A Level Physics (9702) — MCQs & Practice Questions

282 multiple-choice questions and 220 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

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01

Physical quantities and units

Multiple choice · 12

Q1A student measures the same length five times and gets 4.71, 4.72, 4.71, 4.72, 4.71 cm. The true length is 5.20 cm. The measurements are:

  1. AAccurate and precise
  2. BPrecise but not accurate
  3. CAccurate but not precise
  4. DNeither accurate nor precise
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Precise but not accurate

The readings agree with each other to within 0.01 cm, so they are precise. They all sit about 0.49 cm below the true value, so they are not accurate. A consistent offset like this is the signature of a systematic error — a zero error on the instrument, most likely.

Q2Which of these is NOT an SI base unit?

  1. Akilogram
  2. Bnewton
  3. Ckelvin
  4. Dmole
Show answer

Correct answer: B — newton

The newton is derived: 1 N = 1 kg m s⁻², built from three base units. The kilogram, kelvin and mole are all base units. The tempting mistake is assuming that any famous unit must be fundamental.

Q3The dimensions of pressure are:

  1. AM L T⁻²
  2. BM L⁻¹ T⁻²
  3. CM L² T⁻²
  4. DM L⁻² T⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — M L⁻¹ T⁻²

Pressure is force ÷ area = (M L T⁻²) ÷ L² = M L⁻¹ T⁻². Option A is force itself and option C is energy, which is why both look plausible if you stop one step early.

Q42.5 m is multiplied by 3.14159 m. To the correct number of significant figures the answer is:

  1. A7.853975 m²
  2. B7.85 m²
  3. C7.9 m²
  4. D8 m²
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 7.9 m²

The least precise input, 2.5, carries two significant figures, so the answer does too: 7.9 m². Writing 7.85 keeps three and quietly claims the 2.5 was really 2.50.

Q5Repeating a measurement many times and averaging will reduce:

  1. ASystematic error only
  2. BRandom error only
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Random error only

Random errors scatter either side of the true value, so they partly cancel in an average. A systematic error pushes every single reading the same way, so it survives averaging untouched — you have to find its cause instead.

Q6A length is recorded as 0.00470 m. How many significant figures does it have?

  1. ATwo
  2. BThree
  3. CFive
  4. DSix
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Three

Three: 4, 7 and the trailing 0. The leading zeros only place the decimal point and never count, but the final zero is after the decimal point and after a non-zero digit, so it is a genuine claim about precision.

Q7Two forces of 3 N and 4 N act at a point. Which resultant is IMPOSSIBLE?

  1. A1 N
  2. B5 N
  3. C7 N
  4. D8 N
Show answer

Correct answer: D — 8 N

The resultant of two vectors ranges from |4 − 3| = 1 N when they are antiparallel to 4 + 3 = 7 N when they are parallel. 8 N lies outside that range and cannot be produced at any angle. 5 N is the perpendicular case.

Q8A force of 20 N acts at 60° above the horizontal. Its horizontal component is:

  1. A10 N
  2. B17.3 N
  3. C20 N
  4. D11.5 N
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 10 N

20 cos 60° = 20 × 0.5 = 10 N. The 17.3 N answer is 20 sin 60°, the vertical component — swapping sine and cosine is the most common slip here. Check by asking which component should be smaller: at a steep 60°, most of the force points upward.

Q9Which of these is a scalar?

  1. AMomentum
  2. BWork
  3. CTorque
  4. DElectric field
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Work

Work is a scalar, even though it is calculated from two vectors — the dot product of force and displacement returns a plain number. Momentum, torque and electric field all carry direction.

Q10A body is in equilibrium under three forces. This means:

  1. AAll three forces are equal
  2. BThe three forces form a closed triangle when drawn head to tail
  3. CNo forces act on the body
  4. DThe forces are all perpendicular
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The three forces form a closed triangle when drawn head to tail

Zero resultant means that placing the three vectors head to tail brings you back to the starting point — a closed triangle. They need not be equal in magnitude or perpendicular, and "no forces act" describes a different situation entirely.

Q11A 10 N weight hangs on a string. The tension in the string is 10 N. This is because:

  1. ATension always equals weight
  2. BThe forces are an action–reaction pair
  3. CThe weight is in equilibrium, so the upward and downward forces must cancel
  4. DStrings cannot stretch
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The weight is in equilibrium, so the upward and downward forces must cancel

It follows from equilibrium: ΣF = 0 vertically, so tension must equal weight here. It is not a general rule — accelerate the weight upward and the tension exceeds 10 N. And the two forces act on the same object, so they are not an action–reaction pair.

Q12On an inclined plane at angle θ, the component of weight acting down the slope is:

  1. Amg cos θ
  2. Bmg sin θ
  3. Cmg tan θ
  4. Dmg
Show answer

Correct answer: B — mg sin θ

mg sin θ acts along the slope and mg cos θ presses perpendicular into it. Sanity check with θ = 0: a flat surface should give zero force along it, and sin 0° = 0. The cos version would wrongly give the full weight.

Exam-style questions · 11

Q1[2 marks]
Differentiate between base and derived units, giving one example of each.
Answer

A base unit is one of the seven independent SI units, such as the metre. A derived unit is built from base units by multiplication or division, such as the newton, 1 N = 1 kg m s⁻².

Q2[2 marks]
What is meant by the least count of a measuring instrument?
Answer

The smallest measurement the instrument can read — the value of one division on its scale. A metre rule has a least count of 1 mm; a vernier calliper, 0.1 mm; a screw gauge, 0.01 mm.

Q3[2 marks]
Why is the mean of several readings more reliable than a single reading?
Answer

Random errors scatter either side of the true value, so averaging makes them partly cancel. A single reading may happen to be one of the extreme ones.

Q4[3 marks]
The length of a rod is measured as 12.5 cm with an uncertainty of 0.1 cm. Express this in metres and state the percentage uncertainty.
Mark scheme
  1. Convert: 12.5 cm = 0.125 m, 0.1 cm = 0.001 mdivide by 100[1]
  2. Percentage uncertainty = (Δl / l) × 100 = (0.1 / 12.5) × 100same units top and bottom, so the conversion cancels[1]
  3. = 0.8%[1]

0.125 ± 0.001 m, or 0.8%

Q5[4 marks]
A student measures the diameter of a wire five times with a screw gauge and records: 0.42, 0.43, 0.42, 0.51, 0.43 mm.
  1. Identify the anomalous reading and state what should be done with it.
  2. Calculate the mean diameter using the remaining readings.
Mark scheme
  1. 0.51 mm is anomalous — it lies well away from the others[1]
  2. It should be excluded from the mean, but reported rather than deletedthe reporting half is the mark most often missed[1]
  3. Mean = (0.42 + 0.43 + 0.42 + 0.43) / 4four readings, not five[1]
  4. = 0.425 ≈ 0.43 mm[1]

(a) 0.51 mm, excluded but reported (b) 0.43 mm

Q6[2 marks]
State the difference between a scalar and a vector quantity, and give one example of each.
Answer

A scalar has magnitude only, for example mass. A vector has both magnitude and direction, for example velocity.

Q7[2 marks]
Explain why displacement can be zero when the distance travelled is not.
Answer

Distance is the total path length, a scalar that only ever grows. Displacement is the straight line from start to finish, so returning to the starting point makes it zero.

Q8[2 marks]
State what is meant by the resultant of two forces.
Answer

The single force that has the same effect on the body as the two forces acting together.

Q9[5 marks]
A force of 8.0 N acts due east and a force of 6.0 N acts due north on the same object. Calculate the magnitude and direction of the resultant.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises the forces are perpendicular, so Pythagoras applies[1]
  2. R = √(8.0² + 6.0²)[1]
  3. R = 10.0 N[1]
  4. Uses tan θ = 6.0 / 8.0[1]
  5. θ = 36.9° north of easta direction with no reference line scores nothing[1]

10.0 N at 36.9° north of east

Q10[8 marks]
A box of weight 250 N rests on a slope inclined at 20° to the horizontal.
  1. Explain what is meant by resolving a vector. [2]
  2. Calculate the component of the weight acting down the slope. [3]
  3. Calculate the component acting perpendicular to the slope. [2]
  4. State what the perpendicular component is balanced by. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Replacing one vector by two components at right angles to each other[1]
  2. Which together have the same effect as the original vector[1]
  3. Uses W sin θ for the component along the slope[1]
  4. = 250 × sin 20°[1]
  5. = 85.5 N[1]
  6. Uses W cos θ = 250 × cos 20°[1]
  7. = 235 N[1]
  8. The normal contact force from the surface of the slope[1]

(b) 85.5 N (c) 235 N

Q11[6 marks]
A swimmer can swim at 1.2 m s⁻¹ in still water. She heads straight across a river 30 m wide that flows at 0.90 m s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the time taken to cross. [2]
  2. Calculate how far downstream she lands. [2]
  3. Calculate her resultant speed relative to the bank. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The current does not affect the crossing time: t = 30 / 1.2perpendicular components are independent[1]
  2. t = 25 s[1]
  3. Uses distance = 0.90 × 25[1]
  4. = 22.5 m downstream[1]
  5. Uses √(1.2² + 0.90²)[1]
  6. = 1.5 m s⁻¹[1]

(a) 25 s (b) 22.5 m (c) 1.5 m s⁻¹

02

Kinematics

Multiple choice · 12

Q1An athlete runs exactly one lap of a 400 m circular track in 50 s. Their average velocity is:

  1. A8 m s⁻¹
  2. B0 m s⁻¹
  3. C400 m s⁻¹
  4. D4 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0 m s⁻¹

Average velocity is displacement ÷ time, and after a complete lap the displacement is zero — start and finish are the same point. The 8 m s⁻¹ answer is the average speed, which uses distance instead.

Q2A car moves at a constant 20 m s⁻¹ around a circular bend. Which statement is true?

  1. AIts velocity is constant
  2. BIts acceleration is zero
  3. CIt is accelerating because its direction is changing
  4. DIt cannot accelerate while its speed is constant
Show answer

Correct answer: C — It is accelerating because its direction is changing

Velocity is a vector, so changing direction changes the velocity even at constant speed — and a changing velocity is what acceleration means. The acceleration points toward the centre of the bend.

Q3An object has negative velocity and negative acceleration. It is:

  1. AMoving forwards and slowing down
  2. BMoving backwards and speeding up
  3. CMoving backwards and slowing down
  4. DStationary
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Moving backwards and speeding up

Matching signs mean the acceleration acts in the same direction as the motion, so the object speeds up. The common error is reading "negative acceleration" as "deceleration", which is only true when the velocity is positive.

Q4On a velocity–time graph, the area between the line and the time axis represents:

  1. AAcceleration
  2. BDisplacement
  3. CSpeed
  4. DForce
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Displacement

Velocity × time = displacement, and the area is that product accumulated. The gradient of the same graph gives acceleration — the two are the pair most often swapped.

Q5A horizontal line on a velocity–time graph means the object is:

  1. AStationary
  2. BMoving at constant velocity
  3. CAccelerating uniformly
  4. DChanging direction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Moving at constant velocity

Constant velocity, so zero acceleration. A stationary object would be a horizontal line sitting on the time axis itself, at v = 0 — a special case, not the general meaning.

Q6A stone is dropped from rest and falls for 3.0 s. Taking g = 10 m s⁻², how far does it fall?

  1. A15 m
  2. B30 m
  3. C45 m
  4. D90 m
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 45 m

s = ut + ½at² with u = 0 gives s = ½ × 10 × 3.0² = 45 m. Answer B is the mistake of calculating v = at = 30 and calling it a distance; answer A comes from forgetting to square the time.

Q7Which equation of motion would you choose if the question gives u, a and s, and asks for v?

  1. Av = u + at
  2. Bs = ut + ½at²
  3. Cv² = u² + 2as
  4. Ds = ½(u + v)t
Show answer

Correct answer: C — v² = u² + 2as

The unknown you neither have nor want is t, so use the equation that omits t. Options A and B both contain t and would need it to be found first — twice the work and twice the chance of an arithmetic slip.

Q8Two balls leave a table edge at the same moment — one dropped, one thrown horizontally at 5 m s⁻¹. Ignoring air resistance:

  1. AThe dropped ball lands first
  2. BThe thrown ball lands first
  3. CThey land at the same time
  4. DIt depends on their masses
Show answer

Correct answer: C — They land at the same time

Vertical and horizontal motion are independent. Both start with zero vertical velocity and fall the same height under the same g, so both take the same time. The thrown ball merely covers ground while it falls.

Q9At the highest point of a projectile's path, its velocity is:

  1. AZero
  2. BEqual to the horizontal component of the launch velocity
  3. CEqual to the launch velocity
  4. DDirected vertically upward
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Equal to the horizontal component of the launch velocity

Only the vertical component reaches zero at the top. Nothing acts horizontally, so that component is unchanged throughout the flight and is the whole of the velocity at the peak.

Q10A projectile is launched on level ground. Which launch angle gives the greatest range?

  1. A30°
  2. B45°
  3. C60°
  4. D90°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 45°

Range = u² sin 2θ / g, largest when sin 2θ = 1, so 2θ = 90° and θ = 45°. A 90° launch goes straight up and lands back at the launch point with zero range — the answer that catches anyone reasoning "higher must be further".

Q11The SUVAT equations may only be used when:

  1. AThe object is falling freely
  2. BThe acceleration is constant
  3. CThe velocity is constant
  4. DAir resistance is present
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The acceleration is constant

Constant acceleration is the one condition. Free fall is a common case of it, not the requirement. Where acceleration varies, you need the gradient and area of a graph, or calculus.

Q12Air resistance acts on a projectile. Compared with the ideal path, the actual path has:

  1. AA longer range and a symmetric shape
  2. BA shorter range and a steeper descent than ascent
  3. CThe same range but a lower peak
  4. DA longer time of flight
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A shorter range and a steeper descent than ascent

Drag opposes the motion throughout, cutting both range and maximum height, and the descent becomes steeper than the ascent — so the path is no longer a symmetric parabola.

Exam-style questions · 8

Q1[4 marks]
A cyclist travelling at 4.0 m s⁻¹ accelerates uniformly to 10.0 m s⁻¹ over a distance of 42 m.
  1. Calculate the acceleration of the cyclist.
  2. Calculate the time taken.
Mark scheme
  1. Selects v² = u² + 2asthe equation without t, since t is not given in part (a)[1]
  2. 10.0² = 4.0² + 2 × a × 42100 = 16 + 84aa = 1.0 m s⁻²unit required for the mark[1]
  3. Selects v = u + at (or s = ½(u+v)t)[1]
  4. 10.0 = 4.0 + 1.0tt = 6.0 s[1]

(a) 1.0 m s⁻² (b) 6.0 s

Q2[5 marks]
A stone is dropped from rest at the top of a cliff and hits the sea 3.2 s later. Take g = 9.81 m s⁻² and ignore air resistance.
  1. Calculate the height of the cliff.
  2. Calculate the speed at which the stone hits the water.
  3. State one effect of air resistance on your answer to (b).
Mark scheme
  1. Uses s = ut + ½at² with u = 0"dropped from rest" is what tells you u = 0[1]
  2. s = ½ × 9.81 × 3.2² = 50.2 ≈ 50 m[1]
  3. Uses v = u + ator v² = u² + 2as[1]
  4. v = 9.81 × 3.2 = 31.4 ≈ 31 m s⁻¹[1]
  5. The actual speed would be lower / the stone would reach terminal velocitya statement about direction of change is enough[1]

(a) 50 m (b) 31 m s⁻¹ (c) the speed would be less

Q3[6 marks]
The velocity–time graph of a train shows: a uniform rise from 0 to 20 m s⁻¹ over the first 40 s, a constant 20 m s⁻¹ for the next 60 s, then a uniform fall to rest over the final 30 s.
  1. Calculate the acceleration during the first 40 s.
  2. Calculate the total distance travelled.
  3. Calculate the average speed for the whole journey.
Mark scheme
  1. Acceleration = gradient = (20 − 0) / 40gradient of a velocity–time graph is acceleration[1]
  2. = 0.50 m s⁻²[1]
  3. Recognises distance = area under the graphthis is the mark most often missed[1]
  4. Triangle ½ × 40 × 20 = 400; rectangle 60 × 20 = 1200; triangle ½ × 30 × 20 = 300all three areas needed[1]
  5. Total = 1900 m[1]
  6. Average speed = 1900 / 130 = 14.6 ≈ 15 m s⁻¹total distance ÷ total time, not the mean of the velocities[1]

(a) 0.50 m s⁻² (b) 1900 m (c) 15 m s⁻¹

Q4[5 marks]
A ball is thrown horizontally at 15 m s⁻¹ from the top of a building 45 m high. Take g = 10 m s⁻² and ignore air resistance.
  1. Calculate the time the ball takes to reach the ground.
  2. Calculate the horizontal distance travelled.
  3. Explain why the time in (a) does not depend on the horizontal speed.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses vertical motion with u_y = 0: 45 = ½ × 10 × t²"thrown horizontally" means the initial vertical velocity is zero[1]
  2. t² = 9.0, t = 3.0 s[1]
  3. Uses s_x = u_x t with constant horizontal velocity[1]
  4. s_x = 15 × 3.0 = 45 m[1]
  5. Horizontal and vertical motion are independent / gravity acts only vertically, so the vertical motion is unaffected by the horizontal velocity[1]

(a) 3.0 s (b) 45 m (c) the two components are independent

Q5[3 marks]
Define displacement, and state one situation in which the magnitude of an object's displacement is smaller than the distance it has travelled.
Mark scheme
  1. Displacement is the straight-line distance from the starting point to the finishing point[1]
  2. …together with its direction / it is a vector quantitythe direction is required for the second mark[1]
  3. Any curved or non-straight path, e.g. a runner going round a bend, a car following a winding roada full circular lap, where displacement is zero, also earns this[1]
Q6[2 marks]
Differentiate between distance and displacement.
Answer

Distance is the total length of the path travelled, a scalar. Displacement is the straight line from start to finish together with its direction, a vector.

Q7[2 marks]
Can a body have zero velocity and non-zero acceleration? Explain.
Answer

Yes. A ball thrown vertically upward is momentarily at rest at the top of its flight, but gravity still acts, so its acceleration is g downward.

Q8[4 marks]
A car travelling at 25 m s⁻¹ brakes uniformly and stops in 5.0 s. Calculate the deceleration and the distance travelled while braking.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses a = (v − u)/t = (0 − 25)/5.0[1]
  2. a = −5.0 m s⁻², a deceleration of 5.0 m s⁻²the negative sign or the word deceleration, not both required[1]
  3. Uses s = ½(u + v)t or v² = u² + 2as[1]
  4. s = ½(25 + 0) × 5.0 = 62.5 m[1]

deceleration 5.0 m s⁻², distance 62.5 m

03

Dynamics

Multiple choice · 14

Q1A bullet is fired horizontally at the same instant an identical bullet is dropped from the same height. Which lands first?

  1. AThe fired bullet
  2. BThe dropped bullet
  3. CThey land at the same time
  4. DIt depends on the bullet mass
Show answer

Correct answer: C — They land at the same time

Vertical and horizontal motion are independent. Both bullets start with zero vertical velocity and fall under the same gravity, so both take identical time to reach the ground. The fired bullet simply travels much further horizontally while doing it.

Q2A projectile is launched at 30°. Which other angle gives the same horizontal range at the same speed?

  1. A45°
  2. B60°
  3. C75°
  4. DNone — 30° is unique
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 60°

Range depends on sin(2θ), and sin(60°) = sin(120°), so 30° and 60° pair up. The 60° shot goes higher and stays in the air longer but moves more slowly across; the two effects cancel exactly. Maximum range is at 45°.

Q3You push a wall and it pushes back equally. Why does nothing accelerate?

  1. AThe forces cancel out on the same object
  2. BThe two forces act on different objects, and the wall is anchored to the Earth
  3. CNewton's third law does not apply to walls
  4. DFriction removes both forces
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The two forces act on different objects, and the wall is anchored to the Earth

Your push acts on the wall; the wall's push acts on you. They never appear on the same free-body diagram, so they cannot cancel. Nothing accelerates because the wall is bolted to the ground and friction on your feet balances the force on you.

Q4A 2 kg ball is dropped from 5 m. Ignoring air resistance, its speed just before landing is about:

  1. A5 m/s
  2. B10 m/s
  3. C14 m/s
  4. D20 m/s
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10 m/s

Energy conservation: mgh = ½mv², and the mass cancels from both sides. So v = √(2gh) = √(2 × 9.81 × 5) = √98.1 ≈ 9.9 m/s, which rounds to 10 m/s. Note that a 5 kg ball dropped from the same height arrives at exactly the same speed.

Q5A pendulum swings with friction. What happens to the total energy?

  1. AIt is destroyed
  2. BIt converts to heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls
  3. CIt stays exactly constant
  4. DIt increases as the pendulum slows
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It converts to heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls

Energy is never destroyed. Friction converts the ordered kinetic energy into disordered thermal energy in the air and pivot. The mechanical total (KE + PE) falls, but the total including heat is unchanged.

Q6Two cars collide and lock together. Which quantity is definitely conserved?

  1. AKinetic energy only
  2. BMomentum only
  3. CBoth momentum and kinetic energy
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Momentum only

Momentum is conserved in every collision, since no external horizontal force acts during the impact. Kinetic energy is not: this is a perfectly inelastic collision, and a large fraction of it goes into crumpling metal, heat and noise.

Q7The unit of momentum is:

  1. AN s⁻¹
  2. Bkg m s⁻¹
  3. CJ
  4. DN m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kg m s⁻¹

p = mv gives kg × m s⁻¹. It is also equal to the newton second, since impulse and momentum share a unit.

Q8Momentum is conserved in:

  1. AElastic collisions only
  2. BInelastic collisions only
  3. CAll collisions with no external resultant force
  4. DNo collisions
Show answer

Correct answer: C — All collisions with no external resultant force

Momentum is always conserved provided no external resultant force acts. Kinetic energy is the quantity that separates elastic from inelastic.

Q9Two objects stick together after colliding. The collision is:

  1. AElastic
  2. BInelastic
  3. CImpossible
  4. DFrictionless
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Inelastic

Sticking together always means kinetic energy was lost to heat, sound and deformation. Momentum is still conserved.

Q10A 2 kg object moves at 3 m s⁻¹. Its momentum is:

  1. A1.5 kg m s⁻¹
  2. B6 kg m s⁻¹
  3. C9 kg m s⁻¹
  4. D0.67 kg m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6 kg m s⁻¹

p = mv = 2 × 3 = 6 kg m s⁻¹. Dividing gives 0.67 and confuses momentum with something that has no physical meaning here.

Q11Airbags reduce injury mainly because they:

  1. AReduce the change in momentum
  2. BIncrease the time of the collision, reducing the force
  3. CIncrease the mass of the passenger
  4. DAbsorb the momentum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increase the time of the collision, reducing the force

The change in momentum is fixed by the crash. Extending Δt reduces F, since F = Δp/Δt. Nothing "absorbs" momentum — it is transferred, not destroyed.

Q12A stationary object explodes into two fragments. Their total momentum afterwards is:

  1. AZero
  2. BEqual to the mass of the object
  3. CDoubled
  4. DImpossible to determine
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Zero

It was zero before, and momentum is conserved, so it must be zero after. The two fragments carry equal and opposite momenta.

Q13A ball of mass 0.2 kg hits a wall at 5 m s⁻¹ and rebounds at 5 m s⁻¹. The magnitude of its change in momentum is:

  1. A0
  2. B1 kg m s⁻¹
  3. C2 kg m s⁻¹
  4. D0.5 kg m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 2 kg m s⁻¹

The velocity changes from +5 to −5, a change of 10 m s⁻¹, so Δp = 0.2 × 10 = 2 kg m s⁻¹. Answer A treats the speeds as equal and therefore unchanged, which ignores direction.

Q14Force is best defined as the rate of change of:

  1. AVelocity
  2. BMomentum
  3. CEnergy
  4. DDisplacement
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Momentum

F = Δp/Δt is the general form of Newton's second law, and reduces to F = ma when the mass is constant.

Exam-style questions · 11

Q1[2 marks]
State Newton's third law and give the two conditions an action–reaction pair must satisfy.
Answer

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The two forces are of the same type and act on different bodies.

Q2[2 marks]
Why does a passenger lurch forward when a bus brakes suddenly?
Answer

By Newton's first law the passenger continues moving at the same velocity because no resultant force acts on them; the bus decelerates beneath them, so they move forward relative to it.

Q3[2 marks]
Define momentum and state its SI unit.
Answer

The product of mass and velocity, p = mv. A vector quantity. SI unit: kg m s⁻¹.

Q4[4 marks]
A trolley of mass 2.0 kg moving at 3.0 m s⁻¹ collides with a stationary trolley of mass 4.0 kg. They stick together. Calculate their common velocity after the collision.
Mark scheme
  1. States conservation of momentum: total before = total after[1]
  2. Before: p = 2.0 × 3.0 + 4.0 × 0 = 6.0 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  3. After: combined mass = 6.0 kg, so 6.0 = 6.0 × vthey stick together, so they share one velocity[1]
  4. v = 1.0 m s⁻¹ in the original directiondirection expected for full marks[1]

1.0 m s⁻¹ in the direction of the original motion

Q5[4 marks]
A force of 15 N acts on a 3.0 kg block resting on a surface. Friction opposing the motion is 6.0 N. Calculate the acceleration of the block.
Mark scheme
  1. Resultant force = 15 − 6.0 = 9.0 Nfriction opposes, so it subtracts[1]
  2. Uses F = ma[1]
  3. a = F/m = 9.0 / 3.0[1]
  4. a = 3.0 m s⁻²unit required[1]

3.0 m s⁻²

Q6[6 marks]
A 1200 kg car travelling at 15 m s⁻¹ collides with a stationary 800 kg car. The two lock together.
  1. Calculate the total momentum before the collision.
  2. Calculate their common velocity immediately after.
  3. State whether kinetic energy is conserved, and name the type of collision.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p = mv[1]
  2. p = 1200 × 15 = 18 000 kg m s⁻¹the stationary car contributes nothing[1]
  3. Applies conservation: total after = 18 000 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  4. Combined mass 2000 kg, so v = 18 000 / 2000 = 9.0 m s⁻¹[1]
  5. Kinetic energy is not conserved[1]
  6. Inelastic collisionobjects sticking together is always inelastic[1]

(a) 1.8 × 10⁴ kg m s⁻¹ (b) 9.0 m s⁻¹ (c) not conserved; inelastic

Q7[5 marks]
A rifle of mass 4.0 kg fires a bullet of mass 0.020 kg at 400 m s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the recoil velocity of the rifle.
  2. Explain, using momentum, why a heavier rifle recoils more slowly.
Mark scheme
  1. Total momentum before is zeronothing is moving[1]
  2. 0 = 0.020 × 400 + 4.0 × v[1]
  3. v = −8.0 / 4.0 = −2.0 m s⁻¹, i.e. 2.0 m s⁻¹ backwardsdirection required[1]
  4. The rifle's momentum must equal the bullet's in size and be opposite in direction[1]
  5. Since p = mv is fixed, a larger m gives a smaller v[1]

2.0 m s⁻¹ backwards

Q8[4 marks]
A 0.15 kg ball hits a wall at 12 m s⁻¹ and rebounds at 8.0 m s⁻¹. The contact lasts 0.050 s. Calculate the average force on the ball.
Mark scheme
  1. Takes the initial direction as positive, so the rebound velocity is −8.0 m s⁻¹the sign is the whole question[1]
  2. Δp = m(v − u) = 0.15 × (−8.0 − 12) = −3.0 kg m s⁻¹a change of 20 m s⁻¹, not 4[1]
  3. Uses F = Δp/Δt[1]
  4. F = −3.0 / 0.050 = −60 N, i.e. 60 N away from the wall[1]

60 N, directed away from the wall

Q9[2 marks]
State the principle of conservation of momentum, including the condition under which it applies.
Answer

The total momentum of a system before an interaction equals the total momentum after it, provided no resultant external force acts on the system.

Q10[2 marks]
Explain why a cricketer moves their hands backwards while catching a fast ball.
Answer

It increases the time over which the ball is brought to rest. Since F = Δp/Δt and the change in momentum is fixed, a longer time means a smaller force on the hands.

Q11[9 marks]
A 0.045 kg golf ball is struck by a club. The ball leaves the tee at 60 m s⁻¹ and the contact lasts 0.50 ms.
  1. Calculate the change in momentum of the ball. [2]
  2. Calculate the average force exerted by the club. [3]
  3. The club has a mass of 0.30 kg and was moving at 70 m s⁻¹ before impact. Calculate its speed immediately afterwards. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses Δp = m(v − u) with u = 0the ball starts at rest on the tee[1]
  2. Δp = 0.045 × 60 = 2.7 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  3. Converts the time: 0.50 ms = 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ s[1]
  4. Uses F = Δp/Δt[1]
  5. F = 2.7 / 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ = 5400 N[1]
  6. Applies conservation of momentum to club and ball together[1]
  7. Before: 0.30 × 70 = 21 kg m s⁻¹the ball contributes nothing[1]
  8. After: 21 = 0.30 × v + 2.7[1]
  9. v = 18.3 / 0.30 = 61 m s⁻¹[1]

(a) 2.7 kg m s⁻¹ (b) 5400 N (c) 61 m s⁻¹

04

Forces, density and pressure

Multiple choice · 22

Q1The moment of a force is calculated using:

  1. AForce × distance along the line of action
  2. BForce × perpendicular distance from the pivot
  3. CForce ÷ distance from the pivot
  4. DForce × time
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Force × perpendicular distance from the pivot

Only the perpendicular distance produces turning. A force pushing straight toward the pivot has zero perpendicular distance and therefore no turning effect at all, however large it is.

Q2The unit of moment is:

  1. AJ
  2. BN m
  3. CN/m
  4. DW
Show answer

Correct answer: B — N m

Newton metre. It shares its base units with the joule, but a moment and an energy are different quantities, so writing J for a moment loses the mark.

Q3A 2 N weight sits 0.6 m from a pivot. Where must a 3 N weight sit on the other side to balance it?

  1. A0.4 m
  2. B0.6 m
  3. C0.9 m
  4. D1.2 m
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0.4 m

Anticlockwise moment = 2 × 0.6 = 1.2 N m, so 3 × d = 1.2 and d = 0.4 m. The heavier weight sits closer — the common error is placing it further out.

Q4Two equal, opposite, parallel forces with different lines of action form:

  1. AAn equilibrium
  2. BA couple
  3. CA resultant force
  4. DA moment of zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A couple

That is the definition of a couple. It produces pure rotation, with no resultant force, which is why a steering wheel turns without the column sliding sideways.

Q5For a uniform metre rule, the centre of gravity is at:

  1. AThe 0 cm mark
  2. BThe 50 cm mark
  3. CThe 100 cm mark
  4. DWherever it is pivoted
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The 50 cm mark

Uniform means the mass is evenly distributed, so the centre of gravity is at the geometric centre. The word "uniform" in a question is always telling you this.

Q6An object topples when:

  1. AIts centre of gravity is high
  2. BIts base is narrow
  3. CThe vertical line through its centre of gravity falls outside its base
  4. DIt is displaced at all
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The vertical line through its centre of gravity falls outside its base

A high centre of gravity and a narrow base both make toppling easier, but neither causes it on its own. The condition is the line through the centre of gravity leaving the base.

Q7When taking moments, choosing the pivot on the line of action of an unknown force is useful because:

  1. AIt makes the force larger
  2. BThat force then has zero moment and drops out
  3. CIt changes the equilibrium
  4. DIt converts N m to joules
Show answer

Correct answer: B — That force then has zero moment and drops out

Its perpendicular distance from that point is zero, so its moment is zero. One unknown vanishes and the equation solves in a single line.

Q8A racing car is built low to the ground mainly because:

  1. AIt reduces air resistance only
  2. BIt lowers the centre of gravity, improving stability
  3. CIt increases the weight
  4. DIt increases the moment of the engine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It lowers the centre of gravity, improving stability

A lower centre of gravity means a larger tilt is needed before the vertical line through it leaves the wheelbase, so the car resists rolling in corners. Reduced drag is a genuine second benefit, but stability is the reason given in mark schemes.

Q9Two forces of 3 N and 4 N act at a point. Which resultant is IMPOSSIBLE?

  1. A1 N
  2. B5 N
  3. C7 N
  4. D8 N
Show answer

Correct answer: D — 8 N

The resultant of two vectors ranges from |4 − 3| = 1 N when they are antiparallel to 4 + 3 = 7 N when they are parallel. 8 N lies outside that range and cannot be produced at any angle. 5 N is the perpendicular case.

Q10A force of 20 N acts at 60° above the horizontal. Its horizontal component is:

  1. A10 N
  2. B17.3 N
  3. C20 N
  4. D11.5 N
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 10 N

20 cos 60° = 20 × 0.5 = 10 N. The 17.3 N answer is 20 sin 60°, the vertical component — swapping sine and cosine is the most common slip here. Check by asking which component should be smaller: at a steep 60°, most of the force points upward.

Q11Which of these is a scalar?

  1. AMomentum
  2. BWork
  3. CTorque
  4. DElectric field
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Work

Work is a scalar, even though it is calculated from two vectors — the dot product of force and displacement returns a plain number. Momentum, torque and electric field all carry direction.

Q12A body is in equilibrium under three forces. This means:

  1. AAll three forces are equal
  2. BThe three forces form a closed triangle when drawn head to tail
  3. CNo forces act on the body
  4. DThe forces are all perpendicular
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The three forces form a closed triangle when drawn head to tail

Zero resultant means that placing the three vectors head to tail brings you back to the starting point — a closed triangle. They need not be equal in magnitude or perpendicular, and "no forces act" describes a different situation entirely.

Q13A 10 N weight hangs on a string. The tension in the string is 10 N. This is because:

  1. ATension always equals weight
  2. BThe forces are an action–reaction pair
  3. CThe weight is in equilibrium, so the upward and downward forces must cancel
  4. DStrings cannot stretch
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The weight is in equilibrium, so the upward and downward forces must cancel

It follows from equilibrium: ΣF = 0 vertically, so tension must equal weight here. It is not a general rule — accelerate the weight upward and the tension exceeds 10 N. And the two forces act on the same object, so they are not an action–reaction pair.

Q14On an inclined plane at angle θ, the component of weight acting down the slope is:

  1. Amg cos θ
  2. Bmg sin θ
  3. Cmg tan θ
  4. Dmg
Show answer

Correct answer: B — mg sin θ

mg sin θ acts along the slope and mg cos θ presses perpendicular into it. Sanity check with θ = 0: a flat surface should give zero force along it, and sin 0° = 0. The cos version would wrongly give the full weight.

Q15The density of a substance is defined as:

  1. AMass × volume
  2. BMass per unit volume
  3. CVolume per unit mass
  4. DWeight per unit area
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Mass per unit volume

ρ = m/V. Volume per unit mass is its reciprocal, and weight per unit area is pressure — both are offered because both are genuinely easy to reach for under time pressure.

Q16A block is cut exactly in half. Its density:

  1. AHalves
  2. BDoubles
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDepends on which way it is cut
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays the same

Both the mass and the volume halve, so their ratio is unchanged. Density is a property of the material, not of the size of the sample.

Q17The SI unit of pressure is:

  1. AN
  2. BPa
  3. CJ
  4. DN m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Pa

The pascal, where 1 Pa = 1 N m⁻². The newton is force, the joule is energy, and N m is a moment.

Q18The pressure at the bottom of a column of liquid depends on:

  1. AThe width of the container
  2. BThe total volume of liquid
  3. CThe depth, density and g
  4. DThe shape of the container
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The depth, density and g

p = ρgh contains no term for width, volume or shape. A narrow tube 2 m tall gives exactly the same base pressure as a wide tank 2 m deep.

Q19A force of 20 N acts over an area of 0.5 m². The pressure is:

  1. A10 Pa
  2. B40 Pa
  3. C0.025 Pa
  4. D20 Pa
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 40 Pa

p = F/A = 20 ÷ 0.5 = 40 Pa. Dividing the other way round gives 0.025 and is the most common slip — check whether the answer should be larger or smaller than the force.

Q20A spring of natural length 10 cm stretches to 15 cm under a 4 N load. The spring constant is:

  1. A0.27 N m⁻¹
  2. B26.7 N m⁻¹
  3. C80 N m⁻¹
  4. D40 N m⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 80 N m⁻¹

The extension is 5 cm = 0.05 m, so k = 4 ÷ 0.05 = 80 N m⁻¹. Using the total length of 0.15 m gives 26.7 and is precisely the error the question is set to catch.

Q21Beyond the elastic limit, a spring:

  1. AReturns to its original length
  2. BDoes not return to its original length
  3. CObeys Hooke's law exactly
  4. DHas zero spring constant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Does not return to its original length

It is permanently deformed. The limit of proportionality is a separate and earlier point, where the force–extension graph stops being straight.

Q22Why do snowshoes stop a walker sinking into soft snow?

  1. AThey reduce the walker's weight
  2. BThey spread the weight over a larger area, lowering the pressure
  3. CThey increase the density of the snow
  4. DThey reduce the force of gravity
Show answer

Correct answer: B — They spread the weight over a larger area, lowering the pressure

The weight is unchanged — only the area over which it acts increases, so p = F/A falls. Nothing a shoe does can change a person's weight.

Exam-style questions · 20

Q1[4 marks]
A uniform beam of weight 40 N and length 2.0 m rests on a pivot 0.50 m from its left end. A load of weight W hangs from the extreme left end, and the beam is in equilibrium.
  1. State where the weight of the beam acts.
  2. Calculate the value of W.
Mark scheme
  1. At the centre of gravity, which for a uniform beam is its midpoint, 1.0 m from the left end"uniform" is the word that tells you this[1]
  2. Takes moments about the pivot; the beam's weight acts 1.0 − 0.50 = 0.50 m to the right of it[1]
  3. Clockwise = anticlockwise: 40 × 0.50 = W × 0.50the load acts 0.50 m to the left of the pivot[1]
  4. W = 40 N[1]

(a) at the midpoint, 1.0 m from the left end (b) W = 40 N

Q2[3 marks]
Explain, in terms of centre of gravity and base, why a double-decker bus is more likely to topple when passengers stand on the upper deck than when they sit downstairs.
Mark scheme
  1. Passengers upstairs raise the centre of gravity of the bus[1]
  2. A higher centre of gravity means a smaller tilt is needed before the vertical line through it falls outside the base / wheelbasethis is the key reasoning mark[1]
  3. So the bus topples at a smaller angle / is less stable[1]
Q3[3 marks]
A force of 12 N is applied to a spanner at 30° to the handle, at a distance of 0.25 m from the nut. Calculate the moment of the force about the nut.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises that only the perpendicular component turns the nutor equivalently uses the perpendicular distance[1]
  2. Perpendicular component = 12 sin 30° = 6.0 N[1]
  3. Moment = 6.0 × 0.25 = 1.5 N munit required[1]

1.5 N m

Q4[2 marks]
Define the moment of a force and state its SI unit.
Answer

The turning effect of a force about a pivot, equal to force × perpendicular distance from the pivot to the line of action. SI unit: the newton metre, N m.

Q5[2 marks]
Why can a moment not be measured in joules, when N m is the unit of both?
Answer

They are different quantities. Work is force acting along a displacement; a moment is force acting across a distance from a pivot. Sharing base units does not make them the same thing.

Q6[2 marks]
State two conditions that must be satisfied for a body to be in complete equilibrium.
Answer

ΣF = 0 — no resultant force, so it does not accelerate. Σ moments = 0 — no resultant turning effect, so it does not rotate.

Q7[4 marks]
A uniform metre rule is pivoted at the 50 cm mark. A weight of 3.0 N hangs at the 20 cm mark. Calculate the weight that must hang at the 70 cm mark to balance it.
Mark scheme
  1. Left distance = 50 − 20 = 30 cm = 0.30 mdistance from the pivot, not from the end of the rule[1]
  2. Anticlockwise moment = 3.0 × 0.30 = 0.90 N m[1]
  3. Right distance = 70 − 50 = 20 cm = 0.20 m; for balance W₂ × 0.20 = 0.90principle of moments[1]
  4. W₂ = 4.5 Nunit required[1]

4.5 N

Q8[2 marks]
State the difference between a scalar and a vector quantity, and give one example of each.
Answer

A scalar has magnitude only, for example mass. A vector has both magnitude and direction, for example velocity.

Q9[2 marks]
Explain why displacement can be zero when the distance travelled is not.
Answer

Distance is the total path length, a scalar that only ever grows. Displacement is the straight line from start to finish, so returning to the starting point makes it zero.

Q10[2 marks]
State what is meant by the resultant of two forces.
Answer

The single force that has the same effect on the body as the two forces acting together.

Q11[5 marks]
A force of 8.0 N acts due east and a force of 6.0 N acts due north on the same object. Calculate the magnitude and direction of the resultant.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises the forces are perpendicular, so Pythagoras applies[1]
  2. R = √(8.0² + 6.0²)[1]
  3. R = 10.0 N[1]
  4. Uses tan θ = 6.0 / 8.0[1]
  5. θ = 36.9° north of easta direction with no reference line scores nothing[1]

10.0 N at 36.9° north of east

Q12[8 marks]
A box of weight 250 N rests on a slope inclined at 20° to the horizontal.
  1. Explain what is meant by resolving a vector. [2]
  2. Calculate the component of the weight acting down the slope. [3]
  3. Calculate the component acting perpendicular to the slope. [2]
  4. State what the perpendicular component is balanced by. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Replacing one vector by two components at right angles to each other[1]
  2. Which together have the same effect as the original vector[1]
  3. Uses W sin θ for the component along the slope[1]
  4. = 250 × sin 20°[1]
  5. = 85.5 N[1]
  6. Uses W cos θ = 250 × cos 20°[1]
  7. = 235 N[1]
  8. The normal contact force from the surface of the slope[1]

(b) 85.5 N (c) 235 N

Q13[6 marks]
A swimmer can swim at 1.2 m s⁻¹ in still water. She heads straight across a river 30 m wide that flows at 0.90 m s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the time taken to cross. [2]
  2. Calculate how far downstream she lands. [2]
  3. Calculate her resultant speed relative to the bank. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The current does not affect the crossing time: t = 30 / 1.2perpendicular components are independent[1]
  2. t = 25 s[1]
  3. Uses distance = 0.90 × 25[1]
  4. = 22.5 m downstream[1]
  5. Uses √(1.2² + 0.90²)[1]
  6. = 1.5 m s⁻¹[1]

(a) 25 s (b) 22.5 m (c) 1.5 m s⁻¹

Q14[5 marks]
A rectangular block of wood has dimensions 20 cm × 10 cm × 5.0 cm and a mass of 0.80 kg.
  1. Calculate the density of the wood in kg m⁻³.
  2. The block is placed on a table on its largest face. Calculate the pressure it exerts. Take g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Volume = 0.20 × 0.10 × 0.050 = 1.0 × 10⁻³ m³converting every length to metres first[1]
  2. Density = 0.80 / 1.0 × 10⁻³ = 800 kg m⁻³[1]
  3. Weight = mg = 0.80 × 10 = 8.0 Npressure needs force, and the force here is the weight[1]
  4. Largest face area = 0.20 × 0.10 = 0.020 m²largest face gives the lowest pressure[1]
  5. Pressure = 8.0 / 0.020 = 400 Pa[1]

(a) 800 kg m⁻³ (b) 400 Pa

Q15[4 marks]
A diver is 12 m below the surface of a lake. The density of the water is 1000 kg m⁻³ and g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the pressure on the diver due to the water alone.
  2. The lake narrows sharply near the bottom. State and explain the effect of this on the pressure at 12 m depth.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p = ρgh[1]
  2. p = 1000 × 10 × 12 = 1.2 × 10⁵ Paunit required[1]
  3. No effect / the pressure is unchanged[1]
  4. Pressure in a liquid depends only on depth, density and g — not on the shape or width of the containerthe reasoning mark; the statement alone scores 1 of 2[1]

(a) 1.2 × 10⁵ Pa (b) no change — pressure depends only on depth

Q16[4 marks]
A spring of natural length 8.0 cm extends to 12.0 cm when a load of 5.0 N is hung from it.
  1. Calculate the spring constant.
  2. Calculate the length of the spring when a load of 8.0 N is applied, assuming the limit of proportionality is not exceeded.
Mark scheme
  1. Extension = 12.0 − 8.0 = 4.0 cm = 0.040 mextension, not total length — the mark most often lost on this topic[1]
  2. k = F/x = 5.0 / 0.040 = 125 N m⁻¹[1]
  3. New extension = 8.0 / 125 = 0.064 m = 6.4 cm[1]
  4. New length = 8.0 + 6.4 = 14.4 cmadding the natural length back on[1]

(a) 125 N m⁻¹ (b) 14.4 cm

Q17[2 marks]
Define density and state its SI unit.
Answer

Mass per unit volume, ρ = m/V. SI unit: kg m⁻³.

Q18[2 marks]
Why does a camel have broad feet?
Answer

Broad feet spread the camel's weight over a larger area, so the pressure on the sand is smaller and it does not sink.

Q19[2 marks]
State Hooke's law.
Answer

The extension of a spring is directly proportional to the load applied, provided the limit of proportionality is not exceeded.

Q20[4 marks]
A tank contains oil of density 800 kg m⁻³ to a depth of 1.5 m. Calculate the pressure at the base due to the oil, and the force this exerts on a base of area 2.0 m². Take g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p = ρgh[1]
  2. p = 800 × 10 × 1.5 = 12 000 Paunit required[1]
  3. Rearranges p = F/A to F = pA[1]
  4. F = 12 000 × 2.0 = 24 000 N[1]

p = 1.2 × 10⁴ Pa, F = 2.4 × 10⁴ N

05

Work, energy and power

Multiple choice · 6

Q1A waiter carries a tray horizontally at constant speed across a room. The work done by the waiter on the tray is:

  1. ALarge and positive
  2. BZero
  3. CNegative
  4. DEqual to the weight of the tray
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The supporting force is vertical and the movement is horizontal, so θ = 90° and cos 90° = 0. Effort is not the same as work — your arm gets tired maintaining the force, but no energy is transferred to the tray.

Q2A car doubles its speed. Its kinetic energy:

  1. ADoubles
  2. BHalves
  3. CQuadruples
  4. DStays the same
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Quadruples

KE = ½mv², so v → 2v gives (2v)² = 4v². This is why braking distance grows roughly fourfold when speed doubles: the brakes must dissipate four times the energy.

Q3A 2 kg ball is dropped from 5 m. Taking g = 10 m s⁻² and ignoring air resistance, its speed on landing is:

  1. A5 m s⁻¹
  2. B10 m s⁻¹
  3. C20 m s⁻¹
  4. D100 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10 m s⁻¹

mgh = ½mv², and the mass cancels: v = √(2gh) = √(2 × 10 × 5) = 10 m s⁻¹. The 100 answer is v² left un-square-rooted, and the mass being given at all is a deliberate distraction.

Q4A motor lifts a 50 kg load 4 m in 10 s. Taking g = 10 m s⁻², its useful power output is:

  1. A20 W
  2. B200 W
  3. C2000 W
  4. D500 W
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 200 W

Work = mgh = 50 × 10 × 4 = 2000 J, and power = 2000 ÷ 10 = 200 W. The 2000 W answer is the work in joules read off as watts — always check whether you have divided by the time.

Q5A pendulum swings back and forth with friction present. Over time:

  1. ATotal energy is destroyed
  2. BKE and PE both fall, and the difference becomes heat
  3. CPE is converted entirely into KE with no loss
  4. DThe period grows steadily longer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — KE and PE both fall, and the difference becomes heat

Energy is never destroyed — it leaves the pendulum as heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls. The period, notably, stays essentially the same as the swing dies away, which is the isochronism that made pendulum clocks work.

Q6A machine takes in 500 J and delivers 350 J of useful output. Its efficiency is:

  1. A70%
  2. B143%
  3. C150%
  4. D35%
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 70%

350 ÷ 500 × 100 = 70%. The remaining 150 J has not vanished; it has been dissipated as heat, sound and vibration. Any efficiency above 100% means you have divided the wrong way round.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Define work done and state the condition under which it is zero even though a force acts.
Answer

Work = force × distance moved in the direction of the force, W = Fs cos θ. It is zero when the force is perpendicular to the motion, since cos 90° = 0.

Q2[2 marks]
State the law of conservation of energy.
Answer

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred from one store to another. The total energy of a closed system remains constant.

Q3[2 marks]
A ball bounces to a lower height each time. Has energy been destroyed? Explain.
Answer

No. Energy is transferred to heat and sound in the ball and the floor at each bounce, so less remains as gravitational potential energy. The total is unchanged.

Q4[4 marks]
A pump raises 300 kg of water through a height of 12 m in 40 s. Calculate the useful power output. Take g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = mghthe useful energy is the gravitational potential energy gained[1]
  2. E = 300 × 10 × 12 = 36 000 J[1]
  3. Uses P = E/t[1]
  4. P = 36 000 / 40 = 900 Wunit required[1]

900 W

Q5[4 marks]
A 1200 kg car accelerates from rest to 20 m s⁻¹. Calculate its gain in kinetic energy, and the average power developed if this takes 8.0 s.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses KE = ½mv²[1]
  2. KE = ½ × 1200 × 20² = 240 000 Jsquare the velocity before multiplying[1]
  3. Gain in KE = 240 000 J since it started from rest[1]
  4. P = 240 000 / 8.0 = 30 000 W = 30 kW[1]

2.4 × 10⁵ J and 30 kW

06

Deformation of solids

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Which solid has a sharp melting point?

  1. AGlass
  2. BA crystalline solid
  3. CRubber
  4. DAny amorphous solid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A crystalline solid

Every bond in a lattice is the same, so they break at the same temperature. Amorphous solids soften over a range.

Q2Strain is measured in:

  1. APascals
  2. BNo units
  3. CNewtons
  4. DMetres
Show answer

Correct answer: B — No units

It is an extension divided by a length. Stress and the Young modulus are both in pascals.

Q3The Young modulus is the gradient of:

  1. AA force-extension graph
  2. BThe straight part of a stress-strain graph
  3. CThe plastic region
  4. DA velocity-time graph
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The straight part of a stress-strain graph

The straight, elastic part. A force-extension gradient gives the spring constant, which depends on the sample.

Q4Deformation past the elastic limit is:

  1. AReversible
  2. BPermanent
  3. CImpossible
  4. DAlways fracture
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Permanent

Planes of atoms have slipped and do not slide back. It is what allows a metal to be shaped.

Q5A material that breaks with almost no plastic deformation is:

  1. ADuctile
  2. BBrittle
  3. CElastic
  4. DWeak
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Brittle

Brittle. It is not the same as weak — glass fibre is brittle and very strong.

Q6Copper is drawn into wire because it is:

  1. ABrittle
  2. BDuctile
  3. CAmorphous
  4. DAn insulator
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Ductile

Its long plastic region lets it be stretched permanently without breaking.

Q7A semiconductor has a band gap of roughly:

  1. AZero
  2. B1 eV
  3. C10 eV
  4. D100 eV
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 eV

Small enough that thermal energy lifts some electrons across at room temperature. An insulator gap is several eV.

Q8In a conductor, the valence and conduction bands:

  1. AAre far apart
  2. BOverlap or the upper band is part-filled
  3. CAre both empty
  4. DDo not exist
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Overlap or the upper band is part-filled

Electrons can reach free states with almost no energy, so current flows easily.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State two differences between a crystalline and an amorphous solid.
Answer

A crystalline solid has a regular repeating lattice and a sharp melting point. An amorphous solid has no long-range order and softens over a range of temperature.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain the difference between elastic and plastic deformation in terms of atoms.
Answer

In elastic deformation the atoms are pulled slightly further apart but keep the same neighbours, so the material returns to its original length. In plastic deformation planes of atoms slip permanently over one another, so it does not.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why the resistance of a semiconductor falls as its temperature rises, while a metal's rises.
Answer

In a semiconductor, thermal energy lifts more electrons across the small band gap into the conduction band, so there are more charge carriers. In a metal the number of carriers is fixed, and heating makes the ions vibrate more so the electrons collide with them more often.

Q4[5 marks]
A copper wire of length 2.0 m and cross-sectional area 3.5 × 10⁻⁷ m² stretches by 1.8 mm under a load of 38 N. Find the stress, the strain and the Young modulus.
Mark scheme
  1. σ = F/A = 38 / 3.5 × 10⁻⁷[1]
  2. σ = 1.09 × 10⁸ Pa[1]
  3. ε = e/L = 1.8 × 10⁻³ / 2.0convert mm to m[1]
  4. ε = 9.0 × 10⁻⁴no units[1]
  5. E = σ/ε = 1.2 × 10¹¹ Paabout right for copper[1]

σ = 1.09 × 10⁸ Pa, ε = 9.0 × 10⁻⁴, E = 1.2 × 10¹¹ Pa

Q5[8 marks]
A student stretches a copper wire and a glass fibre until each breaks, plotting stress against strain for both.
  1. Sketch and describe the shape of each graph. [4]
  2. Identify which material is ductile and which is brittle, giving a reason. [2]
  3. Explain what the gradient of the straight section represents. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Copper: straight line at first, then curving over into a long plastic region before breaking[1]
  2. Copper reaches a maximum stress and then extends considerably before failure[1]
  3. Glass: straight line all the way[1]
  4. Glass breaks abruptly at the end of the straight line, with no plastic region[1]
  5. Copper is ductile — it has a long plastic region and can be drawn into wire[1]
  6. Glass is brittle — it breaks with almost no plastic deformation[1]
  7. The gradient is the Young modulus[1]
  8. It measures the stiffness of the material and is independent of the sample dimensions[1]

copper ductile with a long plastic region; glass brittle; gradient = Young modulus

Q6[5 marks]
Solids are classified as conductors, semiconductors or insulators by their band structure.
  1. Explain what is meant by a band gap. [2]
  2. Describe the band gap in each of the three classes. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. A range of energies that electrons in the solid are not allowed to have[1]
  2. It separates the valence band from the conduction band[1]
  3. Conductor: no gap — the bands overlap or the upper band is part-filled[1]
  4. Semiconductor: a small gap, about 1 eV, which some electrons cross at room temperature[1]
  5. Insulator: a large gap of several eV that electrons cannot cross at ordinary temperatures[1]

no gap / small gap / large gap

07

Waves

Multiple choice · 22

Q1Which condition defines simple harmonic motion?

  1. AThe object moves in a circle
  2. BThe restoring force is proportional to displacement and directed toward equilibrium
  3. CThe speed is constant
  4. DThe acceleration is constant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The restoring force is proportional to displacement and directed toward equilibrium

F = −kx is the definition. Constant acceleration describes free fall, not SHM — in SHM the acceleration is largest at the extremes and zero at the centre, changing continuously.

Q2You double the amplitude of a mass-spring oscillator. The period:

  1. ADoubles
  2. BHalves
  3. CStays the same
  4. DQuadruples
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays the same

T = 2π√(m/k) contains no amplitude term. A larger swing covers more distance but also moves faster, and the two effects cancel exactly. This property, called isochronism, is what made pendulums useful as clocks.

Q3A wave has frequency 250 Hz and wavelength 1.4 m. Its speed is:

  1. A178 m/s
  2. B350 m/s
  3. C251 m/s
  4. D0.0056 m/s
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 350 m/s

v = fλ = 250 × 1.4 = 350 m/s — close to the speed of sound in air. Note the speed is set by the medium: change the frequency and the wavelength adjusts to keep the product fixed.

Q4Two identical waves meet exactly out of phase (180°). The result is:

  1. ADouble amplitude
  2. BComplete cancellation
  3. CHalf amplitude
  4. DA standing wave
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Complete cancellation

Every crest lands on a trough, and equal-and-opposite displacements sum to zero. The energy is not destroyed — it redistributes to regions where the interference is constructive, which is why interference patterns have bright and dark bands rather than uniform dimness.

Q5In a standing wave on a string, a node is a point that:

  1. AVibrates with maximum amplitude
  2. BNever moves
  3. CMoves along the string
  4. DHas the highest frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Never moves

At a node the two counter-travelling waves are permanently in antiphase, so they cancel there at every instant. The maximum-amplitude points between nodes are antinodes, and node spacing is exactly half a wavelength.

Q6Sound is a longitudinal wave. That means the air molecules:

  1. AMove perpendicular to the wave direction
  2. BOscillate back and forth along the wave direction
  3. CTravel with the wave to your ear
  4. DDo not move at all
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Oscillate back and forth along the wave direction

Longitudinal means the oscillation is parallel to travel — air compresses and rarefies along the line the sound moves. The molecules themselves only jiggle in place; the energy travels, not the air.

Q7All electromagnetic waves in a vacuum travel at:

  1. A340 m s⁻¹
  2. B3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹
  3. CDifferent speeds depending on frequency
  4. D1500 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹

The speed is the same for every region of the spectrum. 340 m s⁻¹ is the speed of sound in air, which is not an electromagnetic wave at all.

Q8Which has the longest wavelength?

  1. AGamma rays
  2. BRadio waves
  3. CUltraviolet
  4. DX-rays
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Radio waves

Radio waves sit at the long-wavelength, low-frequency end. Gamma rays are at the opposite extreme.

Q9Which region lies between infrared and ultraviolet?

  1. AMicrowaves
  2. BVisible light
  3. CX-rays
  4. DRadio waves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Visible light

The order is radio, microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-ray, gamma — so visible light sits exactly between them.

Q10Ionising radiation begins at:

  1. AInfrared
  2. BVisible light
  3. CUltraviolet
  4. DMicrowaves
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Ultraviolet

From ultraviolet upward the photon energy is enough to remove electrons from atoms. That is the boundary at which cell damage becomes possible.

Q11Which electromagnetic waves are used in thermal imaging cameras?

  1. AUltraviolet
  2. BInfrared
  3. CX-rays
  4. DRadio waves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Infrared

All warm objects emit infrared, so a camera detecting it can see people and heat leaks in complete darkness.

Q12A wave has frequency 1.0 × 10¹⁵ Hz. Its wavelength is:

  1. A3.0 × 10⁻⁷ m
  2. B3.0 × 10²³ m
  3. C3.3 × 10⁶ m
  4. D3.0 × 10⁸ m
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 3.0 × 10⁻⁷ m

λ = c/f = 3.0 × 10⁸ ÷ 1.0 × 10¹⁵ = 3.0 × 10⁻⁷ m, which is 300 nm — ultraviolet. Multiplying instead of dividing gives the absurd second answer.

Q13X-rays produce an image of bone because they are:

  1. AReflected by bone
  2. BAbsorbed by bone but transmitted by soft tissue
  3. CEmitted by bone
  4. DRefracted by bone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Absorbed by bone but transmitted by soft tissue

The denser bone absorbs them, leaving a shadow on the detector while soft tissue lets them through.

Q14Compared with visible light, ultraviolet has:

  1. ALower frequency and less energy
  2. BHigher frequency and more energy
  3. CThe same frequency
  4. DA longer wavelength
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Higher frequency and more energy

Ultraviolet sits just beyond violet, at higher frequency and shorter wavelength, so each photon carries more energy — which is why it can cause sunburn and light cannot.

Q15Two sources are coherent if they have:

  1. AThe same amplitude
  2. BThe same frequency and a constant phase difference
  3. CThe same intensity
  4. DDifferent wavelengths
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The same frequency and a constant phase difference

Amplitude affects how complete the cancellation is, but coherence is about frequency and a steady phase relationship.

Q16Constructive interference occurs when the path difference is:

  1. A(n + ½)λ
  2. B
  3. Cλ/4
  4. DAlways zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — nλ

A whole number of wavelengths means the waves arrive in step. Odd half-wavelengths give cancellation.

Q17In a double slit experiment, moving the screen further away makes the fringes:

  1. ACloser together
  2. BFurther apart
  3. CUnchanged
  4. DDisappear
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Further apart

x = λD/a, so spacing is proportional to D. This is why the screen is placed well back.

Q18Which colour produces the widest fringe spacing?

  1. ABlue
  2. BRed
  3. CGreen
  4. DAll the same
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Red

Red has the longest wavelength, and x ∝ λ.

Q19Diffraction through a gap is greatest when the gap is:

  1. AMuch wider than the wavelength
  2. BAbout equal to the wavelength
  3. CMuch narrower than the wavelength
  4. DPerfectly square
Show answer

Correct answer: B — About equal to the wavelength

A gap comparable to the wavelength spreads the wave most. It is why sound bends round doorways and light does not.

Q20A grating has 500 lines per mm. The slit spacing d is:

  1. A500 m
  2. B2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m
  3. C5.0 × 10⁻⁴ m
  4. D500 × 10⁻⁹ m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m

500 per mm is 5 × 10⁵ per metre, and d = 1/N = 2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m.

Q21That light can be polarised shows that light is:

  1. ALongitudinal
  2. BTransverse
  3. CA particle
  4. DMonochromatic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Transverse

Only transverse waves have vibrations perpendicular to travel that can be restricted to a plane. Sound cannot be polarised.

Q22LIGO detects gravitational waves by measuring:

  1. AA change in the colour of light
  2. BA tiny difference in the lengths of two perpendicular arms
  3. CThe mass of a black hole directly
  4. DA change in gravity with a pendulum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A tiny difference in the lengths of two perpendicular arms

It is an interferometer. The arms are set to cancel; a passing wave upsets that cancellation and light reaches the detector.

Exam-style questions · 18

Q1[2 marks]
Define the wavelength and the frequency of a wave.
Answer

Wavelength is the distance between two neighbouring points that are in phase, for example crest to crest. Frequency is the number of complete waves passing a fixed point each second.

Q2[2 marks]
State two differences between transverse and longitudinal waves, and give one example of each.
Answer

In a transverse wave the vibration is perpendicular to the direction of travel, for example light. In a longitudinal wave it is parallel to the direction of travel, for example sound.

Q3[2 marks]
State what happens to the frequency, wavelength and speed of a water wave when it passes into shallower water.
Answer

The frequency stays the same. The speed decreases and, since v = fλ, the wavelength decreases in proportion.

Q4[4 marks]
A wave on a rope has a frequency of 12 Hz. Fifteen complete waves occupy a length of 3.0 m. Calculate the wavelength and the speed of the wave.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses λ = length ÷ number of waves[1]
  2. λ = 3.0 / 15 = 0.20 m[1]
  3. Uses v = fλ[1]
  4. v = 12 × 0.20 = 2.4 m s⁻¹[1]

λ = 0.20 m, v = 2.4 m s⁻¹

Q5[8 marks]
A ripple tank is used to study water waves. A straight barrier with a narrow gap is placed in the tank.
  1. Describe and explain what is observed as the waves pass through the gap. [3]
  2. State and explain what happens to the effect when the gap is made narrower. [2]
  3. The waves have a frequency of 8.0 Hz and a wavelength of 25 mm. Calculate their speed. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The waves spread out after passing through the gap[1]
  2. This is diffraction[1]
  3. The wavelength and frequency are unchanged; only the shape of the wavefront changes[1]
  4. The waves spread out more[1]
  5. Because the gap width is closer to the wavelengthmaximum spreading when gap ≈ λ[1]
  6. Converts 25 mm = 0.025 m[1]
  7. Uses v = fλ[1]
  8. v = 8.0 × 0.025 = 0.20 m s⁻¹[1]

(c) 0.20 m s⁻¹

Q6[7 marks]
A student uses a ripple tank to investigate refraction by placing a flat glass plate on the bottom to make part of the tank shallower.
  1. Describe what happens to the direction of the waves as they cross into the shallow region at an angle. [2]
  2. Explain this change in terms of the speed of the waves. [3]
  3. State what is observed if the waves meet the boundary head-on, and explain why. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The waves change direction at the boundary[1]
  2. They bend towards the normal[1]
  3. The waves travel more slowly in the shallow water[1]
  4. The end of each wavefront entering the shallow region slows first[1]
  5. So the wavefront pivots, changing the direction of travel[1]
  6. The direction does not change[1]
  7. Because the whole wavefront slows at the same instant, so there is nothing to pivot aboutthe wavelength still shortens[1]
Q7[5 marks]
The electromagnetic spectrum is divided into seven regions.
  1. List the regions in order of increasing frequency.
  2. State the speed of all electromagnetic waves in a vacuum.
  3. Explain why gamma rays are more dangerous to living cells than radio waves.
Mark scheme
  1. Radio, microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-ray, gammatwo marks for the full correct order; one for a mostly correct order[2]
  2. 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹[1]
  3. Gamma rays have a much higher frequency, so each photon carries much more energy[1]
  4. They are ionising — able to remove electrons from atoms, which can damage or mutate cellsthe word "ionising" is what the mark scheme looks for[1]

Order as listed; 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹; gamma is ionising because of its far higher photon energy

Q8[3 marks]
A radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 96.0 MHz. Calculate the wavelength of the waves. Take c = 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts MHz to Hz: 96.0 × 10⁶ = 9.60 × 10⁷ Hzthe prefix is where this question is won or lost[1]
  2. Rearranges c = fλ to λ = c/f[1]
  3. λ = 3.0 × 10⁸ / 9.60 × 10⁷ = 3.1 m[1]

3.1 m

Q9[4 marks]
State one use and one danger for each of infrared and ultraviolet radiation.
Mark scheme
  1. Infrared use: remote controls / thermal imaging / heatersany one[1]
  2. Infrared danger: skin burns[1]
  3. Ultraviolet use: sterilising / security marking / detecting forgeriesany one[1]
  4. Ultraviolet danger: skin cancer / eye damage[1]
Q10[2 marks]
State two properties common to all electromagnetic waves.
Answer

They are all transverse waves, and they all travel at 3.0 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹ in a vacuum. (Also acceptable: none requires a medium; all carry energy.)

Q11[2 marks]
Explain why microwaves rather than infrared are used for satellite communication.
Answer

Microwaves pass through the atmosphere with little absorption, so the signal reaches the satellite and returns. Infrared is strongly absorbed by the atmosphere.

Q12[8 marks]
A hospital uses several parts of the electromagnetic spectrum.
  1. Explain why X-rays produce a useful image of a broken bone. [2]
  2. Explain why gamma rays can be used to treat a tumour but must be carefully targeted. [3]
  3. Explain why ultraviolet is used to sterilise equipment, and state one precaution staff must take. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. X-rays pass through soft tissue but are absorbed by the denser bone[1]
  2. Producing a shadow image on the detector[1]
  3. Gamma rays are ionising and can kill living cells[1]
  4. A focused beam destroys the tumour cells[1]
  5. But healthy cells would also be damaged or mutated, so exposure elsewhere must be minimised[1]
  6. Ultraviolet is ionising enough to kill bacteria[1]
  7. So it sterilises surfaces and instruments[1]
  8. Staff must wear eye protection / avoid skin exposure, since UV causes eye damage and skin cancer[1]
Q13[2 marks]
State what is meant by coherent sources, and why they are needed for interference.
Answer

Sources with the same frequency and a constant phase difference. Without that, the phase relationship changes randomly and no stable pattern of fringes is seen.

Q14[2 marks]
Explain why light can be polarised but sound cannot.
Answer

Light is a transverse wave, so its vibrations are perpendicular to the direction of travel and one plane can be selected. Sound is longitudinal, vibrating along the direction of travel, so there is no plane to select.

Q15[2 marks]
Explain why sound diffracts round a doorway but light does not.
Answer

Diffraction is greatest when the gap is comparable to the wavelength. Sound wavelengths are around a metre, similar to a doorway, while visible light is about 5 × 10⁻⁷ m — far too small to spread noticeably.

Q16[5 marks]
A diffraction grating has 300 lines per millimetre. Light of wavelength 590 nm falls on it normally. Find the angle of the first order maximum, and the highest order visible.
Mark scheme
  1. d = 1 / (300 × 10³) = 3.33 × 10⁻⁶ m300 per mm is 3 × 10⁵ per metre[1]
  2. Uses d sin θ = nλ with n = 1[1]
  3. sin θ = 590 × 10⁻⁹ / 3.33 × 10⁻⁶ = 0.177[1]
  4. θ = 10.2°[1]
  5. Highest order: n ≤ d/λ = 5.6, so n = 5sin θ cannot exceed 1[1]

θ = 10.2° for the first order; 5 orders visible

Q17[8 marks]
In a double slit experiment, slits 0.40 mm apart are illuminated with light of wavelength 5.9 × 10⁻⁷ m. The screen is 2.4 m away.
  1. Explain why a bright fringe appears at the centre of the screen. [2]
  2. Calculate the fringe spacing. [3]
  3. State and explain what happens to the pattern if the slit separation is halved. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The two paths to the centre are equal in length[1]
  2. So the path difference is zero, the waves arrive in phase and interfere constructively[1]
  3. Uses x = λD/a[1]
  4. x = (5.9 × 10⁻⁷ × 2.4) / 4.0 × 10⁻⁴[1]
  5. x = 3.5 × 10⁻³ m, about 3.5 mm[1]
  6. The fringe spacing doubles[1]
  7. Because x is inversely proportional to a[1]
  8. The fringes become more widely separated and easier to measure[1]

(b) 3.5 mm (c) spacing doubles

Q18[5 marks]
Gravitational waves were first detected in 2015 by LIGO, an instrument built on the interference of laser light.
  1. Explain how an interferometer detects an extremely small change in length. [3]
  2. State one reason gravitational wave astronomy sees events that telescopes cannot. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A laser beam is split down two perpendicular arms and recombined[1]
  2. The arms are set so the returning beams cancel by destructive interference[1]
  3. A tiny change in one arm's length upsets the cancellation, so light appears at the detectora fraction of a wavelength is enough[1]
  4. Events such as black hole mergers emit almost no light[1]
  5. But they do radiate gravitational waves, which also pass through intervening dust and gas unimpeded[1]
08

Superposition

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Two sources are coherent if they have:

  1. AThe same amplitude
  2. BThe same frequency and a constant phase difference
  3. CThe same intensity
  4. DDifferent wavelengths
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The same frequency and a constant phase difference

Amplitude affects how complete the cancellation is, but coherence is about frequency and a steady phase relationship.

Q2Constructive interference occurs when the path difference is:

  1. A(n + ½)λ
  2. B
  3. Cλ/4
  4. DAlways zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — nλ

A whole number of wavelengths means the waves arrive in step. Odd half-wavelengths give cancellation.

Q3In a double slit experiment, moving the screen further away makes the fringes:

  1. ACloser together
  2. BFurther apart
  3. CUnchanged
  4. DDisappear
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Further apart

x = λD/a, so spacing is proportional to D. This is why the screen is placed well back.

Q4Which colour produces the widest fringe spacing?

  1. ABlue
  2. BRed
  3. CGreen
  4. DAll the same
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Red

Red has the longest wavelength, and x ∝ λ.

Q5Diffraction through a gap is greatest when the gap is:

  1. AMuch wider than the wavelength
  2. BAbout equal to the wavelength
  3. CMuch narrower than the wavelength
  4. DPerfectly square
Show answer

Correct answer: B — About equal to the wavelength

A gap comparable to the wavelength spreads the wave most. It is why sound bends round doorways and light does not.

Q6A grating has 500 lines per mm. The slit spacing d is:

  1. A500 m
  2. B2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m
  3. C5.0 × 10⁻⁴ m
  4. D500 × 10⁻⁹ m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m

500 per mm is 5 × 10⁵ per metre, and d = 1/N = 2.0 × 10⁻⁶ m.

Q7That light can be polarised shows that light is:

  1. ALongitudinal
  2. BTransverse
  3. CA particle
  4. DMonochromatic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Transverse

Only transverse waves have vibrations perpendicular to travel that can be restricted to a plane. Sound cannot be polarised.

Q8LIGO detects gravitational waves by measuring:

  1. AA change in the colour of light
  2. BA tiny difference in the lengths of two perpendicular arms
  3. CThe mass of a black hole directly
  4. DA change in gravity with a pendulum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A tiny difference in the lengths of two perpendicular arms

It is an interferometer. The arms are set to cancel; a passing wave upsets that cancellation and light reaches the detector.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what is meant by coherent sources, and why they are needed for interference.
Answer

Sources with the same frequency and a constant phase difference. Without that, the phase relationship changes randomly and no stable pattern of fringes is seen.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why light can be polarised but sound cannot.
Answer

Light is a transverse wave, so its vibrations are perpendicular to the direction of travel and one plane can be selected. Sound is longitudinal, vibrating along the direction of travel, so there is no plane to select.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why sound diffracts round a doorway but light does not.
Answer

Diffraction is greatest when the gap is comparable to the wavelength. Sound wavelengths are around a metre, similar to a doorway, while visible light is about 5 × 10⁻⁷ m — far too small to spread noticeably.

Q4[5 marks]
A diffraction grating has 300 lines per millimetre. Light of wavelength 590 nm falls on it normally. Find the angle of the first order maximum, and the highest order visible.
Mark scheme
  1. d = 1 / (300 × 10³) = 3.33 × 10⁻⁶ m300 per mm is 3 × 10⁵ per metre[1]
  2. Uses d sin θ = nλ with n = 1[1]
  3. sin θ = 590 × 10⁻⁹ / 3.33 × 10⁻⁶ = 0.177[1]
  4. θ = 10.2°[1]
  5. Highest order: n ≤ d/λ = 5.6, so n = 5sin θ cannot exceed 1[1]

θ = 10.2° for the first order; 5 orders visible

Q5[8 marks]
In a double slit experiment, slits 0.40 mm apart are illuminated with light of wavelength 5.9 × 10⁻⁷ m. The screen is 2.4 m away.
  1. Explain why a bright fringe appears at the centre of the screen. [2]
  2. Calculate the fringe spacing. [3]
  3. State and explain what happens to the pattern if the slit separation is halved. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. The two paths to the centre are equal in length[1]
  2. So the path difference is zero, the waves arrive in phase and interfere constructively[1]
  3. Uses x = λD/a[1]
  4. x = (5.9 × 10⁻⁷ × 2.4) / 4.0 × 10⁻⁴[1]
  5. x = 3.5 × 10⁻³ m, about 3.5 mm[1]
  6. The fringe spacing doubles[1]
  7. Because x is inversely proportional to a[1]
  8. The fringes become more widely separated and easier to measure[1]

(b) 3.5 mm (c) spacing doubles

Q6[5 marks]
Gravitational waves were first detected in 2015 by LIGO, an instrument built on the interference of laser light.
  1. Explain how an interferometer detects an extremely small change in length. [3]
  2. State one reason gravitational wave astronomy sees events that telescopes cannot. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A laser beam is split down two perpendicular arms and recombined[1]
  2. The arms are set so the returning beams cancel by destructive interference[1]
  3. A tiny change in one arm's length upsets the cancellation, so light appears at the detectora fraction of a wavelength is enough[1]
  4. Events such as black hole mergers emit almost no light[1]
  5. But they do radiate gravitational waves, which also pass through intervening dust and gas unimpeded[1]
09

Electricity

Multiple choice · 14

Q1A 12 V supply drives 0.5 A through a resistor. What is its resistance?

  1. A6 Ω
  2. B24 Ω
  3. C12.5 Ω
  4. D0.042 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 24 Ω

Rearrange V = IR to R = V/I = 12 / 0.5 = 24 Ω. Sanity check with power: P = VI = 6 W, and I²R = 0.25 × 24 = 6 W. Consistent.

Q2Two 10 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. The total resistance is:

  1. A20 Ω
  2. B10 Ω
  3. C5 Ω
  4. D0.2 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5 Ω

1/R = 1/10 + 1/10 = 2/10, so R = 5 Ω. Identical resistors in parallel always halve. Adding a second path makes it easier for charge to flow, so total resistance must fall below either individual value.

Q3In a series circuit, which quantity is the same through every component?

  1. AVoltage
  2. BCurrent
  3. CResistance
  4. DPower
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Current

One path means charge has nowhere else to go, so the current is identical everywhere. It is the voltage that divides, in proportion to each resistance. In parallel the situation is exactly reversed.

Q4Why are household appliances wired in parallel?

  1. AIt uses less copper
  2. BEach gets the full supply voltage and can be switched independently
  3. CIt reduces the total current
  4. DSeries wiring is illegal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Each gets the full supply voltage and can be switched independently

Parallel branches all sit across the full mains voltage, so every appliance works at its rated value and one failure does not break the others' circuit. It does increase total current, which is why the circuit is protected by a breaker.

Q5Electric field lines never cross. Why?

  1. AThey would break the inverse square law
  2. BAt a crossing point the field would need two directions at once, which is impossible
  3. CCrossing lines cancel to zero
  4. DThey do cross for like charges
Show answer

Correct answer: B — At a crossing point the field would need two directions at once, which is impossible

The field at any point has one definite direction — the direction a positive test charge would be pushed. Two lines crossing would specify two different directions at the same place, which is a contradiction.

Q6You double the distance from a point charge. The field strength becomes:

  1. AHalf
  2. BA quarter
  3. CDouble
  4. DUnchanged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A quarter

E = kQ/r² is an inverse square law. Doubling r multiplies the denominator by 4, so E drops to one quarter. Geometrically the same field lines are spread over four times the surface area.

Q7The kilowatt-hour is a unit of:

  1. APower
  2. BEnergy
  3. CCurrent
  4. DCharge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Energy

It is power multiplied by time, so it measures energy. The kilowatt on its own is the unit of power.

Q8A 100 W lamp runs for 10 hours. The energy used is:

  1. A1000 kWh
  2. B1.0 kWh
  3. C10 kWh
  4. D0.1 kWh
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1.0 kWh

0.100 kW × 10 h = 1.0 kWh. Leaving the power in watts gives 1000 and is the usual slip.

Q9The fuse in a plug must be fitted in the:

  1. ANeutral wire
  2. BEarth wire
  3. CLive wire
  4. DAny wire
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Live wire

Only a fuse in the live wire isolates the appliance from the dangerous side of the supply when it blows. In the neutral, the appliance would stay live.

Q10The earth wire is coloured:

  1. ABrown
  2. BBlue
  3. CGreen and yellow
  4. DBlack
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Green and yellow

Green and yellow is earth, brown is live, blue is neutral. Older wiring used different colours, which is why the modern standard is examined.

Q11An appliance draws 8.7 A in normal use. The correct fuse is:

  1. A3 A
  2. B5 A
  3. C13 A
  4. D30 A
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 13 A

The next standard rating above the working current. A 5 A fuse would blow immediately; a 30 A fuse would allow a dangerous fault current to keep flowing.

Q12Which expression does NOT give electrical power?

  1. AVI
  2. BI²R
  3. CV²/R
  4. DV/I
Show answer

Correct answer: D — V/I

V/I is resistance, not power. The other three are equivalent once V = IR is substituted in.

Q13A double-insulated appliance does not need an earth wire because:

  1. AIt uses less current
  2. BIt has no exposed metal parts
  3. CIt has a bigger fuse
  4. DIt runs on d.c.
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It has no exposed metal parts

With a plastic case there is no conductor a fault could make live, so there is nothing for an earth wire to protect.

Q14A circuit breaker is preferred to a fuse mainly because it:

  1. AIs cheaper
  2. BCan be reset and trips faster
  3. CCarries more current
  4. DDoes not need a live wire
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Can be reset and trips faster

It operates magnetically, so it acts faster than a wire has to melt, and it can be switched back on rather than replaced.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[2 marks]
Define electric current and state its unit.
Answer

The rate of flow of electric charge, I = Q/t. Its unit is the ampere (A), where one ampere is one coulomb per second.

Q2[2 marks]
State Ohm's law and the condition under which it holds.
Answer

The current through a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across it, provided the temperature stays constant.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why the resistance of a metal wire increases as it gets hotter.
Answer

The metal ions vibrate more strongly, so the moving electrons collide with them more often. Each collision impedes the flow, so the resistance rises.

Q4[5 marks]
A wire of length 2.0 m and cross-sectional area 0.50 mm² has a resistance of 0.068 Ω. Calculate the resistivity of the metal, and state the resistance of a 4.0 m length of the same wire.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts the area: 0.50 mm² = 0.50 × 10⁻⁶ m²the step most often dropped[1]
  2. Uses ρ = RA/L[1]
  3. ρ = (0.068 × 0.50 × 10⁻⁶) / 2.0[1]
  4. ρ = 1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ω mcopper[1]
  5. Doubling the length doubles the resistance: 0.136 Ω[1]

ρ = 1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ω m; R = 0.14 Ω

Q5[8 marks]
A student connects a 6.0 V battery to a filament lamp and records the current for a range of potential differences.
  1. Sketch and describe the shape of the I–V graph obtained. [3]
  2. Explain the shape in terms of what happens inside the filament. [3]
  3. At 6.0 V the current is 0.50 A. Calculate the resistance and the power at that point. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The graph passes through the origin[1]
  2. It is a straight line at low potential difference[1]
  3. It then curves towards the V axis, so the gradient falls[1]
  4. A larger current heats the filament[1]
  5. The ions vibrate more and the electrons collide with them more often[1]
  6. So the resistance increases and the current no longer rises in proportion[1]
  7. R = V/I = 6.0 / 0.50 = 12 Ω[1]
  8. P = VI = 6.0 × 0.50 = 3.0 W[1]

(c) 12 Ω and 3.0 W

Q6[7 marks]
A 9.0 V supply is connected in series with a 20 Ω resistor and a thermistor. At room temperature the thermistor has a resistance of 25 Ω.
  1. Calculate the current in the circuit at room temperature. [3]
  2. Calculate the potential difference across the thermistor. [2]
  3. State and explain what happens to that potential difference as the thermistor is warmed. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Total resistance = 20 + 25 = 45 Ω[1]
  2. Uses I = V/R[1]
  3. I = 9.0 / 45 = 0.20 A[1]
  4. Uses V = IR for the thermistor[1]
  5. V = 0.20 × 25 = 5.0 V[1]
  6. The potential difference across the thermistor decreases[1]
  7. Its resistance falls as it warms, so it takes a smaller share of the supply voltage[1]

(a) 0.20 A (b) 5.0 V (c) it falls

Q7[6 marks]
An electric kettle is rated 2.3 kW and is used on a 230 V mains supply. It is used for a total of 15 minutes each day. Electricity costs 25 rupees per kWh.
  1. Calculate the current drawn by the kettle.
  2. State the most suitable fuse from 3 A, 5 A and 13 A, and justify your choice.
  3. Calculate the daily cost of running the kettle.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses I = P/V = 2300 / 230converting kW to W[1]
  2. I = 10 A[1]
  3. 13 A fuse[1]
  4. It is the next standard rating above the normal working current of 10 A — a 5 A fuse would blow in normal usethe justification is a separate mark[1]
  5. Energy = 2.3 kW × 0.25 h = 0.575 kWh15 minutes is 0.25 hours[1]
  6. Cost = 0.575 × 25 = 14.4 rupees[1]

(a) 10 A (b) 13 A, the next rating above 10 A (c) about 14 rupees per day

Q8[5 marks]
A metal-cased electric drill is connected to the mains with a three-core cable.
  1. State the colour of the earth wire and where it is connected.
  2. Explain how the earth wire and fuse together protect the user if the live wire touches the metal case.
Mark scheme
  1. Green and yellow[1]
  2. Connected to the metal case[1]
  3. A fault would send a very large current from the live wire through the case to earth[1]
  4. This large current melts the fuse[1]
  5. Which disconnects the live supply, so the case cannot give a shockthe fuse must be in the live wire for this to work[1]
Q9[4 marks]
A 60 W lamp is left on for 8.0 hours. Calculate the energy used in kilowatt-hours and in joules.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts to kilowatts: 60 W = 0.060 kW[1]
  2. E = 0.060 × 8.0 = 0.48 kWh[1]
  3. Converts hours to seconds: 8.0 × 3600 = 28 800 s[1]
  4. E = 60 × 28 800 = 1.73 × 10⁶ J[1]

0.48 kWh, or 1.7 × 10⁶ J

Q10[2 marks]
Explain why a fuse must be fitted in the live wire and not the neutral wire.
Answer

When the fuse blows it must disconnect the appliance from the dangerous side of the supply. A fuse in the neutral would leave the appliance connected to the live wire and still dangerous.

Q11[2 marks]
State what is meant by the kilowatt-hour.
Answer

The energy transferred by an appliance of power 1 kilowatt operating for 1 hour. It is a unit of energy, not power.

Q12[9 marks]
A household uses a 3.0 kW immersion heater for 2.5 hours a day and five 12 W LED lamps for 6.0 hours a day. Electricity costs 22 rupees per kWh.
  1. Calculate the daily energy used by the immersion heater, in kWh. [2]
  2. Calculate the daily energy used by the five lamps, in kWh. [3]
  3. Calculate the total daily cost. [2]
  4. The immersion heater runs on 230 V. Calculate the current it draws and state a suitable fuse. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = Pt with power in kW and time in hours[1]
  2. E = 3.0 × 2.5 = 7.5 kWh[1]
  3. Total lamp power = 5 × 12 = 60 W = 0.060 kW[1]
  4. Uses E = 0.060 × 6.0[1]
  5. = 0.36 kWh[1]
  6. Total = 7.5 + 0.36 = 7.86 kWh[1]
  7. Cost = 7.86 × 22 = 173 rupees[1]
  8. I = P/V = 3000 / 230 = 13.0 A[1]
  9. A 13 A fuse is marginal — a higher-rated fuse or a dedicated circuit is neededaccept 13 A with a comment, or a stated higher rating[1]

(a) 7.5 kWh (b) 0.36 kWh (c) about 173 rupees (d) 13 A

10

D.C. circuits

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In a series circuit, the current is:

  1. ALargest near the battery
  2. BThe same at every point
  3. CDivided between components
  4. DZero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The same at every point

There is only one path, so the same charge passes every point each second. It is potential difference that divides in series.

Q2Two 6 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. The total resistance is:

  1. A12 Ω
  2. B6 Ω
  3. C3 Ω
  4. D0.33 Ω
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 3 Ω

1/R = 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/3, so R = 3 Ω. Two identical resistors in parallel always halve. The 0.33 answer is 1/R left un-inverted.

Q3Adding another resistor in parallel to a circuit causes the total resistance to:

  1. AIncrease
  2. BDecrease
  3. CStay the same
  4. DBecome zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decrease

Each new branch is an extra route for current, so more current flows for the same voltage — which means less resistance overall.

Q4In a parallel circuit, the potential difference across each branch is:

  1. ADivided equally
  2. BThe same
  3. CProportional to resistance
  4. DZero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The same

Every branch connects the same two points, so each has the full supply voltage across it. It is the current that divides.

Q5As a thermistor gets hotter, its resistance:

  1. AIncreases
  2. BDecreases
  3. CStays constant
  4. DBecomes infinite
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decreases

Thermistors and LDRs both decrease in resistance as their stimulus increases — a fact worth learning as a pair.

Q6A 12 V supply is across a 4 Ω and an 8 Ω resistor in series. The p.d. across the 8 Ω resistor is:

  1. A4 V
  2. B6 V
  3. C8 V
  4. D12 V
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 8 V

Total resistance 12 Ω, so I = 1 A, and V = 1 × 8 = 8 V. The two resistors share the 12 V in the ratio 4 : 8.

Q7A diode is used in a circuit to:

  1. AStore charge
  2. BAllow current in one direction only
  3. CIncrease resistance with light
  4. DMeasure current
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Allow current in one direction only

That one-way behaviour is what allows alternating current to be converted into direct current.

Q8One lamp in a parallel lighting circuit fails. The others:

  1. AAll go out
  2. BContinue to work
  3. CBecome brighter and burn out
  4. DReverse polarity
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Continue to work

Each branch is an independent path, so a break in one leaves the others complete. This is the main reason houses are wired in parallel.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[6 marks]
A 9.0 V battery is connected to a 3.0 Ω resistor in series with two resistors of 8.0 Ω and 8.0 Ω which are in parallel with each other.
  1. Calculate the resistance of the parallel combination.
  2. Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.
  3. Calculate the current drawn from the battery.
  4. Calculate the potential difference across the 3.0 Ω resistor.
Mark scheme
  1. 1/R = 1/8.0 + 1/8.0 = 0.25, so R = 4.0 Ωone mark for the method, one for inverting correctly[2]
  2. Total = 3.0 + 4.0 = 7.0 Ω[1]
  3. I = V/R = 9.0 / 7.0 = 1.3 Aaccept 1.29[1]
  4. Uses V = IR for the 3.0 Ω resistor[1]
  5. V = 1.29 × 3.0 = 3.9 V[1]

(a) 4.0 Ω (b) 7.0 Ω (c) 1.3 A (d) 3.9 V

Q2[4 marks]
A potential divider is made from a fixed 2.0 kΩ resistor in series with a thermistor, across a 6.0 V supply. The output is taken across the fixed resistor.
  1. State what happens to the resistance of the thermistor as it gets warmer.
  2. Explain what happens to the output voltage as the thermistor warms.
Mark scheme
  1. Its resistance decreases[1]
  2. The thermistor now takes a smaller share of the supply voltage[1]
  3. So a larger share appears across the fixed resistor[1]
  4. The output voltage therefore increases[1]
Q3[4 marks]
Explain why the lamps in a house are wired in parallel rather than in series, giving two reasons.
Mark scheme
  1. Each lamp receives the full mains voltage[1]
  2. So each operates at its correct brightness[1]
  3. If one lamp fails, the circuit through the others is unbroken[1]
  4. So the rest continue to work, and each can be switched independently[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State what happens to the total resistance of a circuit when a second identical resistor is added in parallel, and explain why.
Mark scheme
  1. The total resistance halves[1]
  2. Because the second branch gives the current an additional path, so more current flows for the same potential difference[1]

It halves. The second branch gives the current an additional path, so more current flows for the same potential difference.

Q5[2 marks]
A lamp and a resistor are connected in series. Explain why the current through both is the same.
Mark scheme
  1. There is only one path for the charge to follow[1]
  2. So the same charge passes through each component every second[1]

There is only one path for the charge to follow, so the same charge passes through each component every second.

Q6[9 marks]
A 12 V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected to a 6.0 Ω resistor in series with a parallel combination of a 4.0 Ω and a 12 Ω resistor.
  1. Calculate the resistance of the parallel combination. [3]
  2. Calculate the current drawn from the battery. [3]
  3. Calculate the current through the 12 Ω resistor. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses 1/R = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂[1]
  2. 1/R = 1/4.0 + 1/12 = 0.25 + 0.0833 = 0.3333[1]
  3. R = 3.0 Ωinverting is a separate mark[1]
  4. Total resistance = 6.0 + 3.0 = 9.0 Ω[1]
  5. Uses I = V/R[1]
  6. I = 12 / 9.0 = 1.33 A[1]
  7. P.d. across the parallel section = 1.33 × 3.0 = 4.0 Vboth branches share this[1]
  8. Uses I = V/R for the 12 Ω branch[1]
  9. I = 4.0 / 12 = 0.33 A[1]

(a) 3.0 Ω (b) 1.33 A (c) 0.33 A

11

Particle physics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Which particle has no charge?

  1. AProton
  2. BNeutron
  3. CElectron
  4. DAlpha particle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Neutron

The neutron is neutral, with a relative mass of 1. Protons are +1, electrons −1, and alpha particles +2.

Q2The nucleon number of an atom is the number of:

  1. AProtons
  2. BNeutrons
  3. CProtons and neutrons
  4. DElectrons
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Protons and neutrons

A counts everything in the nucleus. The proton number Z counts only protons, and neutrons are the difference A − Z.

Q3An atom is ²⁷₁₃Al. How many neutrons does it have?

  1. A13
  2. B14
  3. C27
  4. D40
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 14

Neutrons = A − Z = 27 − 13 = 14. Answer D adds the two numbers instead of subtracting.

Q4Isotopes of an element have the same number of:

  1. ANeutrons
  2. BProtons
  3. CNucleons
  4. DNothing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Protons

Same protons, different neutrons. The proton number is what makes it the same element in the first place.

Q5Isotopes of an element react chemically in the same way because they have the same:

  1. AMass
  2. BNumber of neutrons
  3. CElectron arrangement
  4. DDensity
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Electron arrangement

Chemistry is governed by electrons, and isotopes have identical electron arrangements. Their masses differ, which is why they can be separated physically.

Q6In the alpha-scattering experiment, most alpha particles passing straight through showed that:

  1. AThe nucleus is negative
  2. BThe atom is mostly empty space
  3. CElectrons are heavy
  4. DGold is transparent
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The atom is mostly empty space

If the atom were solid throughout, almost nothing would get past. Free passage means most of the atom is empty.

Q7A small number of alpha particles bounced almost straight back. This showed the nucleus is:

  1. ALarge and light
  2. BSmall, dense and positively charged
  3. CNegatively charged
  4. DMade of electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Small, dense and positively charged

Only a concentrated positive charge with most of the mass could repel a fast, heavy, positive alpha particle back the way it came.

Q8Almost all the mass of an atom is located in the:

  1. AElectron shells
  2. BNucleus
  3. CSpace between shells
  4. DOuter surface
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nucleus

Protons and neutrons each have relative mass 1; an electron has about 1/1840. The nucleus holds essentially all of it.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[6 marks]
An atom is represented as ²³⁵₉₂U.
  1. State the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in a neutral atom of this isotope.
  2. Another isotope is ²³⁸₉₂U. State what is the same and what is different about it.
  3. Explain why the two isotopes behave identically in chemical reactions.
Mark scheme
  1. 92 protonsthe proton number[1]
  2. 235 − 92 = 143 neutrons[1]
  3. 92 electrons, since the atom is neutral[1]
  4. Same number of protons (92); different number of neutrons (146 instead of 143)[1]
  5. Chemical behaviour depends on the electrons[1]
  6. Both have 92 electrons arranged identically, so they react in the same way[1]

(a) 92 p, 143 n, 92 e (b) same Z, different A (c) identical electron arrangement

Q2[6 marks]
In the alpha-scattering experiment, alpha particles were directed at a thin gold foil.
  1. State the three main observations.
  2. State the conclusion drawn from each.
Mark scheme
  1. Most alpha particles passed straight through[1]
  2. So the atom is mostly empty space[1]
  3. Some were deflected through large angles[1]
  4. So there is a concentrated positive charge repelling them[1]
  5. A very few were reflected almost straight back[1]
  6. So the nucleus is very small and contains most of the atom's mass[1]
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why the plum-pudding model could not account for the results of the alpha-scattering experiment.
Mark scheme
  1. In that model the positive charge is spread thinly throughout the atom[1]
  2. So the repulsive force on an alpha particle anywhere would be small[1]
  3. It could not produce the large-angle deflections or backscattering that were observed[1]
Q4[2 marks]
State what is meant by the nucleon number and the proton number of a nuclide.
Answer

The nucleon number A is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. The proton number Z is the number of protons alone.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties.
Answer

They have the same number of protons and therefore the same number of electrons in the same arrangement. Chemical behaviour is decided by the electrons, not by the number of neutrons.

Q6[8 marks]
In the Geiger–Marsden experiment, alpha particles were fired at a very thin gold foil.
  1. State the two observations that were made. [2]
  2. Explain what each observation shows about the structure of the atom. [4]
  3. Explain why the foil had to be extremely thin. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Almost all the alpha particles passed straight through[1]
  2. A very small fraction were deflected through large angles, some straight back[1]
  3. Passing straight through shows the atom is mostly empty space[1]
  4. Large deflections show a concentrated region of positive charge[1]
  5. Which repels the positive alpha particle[1]
  6. Backward scattering shows that region is also very massive, and very small[1]
  7. So each alpha particle meets at most one nucleus[1]
  8. A thicker foil would cause multiple scattering and the result could not be interpreted[1]
12

Motion in a circle

Multiple choice · 8

Q1An object moves in a circle at constant speed. Which quantity is changing?

  1. ASpeed
  2. BVelocity
  3. CKinetic energy
  4. DMass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Velocity

Velocity is a vector and its direction changes continuously. Speed, kinetic energy and mass all stay the same.

Q2The centripetal acceleration of a body moving in a circle is directed:

  1. AAlong the tangent
  2. BTowards the centre
  3. CAway from the centre
  4. DVertically downwards
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Towards the centre

Centripetal means centre-seeking. The velocity is tangential; the acceleration is at right angles to it, pointing inwards.

Q3A string whirling a stone in a horizontal circle breaks. The stone then moves:

  1. ARadially outwards
  2. BAlong the tangent
  3. CTowards the centre
  4. DStraight down immediately
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Along the tangent

With no resultant force it continues in a straight line — along the tangent, by Newton's first law. Nothing ever pushed it outwards.

Q4Doubling the speed of a car on the same bend changes the centripetal force needed by a factor of:

  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C½
  4. Dno change
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

F = mv²/r depends on the square of the speed, so doubling v quadruples the force. This is why bends have speed limits.

Q5For a car on a flat bend, the centripetal force is provided by:

  1. AGravity
  2. BFriction between tyres and road
  3. CThe engine
  4. DAir resistance
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Friction between tyres and road

Friction acts sideways on the tyres, towards the centre of the bend. On ice there is almost none, which is why the car goes straight on.

Q6Moment of inertia depends on:

  1. AMass only
  2. BMass and how it is distributed about the axis
  3. CSpeed only
  4. DThe applied torque
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Mass and how it is distributed about the axis

I = Σmr². Mass far from the axis contributes far more, which is why a hoop is harder to spin than a disc of the same mass.

Q7A skater pulls her arms in while spinning freely. Her angular velocity:

  1. ADecreases
  2. BIncreases
  3. CStays the same
  4. DFalls to zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increases

Angular momentum is conserved with no external torque. Reducing I forces ω up.

Q8At the top of a vertical circle, the minimum speed for the string to stay taut is:

  1. A√(2gr)
  2. B√(gr)
  3. Cgr
  4. Dzero
Show answer

Correct answer: B√(gr)

At the limit the tension is zero and gravity alone supplies the centripetal force: mg = mv²/r, so v = √(gr).

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why an object moving in a circle at constant speed is accelerating.
Answer

Its direction of motion is changing continuously, so its velocity is changing. Velocity is a vector, and a changing velocity is an acceleration.

Q2[2 marks]
A stone on a string is whirled in a horizontal circle. State what provides the centripetal force, and what happens if the string breaks.
Answer

The tension in the string. If it breaks there is no longer a resultant force, so the stone flies off along the tangent in a straight line, not outwards along the radius.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why a figure skater spins faster when she pulls her arms in.
Answer

No external torque acts, so angular momentum L = Iω is conserved. Pulling her arms in moves mass closer to the axis, reducing the moment of inertia, so the angular velocity must increase.

Q4[5 marks]
A satellite orbits the Earth in a circle of radius 7.0 × 10⁶ m with a period of 5800 s. Calculate its angular velocity, its linear speed, and its centripetal acceleration.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses ω = 2π/T[1]
  2. ω = 2π / 5800 = 1.08 × 10⁻³ rad s⁻¹[1]
  3. Uses v = rω[1]
  4. v = 7.0 × 10⁶ × 1.08 × 10⁻³ = 7.6 × 10³ m s⁻¹[1]
  5. a = ω²r = (1.08 × 10⁻³)² × 7.0 × 10⁶ = 8.2 m s⁻²close to g, as expected in low orbit[1]

ω = 1.08 × 10⁻³ rad s⁻¹, v = 7.6 km s⁻¹, a = 8.2 m s⁻²

Q5[8 marks]
A small ball of mass 0.25 kg is attached to a string of length 0.80 m and swung in a vertical circle.
  1. Draw and label the forces acting on the ball at the top of the circle. [2]
  2. Calculate the minimum speed at the top for the string to stay taut. [3]
  3. Calculate the tension at the bottom if the ball is moving at 6.0 m s⁻¹ there. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Weight mg acting downwards[1]
  2. Tension T also acting downwards, towards the centreat the top both point the same way[1]
  3. At minimum speed the string just goes slack, so T = 0 and gravity alone provides the force[1]
  4. mg = mv²/r, so v² = gr = 9.81 × 0.80the mass cancels[1]
  5. v = 2.8 m s⁻¹[1]
  6. At the bottom the tension acts up and the weight down: T − mg = mv²/r[1]
  7. T = 0.25 × 6.0² / 0.80 + 0.25 × 9.81[1]
  8. T = 11.25 + 2.45 = 13.7 N[1]

(b) 2.8 m s⁻¹ (c) 13.7 N

Q6[6 marks]
A flywheel of moment of inertia 0.45 kg m² is spinning at 120 rad s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate its rotational kinetic energy. [2]
  2. Calculate its angular momentum. [2]
  3. A ring is dropped onto it, raising the total moment of inertia to 0.60 kg m². Find the new angular velocity. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses KE = ½Iω²[1]
  2. = ½ × 0.45 × 120² = 3240 J[1]
  3. Uses L = Iω[1]
  4. = 0.45 × 120 = 54 kg m² s⁻¹[1]
  5. No external torque, so angular momentum is conserved: 54 = 0.60 ω[1]
  6. ω = 90 rad s⁻¹kinetic energy has fallen — the collision is inelastic[1]

3240 J, 54 kg m² s⁻¹, 90 rad s⁻¹

13

Gravitational fields

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Gravitational field strength is defined as:

  1. Aforce per unit charge
  2. Bforce per unit mass
  3. Cwork per unit mass
  4. Dmass per unit volume
Show answer

Correct answer: B — force per unit mass

g = F/m, in N kg⁻¹. Work per unit mass is the definition of gravitational potential, not field strength.

Q2If the distance from a planet's centre doubles, the field strength becomes:

  1. Ahalf
  2. Ba quarter
  3. Cdouble
  4. Da third
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a quarter

The field follows an inverse square law, so doubling r divides g by 4.

Q3If the distance doubles, the gravitational potential becomes:

  1. Ahalf its magnitude
  2. Ba quarter of its magnitude
  3. Cdouble
  4. Dunchanged
Show answer

Correct answer: A — half its magnitude

Potential follows 1/r, not 1/r², so its magnitude halves. Answering "a quarter" is the standard confusion with the field.

Q4Gravitational potential is negative because:

  1. Agravity is a weak force
  2. Bzero is defined at infinity and gravity is attractive
  3. Cmass can be negative
  4. Dit is measured downwards
Show answer

Correct answer: B — zero is defined at infinity and gravity is attractive

With the zero at infinity, an attractive force means work is done by the field as a mass approaches, making the potential negative everywhere.

Q5For a satellite at height h above a planet of radius R, the value of r is:

  1. Ah
  2. BR
  3. CR + h
  4. DR − h
Show answer

Correct answer: C — R + h

r is measured from the centre of the planet, so the radius and the height must be added. Using h alone is the most common error in the topic.

Q6Two satellites of different masses orbit at the same radius. Their speeds are:

  1. Adifferent, the heavier is faster
  2. Bdifferent, the lighter is faster
  3. Cthe same
  4. Ddependent on their shape
Show answer

Correct answer: C — the same

Equating GMm/r² with mv²/r cancels the satellite mass, so v = √(GM/r) depends only on the radius and the central mass.

Q7Kepler's third law states that:

  1. AT ∝ r
  2. BT² ∝ r³
  3. CT³ ∝ r²
  4. DT ∝ 1/r
Show answer

Correct answer: B — T² ∝ r³

From v = √(GM/r) and T = 2πr/v, the period squared is proportional to the radius cubed.

Q8Astronauts on a space station appear weightless because:

  1. Athere is no gravity at that height
  2. Bthey are beyond the Earth's field
  3. Cthey and the station are falling together
  4. Dthe station spins
Show answer

Correct answer: C — they and the station are falling together

Gravity at that altitude is still around 90% of its surface value. Everything in the station is in free fall along the same orbit, so nothing pushes on anything else.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Define gravitational field strength, and explain why it has the same numerical value as the acceleration of free fall.
Answer

Gravitational field strength is the gravitational force per unit mass at a point, g = F/m. Since the gravitational force on a mass is F = mg and Newton's second law gives F = ma, equating them gives a = g — so a freely falling mass accelerates at the numerical value of the field strength.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why gravitational potential is always negative.
Answer

Potential is defined as the work done per unit mass in bringing a mass from infinity, where the potential is defined as zero. Because gravity is always attractive, it does positive work pulling the mass inwards, so the work done on the mass is negative. Every finite distance therefore has a negative potential, rising to zero only at infinity.

Q3[4 marks]
The Moon has mass 7.35 × 10²² kg and radius 1.74 × 10⁶ m. Calculate the gravitational field strength at its surface and the escape velocity from it.
Mark scheme
  1. g = GM/r² = (6.67 × 10⁻¹¹)(7.35 × 10²²)/(1.74 × 10⁶)²Using the surface radius as r.[1]
  2. g = 4.902 × 10¹² / 3.028 × 10¹² = 1.62 N kg⁻¹About one sixth of Earth's, which is the well-known figure and a good check.[1]
  3. Escape velocity: ½mv² = GMm/r, so v = √(2GM/r)The kinetic energy must equal the depth of the potential well.[1]
  4. v = √(2 × 4.902 × 10¹² / 1.74 × 10⁶) = √(5.635 × 10⁶) = 2370 m s⁻¹About 2.4 km s⁻¹, far less than Earth's 11.2 km s⁻¹.[1]

g = 1.62 N kg⁻¹, escape velocity 2.37 km s⁻¹

Q4[7 marks]
A geostationary satellite remains above a fixed point on the equator. Take M(Earth) = 5.97 × 10²⁴ kg.
(a) State two conditions, other than its period, for an orbit to be geostationary.
(b) Show that the orbital radius is about 4.2 × 10⁷ m.
(c) Find the height above the Earth's surface, given the Earth's radius is 6.37 × 10⁶ m.
(d) Explain why the mass of the satellite does not appear in the calculation.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) The orbit must be in the plane of the equatorAny other plane would make the satellite drift north and south.[1]
  2. and the satellite must travel west to east, in the same sense as the Earth's rotationOtherwise it would move relative to the ground even with a 24-hour period.[1]
  3. (b) T = 24 h = 86 400 s. Using T² = 4π²r³/(GM), r³ = GMT²/(4π²)Rearranging Kepler's third law for r.[1]
  4. r³ = (6.67 × 10⁻¹¹)(5.97 × 10²⁴)(86400)²/(4π²) = 7.53 × 10²²Careful with the square of the period.[1]
  5. r = 4.22 × 10⁷ m as requiredTaking the cube root.[1]
  6. (c) Height = 4.22 × 10⁷ − 6.37 × 10⁶ = 3.58 × 10⁷ mSubtracting the Earth's radius, since r was measured from the centre.[1]
  7. (d) Equating GMm/r² with mv²/r cancels the satellite mass m from both sides, so the orbit depends only on r and the Earth's mass.The mark is for identifying the cancellation, not merely asserting independence.[1]

(a) equatorial, west to east; (b) 4.22 × 10⁷ m; (c) 3.58 × 10⁷ m; (d) m cancels

Q5[2 marks]
A planet's surface field strength is g. At a distance of three planetary radii from its centre, state the field strength and the potential as fractions of their surface values.
Answer

Field follows an inverse square, so it is g/9. Potential follows an inverse first power, so it is one third of the surface value. The two scale differently, which is why they must never be treated interchangeably.

14

Temperature

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Temperature is a measure of:

  1. AThe total energy of all the particles
  2. BThe average kinetic energy of the particles
  3. CThe mass of the substance
  4. DThe rate of heat flow
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The average kinetic energy of the particles

Temperature is the average per particle. The total energy of all the particles is thermal energy, which also depends on how many there are — which is why a spark and a bath differ so completely.

Q2−273 °C in kelvin is:

  1. A0 K
  2. B273 K
  3. C−273 K
  4. D546 K
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0 K

T(K) = θ + 273, so −273 + 273 = 0 K. This is absolute zero, the point at which particle motion is at its minimum.

Q3Which expands most for a given temperature rise?

  1. ASolids
  2. BLiquids
  3. CGases
  4. DAll expand equally
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gases

Gases expand most, then liquids, then solids. The more freely the particles already move, the more space the additional motion requires.

Q4A bimetallic strip bends when heated because:

  1. AOne metal melts
  2. BThe two metals expand by different amounts
  3. CThe strip absorbs latent heat
  4. DThe metals contract
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The two metals expand by different amounts

Different expansion rates force the strip to curve, toward the metal that expands less. This is the basis of a simple thermostat.

Q5In E = mcΔθ, Δθ represents:

  1. AThe final temperature
  2. BThe starting temperature
  3. CThe change in temperature
  4. DThe temperature in kelvin
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The change in temperature

The change — subtract the initial from the final before substituting. Using the final temperature alone is the single most common error in this topic.

Q6During melting, the temperature of a substance:

  1. ARises steadily
  2. BFalls
  3. CStays constant
  4. DRises then falls
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Stays constant

The energy supplied breaks bonds between particles rather than raising their kinetic energy, so the thermometer does not move until all the solid has melted.

Q7Water is used as a coolant in car engines mainly because it:

  1. AIs cheap
  2. BHas a high specific heat capacity
  3. CHas a low boiling point
  4. DExpands when heated
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Has a high specific heat capacity

About 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹ means it absorbs a great deal of energy for a small temperature rise. Being cheap and available is a real practical advantage, but not the physics being examined.

Q8Ponds freeze from the surface downward because:

  1. AIce is denser than water
  2. BWater expands between 4 °C and 0 °C, so ice floats
  3. CCold air only touches the top
  4. DThe bottom is insulated by mud
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Water expands between 4 °C and 0 °C, so ice floats

Water is anomalous below 4 °C: it expands as it cools further, so ice is less dense and floats. Cold air does only touch the top, but that alone would not stop the ice sinking once formed.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[5 marks]
An electric heater of power 2.0 kW is used to heat 1.5 kg of water. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the energy needed to raise the temperature of the water from 18 °C to 88 °C.
  2. Calculate the minimum time this would take.
  3. In practice the heater takes longer than your answer to (b). Give one reason.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = mcΔθ with Δθ = 70 °C88 − 18, not 88[1]
  2. E = 1.5 × 4200 × 70 = 4.41 × 10⁵ J[1]
  3. Uses t = E/P with P = 2000 Wconverting kW to W[1]
  4. t = 441000 / 2000 = 220 saccept 220.5 s[1]
  5. Energy is lost to the surroundings / the container is also heatedeither reason accepted[1]

(a) 4.4 × 10⁵ J (b) 220 s (c) heat lost to surroundings

Q2[5 marks]
A student heats a block of ice at −10 °C steadily until it becomes steam. Sketch and describe the shape of the temperature–time graph.
Mark scheme
  1. Temperature rises from −10 °C to 0 °C[1]
  2. Horizontal section at 0 °C while the ice melts[1]
  3. Temperature rises from 0 °C to 100 °C[1]
  4. Longer horizontal section at 100 °C while the water boilsthe boiling plateau must be longer than the melting one[1]
  5. During the flat sections the energy supplied breaks bonds between particles rather than raising kinetic energythe explanation mark[1]
Q3[4 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why a bimetallic strip bends when heated, and state one use for it.
Mark scheme
  1. Heating makes particles vibrate more and push further apart, so each metal expands[1]
  2. The two metals expand by different amounts for the same temperature risethis is the essential point[1]
  3. The strip bends toward the metal that expands less[1]
  4. Used in a thermostat / fire alarm / oven switchany valid use[1]
Q4[2 marks]
Differentiate between heat and temperature.
Answer

Temperature is the average kinetic energy of the particles, measured in °C or K. Heat is the total thermal energy of all the particles, measured in joules, and depends on how many there are.

Q5[2 marks]
Why does a bimetallic strip bend on heating?
Answer

The two metals expand by different amounts for the same temperature rise, so the strip curves toward the metal that expands less.

Q6[2 marks]
Why does the temperature remain constant while ice is melting?
Answer

The energy supplied is used to break the bonds holding the particles in the lattice, not to increase their kinetic energy. Since temperature measures kinetic energy, it does not change.

Q7[5 marks]
Calculate the energy needed to convert 0.20 kg of ice at 0 °C completely into water at 20 °C. Take the specific latent heat of fusion of ice as 3.34 × 10⁵ J kg⁻¹ and the specific heat capacity of water as 4200 J kg⁻¹ °C⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises two stages: melting, then warminga single-stage answer cannot score more than two[1]
  2. Melting: E₁ = mL = 0.20 × 3.34 × 10⁵ = 6.68 × 10⁴ J[1]
  3. Warming: E₂ = mcΔθ = 0.20 × 4200 × 20[1]
  4. E₂ = 1.68 × 10⁴ J[1]
  5. Total = 6.68 × 10⁴ + 1.68 × 10⁴ = 8.36 × 10⁴ Jadding the two stages[1]

8.36 × 10⁴ J

15

Ideal gases

Multiple choice · 16

Q1In which state are the particles arranged in a regular lattice and vibrating about fixed positions?

  1. ASolid
  2. BLiquid
  3. CGas
  4. DAll three
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Solid

That is the definition of the solid state. Liquid particles are irregularly arranged and can slide; gas particles move freely and randomly.

Q2Brownian motion is caused by:

  1. AConvection currents
  2. BUneven bombardment by fluid molecules
  3. CGravity
  4. DThe microscope light heating the cell
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Uneven bombardment by fluid molecules

The visible particle is struck unevenly by molecules too small to see, so the resultant force keeps changing direction. Convection would give steady drift, not random jerks.

Q3Gas pressure in a container is caused by:

  1. AThe weight of the gas
  2. BParticles colliding with the walls
  3. CParticles colliding with each other
  4. DGravity acting on the container
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Particles colliding with the walls

Each wall collision exerts a small force; pressure is the total force per unit area. Collisions between particles do not act on the wall at all.

Q4A gas is compressed to half its volume at constant temperature. Its pressure:

  1. AHalves
  2. BDoubles
  3. CStays the same
  4. DQuadruples
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Doubles

Boyle's law: pV is constant, so halving V doubles p. The same particles now strike a smaller area more frequently.

Q5Boyle's law applies only when:

  1. AThe pressure is constant
  2. BThe temperature is constant
  3. CThe gas is heated
  4. DThe container is open
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The temperature is constant

p₁V₁ = p₂V₂ holds for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature. Quoting the condition is usually worth a mark in itself.

Q6Heating a gas in a sealed rigid container causes the pressure to rise because the particles:

  1. AGet bigger
  2. BMove faster and hit the walls harder and more often
  3. CBecome heavier
  4. DMove closer together
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Move faster and hit the walls harder and more often

Temperature is a measure of average kinetic energy. Faster particles produce both more frequent and more forceful collisions. Their size and mass do not change.

Q7A bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the surface. Its volume:

  1. ADecreases
  2. BIncreases
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDepends on its mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increases

The pressure on the bubble falls as it rises, and by Boyle's law a lower pressure means a larger volume — which is why bubbles visibly swell as they surface.

Q8Which property of a gas explains why it fills its container?

  1. AStrong forces between particles
  2. BNegligible forces between particles and random rapid motion
  3. CRegular particle arrangement
  4. DHigh density
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Negligible forces between particles and random rapid motion

With almost no attraction holding them together, gas particles simply spread until they meet the walls. Strong forces would keep them together as a liquid or solid.

Q9Gas law calculations must use temperature in:

  1. ACelsius
  2. BKelvin
  3. CFahrenheit
  4. DEither Celsius or kelvin
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Kelvin

The proportionalities only hold from absolute zero. Using Celsius is the single most common error in this topic.

Q10At constant temperature, halving the volume of a fixed mass of gas:

  1. AHalves the pressure
  2. BDoubles the pressure
  3. CLeaves it unchanged
  4. DQuadruples it
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Doubles the pressure

Boyle's law: p ∝ 1/V. The same particles strike a smaller area more often.

Q11The absolute temperature of a gas is proportional to:

  1. AThe pressure
  2. BThe mean kinetic energy of its particles
  3. CThe volume
  4. DThe number of particles
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The mean kinetic energy of its particles

½mc̄² = (3/2)kT. This is what gives temperature a mechanical meaning.

Q12In ΔU = Q + W, W is positive when:

  1. AThe gas expands
  2. BWork is done on the gas
  3. CHeat leaves the gas
  4. DThe temperature falls
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Work is done on the gas

Compression does work on the gas and raises its internal energy. An expanding gas does work on its surroundings, so W is negative.

Q13During an isothermal change, the change in internal energy is:

  1. APositive
  2. BZero
  3. CNegative
  4. DEqual to Q + W and non-zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

Temperature is constant, so ΔU = 0 and therefore Q = −W. Heat and work still flow; they just cancel.

Q14A heat engine works between 600 K and 300 K. Its maximum possible efficiency is:

  1. A100%
  2. B50%
  3. C30%
  4. D200%
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 50%

1 − 300/600 = 0.50. A real engine will be well below this because it is not reversible.

Q15The second law of thermodynamics states that heat flows spontaneously:

  1. AFrom cold to hot
  2. BFrom hot to cold
  3. CIn either direction equally
  4. DOnly in a vacuum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — From hot to cold

Hot to cold. Reversing it requires work, which is exactly what a refrigerator does.

Q16Why must a heat engine reject heat to a cold sink?

  1. ABecause of friction
  2. BBecause the second law requires it
  3. CBecause of poor design
  4. DIt need not
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because the second law requires it

Even a perfect, frictionless engine must dump heat. It is a law, not an engineering shortcoming.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[5 marks]
A student observes smoke particles in a small glass cell using a microscope, and sees them moving in a random, jerky way.
  1. Name this effect.
  2. Explain, in terms of particles, what causes the motion.
  3. State what the observation tells us about air molecules.
Mark scheme
  1. Brownian motion[1]
  2. The smoke particles are bombarded by air molecules[1]
  3. The bombardment is uneven / random, so the resultant force keeps changing directionthe mark that separates a full answer[1]
  4. Air molecules are very smalltoo small to see individually[1]
  5. They are moving rapidly and randomly[1]
Q2[4 marks]
A sealed container of gas is heated while its volume stays constant.
  1. State what happens to the pressure.
  2. Explain your answer in terms of the particles.
Mark scheme
  1. The pressure increases[1]
  2. The particles gain kinetic energy and move faster[1]
  3. They collide with the walls more frequently[1]
  4. Each collision exerts a greater force, so the total force per unit area risesboth "more often" and "harder" are needed for full marks[1]
Q3[3 marks]
A bubble of gas of volume 2.0 cm³ at the bottom of a lake is at a pressure of 3.0 × 10⁵ Pa. It rises to the surface where the pressure is 1.0 × 10⁵ Pa. Assuming the temperature is unchanged, calculate the new volume.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p₁V₁ = p₂V₂temperature constant, so Boyle's law applies[1]
  2. 3.0 × 10⁵ × 2.0 = 1.0 × 10⁵ × V₂[1]
  3. V₂ = 6.0 cm³lower pressure, larger bubble — check the direction[1]

6.0 cm³

Q4[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why a gas can be compressed but a liquid cannot.
Answer

In a gas the particles are far apart with large spaces between them, which can be reduced. In a liquid the particles are already touching, so there is no space to remove.

Q5[2 marks]
State two ways in which the pressure of a fixed mass of gas in a sealed container can be increased.
Answer

Raise its temperature, so the particles move faster and collide harder and more often. Or reduce its volume, so the same particles strike a smaller area more frequently.

Q6[8 marks]
A cylinder contains 0.50 m³ of gas at a pressure of 2.0 × 10⁵ Pa.
  1. Explain, in terms of particles, what causes the gas to exert a pressure on the cylinder walls. [3]
  2. The gas is compressed to 0.20 m³ at constant temperature. Calculate the new pressure. [3]
  3. State and explain what would happen to the pressure if the gas were then heated at constant volume. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Particles move rapidly and randomly, colliding with the walls[1]
  2. Each collision exerts a small force on the wall[1]
  3. Pressure is the total force per unit area of wall[1]
  4. Uses p₁V₁ = p₂V₂, stating that the temperature is constant[1]
  5. 2.0 × 10⁵ × 0.50 = p₂ × 0.20[1]
  6. p₂ = 5.0 × 10⁵ Pa[1]
  7. The pressure would increase[1]
  8. The particles gain kinetic energy, so they hit the walls harder and more often[1]

(b) 5.0 × 10⁵ Pa (c) pressure rises

Q7[2 marks]
State Boyle's law and the conditions under which it applies.
Answer

For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, the pressure is inversely proportional to the volume. Both the mass and the temperature must be constant.

Q8[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why the pressure of a gas rises when it is heated at constant volume.
Answer

The particles gain kinetic energy and move faster, so they strike the walls harder and more frequently. With the same wall area, the force per unit area increases.

Q9[2 marks]
Explain why a gas cools when it expands rapidly without heat entering it.
Answer

The gas does work pushing back the surroundings, so W is negative. With Q = 0, ΔU is negative, the internal energy falls and the temperature drops.

Q10[5 marks]
A gas at 2.0 × 10⁵ Pa occupies 0.015 m³ at 17 °C. It is heated at constant pressure to 137 °C. Find the new volume.
Mark scheme
  1. Convert: 17 °C = 290 K, 137 °C = 410 K[1]
  2. Constant pressure, so V₁/T₁ = V₂/T₂Charles's law[1]
  3. 0.015 / 290 = V₂ / 410[1]
  4. V₂ = 0.015 × 410 / 290[1]
  5. V₂ = 0.021 m³a 41% rise in kelvin gives a 41% rise in volume[1]

0.021 m³

Q11[8 marks]
A heat engine takes 6000 J from a source at 500 K and rejects heat to a sink at 300 K.
  1. Calculate the maximum possible efficiency. [2]
  2. Calculate the maximum work it could do, and the heat it must reject. [3]
  3. The real engine delivers 1800 J of work. Calculate its actual efficiency and explain the difference. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses 1 − T_c/T_h with kelvin[1]
  2. 1 − 300/500 = 0.40, so 40%[1]
  3. Maximum work = 0.40 × 6000 = 2400 J[1]
  4. Heat rejected = 6000 − 2400[1]
  5. = 3600 Jthis cannot be avoided — the second law requires it[1]
  6. Actual efficiency = 1800/6000 = 0.30, or 30%[1]
  7. Lower than the maximum because the real engine is not reversible[1]
  8. Friction, turbulence and heat lost to the surroundings all reduce the work obtained[1]

(a) 40% (b) 2400 J of work, 3600 J rejected (c) 30%

Q12[6 marks]
A gas is compressed, and 250 J of work is done on it. At the same time it loses 100 J of heat to the surroundings.
  1. State the first law of thermodynamics. [2]
  2. Calculate the change in internal energy. [2]
  3. State whether the temperature rises or falls, with a reason. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The increase in internal energy equals the heat supplied plus the work done on the system[1]
  2. ΔU = Q + W[1]
  3. W = +250 J (work done ON the gas), Q = −100 J (heat lost)the signs are the difficult part[1]
  4. ΔU = −100 + 250 = +150 J[1]
  5. The temperature rises[1]
  6. Internal energy has increased, and for a gas that means greater mean kinetic energy[1]

ΔU = +150 J, so the temperature rises

16

Thermodynamics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Gas law calculations must use temperature in:

  1. ACelsius
  2. BKelvin
  3. CFahrenheit
  4. DEither Celsius or kelvin
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Kelvin

The proportionalities only hold from absolute zero. Using Celsius is the single most common error in this topic.

Q2At constant temperature, halving the volume of a fixed mass of gas:

  1. AHalves the pressure
  2. BDoubles the pressure
  3. CLeaves it unchanged
  4. DQuadruples it
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Doubles the pressure

Boyle's law: p ∝ 1/V. The same particles strike a smaller area more often.

Q3The absolute temperature of a gas is proportional to:

  1. AThe pressure
  2. BThe mean kinetic energy of its particles
  3. CThe volume
  4. DThe number of particles
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The mean kinetic energy of its particles

½mc̄² = (3/2)kT. This is what gives temperature a mechanical meaning.

Q4In ΔU = Q + W, W is positive when:

  1. AThe gas expands
  2. BWork is done on the gas
  3. CHeat leaves the gas
  4. DThe temperature falls
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Work is done on the gas

Compression does work on the gas and raises its internal energy. An expanding gas does work on its surroundings, so W is negative.

Q5During an isothermal change, the change in internal energy is:

  1. APositive
  2. BZero
  3. CNegative
  4. DEqual to Q + W and non-zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

Temperature is constant, so ΔU = 0 and therefore Q = −W. Heat and work still flow; they just cancel.

Q6A heat engine works between 600 K and 300 K. Its maximum possible efficiency is:

  1. A100%
  2. B50%
  3. C30%
  4. D200%
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 50%

1 − 300/600 = 0.50. A real engine will be well below this because it is not reversible.

Q7The second law of thermodynamics states that heat flows spontaneously:

  1. AFrom cold to hot
  2. BFrom hot to cold
  3. CIn either direction equally
  4. DOnly in a vacuum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — From hot to cold

Hot to cold. Reversing it requires work, which is exactly what a refrigerator does.

Q8Why must a heat engine reject heat to a cold sink?

  1. ABecause of friction
  2. BBecause the second law requires it
  3. CBecause of poor design
  4. DIt need not
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because the second law requires it

Even a perfect, frictionless engine must dump heat. It is a law, not an engineering shortcoming.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State Boyle's law and the conditions under which it applies.
Answer

For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, the pressure is inversely proportional to the volume. Both the mass and the temperature must be constant.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why the pressure of a gas rises when it is heated at constant volume.
Answer

The particles gain kinetic energy and move faster, so they strike the walls harder and more frequently. With the same wall area, the force per unit area increases.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why a gas cools when it expands rapidly without heat entering it.
Answer

The gas does work pushing back the surroundings, so W is negative. With Q = 0, ΔU is negative, the internal energy falls and the temperature drops.

Q4[5 marks]
A gas at 2.0 × 10⁵ Pa occupies 0.015 m³ at 17 °C. It is heated at constant pressure to 137 °C. Find the new volume.
Mark scheme
  1. Convert: 17 °C = 290 K, 137 °C = 410 K[1]
  2. Constant pressure, so V₁/T₁ = V₂/T₂Charles's law[1]
  3. 0.015 / 290 = V₂ / 410[1]
  4. V₂ = 0.015 × 410 / 290[1]
  5. V₂ = 0.021 m³a 41% rise in kelvin gives a 41% rise in volume[1]

0.021 m³

Q5[8 marks]
A heat engine takes 6000 J from a source at 500 K and rejects heat to a sink at 300 K.
  1. Calculate the maximum possible efficiency. [2]
  2. Calculate the maximum work it could do, and the heat it must reject. [3]
  3. The real engine delivers 1800 J of work. Calculate its actual efficiency and explain the difference. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses 1 − T_c/T_h with kelvin[1]
  2. 1 − 300/500 = 0.40, so 40%[1]
  3. Maximum work = 0.40 × 6000 = 2400 J[1]
  4. Heat rejected = 6000 − 2400[1]
  5. = 3600 Jthis cannot be avoided — the second law requires it[1]
  6. Actual efficiency = 1800/6000 = 0.30, or 30%[1]
  7. Lower than the maximum because the real engine is not reversible[1]
  8. Friction, turbulence and heat lost to the surroundings all reduce the work obtained[1]

(a) 40% (b) 2400 J of work, 3600 J rejected (c) 30%

Q6[6 marks]
A gas is compressed, and 250 J of work is done on it. At the same time it loses 100 J of heat to the surroundings.
  1. State the first law of thermodynamics. [2]
  2. Calculate the change in internal energy. [2]
  3. State whether the temperature rises or falls, with a reason. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The increase in internal energy equals the heat supplied plus the work done on the system[1]
  2. ΔU = Q + W[1]
  3. W = +250 J (work done ON the gas), Q = −100 J (heat lost)the signs are the difficult part[1]
  4. ΔU = −100 + 250 = +150 J[1]
  5. The temperature rises[1]
  6. Internal energy has increased, and for a gas that means greater mean kinetic energy[1]

ΔU = +150 J, so the temperature rises

17

Oscillations

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The defining equation of SHM is:

  1. Aa = ω²x
  2. Ba = −ω²x
  3. Cv = −ω²x
  4. Da = −ωx
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a = −ω²x

The acceleration is proportional to displacement and directed back towards equilibrium, which the minus sign expresses. Without it the motion would run away rather than oscillate.

Q2In SHM, the acceleration is zero when:

  1. Athe displacement is maximum
  2. Bthe object is at equilibrium
  3. Cthe speed is zero
  4. Dthe energy is all potential
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the object is at equilibrium

At equilibrium there is no net restoring force, so acceleration is zero — even though the speed is at its maximum there.

Q3Doubling the amplitude of an oscillator changes the period by:

  1. Adoubling it
  2. Bhalving it
  3. Cquadrupling it
  4. Dnot at all
Show answer

Correct answer: D — not at all

Neither T = 2π√(m/k) nor T = 2π√(L/g) contains the amplitude. This independence is called isochronism.

Q4Doubling the amplitude changes the total energy by a factor of:

  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C½
  4. D1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

E = ½mω²x₀² is proportional to the square of the amplitude, so doubling x₀ multiplies the energy by 4.

Q5For SHM with ω = 10 rad s⁻¹ and amplitude 0.05 m, the maximum speed is:

  1. A0.5 m s⁻¹
  2. B5 m s⁻¹
  3. C0.005 m s⁻¹
  4. D2 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0.5 m s⁻¹

v_max = ωx₀ = 10 × 0.05 = 0.5 m s⁻¹. Using ω²x₀ would give the maximum acceleration instead.

Q6Critical damping is used in car suspension because it:

  1. Amakes the car oscillate longer
  2. Breturns to equilibrium fastest without overshoot
  3. Cremoves all friction
  4. Dincreases the natural frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — returns to equilibrium fastest without overshoot

A car that oscillates after a bump is uncomfortable and unsafe; critical damping settles it in the shortest possible time without bouncing past equilibrium.

Q7Resonance occurs when:

  1. Adamping is greatest
  2. Bthe driving frequency equals the natural frequency
  3. Camplitude is zero
  4. Dthe object is at equilibrium
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the driving frequency equals the natural frequency

Matching the driving frequency to the natural frequency transfers energy most efficiently, producing the maximum amplitude.

Q8Increasing damping makes the resonance peak:

  1. Ahigher and narrower
  2. Blower and broader
  3. Chigher and broader
  4. Dunchanged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lower and broader

Damping removes energy, capping the amplitude, and it makes the system respond over a wider band of frequencies rather than sharply at one.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
State the two conditions required for a body to perform simple harmonic motion.
Answer

The acceleration must be proportional to the displacement from a fixed equilibrium point, and it must be directed towards that point. Together these give a = −ω²x.

Q2[2 marks]
State where in the oscillation the speed is greatest and where the acceleration is greatest, giving a reason for each.
Answer

Speed is greatest at the equilibrium position, because all the energy is kinetic there and the net force is zero. Acceleration is greatest at maximum displacement, because the restoring force is largest there — although the body is momentarily at rest.

Q3[4 marks]
A mass on a spring oscillates with amplitude 4.0 cm and period 0.80 s. Calculate the maximum speed and the maximum acceleration.
Mark scheme
  1. ω = 2π/T = 2π/0.80 = 7.854 rad s⁻¹Angular frequency comes first; everything else is built on it.[1]
  2. v_max = ωx₀ = 7.854 × 0.040The amplitude must be converted to metres.[1]
  3. v_max = 0.314 m s⁻¹Occurring at the equilibrium position.[1]
  4. a_max = ω²x₀ = 61.68 × 0.040 = 2.47 m s⁻²Occurring at maximum displacement, where the speed is zero.[1]

v_max = 0.314 m s⁻¹, a_max = 2.47 m s⁻²

Q4[7 marks]
A simple pendulum of length 1.2 m oscillates with amplitude 5.0 cm. Take g = 9.81 m s⁻².
(a) Calculate its period.
(b) Calculate the maximum speed of the bob.
(c) The amplitude is doubled. State the effect on the period and on the total energy, justifying each.
(d) Explain what is meant by critical damping and give one application.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) T = 2π√(L/g) = 2π√(1.2/9.81) = 2π√0.12232The standard pendulum formula.[1]
  2. T = 2.20 sClose to 2 s, as expected for a metre-scale pendulum.[1]
  3. (b) ω = 2π/2.20 = 2.856 rad s⁻¹; v_max = ωx₀ = 2.856 × 0.050Converting 5.0 cm to 0.050 m.[1]
  4. v_max = 0.143 m s⁻¹At the lowest point of the swing.[1]
  5. (c) The period is unchanged, because T = 2π√(L/g) contains no amplitude termIsochronism — the property that made pendulum clocks possible.[1]
  6. The total energy is quadrupled, since E ∝ x₀² and the amplitude has doubledThe squared dependence is the point of the part.[1]
  7. (d) Critical damping returns the system to equilibrium in the shortest time without overshooting — used in car suspension or door closers.Definition plus a named application.[1]

(a) 2.20 s; (b) 0.143 m s⁻¹; (c) period unchanged, energy ×4; (d) fastest return without overshoot

Q5[3 marks]
Explain what is meant by resonance, and describe the effect of increasing the damping on the resonance curve.
Answer

Resonance occurs when the frequency of a driving force equals the natural frequency of the system, producing a maximum amplitude and the most efficient transfer of energy. Increasing the damping makes the peak lower and broader, and shifts it slightly to a lower frequency.

18

Electric fields

Multiple choice · 6

Q1The separation between two point charges is tripled. The force between them becomes:

  1. AOne third
  2. BOne sixth
  3. COne ninth
  4. DThree times larger
Show answer

Correct answer: C — One ninth

F ∝ 1/r², so tripling r divides the force by 3² = 9. Answer A is the trap for anyone who treats it as a simple inverse rather than an inverse square.

Q2Electric field lines can never cross because:

  1. AThey would cancel out
  2. BThe field would have two directions at one point, which is meaningless
  3. CCharges would be destroyed
  4. DIt would violate conservation of energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The field would have two directions at one point, which is meaningless

The field at a point has one definite direction — the direction of the force on a positive test charge there. Two crossing lines would assign it two directions at once, which is a contradiction rather than a physical possibility.

Q3Which quantity is a scalar?

  1. AElectric field strength
  2. BElectric potential
  3. CElectrostatic force
  4. DDisplacement of a charge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Electric potential

Potential is energy per unit charge — a plain number, which is exactly why potentials from several charges can be added arithmetically. Field strength and force both carry direction and need vector addition.

Q4Two identical positive charges are held a fixed distance apart. At the midpoint between them, the electric field is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BZero
  3. CHalf of its value at either charge
  4. DDirected toward the nearer charge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The two fields at the midpoint are equal in size and opposite in direction, so they cancel exactly. Note that the potential at that same point is not zero — it is the sum of two positive numbers, which is a distinction examiners like to probe.

Q5A charge of 2 μC is placed in a uniform field of 500 N C⁻¹. The force on it is:

  1. A1 × 10⁻³ N
  2. B250 N
  3. C1000 N
  4. D2.5 × 10⁻³ N
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 × 10⁻³ N

F = qE = 2 × 10⁻⁶ × 500 = 1 × 10⁻³ N. The commonest error is mishandling the micro prefix — μ means 10⁻⁶, so 2 μC is a very small charge and the resulting force is correspondingly small.

Q6Charge is described as "quantised". This means:

  1. ACharge can take any value
  2. BCharge exists only in whole multiples of the elementary charge e
  3. CCharge is always conserved
  4. DCharge decreases with distance
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Charge exists only in whole multiples of the elementary charge e

Quantisation is about coming in indivisible lumps of e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C. Conservation is a separate and equally important principle — both are true, but the question asks specifically about quantisation.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of electrons, how a polythene rod becomes negatively charged when rubbed with a cloth.
Answer

Electrons are transferred from the cloth onto the rod. The rod gains electrons and becomes negative; the cloth is left with a positive charge.

Q2[2 marks]
State what is meant by an electric field and how its direction is defined.
Answer

A region in which a charge experiences a force. The direction of the field is the direction of the force on a small positive test charge.

Q3[2 marks]
Explain why a charged rod attracts small uncharged pieces of paper.
Answer

The rod induces a separation of charge in the paper, drawing the opposite charge to the near side. That near charge is closer to the rod, so its attraction outweighs the repulsion of the far side.

Q4[4 marks]
A potential difference of 5000 V is applied across two parallel plates separated by 25 mm. Calculate the electric field strength between them, and the force on a charge of 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ C placed in that field.
Mark scheme
  1. Converts 25 mm = 0.025 m[1]
  2. Uses E = V/d = 5000 / 0.025[1]
  3. E = 2.0 × 10⁵ V m⁻¹[1]
  4. F = QE = 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 2.0 × 10⁵ = 6.4 × 10⁻¹⁴ N[1]

E = 2.0 × 10⁵ V m⁻¹, F = 6.4 × 10⁻¹⁴ N

Q5[8 marks]
A fuel tanker is fitted with a conducting strip that touches the ground, and is earthed with a metal wire before fuel is transferred.
  1. Explain how charge builds up on the tanker as it drives. [2]
  2. Explain why this build-up is dangerous during refuelling. [3]
  3. Explain how earthing the tanker removes the danger. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Friction between the tanker and the air, and between the fuel and the tank walls, transfers electrons[1]
  2. The tanker is insulated by its rubber tyres, so the charge cannot escape and accumulates[1]
  3. The charge raises the potential of the tanker[1]
  4. Eventually a spark jumps to a nearby earthed object[1]
  5. The spark could ignite the fuel vapour and cause an explosion[1]
  6. The wire provides a conducting path to earth[1]
  7. Electrons flow along it until the tanker is at the same potential as the earth[1]
  8. So charge leaks away steadily instead of building to a spark[1]
Q6[6 marks]
Two parallel metal plates are connected to a high-voltage supply, the upper plate positive.
  1. Describe the pattern of the field lines between the plates, away from the edges. [2]
  2. A small negatively charged oil drop is placed between the plates. State the direction of the electric force on it and explain your answer. [2]
  3. State two changes that would increase the force on the drop. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The lines are parallel and equally spaced, showing a uniform field[1]
  2. They run from the positive plate to the negative plate[1]
  3. The force is upward, towards the positive plate[1]
  4. Because the drop is negative, so the force is opposite to the field direction[1]
  5. Increase the potential difference across the plates[1]
  6. Move the plates closer together, or increase the charge on the dropany one[1]

(b) upward, towards the positive plate

19

Capacitance

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Capacitance is defined as:

  1. Acharge times voltage
  2. Bcharge per unit voltage
  3. Cvoltage per unit charge
  4. Denergy per unit charge
Show answer

Correct answer: B — charge per unit voltage

C = Q/V. Energy per unit charge is potential difference, a different quantity entirely.

Q2Two 4 µF capacitors in series give a total of:

  1. A8 µF
  2. B2 µF
  3. C4 µF
  4. D16 µF
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 µF

1/C = 1/4 + 1/4 = 1/2, so C = 2 µF. Series capacitors combine reciprocally — the reverse of resistors.

Q3The energy stored in a capacitor is:

  1. AQV
  2. B½QV
  3. C2QV
  4. DQ/V
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ½QV

The voltage rises from zero during charging, so the average is V/2 and the energy is the triangular area ½QV.

Q4Doubling the voltage on a capacitor changes the stored energy by a factor of:

  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C½
  4. D1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

W = ½CV² depends on the square of the voltage, so doubling V quadruples the energy.

Q5The time constant of a discharge circuit is:

  1. AR/C
  2. BRC
  3. CC/R
  4. D1/RC
Show answer

Correct answer: B — RC

τ = RC, and ohms multiplied by farads genuinely gives seconds — a useful dimensional check.

Q6After one time constant, the voltage has fallen to about:

  1. A50%
  2. B37%
  3. C13.5%
  4. D5%
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 37%

1/e ≈ 0.37. The 13.5% and 5% figures correspond to two and three time constants.

Q7Increasing the resistance in a discharge circuit makes the capacitor discharge:

  1. Afaster
  2. Bslower
  3. Cat the same rate
  4. Dinstantly
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slower

τ = RC, so a larger R gives a larger time constant. A bigger resistor limits the current more, so the charge leaves more slowly.

Q8According to the exponential model, a capacitor fully discharges:

  1. Aafter one time constant
  2. Bafter five time constants
  3. Cnever — it only approaches zero
  4. Dimmediately
Show answer

Correct answer: C — never — it only approaches zero

e^(−t/RC) is never exactly zero for a finite time. Five time constants is the practical convention, by which point under 1% remains.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Define capacitance and state its unit. Explain why a capacitor stores no net charge.
Answer

Capacitance is the charge stored per unit potential difference, C = Q/V, measured in farads. The plates carry equal and opposite charges, +Q and −Q, so the net charge on the device is zero — what is stored is the separation of charge.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why the energy stored in a capacitor is ½QV and not QV.
Answer

The potential difference rises linearly from zero as charge accumulates, so charge is not delivered at the full voltage throughout. The average potential difference during charging is V/2, giving W = ½QV. Graphically it is the triangular area under the V–Q line.

Q3[4 marks]
A 220 µF capacitor charged to 9.0 V discharges through a 47 kΩ resistor. Find the time constant and the voltage after 15 s.
Mark scheme
  1. τ = RC = 47 000 × 220 × 10⁻⁶Both quantities converted to base units first.[1]
  2. τ = 10.34 sOhms × farads gives seconds, which is a useful check.[1]
  3. V = V₀e^(−t/RC) = 9.0 × e^(−15/10.34) = 9.0 × e^(−1.451)Substituting into the discharge equation.[1]
  4. V = 9.0 × 0.2344 = 2.11 VJust under 1.5 time constants, so a little above the 23% mark.[1]

τ = 10.3 s, V = 2.11 V

Q4[7 marks]
A 100 µF capacitor is charged to 20 V.
(a) Calculate the charge and energy stored.
(b) It is discharged through a 25 kΩ resistor. Find the time constant and the initial current.
(c) Find the time for the voltage to fall to 5.0 V.
(d) Explain why the capacitor never fully discharges according to this model.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) Q = CV = 100 × 10⁻⁶ × 20 = 2.0 × 10⁻³ CStraight substitution.[1]
  2. W = ½CV² = ½ × 100 × 10⁻⁶ × 400 = 0.020 JUsing the squared-voltage form.[1]
  3. (b) τ = RC = 25 000 × 100 × 10⁻⁶ = 2.5 sConsistent units give seconds.[1]
  4. I₀ = V₀/R = 20/25 000 = 8.0 × 10⁻⁴ AAt t = 0 the full voltage is across the resistor.[1]
  5. (c) 5.0 = 20e^(−t/2.5), so e^(−t/2.5) = 0.25Dividing by the initial voltage first.[1]
  6. −t/2.5 = ln 0.25 = −1.386, so t = 3.47 sThis is two half-lives, since the voltage fell to a quarter — a useful check.[1]
  7. (d) The exponential approaches zero asymptotically without ever reaching it, since e^(−t/RC) is never exactly zero for finite t. In practice it is treated as discharged after about 5RC.The mark is for the asymptotic argument plus the practical convention.[1]

(a) 2.0 mC, 0.020 J; (b) 2.5 s, 0.80 mA; (c) 3.47 s; (d) exponential never reaches zero

Q5[2 marks]
Two 6 µF capacitors are connected in series, then in parallel. State the total capacitance in each case, and explain why the series result is smaller than either capacitor.
Answer

In parallel: 6 + 6 = 12 µF. In series: 1/C = 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/3, so C = 3 µF. The series result is smaller because the charge must pass through both, so the same charge is stored for a larger total voltage — which by C = Q/V means less capacitance.

20

Magnetic fields

Multiple choice · 22

Q1A bar magnet is cut exactly in half. The result is:

  1. AOne north magnet and one south magnet
  2. BTwo magnets, each with both poles
  3. CTwo unmagnetised bars
  4. DOne magnet and one non-magnet
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Two magnets, each with both poles

Poles always occur in pairs. Every cut produces two complete magnets, each with a north and a south — you can never isolate a single pole.

Q2Which of these is NOT a magnetic material?

  1. AIron
  2. BCobalt
  3. CAluminium
  4. DNickel
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Aluminium

Aluminium is not magnetic, despite being a metal. That assumption — metal therefore magnetic — is exactly what the question tests.

Q3The only reliable test that a bar is a magnet is:

  1. AIt attracts iron
  2. BIt repels one end of another magnet
  3. CIt is made of steel
  4. DIt attracts a compass needle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It repels one end of another magnet

Attraction happens with any magnetic material, magnetised or not. Only repulsion requires the object to be a magnet itself.

Q4Outside a bar magnet, field lines run:

  1. ASouth to north
  2. BNorth to south
  3. CIn both directions at once
  4. DIn straight lines only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — North to south

North to south outside, completing the loop south to north inside the magnet. The direction is defined by the force on a north pole.

Q5A region where field lines are close together indicates:

  1. AA weak field
  2. BA strong field
  3. CNo field
  4. DA neutral point
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A strong field

Line density represents field strength, which is why the lines crowd at the poles. A neutral point is where lines from two magnets cancel and the field is zero.

Q6Iron is preferred to steel for the core of an electromagnet because it:

  1. AIs stronger
  2. BMagnetises and demagnetises easily
  3. CRetains its magnetism permanently
  4. DIs cheaper
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Magnetises and demagnetises easily

An electromagnet must lose its magnetism the instant the current stops, so a soft material is essential. Steel would retain it and the device would not switch off.

Q7In an unmagnetised piece of iron, the domains are:

  1. AAll aligned
  2. BRandomly oriented so their effects cancel
  3. CAbsent
  4. DMade of steel
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Randomly oriented so their effects cancel

The domains exist and are individually magnetic, but point in random directions, so the sample shows no overall magnetism. Magnetising aligns them.

Q8The Earth's geographic North Pole is:

  1. AA magnetic north pole
  2. BA magnetic south pole
  3. CNot magnetic at all
  4. DBoth poles at once
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A magnetic south pole

The north-seeking pole of a compass points to it, and unlike poles attract, so it must be a magnetic south pole. The naming is historical and catches almost everyone once.

Q9The unit of magnetic flux density is the:

  1. Aweber
  2. Btesla
  3. Chenry
  4. Dnewton
Show answer

Correct answer: B — tesla

The tesla, equal to 1 N A⁻¹ m⁻¹. The weber is the unit of magnetic flux, which is B multiplied by area.

Q10A wire lies parallel to a magnetic field. The force on it is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BZero
  3. CHalf the maximum
  4. DReversed
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

F = BIL sin θ and sin 0° = 0. Only the perpendicular component produces a force.

Q11Fleming's left-hand rule is used to find:

  1. AThe current induced by motion
  2. BThe force on a current in a field
  3. CThe field around a wire
  4. DThe charge on a particle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The force on a current in a field

Left for the motor effect. The right hand is for induction, where motion produces a current.

Q12A magnetic field acting on a moving charge cannot change its:

  1. ADirection
  2. BSpeed
  3. CMomentum
  4. DPath
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Speed

The force is always perpendicular to the velocity, so it does no work. Direction, momentum and path all change; speed does not.

Q13Doubling the speed of a charged particle in a fixed field changes the radius of its path by a factor of:

  1. A½
  2. B2
  3. C4
  4. Dno change
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2

r = mv/(qB), so r is proportional to v. Doubling the speed doubles the radius.

Q14Two parallel wires carrying current in the same direction:

  1. ARepel
  2. BAttract
  3. CFeel no force
  4. DRotate
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Attract

They attract. Each sits in the other's field, and the grip rule plus the left-hand rule give an inward force.

Q15The field inside a long solenoid is:

  1. AZero
  2. BNearly uniform
  3. CStrongest at the centre only
  4. DCircular
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nearly uniform

Nearly uniform along the inside, spreading out at the ends — much like a bar magnet.

Q16An e.m.f. is induced in a coil only when:

  1. AA magnet is nearby
  2. BThe flux through it is changing
  3. CThe coil is warm
  4. DA current already flows
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The flux through it is changing

A stationary magnet inside a coil induces nothing, however strong it is. Change is what matters.

Q17In Φ = BA cos θ, θ is measured between the field and:

  1. AThe plane of the loop
  2. BThe normal to the loop
  3. CThe vertical
  4. DThe current
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The normal to the loop

The normal. Face-on gives θ = 0 and maximum flux; edge-on gives θ = 90° and zero.

Q18Lenz's law is a consequence of the conservation of:

  1. ACharge
  2. BEnergy
  3. CMomentum
  4. DMass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Energy

If the induced current aided the change, the system would accelerate itself and produce energy from nothing.

Q19Doubling the speed at which a magnet is pushed into a coil changes the induced e.m.f. by a factor of:

  1. A½
  2. B2
  3. C4
  4. Dno change
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2

The e.m.f. depends on the rate of change of flux. Twice the speed means twice the rate.

Q20In an a.c. generator the induced e.m.f. is a maximum when the coil is:

  1. AFace-on to the field
  2. BEdge-on to the field
  3. CStationary
  4. DAt 45° to the field
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Edge-on to the field

Edge-on the flux is zero but changing fastest. Face-on the flux is greatest but momentarily unchanging, so the e.m.f. is zero.

Q21Slip rings are used in an a.c. generator to:

  1. AReverse the connections every half turn
  2. BMaintain contact without reversing the connections
  3. CIncrease the field strength
  4. DSmooth the output
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Maintain contact without reversing the connections

Reversing every half turn is what a split-ring commutator does, and that gives d.c. instead.

Q22A rod slides along a magnetic field line rather than across it. The induced e.m.f. is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BZero
  3. CHalf the maximum
  4. DReversed
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

No field lines are cut, so no flux change occurs. e.m.f. = BLv sin θ with θ = 0.

Exam-style questions · 19

Q1[4 marks]
A student is given two identical-looking steel bars. One is a permanent magnet and one is unmagnetised.
  1. Describe a test, using only the two bars, that identifies which is the magnet.
  2. Explain why attraction alone would not be enough.
Mark scheme
  1. Bring an end of one bar near the middle of the other, or bring the two ends together and reverse oneany workable procedure[1]
  2. If repulsion is observed at any point, that bar is the magnet[1]
  3. A magnet attracts any magnetic material, magnetised or not[1]
  4. So attraction does not distinguish the two; only repulsion does[1]
Q2[4 marks]
Explain, in terms of domains, what happens when a steel bar is magnetised by stroking, and why heating it strongly destroys the magnetism.
Mark scheme
  1. The bar contains domains, small regions that are already magnetic[1]
  2. Initially the domains point in random directions and their effects cancel[1]
  3. Stroking aligns the domains so they point the same way, and their effects add[1]
  4. Heating makes the domains vibrate and return to random directions, so the magnetism is lost[1]
Q3[2 marks]
State why the Earth's geographic North Pole must be a magnetic south pole.
Mark scheme
  1. The north-seeking pole of a compass points toward geographic north[1]
  2. Unlike poles attract, so the pole attracting a north pole must itself be a south pole[1]
Q4[2 marks]
Why is repulsion, and not attraction, the reliable test for a magnet?
Answer

A magnet attracts any magnetic material, whether or not it is magnetised, so attraction proves nothing. Only another magnet can be repelled, so repulsion is conclusive.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of domains, why an iron bar is not always magnetic.
Answer

The bar contains domains that are individually magnetic. When they point in random directions their effects cancel and the bar shows no magnetism; when they are aligned, the effects add and the bar is a magnet.

Q6[2 marks]
Why is soft iron, rather than steel, used for the core of an electromagnet?
Answer

Soft iron magnetises and demagnetises easily, so the electromagnet loses its magnetism the moment the current stops. Steel would retain it and the device could not be switched off.

Q7[3 marks]
A plotting compass is placed at three points around a bar magnet: due north of the north pole, midway along the side, and due south of the south pole. State the direction the north-seeking pole of the compass points in each case, and explain your reasoning.
Mark scheme
  1. Beyond the north pole: away from the magnetfield lines leave the north pole[1]
  2. At the side: roughly parallel to the magnet, pointing from N toward Sthe compass lies along the field line[1]
  3. Beyond the south pole: toward the magnet, because field lines re-enter at the south pole[1]

Away from N, along the side N→S, and back toward S — the compass always lies along the field line.

Q8[2 marks]
Define magnetic flux density and state its unit.
Answer

The force per unit current per unit length on a conductor placed at right angles to the field, B = F/(IL). Its unit is the tesla (T), equal to 1 N A⁻¹ m⁻¹.

Q9[2 marks]
Explain why a magnetic field cannot change the speed of a charged particle.
Answer

The force qvB always acts at right angles to the velocity. A perpendicular force does no work, so the kinetic energy and therefore the speed are unchanged — only the direction alters.

Q10[2 marks]
A wire carrying a current lies parallel to a magnetic field. State and explain the force on it.
Answer

The force is zero, because F = BIL sin θ and sin 0° = 0. Only the component of the wire perpendicular to the field experiences a force.

Q11[5 marks]
A wire of length 0.25 m carries a current of 4.0 A at right angles to a field of 0.15 T. Find the force. Then find the force if the wire is turned to 30° to the field.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses F = BIL with sin 90° = 1[1]
  2. F = 0.15 × 4.0 × 0.25[1]
  3. F = 0.15 N[1]
  4. At 30°: F = BIL sin 30° = 0.15 × 0.5[1]
  5. F = 0.075 Nhalf, because sin 30° = 0.5[1]

0.15 N, then 0.075 N

Q12[8 marks]
A proton of mass 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg and charge 1.60 × 10⁻¹⁹ C moves at 2.0 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹ perpendicular to a uniform field of 0.35 T.
  1. Calculate the force on the proton. [2]
  2. Explain why it moves in a circle. [3]
  3. Calculate the radius of that circle. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses F = qvB[1]
  2. F = 1.60 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 2.0 × 10⁶ × 0.35 = 1.12 × 10⁻¹³ N[1]
  3. The force is always perpendicular to the velocity[1]
  4. So it changes the direction of motion but not the speed[1]
  5. A constant force at right angles to a constant speed is centripetal, giving circular motion[1]
  6. Sets qvB = mv²/r[1]
  7. r = mv/(qB) = (1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ × 2.0 × 10⁶) / (1.60 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 0.35)[1]
  8. r = 0.060 m, about 6 cm[1]

(a) 1.12 × 10⁻¹³ N (c) 0.060 m

Q13[5 marks]
Two long parallel wires 5.0 cm apart carry currents in the same direction.
  1. State whether they attract or repel. [1]
  2. Explain your answer using the field of one wire and the force on the other. [3]
  3. State what happens if one current is reversed. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. They attractthe opposite of what most people expect[1]
  2. Each wire sits in the magnetic field produced by the other[1]
  3. The field of the first wire at the second is perpendicular to that wireright-hand grip rule[1]
  4. Fleming's left-hand rule then gives a force on the second wire directed towards the first[1]
  5. Reversing one current makes them repel[1]

attract; reversing one current makes them repel

Q14[2 marks]
Define magnetic flux and state its unit.
Answer

The product of the magnetic flux density and the area perpendicular to the field, Φ = BA cos θ. Its unit is the weber (Wb).

Q15[2 marks]
A magnet is held stationary inside a coil. Explain why no e.m.f. is induced.
Answer

The flux through the coil is not changing. An e.m.f. depends on the rate of change of flux linkage, and that rate is zero — the strength of the magnet is irrelevant.

Q16[2 marks]
State Lenz's law and explain what physical principle it follows from.
Answer

The induced current always opposes the change producing it. It follows from conservation of energy — if the current aided the change, energy would be created from nothing.

Q17[5 marks]
A straight rod 0.40 m long moves at 6.0 m s⁻¹ perpendicular to a field of 0.25 T. Find the induced e.m.f. Then find it if the rod moves at 30° to the field instead.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses e.m.f. = BLv[1]
  2. = 0.25 × 0.40 × 6.0[1]
  3. = 0.60 V[1]
  4. At 30°: e.m.f. = BLv sin 30°only the perpendicular component cuts field lines[1]
  5. = 0.30 V[1]

0.60 V, then 0.30 V

Q18[8 marks]
A bar magnet is dropped north-pole-first through a vertical coil connected to a sensitive meter.
  1. Describe the meter reading as the magnet approaches, passes through, and leaves. [3]
  2. Use Lenz's law to explain the direction of the induced current as the magnet approaches. [3]
  3. Explain why the magnet falls more slowly than it would with the coil disconnected. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Deflects one way as the magnet approaches[1]
  2. Falls to zero at the instant the magnet is centred, where the flux is momentarily not changing[1]
  3. Deflects the opposite way as it leaves[1]
  4. The flux through the coil is increasing as the magnet approaches[1]
  5. The induced current flows so as to oppose that increase[1]
  6. So the near face of the coil becomes a north pole, repelling the magnet[1]
  7. With a complete circuit an induced current flows and opposes the motion[1]
  8. Work is done against that force, converting gravitational energy into electrical energy rather than kinetic[1]

deflect, zero at the centre, deflect the other way

Q19[6 marks]
A simple a.c. generator has a rectangular coil rotating in a uniform magnetic field.
  1. Explain why the induced e.m.f. is zero when the coil is face-on to the field. [2]
  2. State the position at which the e.m.f. is a maximum. [1]
  3. State the purpose of the slip rings. [1]
  4. State two changes that would increase the peak output. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Face-on, the flux through the coil is at its maximum[1]
  2. At a maximum the flux is momentarily not changing, and e.m.f. depends on the rate of change[1]
  3. When the coil is edge-on to the field, a quarter turn laterflux is zero but changing fastest[1]
  4. They maintain electrical contact with the rotating coil without reversing the connections, preserving the a.c. output[1]
  5. Rotate the coil faster[1]
  6. Use a stronger field, more turns, or a larger coil areaany one[1]

zero face-on, maximum edge-on

21

Alternating currents

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The average value of a sinusoidal current over one complete cycle is:

  1. AThe peak value
  2. BZero
  3. CThe RMS value
  4. DHalf the peak
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The halves cancel. This is precisely why RMS is used instead of the ordinary mean.

Q2A supply is quoted as 230 V. Its peak voltage is about:

  1. A163 V
  2. B325 V
  3. C230 V
  4. D460 V
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 325 V

Quoted values are RMS, so the peak is 230 × √2 ≈ 325 V.

Q3The RMS value is defined as the steady current that would:

  1. AHave the same peak
  2. BDeliver the same average power
  3. CFlow for the same time
  4. DHave the same frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Deliver the same average power

It is defined by the power it delivers to a resistor, which is what makes it the useful number.

Q4As frequency increases, the reactance of a capacitor:

  1. AIncreases
  2. BDecreases
  3. CStays the same
  4. DBecomes zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decreases

X_C = 1/(2πfC). Faster reversals leave less time for charge to build up and oppose the flow.

Q5A component that blocks d.c. but passes a.c. is a:

  1. AResistor
  2. BCapacitor
  3. CInductor
  4. DDiode
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Capacitor

No charge crosses the gap, but repeated charging and discharging keeps current flowing in the circuit.

Q6At resonance in a series LCR circuit, the impedance is:

  1. AMaximum
  2. BMinimum
  3. CZero
  4. DInfinite
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Minimum

The reactances cancel, leaving only R. Minimum impedance means maximum current.

Q7Electricity is transmitted at high voltage because:

  1. AHigh voltage is safer
  2. BIt means low current, and loss goes as I²R
  3. CCables need high voltage
  4. DIt travels faster
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It means low current, and loss goes as I²R

For a fixed power, raising V lowers I, and heating loss depends on the square of the current.

Q8A transformer will not work on direct current because:

  1. AThe current is too small
  2. BA steady field induces no e.m.f.
  3. CThe core melts
  4. DD.C. has no voltage
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A steady field induces no e.m.f.

Induction requires a changing magnetic field. Steady current gives a steady field and nothing is induced.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the average value of an alternating current over a complete cycle is zero, yet it still heats a resistor.
Answer

The negative half of the cycle cancels the positive half, so the mean current is zero. Heating depends on I²R, and squaring makes the negative half positive, so energy is dissipated throughout.

Q2[2 marks]
Define the RMS value of an alternating current.
Answer

The steady direct current that would deliver the same average power to a resistor as the alternating current does.

Q3[2 marks]
State how the reactance of a capacitor and of an inductor each change as the frequency increases.
Answer

Capacitive reactance decreases, since X_C = 1/(2πfC). Inductive reactance increases, since X_L = 2πfL.

Q4[5 marks]
An a.c. supply has a peak voltage of 170 V and is connected to a 40 Ω resistor. Find the RMS voltage, the RMS current and the average power dissipated.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses V_rms = V_peak/√2[1]
  2. V_rms = 170 / 1.414 = 120 V[1]
  3. I_rms = V_rms/R = 120/40[1]
  4. I_rms = 3.0 A[1]
  5. P = V_rms I_rms = 120 × 3.0 = 360 Wusing peak values would double this[1]

120 V, 3.0 A, 360 W

Q5[8 marks]
Electricity is generated at a power station and transmitted at high voltage.
  1. Explain why transformers only work with alternating current. [2]
  2. A station delivers 40 MW at 400 kV through cables of resistance 3.0 Ω. Calculate the current and the power lost as heat. [4]
  3. Calculate the power that would be lost if the same power were sent at 40 kV instead. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. A transformer works by a changing magnetic field inducing an e.m.f. in the secondary[1]
  2. Direct current gives a steady field, so nothing is induced[1]
  3. I = P/V = 40 × 10⁶ / 400 × 10³[1]
  4. I = 100 A[1]
  5. P_lost = I²R = 100² × 3.0[1]
  6. = 30 kW, less than 0.1% of the output[1]
  7. At 40 kV: I = 1000 Aten times the current[1]
  8. P_lost = 1000² × 3.0 = 3.0 MW — a hundred times more, and 7.5% of the output[1]

(b) 100 A, 30 kW (c) 3.0 MW

Q6[5 marks]
A series circuit contains a resistor, a capacitor and an inductor connected to a variable-frequency supply.
  1. State the condition for resonance. [1]
  2. Describe what happens to the current at the resonant frequency, and explain why. [2]
  3. Give one practical use of a resonant circuit. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The inductive and capacitive reactances are equal, X_L = X_C[1]
  2. The current reaches its maximum[1]
  3. The two reactances cancel, so the impedance falls to just the resistance — its minimum value[1]
  4. Tuning a radio receiver[1]
  5. Adjusting the capacitance shifts the resonant frequency to match one station, so only that signal produces a large current[1]

X_L = X_C; current is maximum; used for tuning a radio

22

Quantum physics

Multiple choice · 16

Q1Below the threshold frequency, increasing the intensity of the light causes:

  1. AMore electrons
  2. BFaster electrons
  3. CNo emission at all
  4. DDelayed emission
Show answer

Correct answer: C — No emission at all

No photon carries enough energy to free an electron, so more of them changes nothing. This is what a wave model cannot explain.

Q2The energy of a photon depends on:

  1. AThe intensity
  2. BThe frequency
  3. CThe distance travelled
  4. DThe metal it hits
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The frequency

E = hf. Intensity sets how many photons arrive, not how much energy each carries.

Q3The work function of a metal is:

  1. AThe energy of one photon
  2. BThe minimum energy to remove an electron
  3. CThe kinetic energy of the electron
  4. DThe threshold wavelength
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The minimum energy to remove an electron

It is a property of the metal, which is why different metals have different threshold frequencies.

Q4Doubling the intensity of light above the threshold frequency doubles:

  1. AThe kinetic energy of each electron
  2. BThe number of electrons emitted
  3. CThe threshold frequency
  4. DThe work function
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The number of electrons emitted

Twice as many photons means twice as many electrons, each with the same maximum kinetic energy.

Q5The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by:

  1. Aλ = hf
  2. Bλ = h/p
  3. Cλ = hc
  4. Dλ = p/h
Show answer

Correct answer: Bλ = h/p

Wavelength is inversely proportional to momentum — more momentum, shorter wavelength.

Q6Electron diffraction demonstrates that:

  1. AElectrons have no mass
  2. BParticles can behave as waves
  3. CLight is a particle
  4. DElectrons are photons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Particles can behave as waves

Electrons are unquestionably particles, yet they produce a diffraction pattern — the direct evidence for de Broglie.

Q7A cricket ball shows no observable wave behaviour because:

  1. AIt is too heavy to move
  2. BIts de Broglie wavelength is far too small
  3. CIt has no momentum
  4. DIt is not charged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Its de Broglie wavelength is far too small

Around 10⁻³⁴ m — far smaller than any gap it could diffract through.

Q8Emission in the photoelectric effect is instantaneous because:

  1. ALight travels fast
  2. BOne photon transfers all its energy to one electron at once
  3. CThe metal is already hot
  4. DElectrons are very light
Show answer

Correct answer: B — One photon transfers all its energy to one electron at once

There is no waiting for energy to accumulate, which is exactly what a wave model would predict for dim light.

Q9An electron in an atom can have:

  1. AAny energy
  2. BOnly certain discrete energies
  3. COnly positive energies
  4. DZero energy only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Only certain discrete energies

Discrete levels, with nothing in between. Continuous energies would give a continuous spectrum rather than lines.

Q10Energy levels are given negative values because:

  1. AElectrons have negative charge
  2. BZero is taken as the electron being free of the atom
  3. CThe nucleus is positive
  4. DOf a sign convention with no meaning
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero is taken as the electron being free of the atom

A bound electron has less energy than a free one, so its value is below zero.

Q11An emission spectrum consists of:

  1. ADark lines on a continuous background
  2. BBright lines on a dark background
  3. CA continuous rainbow
  4. DA single line
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Bright lines on a dark background

Excited electrons fall between fixed levels, emitting photons of fixed energies.

Q12A larger energy jump produces a photon of:

  1. ALonger wavelength
  2. BShorter wavelength
  3. CThe same wavelength
  4. DLower frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Shorter wavelength

ΔE = hf and λ = c/f. More energy means higher frequency and shorter wavelength.

Q13Dark lines in a star's spectrum are caused by:

  1. ASunspots
  2. BAbsorption by cooler gases in its atmosphere
  3. CDust between us and the star
  4. DGaps in the star's output
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Absorption by cooler gases in its atmosphere

Atoms there absorb exactly the wavelengths matching their energy gaps, removing them from the continuous beam.

Q14The ionisation energy of hydrogen is 13.6 eV. This is the energy needed to:

  1. AExcite the electron to the next level
  2. BRemove the electron completely
  3. CSplit the nucleus
  4. DEmit a photon
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Remove the electron completely

It lifts the electron from the −13.6 eV ground state to zero, which means free of the atom.

Q15A photon whose energy matches no gap between levels will:

  1. ABe partly absorbed
  2. BPass straight through
  3. CIonise the atom
  4. DBe reflected
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Pass straight through

Absorption is all or nothing — the atom cannot take part of a photon's energy.

Q16Line spectra are evidence that:

  1. AAtoms are indivisible
  2. BEnergy levels in atoms are discrete
  3. CLight is only a wave
  4. DElectrons orbit like planets
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Energy levels in atoms are discrete

Sharp lines require sharp levels. Continuous energies would give a continuous spectrum.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[2 marks]
State two observations of the photoelectric effect that cannot be explained by a wave model of light.
Answer

No emission occurs below a threshold frequency, whatever the intensity. And emission is instantaneous even in very dim light, rather than requiring time for energy to build up.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why increasing the intensity of light above the threshold frequency does not increase the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons.
Answer

Greater intensity means more photons per second, but each photon still carries the same energy hf. One photon is absorbed by one electron, so the energy per electron is unchanged — only the number emitted rises.

Q3[2 marks]
State what is meant by the work function of a metal.
Answer

The minimum energy needed to remove an electron from the surface of the metal.

Q4[5 marks]
A metal has a work function of 3.2 eV. Light of frequency 1.2 × 10¹⁵ Hz falls on it. Find the photon energy in eV and the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons. Take h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s.
Mark scheme
  1. E = hf = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ × 1.2 × 10¹⁵[1]
  2. E = 7.96 × 10⁻¹⁹ J[1]
  3. Converts: 7.96 × 10⁻¹⁹ / 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ = 4.97 eV[1]
  4. Uses KE_max = hf − φ = 4.97 − 3.2[1]
  5. KE_max = 1.8 eV[1]

photon 4.97 eV, electrons up to 1.8 eV

Q5[8 marks]
Electrons are accelerated through a potential difference of 2500 V and directed at a thin graphite film.
  1. Calculate the kinetic energy gained by each electron, in joules. [2]
  2. Calculate their speed, taking the electron mass as 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg. [3]
  3. Calculate their de Broglie wavelength. [2]
  4. State what is observed on a screen beyond the film, and what it shows. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses KE = eV = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 2500[1]
  2. KE = 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁶ J[1]
  3. Uses KE = ½mv²[1]
  4. v² = 2 × 4.0 × 10⁻¹⁶ / 9.11 × 10⁻³¹[1]
  5. v = 3.0 × 10⁷ m s⁻¹[1]
  6. λ = h/mv = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ / (9.11 × 10⁻³¹ × 3.0 × 10⁷)[1]
  7. λ = 2.4 × 10⁻¹¹ mcomparable to atomic spacing, which is why diffraction is observable[1]
  8. A diffraction pattern of rings, showing that electrons behave as waves[1]

4.0 × 10⁻¹⁶ J, 3.0 × 10⁷ m s⁻¹, 2.4 × 10⁻¹¹ m, rings

Q6[5 marks]
Light is described as having a dual nature.
  1. State one phenomenon that shows light behaving as a wave, and one that shows it behaving as particles. [2]
  2. Explain why a cricket ball does not show observable wave behaviour. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Wave: interference or diffraction (for example the double-slit experiment)[1]
  2. Particle: the photoelectric effect, or line spectra[1]
  3. Its de Broglie wavelength is λ = h/mv[1]
  4. Its mass and speed are enormous compared with h, so λ is around 10⁻³⁴ m[1]
  5. That is far smaller than any gap it could pass through, so no diffraction is observable[1]

interference/diffraction for waves; photoelectric effect for particles

Q7[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by an energy level in an atom.
Answer

One of a set of discrete energies that an electron in the atom is allowed to have. It cannot possess any energy between two levels.

Q8[2 marks]
Explain why the emission spectrum of an element consists of sharp lines rather than a continuous band.
Answer

Electrons fall between fixed energy levels, so the energy differences take only certain values. Since ΔE = hf, only certain frequencies are emitted.

Q9[2 marks]
State why the dark lines in an absorption spectrum appear at the same wavelengths as the bright lines in the emission spectrum of the same element.
Answer

Both arise from the same set of energy gaps. Absorption lifts an electron across a gap and emission drops it back across the same gap, so the photon energies — and therefore the wavelengths — are identical.

Q10[5 marks]
An electron falls from an energy level of −1.5 eV to one of −5.4 eV. Calculate the energy of the emitted photon in joules, its frequency and its wavelength.
Mark scheme
  1. ΔE = −1.5 − (−5.4) = 3.9 eVpositive, since energy is released[1]
  2. Converts: 3.9 × 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ = 6.24 × 10⁻¹⁹ J[1]
  3. Uses f = ΔE/h = 6.24 × 10⁻¹⁹ / 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴[1]
  4. f = 9.4 × 10¹⁴ Hz[1]
  5. λ = c/f = 3.0 × 10⁸ / 9.4 × 10¹⁴ = 3.2 × 10⁻⁷ mjust into the ultraviolet[1]

6.24 × 10⁻¹⁹ J, 9.4 × 10¹⁴ Hz, 3.2 × 10⁻⁷ m

Q11[8 marks]
The spectrum of sunlight contains dark lines at particular wavelengths.
  1. Explain how these dark lines are produced. [4]
  2. Explain how they allow the elements present in the Sun to be identified. [2]
  3. State what the existence of line spectra shows about energy in atoms. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The hot interior of the Sun emits a continuous spectrum containing all wavelengths[1]
  2. This light passes outward through the cooler gases of the Sun's atmosphere[1]
  3. Atoms there absorb photons whose energy exactly matches a gap between their energy levels[1]
  4. Those wavelengths are removed from the beam, leaving dark lines[1]
  5. Each element has a unique set of energy levels and so a unique pattern of lines[1]
  6. Matching the observed pattern against laboratory spectra identifies the elements[1]
  7. That energy levels in atoms are discrete rather than continuous[1]
  8. And that light is emitted and absorbed in quanta of energy hf[1]

absorption by cooler outer gases; unique patterns identify elements

Q12[5 marks]
Hydrogen has a ground state at −13.6 eV and a first excited state at −3.4 eV.
  1. State what is meant by the ionisation energy of hydrogen and give its value. [2]
  2. Calculate the energy needed to excite an electron from the ground state to the first excited state. [1]
  3. Explain why a photon of 8.0 eV would not be absorbed by a hydrogen atom in the ground state. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The energy needed to remove the electron completely from the atom[1]
  2. 13.6 eV, since the level must be raised from −13.6 eV to zero[1]
  3. −3.4 − (−13.6) = 10.2 eV[1]
  4. Absorption occurs only if the photon energy matches a gap between levels exactly[1]
  5. 8.0 eV matches no gap from the ground state — the first is 10.2 eV — so the photon passes straight through[1]

13.6 eV; 10.2 eV; 8.0 eV matches no gap

23

Nuclear physics

Multiple choice · 16

Q1The mass of a nucleus compared with the total mass of its separate nucleons is:

  1. AGreater
  2. BLess
  3. CThe same
  4. DSometimes greater, sometimes less
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Less

Energy was released when it formed, and by E = mc² that came out of the mass.

Q2The binding energy of a nucleus is the energy:

  1. AReleased when it decays
  2. BNeeded to separate it into individual nucleons
  3. COf one emitted photon
  4. DStored in its electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Needed to separate it into individual nucleons

Equivalently, the energy released when it formed from separate nucleons.

Q3The nucleus with the highest binding energy per nucleon is:

  1. AHydrogen
  2. BIron-56
  3. CUranium-235
  4. DHelium-4
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Iron-56

Iron sits at the peak of the curve, which is why it is the most stable nucleus and why stellar fusion stops there.

Q4Fusion releases energy for nuclei that are:

  1. AHeavier than iron
  2. BLighter than iron
  3. CExactly iron
  4. DAny nucleus
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Lighter than iron

Joining light nuclei moves the product up the curve. Above iron it is fission that releases energy.

Q5The moderator in a fission reactor:

  1. AAbsorbs neutrons
  2. BSlows neutrons down
  3. CProvides the fuel
  4. DCools the reactor
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Slows neutrons down

Slow neutrons are much more readily absorbed by uranium-235. Absorbing neutrons is the control rods' job.

Q6Control rods are made of boron or cadmium because these materials:

  1. ASlow neutrons
  2. BAbsorb neutrons
  3. CReflect neutrons
  4. DProduce neutrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Absorb neutrons

Pushing them in absorbs more neutrons and slows the reaction; withdrawing them speeds it up.

Q7A typical fission of uranium-235 releases about:

  1. A2 eV
  2. B200 MeV
  3. C200 eV
  4. D2 J
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 200 MeV

About 200 MeV — some hundred million times a chemical reaction per atom.

Q8The main obstacle to fusion power is:

  1. ALack of fuel
  2. BContaining a plasma at millions of kelvin
  3. CRadioactive waste
  4. DIt releases too little energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Containing a plasma at millions of kelvin

Fuel is abundant and the waste is helium. The difficulty is overcoming electrostatic repulsion and confining the plasma.

Q9An alpha particle is:

  1. AA fast electron
  2. BA helium nucleus
  3. CAn electromagnetic wave
  4. DA neutron
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A helium nucleus

Two protons and two neutrons, so charge +2 and relative mass 4. The fast electron is a beta particle.

Q10Which radiation is stopped by a few millimetres of aluminium?

  1. AAlpha
  2. BBeta
  3. CGamma
  4. DAll three
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Beta

Alpha is stopped by paper, gamma needs centimetres of lead. Beta sits between them.

Q11In alpha decay the nucleon number:

  1. AIncreases by 4
  2. BDecreases by 4
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDecreases by 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Decreases by 4

An alpha particle carries away 2 protons and 2 neutrons, so A falls by 4 and Z falls by 2.

Q12In beta decay the proton number:

  1. ADecreases by 1
  2. BIncreases by 1
  3. CStays the same
  4. DDecreases by 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increases by 1

A neutron becomes a proton and an emitted electron, so Z rises by 1 while A is unchanged.

Q13Half-life is affected by:

  1. ATemperature
  2. BPressure
  3. CChemical state
  4. DNone of these
Show answer

Correct answer: D — None of these

Half-life is a fixed property of the isotope. No chemical or physical treatment changes the rate of nuclear decay.

Q14A sample has a half-life of 2 days. After 6 days the fraction remaining is:

  1. A1/2
  2. B1/4
  3. C1/8
  4. D1/6
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/8

Six days is three half-lives: 1 → ½ → ¼ → ⅛. Dividing 1 by 6 is the error the last option is there to catch.

Q15Which radiation is NOT deflected by a magnetic field?

  1. AAlpha
  2. BBeta
  3. CGamma
  4. DAll are deflected
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gamma

Gamma has no charge, so a magnetic field has no effect on it. Alpha and beta are deflected in opposite directions because their charges are opposite.

Q16An alpha source is most dangerous when it is:

  1. AHeld at arm's length
  2. BBehind lead shielding
  3. CInside the body
  4. DIn a sealed container
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Inside the body

Outside the body alpha cannot even pass through skin. Swallowed or inhaled, its very strong ionising power acts directly on living tissue.

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by the mass defect of a nucleus.
Answer

The difference between the total mass of the separate nucleons and the mass of the assembled nucleus. The nucleus is lighter, because energy was released when it formed.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why binding energy per nucleon, rather than total binding energy, is used to compare nuclei.
Answer

Total binding energy simply grows with the number of nucleons. Dividing by that number gives a fair measure of how tightly each nucleon is held, and therefore of stability.

Q3[2 marks]
State the purpose of the moderator and of the control rods in a fission reactor.
Answer

The moderator slows fast neutrons down, because slow neutrons are much more readily absorbed and sustain the chain reaction. The control rods absorb neutrons, and are moved to keep the reaction steady.

Q4[5 marks]
A helium-4 nucleus has a mass defect of 0.0304 u. Calculate its total binding energy in MeV and the binding energy per nucleon. Take 1 u = 931.5 MeV.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = Δm × 931.5[1]
  2. E = 0.0304 × 931.5[1]
  3. E = 28.3 MeV[1]
  4. Divides by the 4 nucleons[1]
  5. = 7.1 MeV per nucleonhigh for such a light nucleus, which is why helium is so stable[1]

28.3 MeV total, 7.1 MeV per nucleon

Q5[8 marks]
The graph of binding energy per nucleon against nucleon number rises to a peak near iron-56 and then falls.
  1. Explain what the peak tells you about iron-56. [2]
  2. Explain, using the graph, why fusion releases energy for light nuclei and fission for heavy ones. [4]
  3. Explain why fusion in a star stops once the core is iron. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Iron-56 has the greatest binding energy per nucleon[1]
  2. So it is the most stable nucleus[1]
  3. Joining light nuclei produces a nucleus higher on the curve[1]
  4. The products are more tightly bound, so energy is released[1]
  5. Splitting a heavy nucleus produces fragments higher on the curve[1]
  6. Again the products are more tightly bound, so energy is released[1]
  7. Fusing iron would produce nuclei lower on the curve, which absorbs energy rather than releasing it[1]
  8. With no energy released, the outward pressure supporting the star fails and the core collapses[1]

iron is most stable; both processes move products up the curve; fusing iron would absorb energy

Q6[6 marks]
Compare nuclear fission and nuclear fusion as sources of electrical power.
  1. State one advantage of fusion over fission. [2]
  2. Explain the main difficulty in building a fusion reactor. [3]
  3. State which process is used in power stations today. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Fusion produces no long-lived radioactive waste — the product is helium[1]
  2. And its fuel, hydrogen isotopes, is effectively unlimitedeither point, developed[1]
  3. Both nuclei are positively charged and repel strongly[1]
  4. They must be brought close enough for the strong nuclear force to act, needing temperatures of millions of kelvin[1]
  5. At those temperatures the plasma cannot touch any container, so it must be confined magnetically, and holding it stable long enough to gain net energy is unsolved[1]
  6. Fission[1]

fusion: no long-lived waste, unlimited fuel; difficulty is containment at millions of kelvin; fission is used today

Q7[6 marks]
A radioactive source has a half-life of 6.0 hours. The initial count rate, corrected for background, is 800 counts per minute.
  1. Calculate the corrected count rate after 18 hours.
  2. Explain why the count rate never reaches exactly zero.
  3. State two factors that do not affect the half-life.
Mark scheme
  1. 18 hours is 3 half-lives18 ÷ 6[1]
  2. Halves three times: 800 → 400 → 200 → 100[1]
  3. 100 counts per minute[1]
  4. Each half-life removes only half of what remains, so some always remains[1]
  5. Temperature or pressure[1]
  6. Chemical state or physical form of the sampleany second valid factor[1]

(a) 100 counts/min (b) halving never reaches zero (c) temperature, pressure, chemical state

Q8[5 marks]
Polonium-218 has proton number 84 and decays by alpha emission to lead. The lead isotope then decays by beta emission.
  1. Write the nucleon and proton numbers of the lead isotope formed.
  2. Write the nucleon and proton numbers of the nucleus formed after the beta decay.
  3. State what happens inside the nucleus during beta decay.
Mark scheme
  1. Alpha: A = 218 − 4 = 214[1]
  2. Z = 84 − 2 = 82lead[1]
  3. Beta: A unchanged at 214[1]
  4. Z = 82 + 1 = 83bismuth[1]
  5. A neutron changes into a proton and an electron, and the electron is emitted[1]

(a) ²¹⁴₈₂Pb (b) ²¹⁴₈₃ (c) a neutron becomes a proton plus an emitted electron

Q9[4 marks]
A source is to be used as a medical tracer, injected into a patient and detected from outside the body.
  1. State which type of radiation is most suitable and why.
  2. State why the half-life should be short but not too short.
Mark scheme
  1. Gamma[1]
  2. It is penetrating enough to leave the body and be detected, and least ionising so it does least damageboth halves wanted[1]
  3. Short, so the activity falls quickly and the patient is not exposed for long[1]
  4. But not so short that it decays away before the scan can be completedthe balance is the point of the question[1]
Q10[2 marks]
State two safety precautions when handling a radioactive source in a school laboratory.
Answer

Handle it with long tongs to increase the distance from the body, and return it to its lead-lined container immediately after use. (Also acceptable: never point it at anyone; minimise exposure time.)

Q11[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by background radiation and name two of its sources.
Answer

The low level of ionising radiation always present in the environment. Sources include radon gas from rocks, cosmic rays, medical X-rays and food.

Q12[9 marks]
A sample of a radioactive isotope gives a corrected count rate of 640 counts per minute. Its half-life is 8.0 days.
  1. Explain what is meant by half-life. [2]
  2. Calculate the corrected count rate after 32 days. [3]
  3. A detector near the sample reads 655 counts per minute at the start. Explain the difference and how it is dealt with. [2]
  4. The isotope emits beta particles. State what happens to the proton number and nucleon number of the nucleus. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The time taken for the number of undecayed nuclei in the sample to halve[1]
  2. Equivalently, the time for the count rate to fall to half its value; the process is random so this is an average[1]
  3. 32 days is 4 half-lives[1]
  4. Uses 640 ÷ 2⁴[1]
  5. = 40 counts per minute[1]
  6. The extra 15 counts per minute is background radiation[1]
  7. It is measured with the source removed and subtracted from every reading[1]
  8. The proton number increases by 1[1]
  9. The nucleon number is unchangeda neutron becomes a proton plus an electron[1]

(b) 40 counts per minute

24

Medical physics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Acoustic impedance is given by:

  1. Aρ/c
  2. Bρc
  3. Cc/ρ
  4. Dρc²
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ρc

Z = ρc, density multiplied by the speed of sound in the medium.

Q2Coupling gel is used because air and skin have very different:

  1. Adensities only
  2. Bacoustic impedances
  3. Ctemperatures
  4. Drefractive indices
Show answer

Correct answer: B — acoustic impedances

The large impedance mismatch would reflect nearly all the ultrasound at the surface. The gel matches the impedance of skin.

Q3An echo returns after time t. The depth of the reflecting boundary is:

  1. Act
  2. Bct/2
  3. C2ct
  4. Dc/t
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ct/2

The pulse travels to the boundary and back, so the one-way distance is half the total path.

Q4X-ray intensity through a material follows:

  1. AI = I₀(1 − µx)
  2. BI = I₀e^(−µx)
  3. CI = I₀/x²
  4. DI = I₀µx
Show answer

Correct answer: B — I = I₀e^(−µx)

Attenuation is exponential — equal thicknesses remove equal fractions of the intensity.

Q5A material has µ = 0.35 cm⁻¹. Its half-value thickness is:

  1. A0.35 cm
  2. B1.98 cm
  3. C2.86 cm
  4. D0.24 cm
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1.98 cm

x½ = ln2/µ = 0.693/0.35 = 1.98 cm. The answer 2.86 cm would come from 1/µ, which is the mean free path, not the half-value thickness.

Q6Each photon from electron-positron annihilation has energy:

  1. A0.51 MeV
  2. B1.02 MeV
  3. C0.26 MeV
  4. D511 J
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0.51 MeV

The combined rest energy of 1.02 MeV is shared between the two photons, giving 0.51 MeV each.

Q7The two annihilation photons travel in opposite directions because of:

  1. Aenergy conservation
  2. Bmomentum conservation
  3. Ccharge conservation
  4. Dthe magnetic field
Show answer

Correct answer: B — momentum conservation

The pair has almost zero momentum before annihilation, so the photons must carry equal and opposite momenta afterwards.

Q8Which imaging method is non-ionising and therefore preferred for a fetus?

  1. AX-ray
  2. BPET
  3. Cultrasound
  4. DCT
Show answer

Correct answer: C — ultrasound

Ultrasound uses sound waves, which do not ionise tissue. X-ray, CT and PET all involve ionising radiation.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why a coupling gel is used between an ultrasound transducer and the skin.
Answer

Air has a far lower acoustic impedance than skin, so at an air–skin boundary almost all the ultrasound would be reflected and very little would enter the body. The gel has an impedance close to that of skin, which removes the air gap and allows the pulse to be transmitted.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why two gamma photons, rather than one, are produced when a positron and an electron annihilate.
Answer

Momentum must be conserved. The electron and positron have almost no momentum before the event, so the total afterwards must be near zero. A single photon would carry momentum in one direction, which is impossible — so two photons are emitted in almost exactly opposite directions.

Q3[4 marks]
An ultrasound pulse returns from a boundary after 65 µs. The speed of sound in the tissue is 1540 m s⁻¹. Find the depth of the boundary. Also calculate the acoustic impedance of tissue of density 1060 kg m⁻³.
Mark scheme
  1. Distance travelled = ct = 1540 × 65 × 10⁻⁶ = 0.1001 mThe total path length, there and back.[1]
  2. Depth = 0.1001/2 = 0.050 m = 5.0 cmHalving for the round trip is the step most often forgotten.[1]
  3. Z = ρc = 1060 × 1540Acoustic impedance is density times speed.[1]
  4. Z = 1.63 × 10⁶ kg m⁻² s⁻¹Typical of soft tissue, and far greater than air.[1]

Depth 5.0 cm; Z = 1.63 × 10⁶ kg m⁻² s⁻¹

Q4[7 marks]
(a) State one advantage and one disadvantage of ultrasound compared with X-ray imaging.
(b) X-rays of intensity I₀ pass through 4.0 cm of bone with µ = 0.60 cm⁻¹. Calculate the fraction transmitted.
(c) Calculate the half-value thickness of the bone.
(d) Explain why PET is described as a functional rather than a structural scan.
(e) Calculate the energy in MeV of each annihilation photon, given the electron mass is 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) Advantage: ultrasound is non-ionising, so it is safe for a fetus. Disadvantage: it gives poorer resolution and cannot image through bone or gas.One of each is required; both must be genuine comparisons.[1]
  2. (b) I/I₀ = e^(−0.60 × 4.0) = e^(−2.4)Units of µ and x are consistent in cm.[1]
  3. = 0.0907, about 9.1%Bone attenuates strongly, which is why it appears white on a radiograph.[1]
  4. (c) x½ = ln2/µ = 0.693/0.60 = 1.16 cm4.0 cm is nearly 3.5 half-value thicknesses, consistent with roughly 9% transmitted.[1]
  5. (d) The tracer accumulates where metabolic activity is highest, so the image shows how tissue is functioning rather than its shape.The contrast with structural imaging must be explicit.[1]
  6. (e) E = mc² = 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ × (3.00 × 10⁸)² = 8.20 × 10⁻¹⁴ JEach photon carries the rest energy of one electron.[1]
  7. E = 8.20 × 10⁻¹⁴ / 1.60 × 10⁻¹³ = 0.51 MeVConverting joules to MeV by dividing by 1.60 × 10⁻¹³.[1]

(b) 9.1%; (c) 1.16 cm; (e) 0.51 MeV

Q5[2 marks]
State what is meant by the half-value thickness, and explain why it does not depend on the initial intensity.
Answer

The half-value thickness is the thickness of a material that reduces the transmitted intensity to half its incident value. It is independent of the initial intensity because the attenuation is exponential: equal thicknesses remove equal fractions, not equal amounts.

25

Astronomy and cosmology

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A standard candle is useful because its:

  1. Adistance is known
  2. Bluminosity is known
  3. Ctemperature is constant
  4. Dradius is known
Show answer

Correct answer: B — luminosity is known

Knowing the true output lets the observed brightness be converted into a distance. If the distance were already known, no candle would be needed.

Q2Radiant flux intensity from a star of luminosity L at distance d is:

  1. AL/(4πd²)
  2. BL/(4πd)
  3. C4πd²L
  4. DL/d
Show answer

Correct answer: A — L/(4πd²)

The light spreads over the surface of a sphere of area 4πd², which is the origin of the inverse square law.

Q3A star with a shorter peak wavelength than another is:

  1. Acooler
  2. Bhotter
  3. Clarger
  4. Dcloser
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hotter

Wien's law is an inverse relationship, so a shorter peak wavelength means a higher surface temperature.

Q4In Stefan's law, luminosity depends on temperature to the power:

  1. A1
  2. B2
  3. C3
  4. D4
Show answer

Correct answer: D — 4

L = 4πr²σT⁴. The fourth power means small temperature differences produce very large differences in output.

Q5Two stars have equal temperature, but one has twice the radius. Its luminosity is:

  1. Atwice
  2. Bfour times
  3. Ceight times
  4. Dsixteen times
Show answer

Correct answer: B — four times

L is proportional to r², so doubling the radius quadruples the luminosity. The fourth power applies to temperature, not radius.

Q6Red shift z is given by:

  1. Aλ/Δλ
  2. BΔλ/λ
  3. CcΔλ
  4. DΔλ·c
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Δλ/λ

z is the fractional change in wavelength, Δλ/λ, and equals v/c for speeds well below the speed of light.

Q7Hubble's law states that recession speed is proportional to:

  1. Abrightness
  2. Bdistance
  3. Ctemperature
  4. Dmass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — distance

v = H₀d. More distant galaxies recede faster, which is the signature of an expanding space.

Q8Galaxies receding in all directions shows that:

  1. AEarth is the centre of the universe
  2. Bspace itself is expanding
  3. Cthe universe is contracting
  4. Dlight slows with distance
Show answer

Correct answer: B — space itself is expanding

Every observer sees the same pattern, which is what expansion of space produces. An ordinary explosion would single out one centre.

Exam-style questions · 5

Q1[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by a standard candle and why it is needed.
Answer

A standard candle is an astronomical object whose luminosity is known independently of its distance — Type Ia supernovae are the standard example. It is needed because a faint appearance could mean either a dim object or a distant one; knowing the true output allows the two to be separated and the distance calculated.

Q2[2 marks]
State Wien's displacement law and explain what it tells you about a blue star compared with a red one.
Answer

λ_max × T = 2.90 × 10⁻³ m K — the peak wavelength is inversely proportional to the surface temperature. A blue star peaks at a shorter wavelength, so it is hotter than a red star.

Q3[4 marks]
A star of luminosity 8.0 × 10²⁶ W is at a distance of 4.0 × 10¹⁷ m. Calculate the radiant flux intensity at Earth. Its peak wavelength is 550 nm; find its surface temperature.
Mark scheme
  1. F = L/(4πd²) = 8.0 × 10²⁶ / (4π × (4.0 × 10¹⁷)²)The distance must be squared inside the bracket.[1]
  2. 4π(1.6 × 10³⁵) = 2.011 × 10³⁶Evaluating the denominator separately reduces errors.[1]
  3. F = 3.98 × 10⁻¹⁰ W m⁻²Very small, as expected at interstellar distances.[1]
  4. T = 2.90 × 10⁻³ / 550 × 10⁻⁹ = 5270 KConverting nanometres to metres first.[1]

F = 3.98 × 10⁻¹⁰ W m⁻², T = 5270 K

Q4[6 marks]
A hydrogen line measured at 656.3 nm in the laboratory is observed at 672.1 nm in light from a distant galaxy.
(a) Calculate the red shift z.
(b) Calculate the recession speed.
(c) Using H₀ = 2.2 × 10⁻¹⁸ s⁻¹, estimate the distance to the galaxy.
(d) Explain how observations of this kind support the Big Bang theory.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) Δλ = 672.1 − 656.3 = 15.8 nmObserved minus laboratory wavelength.[1]
  2. z = Δλ/λ = 15.8/656.3 = 0.0241A dimensionless ratio, so the nm units cancel and need not be converted.[1]
  3. (b) v = zc = 0.0241 × 3.00 × 10⁸ = 7.22 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹Well below c, so the approximation z = v/c is valid.[1]
  4. (c) d = v/H₀ = 7.22 × 10⁶ / 2.2 × 10⁻¹⁸Rearranging Hubble's law.[1]
  5. d = 3.28 × 10²⁴ mRoughly 350 million light years.[1]
  6. (d) Galaxies recede in every direction with speed proportional to distance, so space itself is expanding rather than us sitting at the centre. Extrapolating that expansion backwards implies everything was once together — the Big Bang.The all-directions point is essential; without it the data could be read as an ordinary explosion with us at its centre.[1]

(a) 0.0241; (b) 7.22 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹; (c) 3.28 × 10²⁴ m; (d) expansion in all directions run backwards

Q5[2 marks]
Two stars have the same radius, but one is twice the temperature of the other. Compare their luminosities.
Answer

Stefan's law gives L = 4πr²σT⁴, so with the radius unchanged the luminosity depends on T⁴. Doubling the temperature multiplies the luminosity by 2⁴ = 16.

These questions come from the A Level Physics (9702) lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.