It would likely be fairly strong, since age is one of the main determinants of a used car's price.

Q14[2 marks]
What does it mean if a scatter diagram shows no correlation?
Answer

The points show no pattern — as one variable changes the other does not tend to change in any particular direction. The two appear unrelated, and no line of best fit should be drawn.

Q15[2 marks]
Why should a line of best fit not be used to predict far outside the plotted data?
Answer

That is extrapolation: it assumes the relationship continues into a region where nothing was measured. The pattern may change or stop, and the prediction may be impossible — such as a predicted mark above 100%.

Q16[4 marks]
A scatter diagram of revision hours against exam mark shows strong positive correlation, with data ranging from 2 to 12 hours.
  1. A student revises for 8 hours. Comment on the reliability of a prediction from the line.
  2. Another revises for 30 hours. Comment on that prediction.
Mark scheme
  1. 8 hours lies within the data range of 2 to 12interpolation[1]
  2. and the correlation is strong, so the points lie close to the line — the prediction is reasonably reliableboth conditions must be checked[1]
  3. 30 hours is far outside the range, so this is extrapolation[1]
  4. The relationship may not continue — marks are capped at 100%, and returns from extra revision are likely to diminish — so the prediction is unreliablea concrete reason is needed[1]

(a) reliable — inside the range and strong correlation (b) unreliable — extrapolation beyond the evidence

Q17[4 marks]
A newspaper reports that towns with more libraries have higher crime rates, and concludes that libraries cause crime. Evaluate this conclusion.
Mark scheme
  1. The conclusion is not justified — correlation does not establish causation[1]
  2. A third factor explains both: population sizenaming it is the key mark[1]
  3. Larger towns have more libraries and also more crime simply because more people live there[1]
  4. Comparing crime and libraries per head of population would test whether any real relationship existsproposing the fix earns the fourth mark[1]

Unjustified — population size causes both. Compare per head of population instead.

Q18[6 marks]
A teacher records the number of days each of 30 students was absent and their end-of-year mark. The scatter diagram shows moderate negative correlation.
  1. Explain what "moderate negative correlation" means here.
  2. Describe how to draw and use a line of best fit to estimate the mark of a student absent for 6 days.
  3. A colleague concludes that absence causes low marks. Give two reasons this may not follow.
Mark scheme
  1. As the number of absences increases, marks tend to decreasethe direction[1]
  2. "Moderate" means the points are somewhat scattered about the trend, so the relationship is real but not tightthe strength[1]
  3. Draw a straight line through the middle of the points, with roughly equal numbers above and below, passing through the point of the two means[1]
  4. Read up from 6 on the absence axis to the line, then across to the mark axis, showing both construction linesshowing the lines is usually a mark[1]
  5. Reason 1: a third factor such as prolonged illness or difficulty at home could cause both the absence and the lower marks[1]
  6. Reason 2: the causation could run the other way — a student who is struggling may become discouraged and stop attendingaccept that moderate correlation means many students do not fit the trend[1]

(a) marks tend to fall as absence rises, with noticeable scatter (b) line through the middle, read up then across (c) a third factor such as illness, or reversed causation

These questions come from the O Level Mathematics (4024) lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.