IGCSE Chemistry (0620) — MCQs & Practice Questions

117 multiple-choice questions and 86 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

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01

States of Matter

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Which state has particles that are far apart and move freely at speed?

  1. ASolid
  2. BLiquid
  3. CGas
  4. DNone of these
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gas

A gas has widely spaced, fast, randomly moving particles — so it has no fixed shape or volume and compresses easily.

Q2While ice is melting, you keep heating it. The temperature:

  1. ARises steadily
  2. BStays constant until all the ice has melted
  3. CFalls
  4. DRises then falls
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Stays constant until all the ice has melted

During a change of state the energy breaks the forces between particles rather than raising their speed, so the temperature holds at the melting point until melting is complete.

Q3Temperature is a measure of:

  1. AThe number of particles
  2. BThe average kinetic energy of the particles
  3. CThe mass of the substance
  4. DThe pressure
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The average kinetic energy of the particles

Higher temperature means the particles have, on average, more kinetic energy — they move faster.

Q4Heating a fixed volume of gas increases its pressure because the particles:

  1. AGet bigger
  2. BHit the walls harder and more often
  3. CTurn into liquid
  4. DStop moving
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Hit the walls harder and more often

Faster particles collide with the container walls more frequently and with greater force, raising the pressure.

Q5Diffusion is fastest when the particles are:

  1. AHeavy and cold
  2. BLight and hot
  3. CHeavy and hot
  4. DLight and cold
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Light and hot

Lighter particles move faster at a given temperature, and higher temperature raises speed further — both speed up diffusion.

Q6Which change of state goes straight from solid to gas?

  1. AMelting
  2. BCondensing
  3. CSublimation
  4. DFreezing
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Sublimation

Sublimation is the direct solid→gas change (e.g. solid carbon dioxide), skipping the liquid state.

Q7During the melting of ice at 0 °C, the temperature stays constant because the energy supplied is used to:

  1. Amake particles move faster
  2. Bovercome the forces holding the lattice together
  3. Cincrease the pressure
  4. Dcreate new particles
Show answer

Correct answer: B — overcome the forces holding the lattice together

At a change of state the energy breaks the forces between particles rather than raising their kinetic energy, so the temperature is constant.

Q8Heating a fixed volume of gas increases its pressure because the particles:

  1. Aget bigger
  2. Bcollide with the walls harder and more often
  3. Cstop moving
  4. Dturn into liquid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — collide with the walls harder and more often

Faster particles make more frequent, harder collisions with the walls, raising the pressure.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe the arrangement and movement of particles in a solid.
Answer

Particles are closely packed in a regular, fixed arrangement and can only vibrate about fixed positions.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why a gas exerts pressure on the walls of its container.
Answer

Gas particles move rapidly in all directions and collide with the walls; the force of these collisions per unit area is the pressure.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain what happens to the particles as a solid is heated until it melts and then boils.
Answer

Heating gives particles more kinetic energy so they vibrate more; at the melting point the forces holding the lattice break and particles move past each other (liquid); at the boiling point particles gain enough energy to escape completely (gas).

Q4[6 marks]
A student investigates diffusion using gas jars.
  1. Define diffusion. [2]
  2. Explain why bromine vapour spreads more slowly than hydrogen gas at the same temperature. [2]
  3. State and explain the effect of raising the temperature on the rate of diffusion. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Diffusion is the movement of particles from a region of higher concentration to lower concentration[1]
  2. ...until they are evenly spread / down a concentration gradient[1]
  3. Bromine molecules are heavier / have greater mass than hydrogen molecules[1]
  4. At the same temperature heavier particles move more slowly, so diffuse more slowly[1]
  5. Raising temperature increases the rate of diffusion[1]
  6. Because particles gain kinetic energy and move faster[1]

Diffusion = spreading down a concentration gradient; lighter particles diffuse faster; higher temperature → faster diffusion.

Q5[3 marks]
A student heats a pure solid until it melts. Sketch-describe what happens to the temperature before, during and after melting, and explain the shape.
Answer

Before melting the temperature rises as particles gain kinetic energy. During melting it stays constant (a plateau) because the energy overcomes the forces holding the lattice. After melting it rises again as the liquid warms.

Q6[6 marks]
A gas is sealed in a container.
  1. Explain, using the kinetic particle model, how the gas exerts pressure on the walls. [2]
  2. Explain what happens to the pressure if the gas is heated at constant volume. [2]
  3. Explain what happens to the pressure if the volume is halved at constant temperature. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Particles move rapidly and randomly, colliding with the walls[1]
  2. the force of these collisions per unit area is the pressure[1]
  3. Heating gives particles more kinetic energy so they move faster[1]
  4. collisions are harder and more frequent, so pressure rises[1]
  5. Halving the volume means the same particles are in a smaller space[1]
  6. so collisions with the walls are twice as frequent and the pressure doubles[1]

Pressure = wall collisions per area; heating raises it (faster, more frequent collisions); halving the volume doubles it (more frequent collisions).

02

Atoms, Elements and Compounds

Multiple choice · 16

Q1What determines which element an atom is?

  1. ANumber of neutrons
  2. BNumber of protons
  3. CNumber of electrons
  4. DTotal mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Number of protons

The proton count — the atomic number — is the identity of the element. Change the neutrons and you have an isotope of the same element; change the electrons and you have an ion. Change the protons and it is a different element entirely.

Q2Sodium has configuration 2, 8, 1. Which best predicts its behaviour?

  1. AIt will gain 7 electrons
  2. BIt will lose 1 electron to form Na⁺
  3. CIt will share 1 electron pair
  4. DIt is unreactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It will lose 1 electron to form Na⁺

Losing one electron leaves 2, 8 — the neon configuration — and costs far less energy than gaining seven. That is why sodium forms Na⁺ readily and why all group 1 metals are so reactive.

Q3Why does atomic radius decrease across a period?

  1. AElectrons are removed
  2. BNuclear charge rises while electrons stay in the same shell, pulling it inward
  3. CA new shell is added
  4. DNeutrons repel the electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nuclear charge rises while electrons stay in the same shell, pulling it inward

Across a period you add a proton and an electron each step, but the electron joins the shell already in use. Shielding barely changes while nuclear pull increases, so the whole shell contracts. Going down a group is the opposite: a new shell is added and the atom grows.

Q4Which element has the highest electronegativity?

  1. AOxygen
  2. BFluorine
  3. CChlorine
  4. DCaesium
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Fluorine

Fluorine sits at 3.98 on the Pauling scale — the top-right corner of the reactive elements, small and with a high nuclear charge. Oxygen is second at 3.44. Caesium is at the opposite extreme, giving electrons away rather than attracting them.

Q5Ionisation energy generally decreases down a group because:

  1. AThe nucleus loses protons
  2. BThe outer electron is further away and shielded by inner shells
  3. CAtoms get lighter
  4. DElectronegativity increases
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The outer electron is further away and shielded by inner shells

Two effects work together: the valence electron sits in a shell further from the nucleus, and the filled inner shells screen it from the nuclear charge. Both weaken the hold, so less energy is needed to strip it away.

Q6Two atoms have 17 protons but 18 and 20 neutrons. They are:

  1. ADifferent elements
  2. BIsotopes of chlorine
  3. CIons of chlorine
  4. DImpossible
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Isotopes of chlorine

Same proton count means both are chlorine; different neutron counts make them isotopes — Cl-35 and Cl-37. Chemistry is set by electrons, so they react identically. Only mass-dependent properties like density and diffusion rate differ.

Q7An element has isotopes of mass 63 (69%) and 65 (31%). Its relative atomic mass is about:

  1. A63.0
  2. B63.6
  3. C64.0
  4. D65.0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 63.6

(63×69 + 65×31)/100 = (4347 + 2015)/100 = 63.6.

Q8Across a period, first ionisation energy generally:

  1. Adecreases
  2. Bincreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Ddoubles
Show answer

Correct answer: B — increases

Increasing nuclear charge with similar shielding holds the outer electrons more tightly, so more energy is needed to remove one.

Q9Sodium chloride conducts electricity when molten but not when solid. Why?

  1. ASolid NaCl has no ions
  2. BThe ions are locked in the lattice when solid but free to move when molten
  3. CHeating creates new electrons
  4. DSolid NaCl is covalent
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The ions are locked in the lattice when solid but free to move when molten

Conduction needs mobile charge carriers. The ions exist in both states, but in the solid they are held rigidly in the lattice. Melting frees them to drift toward the electrodes, and the same happens when NaCl dissolves in water.

Q10Which pair will most likely form an ionic bond?

  1. ACarbon and hydrogen
  2. BMagnesium and oxygen
  3. CNitrogen and oxygen
  4. DChlorine and chlorine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Magnesium and oxygen

Magnesium (EN 1.31) and oxygen (EN 3.44) differ by over 2, and it is a metal-plus-non-metal pairing. Mg loses two electrons and O gains two, giving Mg²⁺O²⁻. The other three are all non-metals sharing electrons covalently.

Q11Why are metals malleable?

  1. ATheir bonds are weak
  2. BLayers of positive ions can slide while the electron sea keeps holding them together
  3. CThey contain no bonds
  4. DThey are made of small molecules
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Layers of positive ions can slide while the electron sea keeps holding them together

Metallic bonding is non-directional — the delocalised electrons hold the lattice together from all sides. Shift a layer and the bonding is unchanged, so the metal deforms instead of shattering. Ionic solids are brittle because sliding brings like charges together.

Q12Water has a low boiling point compared with sodium chloride because:

  1. AThe O–H covalent bonds are weak
  2. BOnly the weak forces between molecules need breaking, not the covalent bonds
  3. CWater contains no bonds
  4. DWater is a metal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Only the weak forces between molecules need breaking, not the covalent bonds

Boiling separates molecules from each other; it does not break them apart. The O–H bonds inside each water molecule survive intact. Only the hydrogen bonding between molecules must be overcome — much weaker than an ionic lattice.

Q13Graphite conducts electricity but diamond does not. Why?

  1. AGraphite contains metal atoms
  2. BEach carbon in graphite bonds to only three neighbours, leaving one delocalised electron
  3. CDiamond has no electrons
  4. DGraphite is ionic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Each carbon in graphite bonds to only three neighbours, leaving one delocalised electron

In diamond every carbon uses all four valence electrons in covalent bonds, leaving nothing free. In graphite only three are used, and the fourth is delocalised across the layer — a mobile charge carrier, just like in a metal.

Q14In a polar covalent bond such as H–Cl, the electrons are:

  1. ATransferred completely to chlorine
  2. BShared, but pulled closer to the more electronegative chlorine
  3. CShared perfectly equally
  4. DNot shared at all
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Shared, but pulled closer to the more electronegative chlorine

The electronegativity gap (2.20 vs 3.16) is too small for a full transfer but large enough to distort the sharing. Chlorine holds the pair closer, giving it a partial negative charge and hydrogen a partial positive — a dipole.

Q15A molecule with four bonding pairs and no lone pairs on the central atom is:

  1. Alinear
  2. Btrigonal planar
  3. Ctetrahedral
  4. Dbent
Show answer

Correct answer: C — tetrahedral

Four bonding pairs repel to a tetrahedral shape with 109.5° angles, as in methane.

Q16The strongest type of intermolecular force is:

  1. Avan der Waals forces
  2. Bhydrogen bonding
  3. Cdipole–dipole forces
  4. Dionic bonds
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hydrogen bonding

Hydrogen bonding (H bonded to N, O or F) is the strongest of the intermolecular forces.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[2 marks]
State the relative charge and relative mass of a proton, a neutron and an electron.
Answer

Proton: charge +1, mass 1. Neutron: charge 0, mass 1. Electron: charge −1, mass negligible (about 1/1840).

Q2[2 marks]
Define the term isotopes.
Answer

Atoms of the same element (same number of protons / same proton number) that have different numbers of neutrons, and so different mass numbers.

Q3[3 marks]
An atom is represented as ³⁵₁₇Cl. State its number of protons, neutrons and electrons.
Answer

Protons = 17, electrons = 17 (neutral atom), neutrons = 35 − 17 = 18.

Q4[6 marks]
Chlorine exists as two isotopes, chlorine-35 and chlorine-37.
  1. Explain why the two isotopes have identical chemical properties. [2]
  2. A sample is 75% chlorine-35 and 25% chlorine-37. Calculate the relative atomic mass of chlorine. [2]
  3. State how many electrons chlorine has in its outer shell, and hence the charge on a chloride ion. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Both isotopes have the same number of electrons / the same electronic configuration (2,8,7)[1]
  2. Chemical properties depend on the (outer) electrons, so they react identically[1]
  3. Ar = (35 × 75 + 37 × 25) ÷ 100sets up weighted mean[1]
  4. Ar = (2625 + 925)/100 = 35.5[1]
  5. 7 electrons in the outer shell[1]
  6. Gains 1 electron, so the chloride ion is Cl⁻ (charge −1)[1]

Same electron arrangement → identical chemistry; Ar = 35.5; 7 outer electrons, so Cl⁻.

Q5[3 marks]
Boron has two isotopes: boron-10 (20%) and boron-11 (80%). Calculate its relative atomic mass.
Answer

Aᵣ = (10 × 20 + 11 × 80) ÷ 100 = (200 + 880) ÷ 100 = 1080 ÷ 100 = 10.8.

Q6[6 marks]
This question is about the electronic structure of calcium (proton number 20).
  1. Write the full electron configuration of a calcium atom. [2]
  2. Write the electron configuration of a Ca²⁺ ion. [1]
  3. The successive ionisation energies of calcium show a large jump after the second electron is removed. Explain what this tells you. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s²[1]
  2. electron count totals 20[1]
  3. Ca²⁺: 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ (loses the two 4s electrons)[1]
  4. The first two electrons are removed from the outer 4s sub-shell[1]
  5. The third is removed from the 3p, a shell closer to the nucleus[1]
  6. which is held much more strongly, so far more energy is needed — showing two electrons in the outer shell[1]

Ca = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²; Ca²⁺ = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶; the jump after 2 electrons shows only two electrons in the outer shell.

Q7[2 marks]
Describe how an ionic bond forms between sodium and chlorine.
Answer

Sodium loses one electron to chlorine; sodium becomes Na⁺ and chlorine becomes Cl⁻, and the oppositely charged ions attract by strong electrostatic forces.

Q8[2 marks]
Explain why sodium chloride has a high melting point.
Answer

It has a giant ionic lattice; the many strong electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions need a large amount of energy to overcome.

Q9[3 marks]
Explain why a simple molecular substance such as methane has a low boiling point, whereas diamond has a very high one.
Answer

Methane has weak intermolecular forces between molecules, which need little energy to overcome. Diamond is a giant covalent structure with strong covalent bonds throughout, needing very large energy to break.

Q10[7 marks]
Magnesium oxide (MgO) is ionic; carbon dioxide (CO₂) is simple molecular.
  1. Describe, in terms of electron transfer, how MgO forms. [2]
  2. Explain why MgO conducts electricity when molten but not when solid. [2]
  3. Explain why CO₂ is a gas at room temperature while MgO is a solid. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Magnesium loses 2 electrons to oxygen, forming Mg²⁺ and O²⁻[1]
  2. The oppositely charged ions attract by strong electrostatic forces[1]
  3. When molten, the ions are free to move and carry charge[1]
  4. When solid, the ions are fixed in the lattice and cannot move[1]
  5. CO₂ is simple molecular with weak intermolecular forces[1]
  6. Little energy is needed to separate the molecules, so it is a gas[1]
  7. MgO is a giant ionic lattice with strong forces needing much energy, so it is a high-melting solid[1]

Mg→Mg²⁺ + O→O²⁻ (electrostatic attraction); MgO conducts molten (mobile ions) not solid (fixed ions); CO₂ gas (weak intermolecular forces) vs MgO solid (giant lattice, strong forces).

Q11[2 marks]
Explain why the boiling points of the noble gases increase down the group.
Answer

Down the group the atoms have more electrons, so the van der Waals (London) forces between them are stronger and need more energy to overcome, raising the boiling point.

Q12[6 marks]
Consider the molecules methane (CH₄) and water (H₂O).
  1. State the shape and bond angle of methane, and explain them. [3]
  2. Explain why water has a much higher boiling point than methane, even though water is a smaller molecule. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Methane is tetrahedral[1]
  2. with a bond angle of 109.5°[1]
  3. because four bonding pairs repel to get as far apart as possible[1]
  4. Water molecules form hydrogen bonds (O–H, H bonded to O)[1]
  5. methane has only weak van der Waals forces[1]
  6. hydrogen bonds are much stronger, so water needs far more energy to boil[1]

Methane: tetrahedral, 109.5°, four repelling bonding pairs; water boils higher because of strong hydrogen bonding vs methane's weak van der Waals forces.

03

Stoichiometry

Multiple choice · 8

Q1How many moles are in 88 g of CO₂? (M = 44 g/mol)

  1. A0.5 mol
  2. B2 mol
  3. C44 mol
  4. D88 mol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 mol

n = m/M = 88/44 = 2 mol. Each mole contains 6.022 × 10²³ molecules, so this sample holds about 1.2 × 10²⁴ CO₂ molecules.

Q2In 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O, you have 6 mol H₂ and 2 mol O₂. Which is limiting?

  1. AH₂
  2. BO₂
  3. CNeither — perfect ratio
  4. DBoth equally
Show answer

Correct answer: B — O₂

Divide by coefficients: H₂ gives 6/2 = 3, O₂ gives 2/1 = 2. Oxygen produces the smaller number, so it runs out first and limits the reaction. You get 4 mol of water and 2 mol of H₂ left over.

Q3What does the "2" in 2H₂O tell you?

  1. AThere are 2 hydrogen atoms
  2. BThere are 2 water molecules
  3. CThe mass is 2 grams
  4. DThe reaction happens twice
Show answer

Correct answer: B — There are 2 water molecules

A coefficient in front multiplies the entire formula unit: 2 water molecules, so 4 hydrogen atoms and 2 oxygen atoms in total. A subscript, like the 2 in H₂O, counts atoms within one molecule instead.

Q4A reaction should theoretically produce 50 g but you collect 42 g. The percentage yield is:

  1. A84%
  2. B119%
  3. C8%
  4. D92%
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 84%

(actual / theoretical) × 100 = (42 / 50) × 100 = 84%. Losses of this size are completely normal — product sticks to glassware, reactions do not run to completion, and side reactions consume some reactant.

Q5Why must chemical equations be balanced?

  1. ATo make the numbers neat
  2. BBecause atoms are conserved — they are rearranged, not created or destroyed
  3. CTo make the reaction faster
  4. DBecause moles must always be whole numbers
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because atoms are conserved — they are rearranged, not created or destroyed

Conservation of mass. Every atom present before the reaction is present after it, just bonded differently. An unbalanced equation implies atoms appeared from nowhere, and any mole calculation built on it would be wrong.

Q6You add excess magnesium to a fixed amount of hydrochloric acid. What limits the hydrogen produced?

  1. AThe magnesium
  2. BThe acid
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNothing — the reaction continues indefinitely
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The acid

"Excess" means there is more magnesium than can react, so the acid runs out first and is the limiting reagent. Leftover magnesium simply sits at the bottom unreacted — a common sight in this classic school experiment.

Q70.25 mol of gas at r.t.p. occupies a volume of about:

  1. A6 dm³
  2. B12 dm³
  3. C24 dm³
  4. D48 dm³
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 6 dm³

One mole of any gas occupies 24 dm³ at r.t.p., so V = n × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm³.

Q8A compound has empirical formula CH₂ and relative molecular mass 42. Its molecular formula is:

  1. ACH₂
  2. BC₂H₄
  3. CC₃H₆
  4. DC₄H₈
Show answer

Correct answer: C — C₃H₆

Empirical mass = 14; 42 ÷ 14 = 3, so C₃H₆.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Calculate the number of moles in 8.0 g of methane, CH₄. (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)
Answer

Mr of CH₄ = 12 + 4 = 16. Moles = mass ÷ Mr = 8.0 ÷ 16 = 0.50 mol.

Q2[2 marks]
Define the term relative molecular mass.
Answer

The sum of the relative atomic masses of all the atoms shown in the molecular formula of a substance.

Q3[3 marks]
Balance the equation: __ Al + __ O₂ → __ Al₂O₃.
Answer

4 Al + 3 O₂ → 2 Al₂O₃.

Q4[7 marks]
Calcium carbonate decomposes: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂. (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
  1. Calculate the relative formula mass of CaCO₃. [1]
  2. Calculate the mass of CaO produced from 25 g of CaCO₃. [3]
  3. Calculate the volume of CO₂ produced at r.t.p. (1 mole of gas = 24 dm³). [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Mr(CaCO₃) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100[1]
  2. Moles CaCO₃ = 25 ÷ 100 = 0.25 mol[1]
  3. Moles CaO = 0.25 (1:1 ratio); Mr(CaO) = 56[1]
  4. Mass CaO = 0.25 × 56 = 14 g[1]
  5. Moles CO₂ = 0.25 (1:1 ratio)[1]
  6. Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24[1]
  7. Volume CO₂ = 6.0 dm³[1]

Mr = 100; 14 g CaO; 6.0 dm³ CO₂.

Q5[3 marks]
Calculate the concentration, in mol/dm³, of a solution made by dissolving 0.20 mol of sodium chloride in 500 cm³ of solution.
Answer

V = 500 ÷ 1000 = 0.50 dm³. c = n ÷ V = 0.20 ÷ 0.50 = 0.40 mol/dm³.

Q6[7 marks]
Iron is extracted by reducing iron(III) oxide: Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂. (Ar: Fe = 56, O = 16, C = 12)
  1. Calculate the relative formula mass of Fe₂O₃. [1]
  2. Calculate the mass of iron produced from 320 tonnes of Fe₂O₃. [3]
  3. Calculate the atom economy of this reaction for making iron. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Mr(Fe₂O₃) = 112 + 48 = 160[1]
  2. Moles Fe₂O₃ = 320 ÷ 160 = 2 (tonne-moles)[1]
  3. Moles Fe = 2 × 2 = 4; Ar(Fe) = 56[1]
  4. Mass Fe = 4 × 56 = 224 tonnes[1]
  5. Desired product mass in equation = 2 × 56 = 112; total product mass = 112 + 3 × 44 = 244[1]
  6. Atom economy = (112 ÷ 244) × 100[1]
  7. = 45.9% (≈ 46%)[1]

Mr = 160; 224 tonnes of iron; atom economy ≈ 46%.

04

Electrochemistry

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In OIL RIG, reduction is:

  1. Aloss of electrons
  2. Bgain of electrons
  3. Closs of protons
  4. Dgain of neutrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — gain of electrons

Reduction Is Gain of electrons; oxidation is loss.

Q2For electrolysis to work, the ionic compound must be:

  1. Asolid
  2. Bmolten or dissolved
  3. Ca gas
  4. Dpure metal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — molten or dissolved

The ions must be free to move, which they are only when molten or in solution.

Q3At the cathode during electrolysis:

  1. Aanions lose electrons (oxidation)
  2. Bcations gain electrons (reduction)
  3. Cnothing happens
  4. Dwater evaporates
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cations gain electrons (reduction)

The cathode is negative; positive ions are attracted and gain electrons — reduction.

Q4Electrolysing molten lead(II) bromide gives bromine at the:

  1. Acathode
  2. Banode
  3. Cboth electrodes
  4. Dneither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — anode

Br⁻ ions migrate to the positive anode and lose electrons to form bromine (oxidation).

Q5Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis because it is:

  1. Acheap to melt
  2. Btoo reactive to be reduced by carbon
  3. Ca non-metal
  4. Dfound as the pure metal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — too reactive to be reduced by carbon

Aluminium is above carbon in reactivity, so only electrolysis of its molten oxide can extract it.

Q6In electroplating an object with silver, the object is the:

  1. Aanode
  2. Bcathode
  3. Celectrolyte
  4. Dbattery
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cathode

The object to be plated is the negative cathode, where silver ions are reduced and deposit onto it.

Q7The oxidation number of sulfur in SO₂ is:

  1. A−2
  2. B0
  3. C+2
  4. D+4
Show answer

Correct answer: D — +4

Oxygen is −2 (×2 = −4); the total must be 0, so sulfur is +4.

Q8Electrolysing concentrated sodium chloride solution produces chlorine at the:

  1. Acathode
  2. Banode
  3. Csalt bridge
  4. Dboth electrodes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — anode

Chloride ions are oxidised at the positive anode, releasing chlorine gas.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define oxidation and reduction in terms of electrons.
Answer

Oxidation is loss of electrons; reduction is gain of electrons (OIL RIG).

Q2[2 marks]
State what is meant by electrolysis.
Answer

The breakdown (decomposition) of an ionic compound, when molten or in aqueous solution, by the passage of an electric current.

Q3[3 marks]
During the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide, write the electrode reactions and name the products.
Answer

Cathode (−): Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb (lead metal). Anode (+): 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻ (bromine gas).

Q4[7 marks]
Molten aluminium oxide is electrolysed to extract aluminium.
  1. Explain why the aluminium oxide must be molten. [2]
  2. Write the half-equation for the reaction at the cathode. [2]
  3. State the product at the anode and explain why the carbon anodes must be replaced regularly. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Melting frees the ions[1]
  2. so they can move to the electrodes and carry the current[1]
  3. Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al[1]
  4. balanced with electrons[1]
  5. Oxygen is produced at the anode[1]
  6. The hot oxygen reacts with the carbon anodes forming carbon dioxide[1]
  7. so the anodes burn away and must be replaced[1]

Molten = mobile ions to carry current; cathode Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al; anode makes O₂, which burns the carbon anodes to CO₂ so they wear away.

Q5[2 marks]
Deduce the oxidation number of manganese in the permanganate ion, MnO₄⁻.
Answer

Oxygen is −2, so 4 × (−2) = −8. The whole ion has a charge of −1, so Mn + (−8) = −1, giving Mn = +7.

Q6[6 marks]
Impure copper is purified by electrolysis using copper electrodes in copper(II) sulfate solution.
  1. State which electrode is made of impure copper, and the half-equation there. [2]
  2. State what forms at the other electrode, with its half-equation. [2]
  3. Explain what happens to the impurities. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The anode (positive electrode) is the impure copper[1]
  2. Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ (copper dissolves)[1]
  3. Pure copper deposits on the cathode[1]
  4. Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu[1]
  5. Impurities do not dissolve / are not deposited[1]
  6. they collect below the anode as anode sludge[1]

Anode = impure copper (Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻); cathode gains pure copper (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu); impurities drop as anode sludge.

05

Chemical Energetics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In an exothermic reaction, the temperature of the surroundings:

  1. Afalls
  2. Brises
  3. Cstays the same
  4. Dcannot be measured
Show answer

Correct answer: B — rises

Exothermic reactions release energy to the surroundings, so the temperature goes up.

Q2Which is an endothermic process?

  1. ACombustion
  2. BRespiration
  3. CThermal decomposition
  4. DNeutralisation
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Thermal decomposition

Thermal decomposition takes energy in to break a compound apart; the other three release energy.

Q3For an exothermic reaction, the products are ___ the reactants and ΔH is ___.

  1. Ahigher than; positive
  2. Blower than; negative
  3. Cequal to; zero
  4. Dlower than; positive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lower than; negative

Energy is released, so products sit lower on the energy profile and ΔH is negative.

Q4Breaking chemical bonds:

  1. Areleases energy
  2. Btakes energy in
  3. Chas no energy change
  4. Dalways makes a reaction exothermic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — takes energy in

Bond breaking is endothermic — energy must be supplied; bond making releases energy.

Q5A reaction is exothermic overall when:

  1. Abreaking bonds releases more than making them
  2. Bmaking bonds releases more than breaking them absorbs
  3. Cno bonds change
  4. Da catalyst is used
Show answer

Correct answer: B — making bonds releases more than breaking them absorbs

If the energy out from forming new bonds exceeds the energy in to break old ones, there is a net release — exothermic.

Q6Adding a catalyst changes:

  1. AΔH
  2. Bthe activation energy only
  3. Cthe products
  4. Dwhether it is exothermic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the activation energy only

A catalyst lowers the activation energy but leaves the reactants, products and ΔH unchanged.

Q7In the equation q = mcΔT, the mass m refers to the mass of:

  1. Athe fuel burned
  2. Bthe water heated
  3. Cthe container
  4. Dthe products
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the water heated

The heat is measured by the temperature rise of the water, so m is the mass of water.

Q8Hess's law is a direct consequence of the:

  1. Aconservation of mass
  2. Bconservation of energy
  3. Cideal gas law
  4. Dlaw of definite proportions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — conservation of energy

Because energy is conserved, the total enthalpy change depends only on the start and end states, not the route.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define an exothermic reaction and give one example.
Answer

A reaction that transfers energy to the surroundings (temperature of surroundings rises), e.g. combustion / neutralisation.

Q2[2 marks]
In terms of bond breaking and bond making, explain why a reaction is exothermic.
Answer

Bond breaking absorbs energy and bond making releases energy; in an exothermic reaction more energy is released making bonds than is absorbed breaking them.

Q3[3 marks]
Sketch and label an energy level diagram for an exothermic reaction, marking the activation energy and the enthalpy change (ΔH).
Answer

Reactants at a higher energy than products; a 'hump' above the reactants marks the activation energy; ΔH is the (negative) drop from reactants to products.

Q4[6 marks]
Hydrogen burns in oxygen: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O. Bond energies (kJ/mol): H–H = 436, O=O = 498, O–H = 464.
  1. Calculate the total energy absorbed to break the bonds in the reactants. [2]
  2. Calculate the total energy released when the bonds in the products form. [2]
  3. Calculate ΔH and state whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Bonds broken = 2(H–H) + 1(O=O) = 2(436) + 498[1]
  2. = 872 + 498 = 1370 kJ[1]
  3. Bonds made = 4 O–H = 4 × 464[1]
  4. = 1856 kJ[1]
  5. ΔH = energy in − energy out = 1370 − 1856 = −486 kJ/mol[1]
  6. Negative ΔH, so the reaction is exothermic[1]

Broken = 1370 kJ; made = 1856 kJ; ΔH = −486 kJ/mol → exothermic.

Q5[2 marks]
Burning a fuel raises the temperature of 200 g of water by 25 °C. Calculate the heat energy transferred to the water. (c = 4.2 J/g/°C)
Answer

q = mcΔT = 200 × 4.2 × 25 = 21 000 J = 21 kJ.

Q6[6 marks]
0.32 g of methanol is burned and heats 100 g of water by 24 °C. (c of water = 4.2 J/g/°C; Mr methanol = 32)
  1. Calculate the heat energy released to the water. [2]
  2. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of methanol in kJ/mol. [3]
  3. Suggest one reason the value is less negative than the data-book value. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. q = mcΔT = 100 × 4.2 × 24[1]
  2. = 10 080 J = 10.08 kJ[1]
  3. moles methanol = 0.32 ÷ 32 = 0.010 mol[1]
  4. ΔH = 10.08 ÷ 0.010 = 1008 kJ/mol (magnitude)[1]
  5. ΔH ≈ −1010 kJ/mol (exothermic, so negative)[1]
  6. Heat lost to the surroundings / incomplete combustion / evaporation[1]

q = 10.08 kJ; ΔH ≈ −1010 kJ/mol; less negative than the true value because heat escapes / combustion is incomplete.

06

Rate of Reaction

Multiple choice · 8

Q1According to collision theory, a collision only leads to reaction if the particles:

  1. Aare the same size
  2. Bcollide with at least the activation energy and correct orientation
  3. Care both gases
  4. Dare catalysts
Show answer

Correct answer: B — collide with at least the activation energy and correct orientation

Enough energy (the activation energy) and the right orientation are both needed for a successful collision.

Q2Increasing concentration speeds up a reaction because there are:

  1. Afewer particles
  2. Bmore frequent collisions
  3. Cweaker bonds
  4. Dlower activation energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more frequent collisions

More particles in the same volume collide more often, so more successful collisions occur per second.

Q3Powdering a solid reactant increases the rate because it increases the:

  1. Atemperature
  2. Bsurface area exposed to collisions
  3. Cactivation energy
  4. Dmass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — surface area exposed to collisions

Smaller pieces expose far more surface, giving more sites where collisions with the other reactant can occur.

Q4A catalyst speeds up a reaction by:

  1. Araising the temperature
  2. Bbeing used up
  3. Clowering the activation energy
  4. Dincreasing concentration
Show answer

Correct answer: C — lowering the activation energy

It provides an alternative route with a lower activation energy, so a greater fraction of collisions succeed — and it is not consumed.

Q5Why is raising temperature especially effective at increasing rate?

  1. AIt only increases collisions
  2. BIt both increases collision frequency and gives more particles the activation energy
  3. CIt lowers the activation energy
  4. DIt adds a catalyst
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It both increases collision frequency and gives more particles the activation energy

Temperature acts on both frequency and energy of collisions, unlike concentration or surface area.

Q6A reaction produces gas. Its rate is greatest:

  1. Aat the very end
  2. Bat the start
  3. Cexactly halfway
  4. Dit is constant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — at the start

Reactant concentration is highest at the start, so collisions are most frequent then; the rate falls as reactants are consumed.

Q7On a graph of gas volume against time, the rate of reaction is given by:

  1. Athe final volume
  2. Bthe gradient of the curve
  3. Cthe time axis
  4. Dthe area under the curve
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the gradient of the curve

Rate is how fast the measured quantity changes, i.e. the gradient of the graph.

Q8A catalyst increases the fraction of successful collisions by:

  1. Araising the temperature
  2. Blowering the activation energy
  3. Cadding more reactant
  4. Dincreasing the pressure
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lowering the activation energy

A catalyst provides a route with lower activation energy, so more molecules already have enough energy to react.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State two things that must happen for a reaction to occur, according to collision theory.
Answer

Particles must collide, and they must collide with enough energy (at least the activation energy) and correct orientation.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain, using collision theory, why increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate.
Answer

Higher concentration means more particles per unit volume, so collisions are more frequent, increasing the rate.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain how a catalyst increases the rate of a reaction.
Answer

A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, so a greater proportion of collisions are successful, increasing the rate. It is not used up.

Q4[6 marks]
A student measures the volume of gas produced when marble chips react with dilute hydrochloric acid.
  1. Explain, using collision theory, why the reaction is faster when the acid is warmer. [3]
  2. Explain why using powdered marble instead of large chips increases the rate. [2]
  3. State how the rate can be found from a graph of gas volume against time. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. At higher temperature particles have more kinetic energy and move faster[1]
  2. Collisions are more frequent[1]
  3. and a greater proportion have energy ≥ activation energy, so more are successful[1]
  4. Powder has a larger surface area (area to volume)[1]
  5. so more frequent collisions with acid particles / more sites for reaction[1]
  6. The rate is the gradient (slope) of the graph[1]

Higher temperature: faster, more energetic collisions; powder: greater surface area → more frequent collisions; rate = gradient of the volume–time graph.

Q5[2 marks]
A reaction produces carbon dioxide gas. Describe two different ways its rate could be measured.
Answer

Collect the gas in a gas syringe and record the volume at fixed times, or stand the flask on a balance and record the loss in mass as the gas escapes.

Q6[6 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles and their energies, the effect of the following on the rate of a reaction.
  1. Increasing the temperature. [3]
  2. Adding a catalyst. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Particles gain kinetic energy and move faster, so collisions are more frequent[1]
  2. a greater proportion of collisions have energy above the activation energy[1]
  3. so a much larger fraction are successful — the rate rises sharply[1]
  4. A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with a lower activation energy[1]
  5. so a greater fraction of the existing molecules have enough energy to react[1]
  6. more successful collisions per second; the catalyst is not used up[1]

Higher temperature: faster, more energetic collisions, more exceed Ea. Catalyst: lower Ea, so more molecules already exceed it; recovered unchanged.

07

Reversible Reactions and Equilibrium

Multiple choice · 8

Q1At dynamic equilibrium in a closed system:

  1. Aboth reactions have stopped
  2. Bthe forward and backward rates are equal and concentrations are constant
  3. Conly the forward reaction occurs
  4. Dthe reactants are all used up
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the forward and backward rates are equal and concentrations are constant

Equilibrium is dynamic — both reactions continue at equal rates, so the concentrations no longer change.

Q2Le Chatelier's principle says a system responds to a change by shifting to:

  1. Aspeed up
  2. Boppose the change
  3. Creach 100% product
  4. Dstop reacting
Show answer

Correct answer: B — oppose the change

The equilibrium moves in the direction that partly cancels whatever change you imposed.

Q3Adding more reactant to a system at equilibrium shifts it:

  1. Abackward
  2. Bforward, to use up the added reactant
  3. Cnowhere
  4. Dto the endothermic side
Show answer

Correct answer: B — forward, to use up the added reactant

The system opposes the increase by shifting forward, consuming some of the added reactant.

Q4Raising the temperature of an equilibrium favours the:

  1. Aexothermic direction
  2. Bendothermic direction
  3. Cside with fewer molecules
  4. Dcatalyst
Show answer

Correct answer: B — endothermic direction

The system absorbs the extra heat by shifting in the endothermic direction.

Q5For N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, increasing the pressure shifts equilibrium:

  1. Aleft (fewer product)
  2. Bright, toward the side with fewer gas molecules
  3. Cnowhere
  4. Dtoward hydrogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — right, toward the side with fewer gas molecules

4 gas molecules on the left, 2 on the right; higher pressure favours the smaller number — more ammonia.

Q6Adding a catalyst to a reversible reaction:

  1. Aincreases the yield
  2. Breaches equilibrium faster without changing the yield
  3. Cshifts it forward
  4. Dshifts it back
Show answer

Correct answer: B — reaches equilibrium faster without changing the yield

A catalyst speeds both directions equally — equilibrium arrives sooner, but its position (and the yield) is unchanged.

Q7The catalyst used in the Contact process (2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃) is:

  1. Airon
  2. Bvanadium(V) oxide (V₂O₅)
  3. Cnickel
  4. Dplatinum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — vanadium(V) oxide (V₂O₅)

The Contact process uses a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst; iron is the Haber-process catalyst.

Q8The Contact process manufactures:

  1. Aammonia
  2. Bsulfuric acid
  3. Cnitric acid
  4. Dchlorine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sulfuric acid

The Contact process makes sulfuric acid; the Haber process makes ammonia.

Exam-style questions · 4

Q1[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by dynamic equilibrium.
Answer

In a closed system, the forward and backward reactions occur at equal rates, so the concentrations of reactants and products stay constant while both reactions continue.

Q2[2 marks]
State Le Chatelier's principle.
Answer

If the conditions of a system at equilibrium are changed, the equilibrium shifts in the direction that opposes (partly cancels) the change.

Q3[3 marks]
For the exothermic reaction N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, state and explain the effect of increasing temperature on the yield of ammonia.
Answer

Increasing temperature shifts the equilibrium in the endothermic (backward) direction, so the yield of ammonia decreases (though the reaction is faster).

Q4[6 marks]
The Haber and Contact processes are both important industrial equilibria.
  1. For the Haber process (N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃), explain why high pressure increases the yield of ammonia. [3]
  2. Name the catalyst used in the Contact process and give the equation for its key equilibrium step. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. There are 4 gas molecules on the left and 2 on the right[1]
  2. Higher pressure shifts the equilibrium to the side with fewer gas molecules[1]
  3. so it shifts right, increasing the yield of ammonia[1]
  4. The Contact process uses a vanadium(V) oxide (V₂O₅) catalyst[1]
  5. 2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃[1]
  6. balanced equation with correct formulae[1]

High pressure shifts to fewer gas molecules (right) → more NH₃; Contact process uses V₂O₅ for 2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃.

08

Acids, Bases and Salts

Multiple choice · 8

Q1An acid is a substance that, in water, releases:

  1. AOH⁻ ions
  2. BH⁺ ions
  3. Celectrons
  4. Dsodium ions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — H⁺ ions

Hydrogen ions (H⁺) are responsible for all acidic behaviour; an alkali releases OH⁻ instead.

Q2"Strong acid" means the acid:

  1. Ais very concentrated
  2. Bionises completely in water
  3. Chas a high boiling point
  4. Dis dangerous to touch
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ionises completely in water

Strong vs weak is about complete vs partial ionisation, independent of how concentrated (dilute) the solution is.

Q3A solution of pH 2 compared with pH 4 is:

  1. Atwice as acidic
  2. B100 times more acidic
  3. Chalf as acidic
  4. Dthe same
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 100 times more acidic

The scale is logarithmic: two pH units is 10 × 10 = 100 times the H⁺ concentration.

Q4The products of neutralising an acid with an alkali are:

  1. Asalt + hydrogen
  2. Bsalt + water
  3. Csalt + carbon dioxide
  4. Dhydrogen + oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — salt + water

Acid + alkali → salt + water; ionically, H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O.

Q5Fizzing and limewater turning milky when acid is added tells you the other reactant was a:

  1. Ametal
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Cstrong alkali
  4. Dsalt
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbonate

Acid + carbonate releases carbon dioxide (the fizzing), and CO₂ turns limewater milky.

Q6Zinc reacting with sulfuric acid produces:

  1. Azinc chloride + hydrogen
  2. Bzinc sulfate + hydrogen
  3. Czinc sulfate + water
  4. Dzinc oxide + carbon dioxide
Show answer

Correct answer: B — zinc sulfate + hydrogen

Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen; sulfuric acid makes a sulfate, so it is zinc sulfate + hydrogen.

Q7In a titration, phenolphthalein changes from:

  1. Ared to yellow
  2. Bcolourless to pink
  3. Cblue to red
  4. Dgreen to purple
Show answer

Correct answer: B — colourless to pink

Phenolphthalein is colourless in acid and pink in alkali, giving a sharp end point.

Q8A Brønsted–Lowry base is defined as a substance that:

  1. Adonates protons
  2. Baccepts protons
  3. Cdonates electrons
  4. Dproduces H⁺
Show answer

Correct answer: B — accepts protons

A Brønsted–Lowry base is a proton (H⁺) acceptor; an acid is a proton donor.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what all acids produce in aqueous solution, and give the pH range of an acid.
Answer

Acids produce hydrogen ions, H⁺, in aqueous solution; their pH is below 7.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain the difference between a strong acid and a weak acid.
Answer

A strong acid is fully ionised in water; a weak acid is only partly ionised. It is about degree of ionisation, not concentration.

Q3[3 marks]
Write a word and balanced symbol equation for the reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide.
Answer

Hydrochloric acid + sodium hydroxide → sodium chloride + water. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O.

Q4[7 marks]
A student prepares dry crystals of copper(II) sulfate from copper(II) oxide and dilute sulfuric acid.
  1. Write the balanced equation for the reaction. [2]
  2. Describe how the student obtains pure dry crystals from the mixture. [4]
  3. Explain why excess copper(II) oxide is used. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O (correct formulae)[1]
  2. Equation balanced[1]
  3. Warm the acid and add excess copper(II) oxide, then filter off the unreacted solid[1]
  4. Heat the filtrate to evaporate some water / to the point of crystallisation[1]
  5. Leave to cool so crystals form[1]
  6. Filter and dry the crystals (e.g. between filter paper)[1]
  7. Excess ensures all the acid reacts, and the excess solid can simply be filtered off[1]

CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O; react with excess base, filter, evaporate to crystallisation, cool, filter, dry; excess guarantees all acid used and is easily removed.

Q5[2 marks]
A solution has a hydrogen-ion concentration of 1 × 10⁻³ mol/dm³. Calculate its pH and state whether it is acidic or alkaline.
Answer

pH = −log₁₀(1 × 10⁻³) = 3. pH 3 is below 7, so the solution is acidic.

Q6[6 marks]
A student is asked to prepare pure, dry crystals of copper(II) sulfate from copper(II) oxide (an insoluble base) and dilute sulfuric acid.
  1. Write the equation for the reaction. [2]
  2. Describe the method to obtain pure dry crystals. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O (correct formulae)[1]
  2. balanced[1]
  3. Warm the acid and add copper(II) oxide in excess until no more reacts[1]
  4. Filter to remove the excess copper(II) oxide[1]
  5. Heat the filtrate to evaporate water to the point of crystallisation, then leave to cool[1]
  6. Filter off the crystals and dry them (e.g. between filter paper)[1]

CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O; react with excess base, filter, evaporate to crystallisation, cool, filter, dry.

09

The Periodic Table

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Elements in the same group have the same:

  1. Anumber of neutrons
  2. Bnumber of outer-shell electrons
  3. Cmass
  4. Dnumber of shells
Show answer

Correct answer: B — number of outer-shell electrons

A group shares outer-electron count, which is what sets chemistry — so a group behaves as a family.

Q2Going DOWN group 1, reactivity:

  1. Adecreases
  2. Bincreases
  3. Cstays the same
  4. Ddisappears
Show answer

Correct answer: B — increases

The outer electron is further out and more shielded lower down, so it is lost more easily — potassium is more reactive than sodium.

Q3Going DOWN group 7, reactivity:

  1. Aincreases
  2. Bdecreases
  3. Cstays the same
  4. Dbecomes metallic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decreases

Gaining an electron gets harder as the shell moves out, so halogens get less reactive down the group.

Q4Which will happen: chlorine added to potassium bromide solution?

  1. ANothing
  2. BChlorine displaces bromine
  3. CBromine displaces chlorine
  4. DPotassium is released
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Chlorine displaces bromine

Chlorine is the more reactive halogen, so it displaces bromine: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.

Q5Noble gases are unreactive because they have:

  1. Ano electrons
  2. Ba full outer shell
  3. Cone outer electron
  4. Dseven outer electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a full outer shell

A complete outer shell is very stable, so noble gases have no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons.

Q6Which is a typical property of transition metals but NOT group 1 metals?

  1. ABeing solid
  2. BForming ions of more than one charge
  3. CConducting electricity
  4. DBeing metallic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Forming ions of more than one charge

Transition metals form variable-charge ions (e.g. Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺) and coloured compounds; group 1 metals form only +1 ions.

Q7Across Period 3, atomic radius:

  1. Aincreases
  2. Bdecreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Dpeaks in the middle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decreases

Rising nuclear charge with electrons in the same shell pulls the atom inward, so the radius decreases.

Q8The element in Period 3 with by far the highest melting point is:

  1. Asodium
  2. Bsilicon
  3. Csulfur
  4. Dargon
Show answer

Correct answer: B — silicon

Silicon is a giant covalent structure, so a vast number of strong covalent bonds must be broken to melt it.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State how the elements are arranged in the modern Periodic Table.
Answer

In order of increasing proton (atomic) number, arranged in periods (rows) and groups (columns) of similar properties.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe the trend in reactivity down Group I and explain it.
Answer

Reactivity increases down Group I because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why the elements in Group VII show similar chemical properties but Group 0 (noble gases) are unreactive.
Answer

Group VII atoms all have 7 outer electrons, so they react similarly (gaining/sharing one electron). Noble gases have a full outer shell, so they have no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons and are unreactive.

Q4[6 marks]
Chlorine, bromine and iodine are Group VII elements.
  1. Describe the trend in reactivity down Group VII and explain it. [3]
  2. Predict what happens when chlorine is added to a solution of potassium bromide, and write an equation. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Reactivity decreases down the group[1]
  2. The outer shell is further from the nucleus / more shielded[1]
  3. So it is harder to attract/gain an electron[1]
  4. Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine[1]
  5. The solution turns orange (bromine formed)[1]
  6. Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂[1]

Reactivity falls down the group (outer shell further/shielded, harder to gain e⁻); chlorine displaces bromine: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.

Q5[2 marks]
State and explain the trend in the reactivity of the Group 1 metals down the group.
Answer

Reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is lost more easily.

Q6[6 marks]
This question is about trends in Period 3 (Na to Ar).
  1. Describe how melting point changes across Period 3 and explain the value for silicon. [3]
  2. State the trend in first ionisation energy across the period and explain it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Melting point rises from Na to a peak at Si, then falls sharply to Ar[1]
  2. Silicon is a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure[1]
  3. so a huge number of strong covalent bonds must be broken — very high melting point[1]
  4. First ionisation energy generally increases across the period[1]
  5. because nuclear charge increases while shielding stays similar[1]
  6. so the outer electron is held more tightly and needs more energy to remove[1]

Melting point rises to a giant-covalent peak at Si then falls to molecular Ar; first ionisation energy rises (more nuclear charge, similar shielding).

10

Metals

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The reactivity series orders metals by how readily they:

  1. Amelt
  2. Blose electrons to form positive ions
  3. Cconduct electricity
  4. Drust
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lose electrons to form positive ions

Higher up = gives up electrons more readily = more reactive, with more stable compounds.

Q2Which metal will NOT react with dilute hydrochloric acid?

  1. AMagnesium
  2. BZinc
  3. CIron
  4. DCopper
Show answer

Correct answer: D — Copper

Copper is below hydrogen in the series, so it does not displace hydrogen from acids.

Q3Iron is placed in copper sulfate solution. What happens?

  1. ANothing
  2. BIron displaces copper; the blue fades
  3. CCopper displaces iron
  4. DThe iron dissolves into gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Iron displaces copper; the blue fades

Iron is more reactive than copper, so Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu; copper deposits and the blue colour fades.

Q4Iron rusts only when it is exposed to:

  1. Aoxygen alone
  2. Bwater alone
  3. Cboth water and oxygen
  4. Dcarbon dioxide
Show answer

Correct answer: C — both water and oxygen

Rusting needs both water and oxygen; removing either (e.g. by oiling) prevents it.

Q5Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis rather than heating with carbon because it is:

  1. Acheaper that way
  2. Bmore reactive than carbon
  3. Ca non-metal
  4. Dbelow iron in the series
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more reactive than carbon

Aluminium sits above carbon, so carbon cannot reduce its oxide; electrolysis of the molten ore is required.

Q6Attaching a block of magnesium to an iron hull to stop it rusting is called:

  1. Agalvanising
  2. Bsacrificial protection
  3. Celectroplating
  4. Ddisplacement
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sacrificial protection

The more reactive magnesium corrodes instead of the iron — sacrificial protection.

Q7Iron will rust fastest when exposed to:

  1. Adry air only
  2. Bwater only
  3. Csalty water and air
  4. Doxygen-free water
Show answer

Correct answer: C — salty water and air

Rusting needs both water and oxygen, and dissolved salt speeds it up.

Q8An alloy is harder than the pure metal because:

  1. Ait has more electrons
  2. Bdifferent-sized atoms stop the layers sliding
  3. Cit is magnetic
  4. Dit has stronger metallic bonds
Show answer

Correct answer: B — different-sized atoms stop the layers sliding

Atoms of a different size distort the ordered layers, so they can no longer slide easily over one another.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what is meant by the reactivity series of metals.
Answer

A list of metals arranged in order of their reactivity, from most reactive to least reactive.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe and give the equation for the reaction of magnesium with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer

Magnesium fizzes, giving off hydrogen gas: Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why zinc can displace copper from copper(II) sulfate solution, and write the ionic equation.
Answer

Zinc is more reactive than copper, so it loses electrons more readily and displaces copper from solution: Zn + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Cu.

Q4[6 marks]
Iron is extracted from its ore in the blast furnace.
  1. State why carbon can be used to extract iron but not aluminium. [2]
  2. Write the equation for the reduction of iron(III) oxide by carbon monoxide. [2]
  3. Explain why iron is described as being reduced in this reaction. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Iron is less reactive than carbon, so carbon can displace/reduce it[1]
  2. Aluminium is more reactive than carbon, so carbon cannot reduce it (electrolysis is used)[1]
  3. Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂ (correct formulae)[1]
  4. Equation balanced[1]
  5. Iron oxide loses oxygen[1]
  6. Loss of oxygen is reduction (it also gains electrons)[1]

Carbon reduces metals below it (iron) but not those above it (aluminium); Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂; iron is reduced because it loses oxygen / gains electrons.

Q5[3 marks]
Describe an experiment to show that both water and oxygen are needed for iron to rust.
Answer

Set up three test tubes with iron nails: one with water and air (rusts), one with boiled water and a layer of oil to exclude air (no rust), and one with dry air and a drying agent like calcium chloride (no rust). Only the tube with both water and air rusts.

Q6[6 marks]
Zinc is used to protect iron from rusting.
  1. Explain how galvanising protects iron. [3]
  2. Zinc powder is added to a solution of iron(II) sulfate. State what happens and write the ionic equation. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Galvanising coats the iron with a layer of zinc, forming a barrier to water and air[1]
  2. Zinc is more reactive than iron, so it corrodes in preference (sacrificial protection)[1]
  3. so the iron is protected even if the coating is scratched[1]
  4. Zinc displaces iron from the solution (zinc is more reactive)[1]
  5. grey iron is deposited / the solution's colour fades[1]
  6. Zn + Fe²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Fe[1]

Galvanising = zinc barrier + sacrificial protection; zinc displaces iron: Zn + Fe²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Fe.

11

Chemistry of the Environment

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The approximate percentage of oxygen in clean dry air is:

  1. A78%
  2. B21%
  3. C1%
  4. D0.04%
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 21%

Air is about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with ~1% argon and ~0.04% CO₂.

Q2Carbon monoxide is dangerous because it:

  1. Acauses acid rain
  2. Bstops the blood carrying oxygen
  3. Cis highly flammable only
  4. Ddepletes ozone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stops the blood carrying oxygen

CO binds to the blood in place of oxygen, so the body is starved of it — and it comes from incomplete combustion.

Q3Which pollutant is the main cause of acid rain?

  1. ACarbon dioxide
  2. BSulfur dioxide
  3. CArgon
  4. DMethane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Sulfur dioxide

Sulfur dioxide (with oxides of nitrogen) dissolves in atmospheric water to form acids — acid rain.

Q4The enhanced greenhouse effect is mainly driven by rising:

  1. Aoxygen
  2. Bnitrogen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dargon
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Extra CO₂ (and methane) from burning fossil fuels traps more radiated heat, warming the climate.

Q5Chlorination is a step in water treatment to:

  1. Aremove solid particles
  2. Bkill bacteria
  3. Cadd minerals
  4. Dsoften the water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kill bacteria

Filtration removes solids; chlorination kills bacteria to make the water safe to drink.

Q6A catalytic converter changes CO and NOₓ into:

  1. ASO₂ and soot
  2. BCO₂ and N₂
  3. Cmore CO
  4. Dozone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — CO₂ and N₂

It converts the toxic exhaust gases into harmless carbon dioxide and nitrogen.

Q7Oxides of nitrogen form in car engines because:

  1. Anitrogen is in the fuel
  2. Bthe high temperature makes N₂ and O₂ combine
  3. Cof incomplete combustion
  4. Dthe catalyst produces them
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the high temperature makes N₂ and O₂ combine

The intense heat of combustion makes atmospheric nitrogen and oxygen react to form NOₓ.

Q8Chlorination is used in water treatment to:

  1. Aremove dissolved salts
  2. Bkill microbes
  3. Cremove solids
  4. Dsoften the water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kill microbes

Chlorine sterilises the water by killing harmful microorganisms; solids are removed earlier by filtration.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State the approximate percentages of the two main gases in clean, dry air.
Answer

About 78% nitrogen and about 21% oxygen (the remaining ~1% is mostly argon with a little carbon dioxide).

Q2[2 marks]
Name a chemical test for water and its positive result.
Answer

Add anhydrous copper(II) sulfate — it turns from white to blue in the presence of water (or blue cobalt chloride paper turns pink).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain how the carbon dioxide produced by burning fossil fuels contributes to climate change.
Answer

Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas; it absorbs and re-emits heat (infrared radiation) that would otherwise escape, so the extra CO₂ traps more heat and raises average global temperatures.

Q4[6 marks]
Rusting is a serious problem for iron structures.
  1. State the two substances needed for iron to rust. [2]
  2. Describe how galvanising protects iron and how it works even if the coating is scratched. [3]
  3. Name one other method of rust prevention. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Water (moisture)[1]
  2. Oxygen (air)[1]
  3. Galvanising coats the iron with a layer of zinc[1]
  4. The zinc is more reactive than iron, so it corrodes/loses electrons in preference (sacrificial protection)[1]
  5. so the iron is protected even where the coating is scratched[1]
  6. Painting / oiling / greasing / coating with plastic (any one)[1]

Water + oxygen needed; galvanising = zinc coating that sacrificially protects (zinc more reactive) even if scratched; also painting/oiling.

Q5[3 marks]
Explain how the sulfur dioxide released by burning coal leads to acid rain and one of its effects.
Answer

Sulfur impurities in the coal burn to sulfur dioxide, which dissolves in rainwater to form an acidic solution (sulfurous/sulfuric acid). This acid rain damages plants and forests, acidifies lakes killing fish, or corrodes limestone buildings and metals.

Q6[6 marks]
Burning fossil fuels releases several gases into the atmosphere.
  1. Explain how carbon monoxide is formed and why it is harmful. [3]
  2. Explain how a catalytic converter reduces harmful emissions, giving one equation. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Carbon monoxide forms by incomplete combustion[1]
  2. when there is not enough oxygen to make CO₂[1]
  3. it is toxic because it prevents the blood from carrying oxygen[1]
  4. The converter provides a catalyst surface where pollutants react[1]
  5. carbon monoxide is oxidised to carbon dioxide[1]
  6. 2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂ (and NOₓ is reduced to N₂)[1]

CO from incomplete combustion, toxic (stops blood carrying O₂); catalytic converter oxidises CO to CO₂ (2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂) and reduces NOₓ to N₂.

12

Organic Chemistry

Multiple choice · 13

Q1Crude oil is separated into fractions by:

  1. Afiltration
  2. Bfractional distillation by boiling point
  3. Celectrolysis
  4. Dcrystallisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — fractional distillation by boiling point

Hydrocarbons condense at different heights in the column according to their boiling points.

Q2The general formula of an alkane is:

  1. ACₙH₂ₙ
  2. BCₙH₂ₙ₊₂
  3. CCₙHₙ
  4. DCₙH₂ₙ₋₂
Show answer

Correct answer: B — CₙH₂ₙ₊₂

Saturated alkanes follow CₙH₂ₙ₊₂; alkenes (one double bond) follow CₙH₂ₙ.

Q3Incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon is dangerous because it produces:

  1. Acarbon dioxide
  2. Bwater
  3. Ctoxic carbon monoxide
  4. Dhydrogen
Show answer

Correct answer: C — toxic carbon monoxide

Limited oxygen gives carbon monoxide (a toxic, colourless gas) and soot rather than CO₂.

Q4Which decolourises bromine water?

  1. AAn alkane
  2. BAn alkene
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — An alkene

The C=C of an alkene adds bromine, using up the colour; a saturated alkane leaves it orange.

Q5Poly(ethene) is made from ethene by:

  1. Acracking
  2. Baddition polymerisation
  3. Cfractional distillation
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition polymerisation

Many ethene monomers join into a long chain as the double bonds open — addition polymerisation.

Q6Most addition polymers are non-biodegradable because:

  1. Athey are made of metal
  2. Btheir unreactive C–C backbone does not break down
  3. Cthey dissolve in water
  4. Dthey contain oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — their unreactive C–C backbone does not break down

The strong, unreactive carbon chain resists breakdown, so the plastics persist in the environment.

Q7Reacting ethene with hydrogen and a nickel catalyst produces:

  1. Aethanol
  2. Bethane
  3. Cpoly(ethene)
  4. Ddibromoethane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethane

Hydrogenation adds H₂ across the C=C double bond, turning the alkene ethene into the alkane ethane.

Q8Addition polymers such as poly(ethene) are hard to dispose of because they are:

  1. Ahighly reactive
  2. Bnon-biodegradable
  3. Csoluble in water
  4. Dmagnetic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — non-biodegradable

Their unreactive carbon backbone is not broken down by microbes, so they persist for a very long time.

Q9The step Cl₂ → 2Cl• in the reaction of methane with chlorine is called:

  1. Apropagation
  2. Binitiation
  3. Ctermination
  4. Dsubstitution
Show answer

Correct answer: B — initiation

UV light splitting the halogen into radicals is the initiation step.

Q10Propene reacts with HBr. The major product predicted by Markovnikov's rule is:

  1. A1-bromopropane
  2. B2-bromopropane
  3. Cpropan-1-ol
  4. Dpropane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2-bromopropane

The H adds to the carbon with more hydrogens, giving the more stable secondary carbocation, so 2-bromopropane is the major product.

Q11The functional group of an alcohol is:

  1. A–COOH
  2. B–OH
  3. CC=C
  4. D–O–
Show answer

Correct answer: B — –OH

Alcohols contain the hydroxyl group –OH; –COOH is a carboxylic acid.

Q12Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to give a salt, water and:

  1. Ahydrogen
  2. Boxygen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dan ester
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide (the fizz that confirms a carboxylic acid).

Q13An ester is formed by reacting a carboxylic acid with a(n):

  1. Ametal
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Calcohol
  4. Dalkene
Show answer

Correct answer: C — alcohol

Esterification combines a carboxylic acid and an alcohol (with an acid catalyst) to give an ester and water.

Exam-style questions · 10

Q1[2 marks]
Define the term homologous series.
Answer

A family of organic compounds with the same general formula and similar chemical properties, where each member differs from the next by CH₂.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to distinguish an alkane from an alkene.
Answer

Add bromine water: an alkene decolourises it (orange to colourless); an alkane does not (stays orange).

Q3[3 marks]
Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation to form poly(ethene). Explain what this means and give the repeat unit.
Answer

Many ethene monomers (with C=C double bonds) join together, with no other product, to form a long-chain polymer. Repeat unit: –(CH₂–CH₂)–.

Q4[6 marks]
Ethanol can be made by fermentation or by the hydration of ethene.
  1. Write the equation for the fermentation of glucose to ethanol. [2]
  2. State the conditions for making ethanol by hydration of ethene, and write the equation. [3]
  3. Give one advantage of the hydration method over fermentation. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂[1]
  2. correct formulae / balanced[1]
  3. Steam / water, ~300 °C, ~60 atm, phosphoric acid catalyst[1]
  4. C₂H₄ + H₂O → C₂H₅OH[1]
  5. balanced equation[1]
  6. It is a continuous process / faster / gives purer ethanol (any one)[1]

Fermentation: C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂; hydration: C₂H₄ + H₂O → C₂H₅OH (steam, ~300 °C, ~60 atm, H₃PO₄); hydration is continuous/faster/purer.

Q5[2 marks]
Describe the test to distinguish ethane from ethene, giving the result for each.
Answer

Add bromine water: ethene (an alkene) decolourises it from orange to colourless; ethane (an alkane) leaves it orange (no reaction).

Q6[6 marks]
Ethene (C₂H₄) is an important product of cracking.
  1. Explain what cracking is and why it is done. [3]
  2. Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation. Describe what this means and name the product. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Cracking breaks long-chain hydrocarbons into shorter ones[1]
  2. using heat and a catalyst[1]
  3. to make more useful small molecules (fuels) and alkenes for plastics[1]
  4. Many ethene monomers (with C=C double bonds) join together[1]
  5. the double bonds open and link into a long chain, with no other product[1]
  6. The product is poly(ethene)[1]

Cracking breaks long hydrocarbons (heat + catalyst) into useful short molecules and alkenes; addition polymerisation joins many ethene monomers into poly(ethene).

Q7[3 marks]
Methane reacts with chlorine in ultraviolet light. Name the type of mechanism and write the initiation and the two propagation steps.
Answer

Free-radical substitution. Initiation: Cl₂ → 2Cl• (UV). Propagation: Cl• + CH₄ → •CH₃ + HCl, then •CH₃ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + Cl•.

Q8[6 marks]
But-1-ene reacts with hydrogen bromide.
  1. Name the mechanism and describe the role of the C=C double bond. [2]
  2. Explain, using Markovnikov's rule, which product forms in the greater amount. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. The mechanism is electrophilic addition[1]
  2. the electron-rich C=C double bond attracts the electrophile (the δ+ H of HBr)[1]
  3. The H can add to either carbon, giving either a secondary or a primary carbocation[1]
  4. the secondary carbocation is more stable than the primary[1]
  5. so the H adds to the terminal (CH₂) carbon (Markovnikov's rule)[1]
  6. giving mainly 2-bromobutane[1]

Electrophilic addition; the C=C attracts the electrophile; via the more stable secondary carbocation the major product is 2-bromobutane.

Q9[3 marks]
Ethanol can be made by fermentation. Give the equation, the conditions, and one advantage of this method over hydration of ethene.
Answer

C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂, using yeast at about 30 °C in the absence of air. An advantage is that it uses a renewable resource (sugar/plant crops) rather than crude oil.

Q10[6 marks]
Ethanol, ethanoic acid and their reactions are important in the O Level organic chapter.
  1. Describe how ethanoic acid can be made from ethanol. [2]
  2. State what you would observe when ethanoic acid is added to magnesium, and write the equation. [2]
  3. Name the ester and other product formed when ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, and state the catalyst. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate (warm/reflux)[1]
  2. (or ferment ethanol in air) to give ethanoic acid[1]
  3. The magnesium fizzes / dissolves, giving off hydrogen gas[1]
  4. Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂[1]
  5. Ethyl ethanoate is formed, plus water[1]
  6. using a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]

Oxidise ethanol → ethanoic acid; with magnesium it fizzes giving H₂ (Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂); with ethanol it makes ethyl ethanoate + water (conc. H₂SO₄ catalyst).

13

Experimental Techniques and Analysis

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A pure substance, unlike a mixture, melts:

  1. Aover a wide range
  2. Bsharply at one fixed temperature
  3. Conly when dissolved
  4. Dwithout any heat
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sharply at one fixed temperature

A sharp, fixed melting point is the practical test of purity; mixtures melt over a range.

Q2To separate sand from water you would use:

  1. Adistillation
  2. Bfiltration
  3. Cchromatography
  4. Dcrystallisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — filtration

Sand is insoluble, so filtration catches it on the paper while the water passes through.

Q3To get pure water from seawater you would use:

  1. Afiltration
  2. Bsimple distillation
  3. Ccrystallisation
  4. Dchromatography
Show answer

Correct answer: B — simple distillation

Distillation boils off the water and condenses it, leaving the dissolved salts behind.

Q4An Rf value is always:

  1. Agreater than 1
  2. Bbetween 0 and 1
  3. Ca whole number
  4. Dnegative
Show answer

Correct answer: B — between 0 and 1

A substance cannot travel further than the solvent, so distance ratio Rf lies between 0 and 1.

Q5Which gas relights a glowing splint?

  1. AHydrogen
  2. BCarbon dioxide
  3. COxygen
  4. DAmmonia
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Oxygen

Oxygen relights a glowing splint; hydrogen gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint.

Q6Limewater turning milky is the test for:

  1. Aoxygen
  2. Bhydrogen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dchlorine
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky — the standard CO₂ test.

Q7A white precipitate forms when barium chloride and dilute acid are added to a solution. The ion present is:

  1. Achloride
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Csulfate
  4. Dnitrate
Show answer

Correct answer: C — sulfate

Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate — the test for a sulfate ion.

Q8A cream precipitate with silver nitrate indicates a:

  1. Achloride
  2. Bbromide
  3. Ciodide
  4. Dsulfate
Show answer

Correct answer: B — bromide

Silver bromide is cream (chloride is white, iodide is yellow).

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe how you would obtain pure water from a mixture of water and salt.
Answer

By simple distillation: heat the solution so water boils off, then condense the vapour back to liquid; the salt remains behind.

Q2[2 marks]
State how a chromatogram can be used to tell whether a dye is a pure substance.
Answer

A pure substance produces a single spot on the chromatogram; a mixture separates into two or more spots.

Q3[3 marks]
Define the term Rf value and state how it is calculated.
Answer

The Rf value is the ratio of the distance moved by the spot to the distance moved by the solvent front. Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent.

Q4[6 marks]
A student is given a mixture of sand and copper(II) sulfate.
  1. Describe how to obtain a dry sample of sand from the mixture. [3]
  2. Describe how to obtain pure copper(II) sulfate crystals from the remaining solution. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Add water and stir to dissolve the copper(II) sulfate[1]
  2. Filter — sand is the residue in the filter paper[1]
  3. Wash and dry the sand[1]
  4. Heat the filtrate to evaporate water to the point of crystallisation[1]
  5. Leave to cool so crystals form[1]
  6. Filter off and dry the crystals[1]

Dissolve, filter (sand = residue), wash and dry it; evaporate the filtrate to crystallisation, cool, filter and dry the crystals.

Q5[2 marks]
Describe how you would use flame tests to distinguish a sodium salt from a potassium salt.
Answer

Dip a clean wire in the salt and hold it in a blue flame: sodium gives a yellow flame, potassium gives a lilac flame.

Q6[6 marks]
An unknown solid is thought to be iron(II) sulfate.
  1. Describe the test and result that would confirm the iron(II) ion. [3]
  2. Describe the test and result that would confirm the sulfate ion. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Dissolve the solid and add sodium hydroxide solution[1]
  2. a green precipitate forms[1]
  3. confirming the iron(II) ion, Fe²⁺[1]
  4. To a fresh sample add dilute (hydrochloric or nitric) acid, then barium chloride solution[1]
  5. a white precipitate forms[1]
  6. confirming the sulfate ion, SO₄²⁻[1]

Fe²⁺: NaOH gives a green precipitate. SO₄²⁻: acid + barium chloride gives a white precipitate.

These questions come from the IGCSE Chemistry (0620) lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.