A Level Mathematics (9709) — MCQs & Practice Questions

358 multiple-choice questions and 266 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

New to a topic? Read the A Level Mathematics (9709) notes first, then come back to practise.

01

Pure Mathematics 1

Multiple choice · 56

Q1The equation 2x² + 3x + 5 = 0 has:

  1. ATwo distinct real roots
  2. BOne repeated real root
  3. CNo real roots
  4. DThree roots
Show answer

Correct answer: C — No real roots

Δ = b² − 4ac = 9 − 40 = −31. A negative discriminant means no real roots. Since a > 0 the parabola opens upward, and its minimum lies entirely above the x-axis.

Q2For x² − 6x + 9 = 0, the discriminant is:

  1. A0
  2. B36
  3. C−36
  4. D72
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0

Δ = (−6)² − 4(1)(9) = 36 − 36 = 0, so the roots are equal. The expression is (x − 3)², and the graph touches the x-axis at x = 3 instead of cutting it.

Q3If α and β are the roots of x² − 7x + 12 = 0, then α + β equals:

  1. A−7
  2. B7
  3. C12
  4. D−12
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 7

α + β = −b/a = −(−7)/1 = 7. The two negative signs cancel, which is where most errors occur. Check: the roots are 3 and 4, and 3 + 4 = 7, 3 × 4 = 12 = c/a.

Q4Solving x² = 4x by dividing both sides by x gives x = 4. The error is that:

  1. AThere is no error
  2. BThe root x = 0 has been lost
  3. CThe sign is wrong
  4. Dx² cannot be divided
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The root x = 0 has been lost

Dividing by x assumes x ≠ 0 and discards that root. Correct method: x² − 4x = 0, so x(x − 4) = 0, giving x = 0 or x = 4.

Q5The graph of y = −2x² + 3x + 1 has:

  1. AA minimum point
  2. BA maximum point
  3. CNo turning point
  4. DTwo turning points
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A maximum point

a = −2 is negative, so the parabola opens downward and its turning point is a maximum. Every quadratic has exactly one turning point.

Q6The quadratic equation whose roots are 2 and −5 is:

  1. Ax² + 3x − 10 = 0
  2. Bx² − 3x − 10 = 0
  3. Cx² + 3x + 10 = 0
  4. Dx² − 7x + 10 = 0
Show answer

Correct answer: A — x² + 3x − 10 = 0

Sum = −3 and product = −10, so x² − (−3)x + (−10) = x² + 3x − 10 = 0. Expanding (x − 2)(x + 5) confirms it. Option B comes from dropping the negative sign in the sum formula.

Q7The domain of f(x) = 1/(x − 7) is:

  1. Aall real x
  2. Bx > 7
  3. Call real x except 7
  4. Dx ≥ 7
Show answer

Correct answer: C — all real x except 7

The only forbidden value is the one making the denominator zero, namely x = 7. Everything else, including negatives, is allowed.

Q8The range of f(x) = |x| is:

  1. Aall real y
  2. By ≥ 0
  3. Cy > 0
  4. Dy ≤ 0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — y ≥ 0

A modulus is never negative, and it reaches 0 at x = 0. So the range includes zero, which rules out option C.

Q9If f(x) = 5x − 2, then f⁻¹(x) is:

  1. A(x + 2)/5
  2. B(x − 2)/5
  3. C5x + 2
  4. D1/(5x − 2)
Show answer

Correct answer: A — (x + 2)/5

From y = 5x − 2 we get x = (y + 2)/5. Check: f((x+2)/5) = 5(x+2)/5 − 2 = x ✓. Option D confuses the inverse function with the reciprocal.

Q10If f(x) = x + 3 and g(x) = 2x, then fg(4) equals:

  1. A11
  2. B14
  3. C8
  4. D20
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 11

The inner function acts first: g(4) = 8, then f(8) = 11. Option B is gf(4), which shows why the order matters.

Q11Which function has no inverse over all of ℝ?

  1. Af(x) = 2x
  2. Bf(x) = x³
  3. Cf(x) = x²
  4. Df(x) = x − 5
Show answer

Correct answer: C — f(x) = x²

x² is not one-one, since x and −x share an image. A cubic is one-one over all of ℝ because it is always increasing, so it does have an inverse.

Q12The graph of y = 3ˣ passes through:

  1. A(0, 0)
  2. B(0, 1)
  3. C(1, 0)
  4. D(0, 3)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (0, 1)

Any positive base to the power 0 equals 1, so every exponential graph of this form passes through (0, 1) and never touches the x-axis.

Q13The range of f(x) = −x² + 5 is:

  1. Ay ≥ 5
  2. By ≤ 5
  3. Call real y
  4. Dy ≥ 0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — y ≤ 5

The negative coefficient turns the parabola downward, so the vertex (0, 5) is a maximum and every output is 5 or less.

Q14For a function to have an inverse it must be:

  1. Acontinuous
  2. Bincreasing
  3. Cbijective
  4. Dquadratic
Show answer

Correct answer: C — bijective

One-one guarantees each output identifies its input; onto guarantees every element of the codomain has one. Both together — bijective — are exactly what an inverse needs.

Q15The gradient of 6x + 3y − 9 = 0 is:

  1. A2
  2. B−2
  3. C6
  4. D−1/2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — −2

m = −a/b = −6/3 = −2. Rearranging gives y = −2x + 3, which agrees.

Q16The distance from (0, 0) to the line 3x + 4y − 10 = 0 is:

  1. A10
  2. B2
  3. C5
  4. D0.4
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2

Substitute the point into the general form and divide by √(a² + b²): |3(0) + 4(0) − 10| / √(9 + 16) = 10/5 = 2. The 3–4–5 pattern in the coefficients is why the square root comes out exactly, and examiners choose such coefficients deliberately.

Q17Two lines have gradients 4 and −1/4. They are:

  1. Aparallel
  2. Bperpendicular
  3. Ccoincident
  4. Dat 45°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — perpendicular

4 × (−1/4) = −1, which is the perpendicularity condition. It also makes the denominator of the angle formula zero, so tan θ is undefined and θ = 90°.

Q18The line with x-intercept 2 and y-intercept 5 is:

  1. Ax/2 + y/5 = 1
  2. Bx/5 + y/2 = 1
  3. C2x + 5y = 1
  4. D5x + 2y = 1
Show answer

Correct answer: A — x/2 + y/5 = 1

The intercept form puts each intercept under its own variable. Checking: at y = 0 we get x = 2 ✓, and at x = 0 we get y = 5 ✓.

Q19The centroid of the triangle with vertices (0,0), (6,0) and (0,9) is:

  1. A(3, 4.5)
  2. B(2, 3)
  3. C(6, 9)
  4. D(3, 3)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (2, 3)

Average each coordinate: x = (0+6+0)/3 = 2 and y = (0+0+9)/3 = 3. Option A is the midpoint of the hypotenuse, a different point.

Q20The point dividing the segment from (0,0) to (10,0) in the ratio 3 : 2 is at:

  1. A(4, 0)
  2. B(6, 0)
  3. C(3, 0)
  4. D(5, 0)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (6, 0)

(3×10 + 2×0)/(3+2) = 30/5 = 6. Three parts of the five lie behind it, so it sits closer to the far end — as the answer shows.

Q21The perpendicular distance formula gives a negative value when:

  1. Athe point is below the line
  2. Bnever — the modulus makes it positive
  3. Cthe gradient is negative
  4. Dc is negative
Show answer

Correct answer: B — never — the modulus makes it positive

The numerator is taken in modulus, so the result is always positive. A distance cannot be negative, whichever side of the line the point lies on.

Q22A line parallel to 2x − y + 3 = 0 through (1, 1) is:

  1. A2x − y − 1 = 0
  2. Bx + 2y − 3 = 0
  3. C2x − y + 3 = 0
  4. Dx − 2y + 1 = 0
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 2x − y − 1 = 0

Parallel means the same gradient of 2, so only the constant changes. Substituting (1,1) into 2x − y + k = 0 gives k = −1.

Q23One radian is the angle for which:

  1. Athe arc equals the diameter
  2. Bthe arc equals the radius
  3. Cthe sector is a quarter circle
  4. Dthe chord equals the radius
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the arc equals the radius

The definition compares the arc with the radius. The last option describes a different angle — an arc equal to the radius is 1 rad, but a chord equal to the radius is π/3.

Q24135° in radians is:

  1. A3π/4
  2. B2π/3
  3. C5π/6
  4. D4π/3
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 3π/4

135 × π/180 = 135π/180. Dividing top and bottom by 45 gives 3π/4.

Q25An arc of length 15 cm subtends 1.25 rad at the centre. The radius is:

  1. A9.6 cm
  2. B12 cm
  3. C18.75 cm
  4. D13.4 cm
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 12 cm

Rearranging s = rθ gives r = s/θ = 15 / 1.25 = 12 cm. Multiplying instead of dividing gives 18.75, the tempting wrong answer.

Q26A sector has radius 6 cm and angle 0.5 rad. Its perimeter is:

  1. A3 cm
  2. B9 cm
  3. C15 cm
  4. D12 cm
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 15 cm

The arc is rθ = 3 cm, but the perimeter also includes both radii: 3 + 6 + 6 = 15 cm. Answering 3 cm is the most common error in the topic.

Q27The area of a sector of radius 4 cm with angle 1.5 rad is:

  1. A6 cm²
  2. B12 cm²
  3. C24 cm²
  4. D3 cm²
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 12 cm²

A = ½r²θ = ½ × 16 × 1.5 = 12 cm². Using ½rθ instead of ½r²θ gives 3, and forgetting the ½ gives 24.

Q28Which expression gives the area of a segment?

  1. A½r²θ + ½r² sin θ
  2. B½r²(θ − sin θ)
  3. C½r²(sin θ − θ)
  4. Dr²θ − r² sin θ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ½r²(θ − sin θ)

A segment is the sector minus the triangle: ½r²θ − ½r² sin θ, which factorises to ½r²(θ − sin θ). The order matters — for θ in this range θ > sin θ, so the reversed version would be negative.

Q29Your calculator gives sin 1.2 = 0.0209. This tells you:

  1. Athe answer is correct
  2. Bthe calculator is in degree mode
  3. Cthe angle is too small to matter
  4. Dyou should use cosine instead
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the calculator is in degree mode

In radians sin 1.2 ≈ 0.932. Getting 0.0209 means the calculator read 1.2 as 1.2 degrees, so it is in degree mode and every result in the question will be wrong.

Q30Why does s = rθ produce a length even though θ has no unit?

  1. Abecause θ is secretly in degrees
  2. Bbecause a length times a pure number is a length
  3. Cbecause r is squared
  4. Dbecause the formula includes a hidden π
Show answer

Correct answer: B — because a length times a pure number is a length

θ is a ratio of two lengths, so it is dimensionless. Multiplying the radius by a pure number leaves the unit of the radius untouched, which is exactly what an arc length should be.

Q31On the unit circle, what does cos θ represent?

  1. AThe height of the point above the centre
  2. BThe horizontal distance of the point from the centre
  3. CThe length of the radius
  4. DThe arc length swept out
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The horizontal distance of the point from the centre

The point sits at (cos θ, sin θ). Cosine is the x-coordinate — how far across — and sine is the y-coordinate — how far up. This is why cos starts at 1 (fully right) while sin starts at 0.

Q32Why is tan(90°) undefined?

  1. ABecause sin(90°) = 0
  2. BBecause cos(90°) = 0 and you cannot divide by zero
  3. CBecause 90° is not on the unit circle
  4. DBecause tan only works below 45°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because cos(90°) = 0 and you cannot divide by zero

tan θ = sin θ / cos θ. At 90° the point is straight up at (0, 1), so cos(90°) = 0 and the fraction has a zero denominator. On a graph tan shoots off to infinity there — a vertical asymptote.

Q33What is sin(210°)?

  1. A+0.5
  2. B−0.5
  3. C+0.866
  4. D−0.866
Show answer

Correct answer: B — −0.5

210° is 30° past the 180° mark, putting the point in the third quadrant — left and below centre. The height has the same magnitude as sin(30°) = 0.5 but is now below the axis, so sin(210°) = −0.5.

Q34Convert 60° to radians.

  1. Aπ/2
  2. Bπ/3
  3. Cπ/6
  4. D2π/3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — π/3

Since 180° = π rad, one degree is π/180 rad. So 60° = 60π/180 = π/3. Quick check: π/3 ≈ 1.047 rad, and 1.047 × 57.3 ≈ 60°.

Q35sin²θ + cos²θ equals:

  1. A0
  2. B1
  3. Cθ
  4. Dtan θ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1

It is Pythagoras applied to the radius. The point (cos θ, sin θ) is 1 unit from the origin, so cos²θ + sin²θ = 1². It holds for every angle without exception, which is why it is the workhorse identity of trigonometry.

Q36The graph of y = sin x is shifted so it starts at its maximum. What function is that?

  1. Acos x
  2. B−sin x
  3. Ctan x
  4. Dsin(2x)
Show answer

Correct answer: A — cos x

Cosine is sine shifted left by 90°: cos x = sin(x + 90°). At x = 0 cosine is at its peak of 1, while sine is at 0 and climbing. Both are the same wave viewed from a different starting angle.

Q37The 15th term of the AP 3, 7, 11, … is:

  1. A59
  2. B63
  3. C55
  4. D60
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 59

a = 3 and d = 4, so a₁₅ = 3 + 14(4) = 59. Using 15 × 4 instead of 14 × 4 gives 63, the standard off-by-one.

Q38The common ratio of 81, 27, 9, 3, … is:

  1. A−3
  2. B3
  3. C1/3
  4. D−1/3
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/3

Divide any term by the one before: 27/81 = 1/3. The terms are shrinking, so r must be less than 1 in size.

Q39The sum to infinity of 6 + 3 + 1.5 + … is:

  1. A9
  2. B12
  3. C18
  4. Dit does not exist
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 12

a = 6 and r = 0.5, and |r| < 1 so the sum exists: 6/(1 − 0.5) = 12.

Q40The series 2 + 6 + 18 + 54 + … has a sum to infinity of:

  1. A3
  2. B−1
  3. C0
  4. Dnone — it diverges
Show answer

Correct answer: D — none — it diverges

r = 3, so |r| ≥ 1 and the terms grow rather than shrink. Applying the formula anyway would give 2/(1−3) = −1, an obviously impossible negative total for a series of positive terms.

Q41Inserting three arithmetic means between 4 and 20 gives a sequence with how many terms?

  1. A3
  2. B4
  3. C5
  4. D6
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5

The two given numbers plus the three inserted make five terms in all, so 20 = 4 + 4d and d = 4.

Q42The geometric mean of 4 and 25 is:

  1. A14.5
  2. B10
  3. C29
  4. D100
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10

√(4 × 25) = √100 = 10. Option A is the arithmetic mean, which is larger — as AM ≥ GM guarantees.

Q43Σr from r = 1 to 20 equals:

  1. A210
  2. B400
  3. C190
  4. D420
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 210

Use the standard result Σr = n(n+1)/2 with n = 20: (20 × 21)/2 = 210. Adding the twenty numbers by hand gives the same answer, but the formula is the point — it turns a twenty-step addition into one multiplication and one division, and the same idea scales to Σr² and Σr³.

Q44The sum of the first n terms of an AP is quadratic in n because:

  1. Athe terms are squared
  2. BSₙ = (n/2)[2a + (n−1)d] expands to include n²
  3. Cd is always 2
  4. Dthe terms alternate in sign
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Sₙ = (n/2)[2a + (n−1)d] expands to include n²

Multiplying out gives an + n(n−1)d/2, which contains an n² term. That is why the running-total line on the diagram curves while the terms themselves lie on a straight line.

Q45What does f′(3) = 5 tell you about the graph of f?

  1. AThe graph passes through the point (3, 5)
  2. BAt x = 3 the curve is rising with slope 5
  3. CThe area under the curve up to x = 3 is 5
  4. DThe function equals 5 whenever x = 3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — At x = 3 the curve is rising with slope 5

A derivative is a slope, not a height. f′(3) = 5 says that at the instant x = 3, the curve climbs 5 units of y for every 1 unit of x. The actual height at x = 3 is f(3), which is a completely different number.

Q46Differentiate f(x) = 4x³ − 7x + 2.

  1. A12x² − 7
  2. B12x² − 7x
  3. C4x² − 7
  4. D12x³ − 7
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 12x² − 7

Power rule on each term: 4x³ → 3·4x² = 12x². Then −7x → −7 (the x disappears). The constant +2 → 0, because a constant never changes, so its rate of change is zero.

Q47In the limit definition, why must h approach 0 rather than simply equal 0?

  1. ABecause 0 is not a real number
  2. BBecause the formula would give 0/0, which is undefined
  3. CBecause the secant line would become vertical
  4. DBecause f(x) must stay positive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because the formula would give 0/0, which is undefined

Substituting h = 0 directly gives [f(x) − f(x)]/0 = 0/0 — meaningless. The limit lets us ask what the expression heads toward as h shrinks, without ever dividing by zero.

Q48What is the derivative of sin(5x)?

  1. Acos(5x)
  2. B5 cos(5x)
  3. C5 sin(5x)
  4. D−5 cos(5x)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 5 cos(5x)

Chain rule. Outer function sin → cos(5x). Inner function 5x has derivative 5. Multiply them: 5 cos(5x). Forgetting the inner 5 is the single most common slip in calculus.

Q49A Riemann sum with n = 10 left rectangles underestimates the area under an increasing curve. What happens as n increases?

  1. AThe underestimate gets worse
  2. BThe estimate converges toward the true area
  3. CThe estimate overshoots and stays above
  4. DNothing changes; n does not matter
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The estimate converges toward the true area

Each rectangle misses a small triangular sliver above it. Narrower rectangles mean smaller slivers, so the total gap shrinks toward zero. That convergence is exactly what the integral is defined as.

Q50Evaluate ∫₁³ 2x dx.

  1. A4
  2. B8
  3. C9
  4. D6
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 8

The antiderivative of 2x is x². Apply the Fundamental Theorem: F(3) − F(1) = 9 − 1 = 8. Sanity check: the region is a trapezium with parallel sides 2 and 6 and width 2, giving ½(2+6)(2) = 8.

Q51∫ x³ dx equals:

  1. A3x² + C
  2. Bx⁴ + C
  3. Cx⁴/4 + C
  4. D4x⁴ + C
Show answer

Correct answer: C — x⁴/4 + C

Raise the power by one and divide by the new power: x⁴/4 + C. Answer A is the derivative rather than the integral — the classic direction error. Check any integration by differentiating your answer: d/dx (x⁴/4) = x³. ✓

Q52Why does the power rule for integration exclude n = −1?

  1. ANegative powers cannot be integrated
  2. BIt would require dividing by zero
  3. CThe result would be imaginary
  4. DThe integral does not exist
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It would require dividing by zero

The rule divides by n + 1, which is zero when n = −1. The integral certainly exists — it is ln|x| + C. The modulus signs matter, since 1/x is defined for negative x but the logarithm is not.

Q53∫₀² 3x² dx equals:

  1. A8
  2. B12
  3. C4
  4. D6
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 8

The antiderivative is x³, so the value is 2³ − 0³ = 8. A common slip is forgetting to subtract the lower limit, or integrating to x³/3 by dividing by the new power while ignoring the 3 already in front.

Q54The "+C" appears in indefinite integrals because:

  1. AIt makes the answer look complete
  2. BDifferentiation destroys constants, so many functions share one derivative
  3. CIt represents the area under the curve
  4. DIt cancels the dx
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Differentiation destroys constants, so many functions share one derivative

x², x² + 5 and x² − 100 all differentiate to 2x, so reversing the process cannot recover which one you started from. C stands for that whole family. It disappears in definite integrals because it cancels in F(b) − F(a).

Q55Which technique is the reverse of the chain rule?

  1. AIntegration by parts
  2. BIntegration by substitution
  3. CPartial fractions
  4. DTrigonometric identities
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Integration by substitution

Substitution undoes the chain rule; integration by parts undoes the product rule. Recognising which rule created the expression is usually the fastest route to choosing the right technique.

Q56A velocity–time graph is integrated with respect to time. The result represents:

  1. AAcceleration
  2. BDisplacement
  3. CForce
  4. DPower
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Displacement

Integrating velocity accumulates distance travelled, giving displacement — the same thing as the area under the graph. Differentiating instead would give acceleration, which is the mirror-image operation.

Exam-style questions · 47

Q1[2 marks]
State what the discriminant of a quadratic tells you, and write it down.
Answer

The discriminant is b² − 4ac. It gives the number of real roots: two if positive, one repeated if zero, none if negative.

Q2[3 marks]
Find the value of k for which x² + kx + 9 = 0 has exactly one real root.
Answer

b² − 4ac = 0 → k² − 36 = 0 → k = ±6

Q3[2 marks]
Write down the coordinates of the turning point of y = (x − 3)² + 5 and state whether it is a maximum or a minimum.
Answer

(3, 5), a minimum, because the coefficient of the squared term is positive.

Q4[6 marks]
Solve 2x² − 7x + 3 = 0 by two different methods and show that they agree.
Mark scheme
  1. Factorising: (2x − 1)(x − 3) = 0[1]
  2. x = 1/2 or x = 3[1]
  3. Formula: identifies a = 2, b = −7, c = 3[1]
  4. x = [7 ± √(49 − 24)] / 4[1]
  5. = (7 ± 5)/4[1]
  6. x = 3 or x = 1/2, the same pair[1]

x = 1/2 and x = 3

Q5[7 marks]
A ball is thrown upward. Its height in metres after t seconds is h = 20t − 5t².
  1. Write h in completed square form. [3]
  2. Hence state the greatest height reached and the time at which it occurs. [2]
  3. Find the total time the ball is in the air. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Takes out the factor: h = −5(t² − 4t)[1]
  2. Completes the square inside: t² − 4t = (t − 2)² − 4[1]
  3. h = −5[(t − 2)² − 4] = 20 − 5(t − 2)²[1]
  4. Greatest height = 20 mthe squared term is zero there[1]
  5. At t = 2 s[1]
  6. Sets h = 0: t(20 − 5t) = 0[1]
  7. t = 4 st = 0 is the moment of throwing[1]

(a) 20 − 5(t − 2)² (b) 20 m at t = 2 s (c) 4 s

Q6[6 marks]
The line y = x + k is a tangent to the curve y = x² + 3x + 4.
  1. Show that x² + 2x + (4 − k) = 0. [2]
  2. Use the discriminant to find k. [3]
  3. Find the coordinates of the point of contact. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Equates the two expressions: x + k = x² + 3x + 4[1]
  2. Rearranges to x² + 2x + 4 − k = 0[1]
  3. A tangent means one repeated root, so b² − 4ac = 0[1]
  4. 4 − 4(4 − k) = 0[1]
  5. 4 − 16 + 4k = 0 → k = 3[1]
  6. x² + 2x + 1 = 0 → x = −1, so the point is (−1, 2)[1]

k = 3, touching at (−1, 2)

Q7[2 marks]
State the domain of f(x) = 1 / (x² − 9).
Answer

The denominator is zero when x² = 9, that is at x = 3 and x = −3. The domain is therefore all real numbers except 3 and −3.

Q8[2 marks]
Explain why f(x) = x² defined on all of ℝ has no inverse function.
Answer

It is not one-one: f(3) = f(−3) = 9, so the output 9 does not identify a unique input. An inverse would have to assign two values to 9, which no function may do. Restricting the domain to x ≥ 0 makes it one-one and the inverse √x then exists.

Q9[2 marks]
State the range of f(x) = x² + 3.
Answer

Since x² ≥ 0 for every real x, the smallest value of f is 3, reached at x = 0. The range is f(x) ≥ 3.

Q10[4 marks]
Given f(x) = 2x + 1 and g(x) = x² − 3, find fg(x), gf(x) and the value of x for which fg(x) = gf(x).
Mark scheme
  1. fg(x) = f(x² − 3) = 2(x² − 3) + 1 = 2x² − 5substitute the whole of g into f[1]
  2. gf(x) = g(2x + 1) = (2x + 1)² − 3 = 4x² + 4x − 2expand the bracket fully[1]
  3. Set them equal: 2x² − 5 = 4x² + 4x − 2, so 2x² + 4x + 3 = 0[1]
  4. Discriminant = 16 − 24 = −8 < 0, so there is no real value of x for which they are equala reasoned "no solution" is the answer, not an omission[1]

fg(x) = 2x² − 5; gf(x) = 4x² + 4x − 2; no real x makes them equal

Q11[4 marks]
The function f(x) = (2x − 3)/(x + 1) is defined for x ≠ −1. Find f⁻¹(x).
Mark scheme
  1. Let y = (2x − 3)/(x + 1) and multiply up: y(x + 1) = 2x − 3clear the fraction before rearranging[1]
  2. xy + y = 2x − 3, so xy − 2x = −3 − ygather every term containing x on one side[1]
  3. x(y − 2) = −(3 + y), so x = −(y + 3)/(y − 2)factorising out x is the key step[1]
  4. f⁻¹(x) = −(x + 3)/(x − 2), or equivalently (x + 3)/(2 − x)either form accepted[1]

f⁻¹(x) = (x + 3)/(2 − x), x ≠ 2

Q12[6 marks]
The function f is defined by f(x) = √(x − 4).
  1. State the domain and the range of f.
  2. Find f⁻¹(x) and state its domain.
  3. Explain the relationship between the domain and range of f and those of f⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Need x − 4 ≥ 0, so the domain is x ≥ 4a square root requires a non-negative argument[1]
  2. A square root is never negative, so the range is f(x) ≥ 0[1]
  3. y = √(x − 4) gives y² = x − 4, so x = y² + 4squaring is safe here because y ≥ 0[1]
  4. f⁻¹(x) = x² + 4[1]
  5. Domain of f⁻¹ is x ≥ 0not all of ℝ — it must match the range of f[1]
  6. The domain of f⁻¹ is the range of f, and the range of f⁻¹ is the domain of f — the inverse swaps the two sets[1]

(a) domain x ≥ 4, range f(x) ≥ 0 (b) f⁻¹(x) = x² + 4 with domain x ≥ 0 (c) inverting swaps domain and range

Q13[2 marks]
Find the gradient of the line 5x − 2y + 7 = 0.
Answer

Using m = −a/b = −5/(−2) = 5/2. Rearranging confirms it: 2y = 5x + 7, so y = (5/2)x + 3.5.

Q14[2 marks]
Write the equation of the line with x-intercept 4 and y-intercept −3.
Answer

Intercept form: x/4 + y/(−3) = 1, which rearranges to 3x − 4y = 12.

Q15[2 marks]
State the condition for two lines to be perpendicular, and give an example.
Answer

Their gradients multiply to −1, so each is the negative reciprocal of the other. Example: y = 2x and y = −x/2, since 2 × (−1/2) = −1.

Q16[4 marks]
Find the perpendicular distance from (−1, 4) to the line 3x + 4y − 10 = 0.
Mark scheme
  1. Identifies a = 3, b = 4, c = −10, with the line already in general form[1]
  2. Substitutes the point: 3(−1) + 4(4) − 10 = −3 + 16 − 10 = 3[1]
  3. √(9 + 16) = 5[1]
  4. d = |3|/5 = 0.6 unitsthe modulus makes the distance positive[1]

0.6 units

Q17[4 marks]
Find the acute angle between the lines y = 3x + 1 and y = −2x + 5.
Mark scheme
  1. m₁ = 3 and m₂ = −2[1]
  2. tan θ = |(−2 − 3)/(1 + (3)(−2))| = |−5/−5|both numerator and denominator are negative[1]
  3. = 1[1]
  4. θ = 45°[1]

45°

Q18[6 marks]
The triangle ABC has vertices A(1, 2), B(7, 4) and C(3, 8).
  1. Find the equation of the median from A.
  2. Find the coordinates of the centroid.
  3. Find the perpendicular distance from C to the line AB.
Mark scheme
  1. Midpoint of BC = ((7+3)/2, (4+8)/2) = (5, 6)a median joins a vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side[1]
  2. Gradient of the median = (6 − 2)/(5 − 1) = 1, so y − 2 = 1(x − 1), giving y = x + 1[1]
  3. Centroid = ((1+7+3)/3, (2+4+8)/3) = (11/3, 14/3)average of the three vertices[1]
  4. Gradient of AB = (4 − 2)/(7 − 1) = 1/3, so AB is x − 3y + 5 = 0from y − 2 = (1/3)(x − 1), cleared of fractions[1]
  5. Substituting C(3, 8): |3 − 24 + 5| = 16[1]
  6. d = 16/√(1 + 9) = 16/√10 = 5.06 unitsaccept 16√10/10[1]

(a) y = x + 1 (b) (11/3, 14/3) (c) 16/√10 ≈ 5.06 units

Q19[2 marks]
Define a radian, and explain why an angle measured in radians has no units.
Answer

A radian is the angle subtended at the centre of a circle by an arc equal in length to the radius. It has no units because it is a length divided by a length, so the units cancel.

Q20[3 marks]
A sector of a circle of radius 12 cm has an angle of 0.6 radians at the centre. Find (a) the arc length, (b) the perimeter of the sector.
Mark scheme
  1. s = rθ = 12 × 0.6 = 7.2 cmDirect substitution into the arc length formula.[1]
  2. Perimeter = arc + two radii = 7.2 + 12 + 12The sector is bounded by the arc and both straight radii.[1]
  3. Perimeter = 31.2 cmA perimeter is a length, so the unit stays centimetres.[1]

Arc 7.2 cm; perimeter 31.2 cm

Q21[4 marks]
A circle has radius 10 cm. A chord subtends an angle of 1.4 radians at the centre. Find the area of the minor segment cut off by the chord, giving your answer to 3 significant figures.
Mark scheme
  1. Sector area = ½r²θ = ½ × 100 × 1.4 = 70 cm²The sector containing the segment.[1]
  2. Triangle area = ½r² sin θ = ½ × 100 × sin 1.4Two sides are radii and the included angle is θ, so ½ab sin C applies with a = b = r.[1]
  3. = 50 × 0.98545 = 49.27 cm²The calculator must be in radian mode: sin 1.4 = 0.985, not 0.0244.[1]
  4. Segment = 70 − 49.27 = 20.7 cm²Segment is sector minus triangle; rounded to 3 s.f.[1]

20.7 cm²

Q22[6 marks]
The diagram shows a sector OAB of a circle centre O with radius 9 cm, where angle AOB = θ radians. The perimeter of the sector is 33 cm.
(a) Find θ.
(b) Hence find the area of the sector.
(c) Find the area of the triangle OAB, and state what the difference between your answers to (b) and (c) represents.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) Perimeter = rθ + 2r, so 9θ + 18 = 33Setting up the perimeter correctly is the step being tested.[1]
  2. 9θ = 15, so θ = 5/3 ≈ 1.67 radLeave it exact where possible; the fraction is cleaner for part (b).[1]
  3. (b) A = ½r²θ = ½ × 81 × 5/3Substituting the exact value avoids rounding error carrying forward.[1]
  4. = 67.5 cm²Exact, because 81 × 5 / 6 divides cleanly.[1]
  5. (c) Triangle = ½r² sin θ = ½ × 81 × sin(5/3) = 40.5 × 0.99575 = 40.3 cm²Radian mode again; sin(5/3 rad) is close to 1 because 5/3 rad is near 95°.[1]
  6. Difference = 67.5 − 40.3 = 27.2 cm², which is the area of the segment cut off by chord AB.The final mark is for naming the region, not for the subtraction.[1]

θ = 5/3 rad; sector 67.5 cm²; triangle 40.3 cm²; difference 27.2 cm² is the segment

Q23[2 marks]
Explain why the formula A = ½r²θ gives the area of the whole circle when θ = 2π.
Answer

Substituting θ = 2π gives A = ½r²(2π) = πr², the standard area of a circle. This works because 2π radians is a complete turn, so the sector becomes the entire disc.

Q24[2 marks]
State the sine rule and say when it is used in preference to the cosine rule.
Answer

a/sin A = b/sin B = c/sin C. Use it when you have a matched pair — a side and the angle opposite it — plus one more piece of information.

Q25[2 marks]
Write down the exact values of sin 30°, cos 60° and tan 45°.
Answer

sin 30° = 1/2, cos 60° = 1/2, tan 45° = 1

Q26[3 marks]
Prove that (1 − cos²θ)/(sin θ cos θ) = tan θ.
Answer

1 − cos²θ = sin²θ, so the expression is sin²θ/(sin θ cos θ) = sin θ/cos θ = tan θ.

Q27[6 marks]
In triangle ABC, AB = 7.0 cm, AC = 9.0 cm and angle BAC = 52°.
  1. Calculate BC. [3]
  2. Calculate the area of the triangle. [2]
  3. Calculate angle ABC. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses the cosine rule a² = b² + c² − 2bc cos Atwo sides and the included angle[1]
  2. BC² = 49 + 81 − 2(7)(9)cos 52°[1]
  3. BC = 7.29 cm[1]
  4. Uses ½ab sin C = ½(7)(9)sin 52°[1]
  5. = 24.8 cm²[1]
  6. Sine rule: sin B = 9 sin 52° / 7.29 → B = 76.6°[1]

(a) 7.29 cm (b) 24.8 cm² (c) 76.6°

Q28[7 marks]
A vertical mast stands on level ground. From a point P the angle of elevation of the top is 34°. From a point Q, 45 m closer to the mast and in line with P, the angle of elevation is 58°.
  1. Draw a labelled diagram of the situation. [1]
  2. Calculate the height of the mast. [5]
  3. Calculate the distance of Q from the foot of the mast. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Diagram with the mast vertical, both angles marked at ground level and PQ = 45 m[1]
  2. Lets the height be h and the distance from Q be d[1]
  3. From Q: h = d tan 58°[1]
  4. From P: h = (d + 45) tan 34°[1]
  5. Equates: d tan 58° = (d + 45) tan 34°[1]
  6. Solves: d(1.600 − 0.6745) = 30.35 → d = 32.8 m[1]
  7. h = 32.8 × tan 58° = 52.5 m[1]

height ≈ 52.5 m, Q is ≈ 32.8 m from the foot

Q29[5 marks]
Solve 2 sin θ = 1 for 0° ≤ θ ≤ 360°.
  1. Find the principal value. [2]
  2. Find all solutions in the given range and justify how you found the second. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. sin θ = 1/2[1]
  2. θ = 30°[1]
  3. Sine is also positive in the second quadrant[1]
  4. θ = 180° − 30° = 150°[1]
  5. No further solutions in the range, so θ = 30° and 150°[1]

θ = 30° and 150°

Q30[2 marks]
Distinguish between a sequence and a series.
Answer

A sequence is an ordered list of terms, such as 2, 5, 8, 11. A series is the sum of the terms of a sequence, such as 2 + 5 + 8 + 11 = 26.

Q31[2 marks]
Find the 20th term of the AP 7, 11, 15, …
Answer

a = 7 and d = 4, so a₂₀ = 7 + 19(4) = 7 + 76 = 83.

Q32[2 marks]
State the condition for an infinite geometric series to have a sum, and give the formula.
Answer

The sum to infinity exists only when |r| < 1, and then S∞ = a / (1 − r).

Q33[4 marks]
The sum of the first 10 terms of an AP is 155 and the sum of the first 20 is 610. Find a and d.
Mark scheme
  1. S₁₀ = 5[2a + 9d] = 155, so 2a + 9d = 31divide through by 5 immediately to keep the numbers small[1]
  2. S₂₀ = 10[2a + 19d] = 610, so 2a + 19d = 61[1]
  3. Subtracting: 10d = 30, so d = 3the 2a terms cancel[1]
  4. 2a + 27 = 31, so a = 2check: S₁₀ = 5(4 + 27) = 155 ✓[1]

a = 2, d = 3

Q34[4 marks]
Express the recurring decimal 0.4747… as a fraction by summing an infinite geometric series.
Mark scheme
  1. Writes it as 0.47 + 0.0047 + 0.000047 + …each block of two digits is one term[1]
  2. Identifies a = 0.47 and r = 0.01each term is the previous one divided by 100[1]
  3. |r| < 1, so S∞ = 0.47 / (1 − 0.01) = 0.47 / 0.99the condition should be stated[1]
  4. = 47/99[1]

47/99

Q35[6 marks]
A ball is dropped from a height of 8 m. After each bounce it rises to three quarters of its previous height.
  1. Find the height it reaches after the fourth bounce.
  2. Find the total distance travelled before it comes to rest.
  3. Explain why the total distance is finite even though the ball bounces infinitely often.
Mark scheme
  1. Heights form a GP with a = 8 and r = 0.75; after the 4th bounce the height is 8(0.75)⁴the drop height is the term before the first bounce[1]
  2. = 2.53 m (3 s.f.)[1]
  3. Total distance = the initial 8 m drop + twice each subsequent rise, since each bounce goes up and comes back downthe factor of 2 is the mark most often missed[1]
  4. Rises form a GP with first term 8(0.75) = 6 and r = 0.75, so their sum is 6/(1 − 0.75) = 24[1]
  5. Total = 8 + 2(24) = 56 m[1]
  6. Because |r| < 1, the heights shrink geometrically towards zero fast enough for the infinite sum to converge to a finite limitthe explanation must refer to |r| < 1[1]

(a) 2.53 m (b) 56 m (c) the heights form a convergent GP since |r| < 1

Q36[2 marks]
Differentiate y = 5x³ − 2/x with respect to x.
Answer

Write it as 5x³ − 2x⁻¹. Then dy/dx = 15x² + 2x⁻², that is 15x² + 2/x².

Q37[3 marks]
Find the gradient of the curve y = x² − 4x + 1 at the point where x = 3.
Answer

dy/dx = 2x − 4, so at x = 3 the gradient is 2(3) − 4 = 2.

Q38[2 marks]
Explain how the second derivative distinguishes a maximum from a minimum.
Answer

At a stationary point, if d²y/dx² < 0 it is a maximum; if d²y/dx² > 0 it is a minimum.

Q39[7 marks]
A curve has equation y = x³ − 3x² − 9x + 5.
  1. Find dy/dx. [1]
  2. Find the coordinates of both stationary points. [4]
  3. Determine the nature of each. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. dy/dx = 3x² − 6x − 9[1]
  2. Sets it to zero: 3(x² − 2x − 3) = 0[1]
  3. Factorises: (x − 3)(x + 1) = 0, so x = 3 or x = −1[1]
  4. At x = 3: y = 27 − 27 − 27 + 5 = −22[1]
  5. At x = −1: y = −1 − 3 + 9 + 5 = 10[1]
  6. d²y/dx² = 6x − 6; at x = 3 it is +12, a minimum[1]
  7. At x = −1 it is −12, a maximum[1]

Minimum at (3, −22), maximum at (−1, 10)

Q40[8 marks]
An open-topped box is made from a square sheet of card of side 24 cm by cutting a square of side x cm from each corner and folding up the sides.
  1. Show that the volume is V = x(24 − 2x)². [2]
  2. Find the value of x that maximises the volume. [4]
  3. Calculate that maximum volume. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The base is a square of side 24 − 2xa square is removed from both ends[1]
  2. The height is x, so V = x(24 − 2x)²[1]
  3. Expands: V = 576x − 96x² + 4x³[1]
  4. dV/dx = 576 − 192x + 12x²[1]
  5. Sets to zero: 12(x² − 16x + 48) = 0 → (x − 4)(x − 12) = 0[1]
  6. x = 4; x = 12 is rejected because it leaves no base[1]
  7. V = 4 × 16² = 4 × 256[1]
  8. V = 1024 cm³[1]

x = 4 cm giving V = 1024 cm³

Q41[5 marks]
The displacement of a particle is s = 2t³ − 9t² + 12t metres after t seconds.
  1. Find expressions for the velocity and the acceleration. [2]
  2. Find the times at which the particle is instantaneously at rest. [2]
  3. Find the acceleration at the later of those times. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. v = ds/dt = 6t² − 18t + 12[1]
  2. a = dv/dt = 12t − 18[1]
  3. Sets v = 0: 6(t² − 3t + 2) = 0 → (t − 1)(t − 2) = 0[1]
  4. t = 1 s and t = 2 s[1]
  5. At t = 2: a = 24 − 18 = 6 m s⁻²[1]

v = 6t² − 18t + 12, a = 12t − 18; at rest at t = 1 s and 2 s; a = 6 m s⁻² at t = 2 s

Q42[2 marks]
Find ∫ (6x² − 4x + 3) dx.
Answer

2x³ − 2x² + 3x + c

Q43[3 marks]
Evaluate ∫₁³ (2x + 1) dx.
Answer

[x² + x]₁³ = (9 + 3) − (1 + 1) = 10

Q44[2 marks]
Explain what a definite integral represents geometrically.
Answer

The area between the curve and the x axis, between the two limits. Area below the axis counts as negative.

Q45[6 marks]
The curve y = x² − 4x crosses the x axis at two points.
  1. Find the two points of intersection. [2]
  2. Find the area enclosed between the curve and the x axis. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Sets y = 0: x(x − 4) = 0[1]
  2. x = 0 and x = 4[1]
  3. Integrates: ∫(x² − 4x) dx = x³/3 − 2x²[1]
  4. Evaluates: (64/3 − 32) − 0 = −32/3[1]
  5. Recognises the curve is below the axis on this interval[1]
  6. Area = 32/3 ≈ 10.7 square unitsthe magnitude is taken[1]

(a) x = 0 and x = 4 (b) 32/3 square units

Q46[7 marks]
A curve passes through the point (2, 9) and has gradient dy/dx = 3x² − 2x.
  1. Find the equation of the curve. [4]
  2. Find the area under the curve between x = 0 and x = 2. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Integrates: y = x³ − x² + c[1]
  2. Substitutes the point: 9 = 8 − 4 + c[1]
  3. c = 5[1]
  4. y = x³ − x² + 5[1]
  5. Integrates again: ∫₀² (x³ − x² + 5) dx = [x⁴/4 − x³/3 + 5x]₀²[1]
  6. = 4 − 8/3 + 10[1]
  7. = 34/3 ≈ 11.3 square units[1]

(a) y = x³ − x² + 5 (b) 34/3 square units

Q47[6 marks]
The region bounded by y = x + 2 and y = x² is to be found.
  1. Find the x coordinates of the points of intersection. [2]
  2. Write down the integral that gives the enclosed area. [2]
  3. Evaluate it. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Sets x + 2 = x² → x² − x − 2 = 0[1]
  2. (x − 2)(x + 1) = 0, so x = −1 and x = 2[1]
  3. Recognises the line is above the curve between them[1]
  4. Area = ∫₋₁² [(x + 2) − x²] dx[1]
  5. = [x²/2 + 2x − x³/3]₋₁²[1]
  6. = (2 + 4 − 8/3) − (1/2 − 2 + 1/3) = 9/2[1]

x = −1 and 2; area = 9/2 square units

02

Pure Mathematics 2

Multiple choice · 52

Q1|−7| equals:

  1. A−7
  2. B7
  3. C0
  4. Dundefined
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 7

The modulus discards the sign and returns the size, which is 7.

Q2The corner of y = |5x − 15| is at:

  1. A(0, 15)
  2. B(3, 0)
  3. C(−3, 0)
  4. D(15, 0)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (3, 0)

The corner is where the bracket is zero: 5x − 15 = 0 gives x = 3, and the y-value there is 0.

Q3How many solutions does |x + 1| = 6 have?

  1. Anone
  2. Bone
  3. Ctwo
  4. Dinfinitely many
Show answer

Correct answer: C — two

Both x + 1 = 6 and x + 1 = −6 are possible, giving x = 5 and x = −7. A horizontal line above the corner cuts the V twice.

Q4|x − 2| < 5 is equivalent to:

  1. Ax < 7
  2. B−3 < x < 7
  3. Cx < −3 or x > 7
  4. Dx > −3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — −3 < x < 7

x is within 5 of 2, so it lies between 2 − 5 = −3 and 2 + 5 = 7. Less-than always gives one interval.

Q5|x + 4| > 2 is equivalent to:

  1. A−6 < x < −2
  2. Bx < −6 or x > −2
  3. Cx > −2
  4. Dno solutions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x < −6 or x > −2

x is further than 2 from −4, so it lies outside the interval, giving two separate regions.

Q6√(x²) is equal to:

  1. Ax
  2. B|x|
  3. C±x
  4. D
Show answer

Correct answer: B — |x|

The square root sign denotes the non-negative root, so for x = −3 it gives 3, not −3. That is exactly what |x| does.

Q7To solve |2x − 1| = |x + 4|, the safest first step is:

  1. Asquare both sides
  2. Bdivide by x
  3. Cremove the bars and solve
  4. Ddifferentiate
Show answer

Correct answer: A — square both sides

With moduli on both sides, |a| = |b| ⟺ a² = b², so squaring removes both bars without introducing false solutions.

Q8A student solves |x − 3| = 2x by squaring and gets x = 1 and x = −3. They should:

  1. Aaccept both
  2. Bcheck both, and reject x = −3
  3. Creject both
  4. Dsquare again
Show answer

Correct answer: B — check both, and reject x = −3

Only one side carried a modulus, so squaring can invent solutions. At x = −3 the right side is −6, and a modulus cannot be negative, so that root must be discarded.

Q9The remainder when x³ − 2x + 4 is divided by (x − 1) is:

  1. A1
  2. B3
  3. C4
  4. D7
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3

f(1) = 1 − 2 + 4 = 3. The remainder theorem replaces the whole long division with one substitution.

Q10(x − 5) is a factor of f(x) if:

  1. Af(5) = 0
  2. Bf(−5) = 0
  3. Cf(0) = 5
  4. Df(5) = 5
Show answer

Correct answer: A — f(5) = 0

The root of x − 5 is +5, so the factor theorem requires f(5) = 0.

Q11Before dividing x⁴ − 1 by (x − 1), you should write it as:

  1. Ax⁴ − 1
  2. Bx⁴ + 0x³ + 0x² + 0x − 1
  3. Cx⁴ + 1
  4. D(x²)² − 1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x⁴ + 0x³ + 0x² + 0x − 1

Long division aligns terms by degree, so every missing power must appear with a zero coefficient or the columns go out of step.

Q12The remainder when f(x) is divided by (2x − 1) is:

  1. Af(2)
  2. Bf(1)
  3. Cf(1/2)
  4. Df(−1/2)
Show answer

Correct answer: C — f(1/2)

Substitute the root of the divisor. 2x − 1 = 0 gives x = 1/2.

Q13If f(x) = x³ + kx − 10 and (x − 2) is a factor, then k is:

  1. A1
  2. B−1
  3. C5
  4. D−5
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1

f(2) = 8 + 2k − 10 = 0 gives 2k = 2, so k = 1.

Q14Dividing a cubic by a linear factor gives a quotient that is:

  1. Alinear
  2. Bquadratic
  3. Ccubic
  4. Dconstant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — quadratic

The degrees subtract: 3 − 1 = 2. That is why factorising a cubic reduces the problem to a quadratic you can already handle.

Q15A whole-number root of x³ + 2x² − 5x − 6 must divide:

  1. A2
  2. B5
  3. C6
  4. D3
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 6

Any integer root divides the constant term, so the candidates are ±1, ±2, ±3, ±6. Testing x = −1 gives 0, so (x + 1) is a factor.

Q16If dividing f(x) by (x − a) leaves remainder 0, then:

  1. Af(x) has no roots
  2. B(x − a) is a factor of f(x)
  3. Ca = 0
  4. Df(x) is linear
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (x − a) is a factor of f(x)

A zero remainder means the division is exact, which is precisely what it means for (x − a) to be a factor.

Q17log₄ 64 equals:

  1. A3
  2. B4
  3. C16
  4. D256
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 3

Ask "4 to what power gives 64". 4¹ = 4, 4² = 16, 4³ = 64, so the answer is 3. Option B confuses the base with the answer.

Q18log 2 + log 50 equals:

  1. Alog 52
  2. B2
  3. C1
  4. Dlog 100 / log 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2

The product law gives log(2 × 50) = log 100 = 2, since 10² = 100. Option A applies a law for sums that does not exist.

Q19The characteristic of log 0.0072 is:

  1. A−2
  2. B2
  3. C−3
  4. D3
Show answer

Correct answer: C — −3

In standard form 0.0072 = 7.2 × 10⁻³, so the characteristic is the power of 10, namely −3, written 3̄. Shortcut for a number below 1: count the zeros between the decimal point and the first significant figure (here 2) and add one.

Q20If log x = 2.4771, and log 3 = 0.4771, then x is:

  1. A300
  2. B30
  3. C3000
  4. D203
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 300

Same mantissa 0.4771 means the same digits as 3. Characteristic 2 means the power of 10 is 2, so x = 3 × 10² = 300. This is exactly how log tables were used for multiplication.

Q21Which expression equals 3 log x − log y?

  1. Alog(3x − y)
  2. Blog(x³/y)
  3. Clog(3x/y)
  4. Dlog(x³ − y)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — log(x³/y)

The multiplier 3 goes back up as a power giving log(x³), and a difference of logs is the log of a quotient. So the answer is log(x³/y).

Q22Solve 2ˣ = 1/8.

  1. Ax = 3
  2. Bx = −3
  3. Cx = 1/3
  4. Dx = −1/3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x = −3

1/8 = 8⁻¹ = (2³)⁻¹ = 2⁻³, so x = −3. A number smaller than 1 always gives a negative logarithm when the base is greater than 1.

Q23log₃ 5 written in common logs is:

  1. Alog 5 − log 3
  2. Blog 5 / log 3
  3. Clog 5 × log 3
  4. Dlog(5/3)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — log 5 / log 3

Change of base: logₐ b = log b / log a. A quotient of two logarithms is not the same as the logarithm of a quotient — that would be option A or D.

Q24For log₁₀ x to exist, x must be:

  1. Aany real number
  2. Bgreater than 0
  3. Cgreater than or equal to 0
  4. Dan integer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — greater than 0

10 raised to any real power is strictly positive, so no exponent produces 0 or a negative number. The domain of the log function is x > 0, with zero excluded as well as the negatives.

Q25sec θ is equal to:

  1. A1/sin θ
  2. B1/cos θ
  3. C1/tan θ
  4. Dcos θ/sin θ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1/cos θ

The third letter of "sec" is c, which points to cosine. Matching the first letters instead gives the standard wrong answer.

Q26The identity 1 + cot²θ = cosec²θ comes from dividing sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 by:

  1. Acos²θ
  2. Bsin²θ
  3. Ctan²θ
  4. Dsin θ cos θ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sin²θ

Dividing by sin²θ turns the first term into 1, the second into cot²θ, and the right side into cosec²θ.

Q27cos(A + B) equals:

  1. Acos A cos B + sin A sin B
  2. Bcos A cos B − sin A sin B
  3. Ccos A + cos B
  4. Dsin A cos B + cos A sin B
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cos A cos B − sin A sin B

The cosine formula reverses the sign: a plus inside gives a minus outside. The last option is sin(A + B).

Q28Which is NOT a valid form of cos 2A?

  1. Acos²A − sin²A
  2. B2cos²A − 1
  3. C1 − 2sin²A
  4. D2 sin A cos A
Show answer

Correct answer: D — 2 sin A cos A

2 sin A cos A is sin 2A, not cos 2A. The other three are equivalent forms of cos 2A.

Q29For 8 sin θ + 6 cos θ = R sin(θ + α), the value of R is:

  1. A14
  2. B10
  3. C48
  4. D2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10

R = √(8² + 6²) = √100 = 10. Adding the coefficients instead of using Pythagoras gives 14, the tempting wrong answer.

Q30The maximum value of 7 sin θ − 24 cos θ is:

  1. A31
  2. B25
  3. C24
  4. D7
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 25

The maximum is R = √(49 + 576) = √625 = 25, since the combined wave has amplitude R.

Q31Solving sin 2θ = 0.5 for 0° ⩽ θ ⩽ 360°, the interval you should search is:

  1. A0° to 360°
  2. B0° to 720°
  3. C0° to 180°
  4. D−360° to 360°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0° to 720°

If θ reaches 360° then 2θ reaches 720°, so all solutions must be found across two revolutions before halving.

Q32To solve 2 sin θ cos θ = sin θ, you should:

  1. Adivide both sides by sin θ
  2. Bfactorise as sin θ(2cos θ − 1) = 0
  3. Csquare both sides
  4. Dreplace sin θ with √(1 − cos²θ)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — factorise as sin θ(2cos θ − 1) = 0

Dividing by sin θ throws away every solution where sin θ = 0. Factorising keeps both families of solutions.

Q33What does f′(3) = 5 tell you about the graph of f?

  1. AThe graph passes through the point (3, 5)
  2. BAt x = 3 the curve is rising with slope 5
  3. CThe area under the curve up to x = 3 is 5
  4. DThe function equals 5 whenever x = 3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — At x = 3 the curve is rising with slope 5

A derivative is a slope, not a height. f′(3) = 5 says that at the instant x = 3, the curve climbs 5 units of y for every 1 unit of x. The actual height at x = 3 is f(3), which is a completely different number.

Q34Differentiate f(x) = 4x³ − 7x + 2.

  1. A12x² − 7
  2. B12x² − 7x
  3. C4x² − 7
  4. D12x³ − 7
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 12x² − 7

Power rule on each term: 4x³ → 3·4x² = 12x². Then −7x → −7 (the x disappears). The constant +2 → 0, because a constant never changes, so its rate of change is zero.

Q35In the limit definition, why must h approach 0 rather than simply equal 0?

  1. ABecause 0 is not a real number
  2. BBecause the formula would give 0/0, which is undefined
  3. CBecause the secant line would become vertical
  4. DBecause f(x) must stay positive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because the formula would give 0/0, which is undefined

Substituting h = 0 directly gives [f(x) − f(x)]/0 = 0/0 — meaningless. The limit lets us ask what the expression heads toward as h shrinks, without ever dividing by zero.

Q36What is the derivative of sin(5x)?

  1. Acos(5x)
  2. B5 cos(5x)
  3. C5 sin(5x)
  4. D−5 cos(5x)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 5 cos(5x)

Chain rule. Outer function sin → cos(5x). Inner function 5x has derivative 5. Multiply them: 5 cos(5x). Forgetting the inner 5 is the single most common slip in calculus.

Q37A Riemann sum with n = 10 left rectangles underestimates the area under an increasing curve. What happens as n increases?

  1. AThe underestimate gets worse
  2. BThe estimate converges toward the true area
  3. CThe estimate overshoots and stays above
  4. DNothing changes; n does not matter
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The estimate converges toward the true area

Each rectangle misses a small triangular sliver above it. Narrower rectangles mean smaller slivers, so the total gap shrinks toward zero. That convergence is exactly what the integral is defined as.

Q38Evaluate ∫₁³ 2x dx.

  1. A4
  2. B8
  3. C9
  4. D6
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 8

The antiderivative of 2x is x². Apply the Fundamental Theorem: F(3) − F(1) = 9 − 1 = 8. Sanity check: the region is a trapezium with parallel sides 2 and 6 and width 2, giving ½(2+6)(2) = 8.

Q39∫ x³ dx equals:

  1. A3x² + C
  2. Bx⁴ + C
  3. Cx⁴/4 + C
  4. D4x⁴ + C
Show answer

Correct answer: C — x⁴/4 + C

Raise the power by one and divide by the new power: x⁴/4 + C. Answer A is the derivative rather than the integral — the classic direction error. Check any integration by differentiating your answer: d/dx (x⁴/4) = x³. ✓

Q40Why does the power rule for integration exclude n = −1?

  1. ANegative powers cannot be integrated
  2. BIt would require dividing by zero
  3. CThe result would be imaginary
  4. DThe integral does not exist
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It would require dividing by zero

The rule divides by n + 1, which is zero when n = −1. The integral certainly exists — it is ln|x| + C. The modulus signs matter, since 1/x is defined for negative x but the logarithm is not.

Q41∫₀² 3x² dx equals:

  1. A8
  2. B12
  3. C4
  4. D6
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 8

The antiderivative is x³, so the value is 2³ − 0³ = 8. A common slip is forgetting to subtract the lower limit, or integrating to x³/3 by dividing by the new power while ignoring the 3 already in front.

Q42The "+C" appears in indefinite integrals because:

  1. AIt makes the answer look complete
  2. BDifferentiation destroys constants, so many functions share one derivative
  3. CIt represents the area under the curve
  4. DIt cancels the dx
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Differentiation destroys constants, so many functions share one derivative

x², x² + 5 and x² − 100 all differentiate to 2x, so reversing the process cannot recover which one you started from. C stands for that whole family. It disappears in definite integrals because it cancels in F(b) − F(a).

Q43Which technique is the reverse of the chain rule?

  1. AIntegration by parts
  2. BIntegration by substitution
  3. CPartial fractions
  4. DTrigonometric identities
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Integration by substitution

Substitution undoes the chain rule; integration by parts undoes the product rule. Recognising which rule created the expression is usually the fastest route to choosing the right technique.

Q44A velocity–time graph is integrated with respect to time. The result represents:

  1. AAcceleration
  2. BDisplacement
  3. CForce
  4. DPower
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Displacement

Integrating velocity accumulates distance travelled, giving displacement — the same thing as the area under the graph. Differentiating instead would give acceleration, which is the mirror-image operation.

Q45f is continuous, f(2) = −3 and f(3) = 4. This shows that:

  1. Af has no root between 2 and 3
  2. Bf has a root between 2 and 3
  3. Cf has exactly one root between 2 and 3
  4. Df has a turning point between 2 and 3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — f has a root between 2 and 3

A sign change guarantees at least one root, not exactly one — there could be three. The word "exactly" makes the third option a stronger claim than the evidence supports.

Q46The sign-change test can fail to indicate a root when:

  1. Athe interval is too wide
  2. Bthe function is not continuous
  3. Cthe root is irrational
  4. Df(a) and f(b) are both large
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the function is not continuous

A discontinuity such as an asymptote lets the function change sign without ever taking the value zero. 1/(x − 2) is the standard counter-example.

Q47For the iteration x₍ₙ₊₁₎ = F(xₙ), the value it converges to satisfies:

  1. AF(x) = 0
  2. Bx = F(x)
  3. CF′(x) = 0
  4. Dx = 0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x = F(x)

If the sequence settles, the input and output stop differing, so the limit satisfies x = F(x). That is why the rearrangement had to be into this form.

Q48An iteration produces 2, 5, 122, 1815848. This means:

  1. Ait has converged
  2. Bit has diverged
  3. Cthe root is very large
  4. Dyou should keep going
Show answer

Correct answer: B — it has diverged

The values are growing without limit, so this rearrangement diverges. Continuing will not help — a different rearrangement is needed.

Q49To show x³ − 5x + 1 = 0 can be written as x = ∛(5x − 1), you should:

  1. Astart from x = ∛(5x − 1) and cube it
  2. Bstart from the given equation and rearrange forwards
  3. Csubstitute a value into both
  4. Ddifferentiate both sides
Show answer

Correct answer: B — start from the given equation and rearrange forwards

Examiners want the given equation transformed into the target. Working backwards from the answer proves the same thing but can lose the mark for direction.

Q50Iterating gives x₄ = 2.4471 and x₅ = 2.4468. To 3 decimal places the root is:

  1. A2.447
  2. B2.446
  3. C2.4470
  4. Dnot yet determined
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 2.447

Both values round to 2.447, so they agree at 3 d.p. and the iteration can stop. Quoting 2.4470 gives four decimal places, which is more than was asked for.

Q51Why keep more decimal places than the final answer needs?

  1. Ato look more accurate
  2. Bbecause rounding each step lets the error build up
  3. Cbecause the calculator requires it
  4. Dto make the sequence converge faster
Show answer

Correct answer: B — because rounding each step lets the error build up

Each rounded value is fed back into the formula, so an early rounding error is carried into every subsequent term and can shift the final digit.

Q52Near the root, an iteration converges when the graph of y = F(x) is:

  1. Asteeper than y = x
  2. Bshallower than y = x
  3. Cparallel to the x-axis
  4. Dabove y = x
Show answer

Correct answer: B — shallower than y = x

A shallower curve means each bounce between the curve and the line lands nearer the root. A steeper one magnifies the gap each time, which is the diverging case.

Exam-style questions · 39

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the equation |2x + 1| = −3 has no solutions.
Answer

A modulus measures a distance, so |2x + 1| is never negative for any real x. It can therefore never equal −3, and the equation has no solutions.

Q2[3 marks]
Solve |x − 4| = 7.
Mark scheme
  1. Either x − 4 = 7 or x − 4 = −7Both cases must be written down; this is where the second solution comes from.[1]
  2. x = 11From the positive case.[1]
  3. x = −3From the negative case. Giving only x = 11 scores one mark out of three.[1]

x = 11 or x = −3

Q3[4 marks]
Solve the inequality |2x − 5| < 3.
Mark scheme
  1. Write as a double inequality: −3 < 2x − 5 < 3A less-than modulus gives a single interval, so this form is available immediately.[1]
  2. Add 5 throughout: 2 < 2x < 8Whatever is done must be done to all three parts.[1]
  3. Divide by 2: 1 < x < 4Dividing by a positive number leaves the inequality signs unchanged.[1]
  4. Solution set: 1 < x < 4Stated as an interval. Writing it as two separate inequalities joined by "or" would be the answer to the greater-than version and is wrong here.[1]

1 < x < 4

Q4[6 marks]
The functions f and g are given by f(x) = |x + 2| and g(x) = |3x − 6|.
(a) Sketch both graphs on the same axes, stating the coordinates of each corner.
(b) Solve f(x) = g(x).
(c) Hence state the set of values of x for which f(x) > g(x).
Mark scheme
  1. (a) f is a V with corner at (−2, 0); g is a V with corner at (2, 0) and steeper arms of gradient ±3.The corner is where each bracket equals zero.[1]
  2. Both graphs sketched with correct V shapes and corners on the x-axis.Relative steepness matters for reading off part (c).[1]
  3. (b) Square both sides: (x + 2)² = (3x − 6)²Valid since both sides are moduli.[1]
  4. x² + 4x + 4 = 9x² − 36x + 36, so 8x² − 40x + 32 = 0, that is x² − 5x + 4 = 0Dividing by 8 simplifies the factorising.[1]
  5. (x − 1)(x − 4) = 0, so x = 1 or x = 4Two intersection points, as the sketch predicts.[1]
  6. (c) From the sketch f is above g between the intersections, so 1 < x < 4.The sketch decides which region, which is why part (a) came first.[1]

(a) corners (−2, 0) and (2, 0); (b) x = 1 or x = 4; (c) 1 < x < 4

Q5[2 marks]
State the coordinates of the corner of the graph y = |4x + 10|, and the gradients of its two arms.
Answer

The bracket is zero when 4x + 10 = 0, so x = −2.5 and the corner is at (−2.5, 0). The arms have gradients 4 and −4.

Q6[2 marks]
State the remainder theorem.
Answer

When a polynomial f(x) is divided by (x − a), the remainder is f(a) — the value obtained by substituting x = a into the polynomial.

Q7[2 marks]
Find the remainder when x³ + 2x² − 5x + 1 is divided by (x − 2).
Answer

f(2) = 8 + 8 − 10 + 1 = 7.

Q8[2 marks]
Show that (x + 1) is a factor of x³ + 3x² + 3x + 1.
Answer

f(−1) = −1 + 3 − 3 + 1 = 0. Since the remainder is zero, by the factor theorem (x + 1) is a factor. (In fact the polynomial is (x + 1)³.)

Q9[4 marks]
When f(x) = 2x³ + ax² + bx − 6 is divided by (x − 1) the remainder is −6, and (x + 2) is a factor. Find a and b.
Mark scheme
  1. f(1) = 2 + a + b − 6 = −6, so a + b = −2remainder theorem[1]
  2. f(−2) = −16 + 4a − 2b − 6 = 0, so 4a − 2b = 22 and 2a − b = 11factor theorem: the remainder is zero[1]
  3. Adding the two equations eliminates b: 3a = 9, so a = 3the b terms cancel because their coefficients are +1 and −1[1]
  4. b = −2 − 3 = −5check: f(1) = 2 + 3 − 5 − 6 = −6 ✓ and f(−2) = −16 + 12 + 10 − 6 = 0 ✓[1]

a = 3, b = −5

Q10[4 marks]
Divide x³ − 4x² + x + 6 by (x − 3) and hence factorise the polynomial completely.
Mark scheme
  1. f(3) = 27 − 36 + 3 + 6 = 0, so (x − 3) is a factorconfirming the division will be exact[1]
  2. Division gives the quotient x² − x − 2by long or synthetic division[1]
  3. x² − x − 2 = (x − 2)(x + 1)[1]
  4. f(x) = (x − 3)(x − 2)(x + 1)[1]

(x − 3)(x − 2)(x + 1)

Q11[6 marks]
The polynomial p(x) = x³ + px² + qx + 12 has (x − 2) and (x + 3) as factors.
  1. Form two equations in p and q.
  2. Solve them.
  3. Find the third factor of p(x).
Mark scheme
  1. p(2) = 8 + 4p + 2q + 12 = 0, so 4p + 2q = −20 and 2p + q = −10factor theorem[1]
  2. p(−3) = −27 + 9p − 3q + 12 = 0, so 9p − 3q = 15 and 3p − q = 5[1]
  3. Adding: 5p = −5, so p = −1the q terms cancel[1]
  4. q = −10 − 2(−1) = −8so p(x) = x³ − x² − 8x + 12[1]
  5. The product of all three roots is −12 (from −constant/leading coefficient), and two roots are 2 and −3or divide out both known factors[1]
  6. Third root = −12 / (2 × −3) = 2, so the third factor is (x − 2) and p(x) = (x − 2)²(x + 3)check: p(x) = (x−2)²(x+3) expands to x³ − x² − 8x + 12 ✓[1]

(a) 2p + q = −10 and 3p − q = 5 (b) p = −1, q = −8 (c) (x − 2), giving p(x) = (x − 2)²(x + 3)

Q12[2 marks]
Define the logarithm of a number to a given base.
Answer

If ax = y, where a > 0 and a ≠ 1, then x is called the logarithm of y to the base a, written loga y = x. It is the power to which the base must be raised to give the number.

Q13[2 marks]
Why is the base of a logarithm never taken as 1?
Answer

Because 1x = 1 for every value of x. No power of 1 can produce any number other than 1, so log₁ y would have no value for y ≠ 1 and infinitely many for y = 1.

Q14[2 marks]
Find the characteristic of log 0.00456 and explain how you obtained it.
Answer

In standard form 0.00456 = 4.56 × 10⁻³, so the characteristic is −3, written . The characteristic equals the power of 10 in standard form.

Q15[3 marks]
Evaluate log₂ 64 + log₃ 81 − log₅ 125 without tables.
Mark scheme
  1. log₂ 64 = 6 because 2⁶ = 64[1]
  2. log₃ 81 = 4 because 3⁴ = 81[1]
  3. log₅ 125 = 3, so the value is 6 + 4 − 3 = 7final answer required[1]

7

Q16[4 marks]
Solve for x: log₂(x + 3) + log₂(x − 3) = 4.
Mark scheme
  1. Combine using the product law: log₂[(x+3)(x−3)] = 4sum of logs with the same base becomes the log of a product[1]
  2. Convert to exponential form: (x+3)(x−3) = 2⁴ = 16[1]
  3. x² − 9 = 16, so x² = 25 and x = ±5difference of two squares[1]
  4. Reject x = −5 because it makes x − 3 negative and the log undefined; x = 5the rejection must be stated with a reason[1]

x = 5

Q17[6 marks]
The number of bacteria in a culture doubles every hour. Starting from 500 bacteria, the number after t hours is N = 500 × 2t.
  1. Find the number of bacteria after 6 hours.
  2. Find, using logarithms, the time taken for the culture to reach 32 000 bacteria. Give your answer to two decimal places.
  3. Explain why logarithms are needed for part (b) but not for part (a).
Mark scheme
  1. N = 500 × 2⁶ = 500 × 64[1]
  2. N = 32 000 bacteria[1]
  3. 32 000 = 500 × 2ᵗ so 2ᵗ = 64divide by the initial amount first[1]
  4. Take logs: t log 2 = log 64power law brings t down[1]
  5. t = log 64 / log 2 = 1.8062 / 0.3010 = 6.00 hoursaccept t = 6 from inspection with working shown[1]
  6. In (a) the exponent is known and the answer is a direct calculation; in (b) the unknown is the exponent itself, and logarithms are the only way to bring it down to where it can be solvedthe explanation must mention that the unknown is in the exponent[1]

(a) 32 000 (b) t = 6.00 hours (c) in (b) the unknown is the exponent

Q18[2 marks]
Starting from sin²θ + cos²θ = 1, derive the identity tan²θ + 1 = sec²θ.
Answer

Dividing every term of sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 by cos²θ gives sin²θ/cos²θ + 1 = 1/cos²θ. Since sin θ/cos θ = tan θ and 1/cos θ = sec θ, this is tan²θ + 1 = sec²θ.

Q19[2 marks]
Explain why sec θ is undefined at θ = 90°, and state what happens to the graph there.
Answer

sec θ = 1/cos θ, and cos 90° = 0. Division by zero is undefined, so sec 90° does not exist. The graph has a vertical asymptote at θ = 90°, with the curve tending to +∞ on one side and −∞ on the other.

Q20[4 marks]
Solve 2sin²θ + 3cos θ = 3 for 0° ⩽ θ ⩽ 360°.
Mark scheme
  1. Replace sin²θ using sin²θ = 1 − cos²θ: 2(1 − cos²θ) + 3cos θ = 3Reducing to a single trigonometric function is always the first move.[1]
  2. Rearrange: 2 − 2cos²θ + 3cos θ − 3 = 0, so 2cos²θ − 3cos θ + 1 = 0A quadratic in cos θ. Multiplying by −1 makes the leading coefficient positive.[1]
  3. Factorise: (2cos θ − 1)(cos θ − 1) = 0, so cos θ = ½ or cos θ = 1Both roots are valid since each lies between −1 and 1.[1]
  4. cos θ = ½ gives θ = 60° and 300°; cos θ = 1 gives θ = 0° and 360°Cosine is positive in the first and fourth quadrants, so the second solution is 360 − 60. Both endpoints are included by the stated interval.[1]

θ = 0°, 60°, 300°, 360°

Q21[7 marks]
(a) Express 5 sin θ − 12 cos θ in the form R sin(θ − α), where R > 0 and 0° < α < 90°.
(b) Hence solve 5 sin θ − 12 cos θ = 6.5 for 0° ⩽ θ ⩽ 360°.
(c) State the maximum value of 5 sin θ − 12 cos θ and the value of θ at which it occurs.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) R sin(θ − α) = R sin θ cos α − R cos θ sin α, so R cos α = 5 and R sin α = 12The minus in the target form matches the minus in the expression, so both comparison equations are positive.[1]
  2. R = √(25 + 144) = 13, and tan α = 12/5 so α = 67.4°A 5-12-13 triangle. α is in the first quadrant as required.[1]
  3. So the expression is 13 sin(θ − 67.4°)Worth stating explicitly before using it in part (b).[1]
  4. (b) 13 sin(θ − 67.4°) = 6.5, so sin(θ − 67.4°) = 0.5Dividing by R reduces it to a standard equation.[1]
  5. Interval for θ − 67.4° is −67.4° to 292.6°. Solutions: 30° and 150°Adjusting the interval before solving is what prevents solutions being missed.[1]
  6. θ = 97.4° and θ = 217.4°Adding 67.4° to each, then checking both lie in the original range.[1]
  7. (c) Maximum is 13, when sin(θ − 67.4°) = 1, so θ − 67.4° = 90° and θ = 157.4°The maximum of the combined wave is R, which is the main reason for using this form.[1]

(a) 13 sin(θ − 67.4°); (b) θ = 97.4°, 217.4°; (c) maximum 13 at θ = 157.4°

Q22[3 marks]
Prove the identity (1 − cos 2θ) / sin 2θ = tan θ.
Answer

Using cos 2θ = 1 − 2sin²θ, the numerator becomes 1 − (1 − 2sin²θ) = 2sin²θ. Using sin 2θ = 2 sin θ cos θ, the denominator is 2 sin θ cos θ. So the fraction is 2sin²θ / (2 sin θ cos θ) = sin θ / cos θ = tan θ.

Q23[2 marks]
Differentiate y = 5x³ − 2/x with respect to x.
Answer

Write it as 5x³ − 2x⁻¹. Then dy/dx = 15x² + 2x⁻², that is 15x² + 2/x².

Q24[3 marks]
Find the gradient of the curve y = x² − 4x + 1 at the point where x = 3.
Answer

dy/dx = 2x − 4, so at x = 3 the gradient is 2(3) − 4 = 2.

Q25[2 marks]
Explain how the second derivative distinguishes a maximum from a minimum.
Answer

At a stationary point, if d²y/dx² < 0 it is a maximum; if d²y/dx² > 0 it is a minimum.

Q26[7 marks]
A curve has equation y = x³ − 3x² − 9x + 5.
  1. Find dy/dx. [1]
  2. Find the coordinates of both stationary points. [4]
  3. Determine the nature of each. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. dy/dx = 3x² − 6x − 9[1]
  2. Sets it to zero: 3(x² − 2x − 3) = 0[1]
  3. Factorises: (x − 3)(x + 1) = 0, so x = 3 or x = −1[1]
  4. At x = 3: y = 27 − 27 − 27 + 5 = −22[1]
  5. At x = −1: y = −1 − 3 + 9 + 5 = 10[1]
  6. d²y/dx² = 6x − 6; at x = 3 it is +12, a minimum[1]
  7. At x = −1 it is −12, a maximum[1]

Minimum at (3, −22), maximum at (−1, 10)

Q27[8 marks]
An open-topped box is made from a square sheet of card of side 24 cm by cutting a square of side x cm from each corner and folding up the sides.
  1. Show that the volume is V = x(24 − 2x)². [2]
  2. Find the value of x that maximises the volume. [4]
  3. Calculate that maximum volume. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The base is a square of side 24 − 2xa square is removed from both ends[1]
  2. The height is x, so V = x(24 − 2x)²[1]
  3. Expands: V = 576x − 96x² + 4x³[1]
  4. dV/dx = 576 − 192x + 12x²[1]
  5. Sets to zero: 12(x² − 16x + 48) = 0 → (x − 4)(x − 12) = 0[1]
  6. x = 4; x = 12 is rejected because it leaves no base[1]
  7. V = 4 × 16² = 4 × 256[1]
  8. V = 1024 cm³[1]

x = 4 cm giving V = 1024 cm³

Q28[5 marks]
The displacement of a particle is s = 2t³ − 9t² + 12t metres after t seconds.
  1. Find expressions for the velocity and the acceleration. [2]
  2. Find the times at which the particle is instantaneously at rest. [2]
  3. Find the acceleration at the later of those times. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. v = ds/dt = 6t² − 18t + 12[1]
  2. a = dv/dt = 12t − 18[1]
  3. Sets v = 0: 6(t² − 3t + 2) = 0 → (t − 1)(t − 2) = 0[1]
  4. t = 1 s and t = 2 s[1]
  5. At t = 2: a = 24 − 18 = 6 m s⁻²[1]

v = 6t² − 18t + 12, a = 12t − 18; at rest at t = 1 s and 2 s; a = 6 m s⁻² at t = 2 s

Q29[2 marks]
Find ∫ (6x² − 4x + 3) dx.
Answer

2x³ − 2x² + 3x + c

Q30[3 marks]
Evaluate ∫₁³ (2x + 1) dx.
Answer

[x² + x]₁³ = (9 + 3) − (1 + 1) = 10

Q31[2 marks]
Explain what a definite integral represents geometrically.
Answer

The area between the curve and the x axis, between the two limits. Area below the axis counts as negative.

Q32[6 marks]
The curve y = x² − 4x crosses the x axis at two points.
  1. Find the two points of intersection. [2]
  2. Find the area enclosed between the curve and the x axis. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Sets y = 0: x(x − 4) = 0[1]
  2. x = 0 and x = 4[1]
  3. Integrates: ∫(x² − 4x) dx = x³/3 − 2x²[1]
  4. Evaluates: (64/3 − 32) − 0 = −32/3[1]
  5. Recognises the curve is below the axis on this interval[1]
  6. Area = 32/3 ≈ 10.7 square unitsthe magnitude is taken[1]

(a) x = 0 and x = 4 (b) 32/3 square units

Q33[7 marks]
A curve passes through the point (2, 9) and has gradient dy/dx = 3x² − 2x.
  1. Find the equation of the curve. [4]
  2. Find the area under the curve between x = 0 and x = 2. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Integrates: y = x³ − x² + c[1]
  2. Substitutes the point: 9 = 8 − 4 + c[1]
  3. c = 5[1]
  4. y = x³ − x² + 5[1]
  5. Integrates again: ∫₀² (x³ − x² + 5) dx = [x⁴/4 − x³/3 + 5x]₀²[1]
  6. = 4 − 8/3 + 10[1]
  7. = 34/3 ≈ 11.3 square units[1]

(a) y = x³ − x² + 5 (b) 34/3 square units

Q34[6 marks]
The region bounded by y = x + 2 and y = x² is to be found.
  1. Find the x coordinates of the points of intersection. [2]
  2. Write down the integral that gives the enclosed area. [2]
  3. Evaluate it. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Sets x + 2 = x² → x² − x − 2 = 0[1]
  2. (x − 2)(x + 1) = 0, so x = −1 and x = 2[1]
  3. Recognises the line is above the curve between them[1]
  4. Area = ∫₋₁² [(x + 2) − x²] dx[1]
  5. = [x²/2 + 2x − x³/3]₋₁²[1]
  6. = (2 + 4 − 8/3) − (1/2 − 2 + 1/3) = 9/2[1]

x = −1 and 2; area = 9/2 square units

Q35[2 marks]
Explain how a sign change shows that an equation has a root in a given interval, and state the condition that must hold for the argument to be valid.
Answer

If f(a) and f(b) have opposite signs then the curve must cross zero somewhere between a and b, so a root lies in that interval. The argument requires f to be continuous on the interval — otherwise the sign change could be caused by an asymptote rather than a root.

Q36[3 marks]
Show that the equation x³ + 2x − 7 = 0 has a root between x = 1 and x = 2.
Mark scheme
  1. f(1) = 1 + 2 − 7 = −4Substituting the lower end and evaluating.[1]
  2. f(2) = 8 + 4 − 7 = 5Substituting the upper end. Both values must be shown, not just described.[1]
  3. f is continuous and changes sign from negative to positive, so a root lies between 1 and 2.The concluding statement is a mark of its own, and must mention continuity and the sign change.[1]

f(1) = −4, f(2) = 5; f continuous with a sign change, so a root lies in (1, 2)

Q37[4 marks]
Use the iteration x₍ₙ₊₁₎ = ∛(7 − 2xₙ) with x₀ = 1.5 to find a root of x³ + 2x − 7 = 0, correct to 2 decimal places. Show the value of each approximation.
Mark scheme
  1. x₁ = ∛(7 − 3) = ∛4 = 1.5874Correct substitution of the starting value.[1]
  2. x₂ = ∛(7 − 3.1748) = ∛3.8252 = 1.5637Feeding the previous value back into the same formula.[1]
  3. x₃ = 1.5708, x₄ = 1.5687Continuing until successive values agree to the required accuracy.[1]
  4. x₃ and x₄ both round to 1.57, so the root is 1.57 to 2 d.p.Stating the stopping justification and rounding only at the end.[1]

1.57 (2 d.p.)

Q38[3 marks]
Show that the equation 3x³ − 4x + 2 = 0 can be rearranged into the form x = ∛((4x − 2)/3).
Answer

Starting from 3x³ − 4x + 2 = 0, move the terms across to get 3x³ = 4x − 2. Dividing by 3 gives x³ = (4x − 2)/3, and taking the cube root of both sides gives x = ∛((4x − 2)/3).

Q39[6 marks]
The equation x = cos x has a single root α.
(a) Show that α lies between 0.7 and 0.8.
(b) The iteration x₍ₙ₊₁₎ = cos xₙ is used with x₀ = 0.7. Find α correct to 3 decimal places.
(c) A student instead tries the rearrangement x₍ₙ₊₁₎ = cos⁻¹(xₙ) with x₀ = 0.7 and finds the values move away from α. State what has happened and what the student should do.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) Let f(x) = x − cos x. f(0.7) = 0.7 − 0.7648 = −0.0648Rewriting as f(x) = 0 first is what makes a sign change meaningful. Calculator in radians.[1]
  2. f(0.8) = 0.8 − 0.6967 = +0.1033, so f is continuous with a sign change and α lies between 0.7 and 0.8.Both values plus the concluding statement.[1]
  3. (b) x₁ = cos 0.7 = 0.7648, x₂ = cos 0.7648 = 0.7215The sequence alternates either side of the root — a spiral rather than a staircase, which is still convergence.[1]
  4. x₃ = 0.7508, x₄ = 0.7311, x₅ = 0.7444, … x₁₆ ≈ 0.7391This one converges slowly, so several more steps are needed than usual.[1]
  5. α = 0.739 to 3 d.p.Rounding only once successive values agree at that accuracy.[1]
  6. (c) The iteration has diverged: this rearrangement is unsuitable even though it is algebraically valid. The student should use the rearrangement that converges, x₍ₙ₊₁₎ = cos xₙ.The mark is for recognising divergence as a property of the rearrangement, not an arithmetic mistake.[1]

(a) sign change between 0.7 and 0.8; (b) α = 0.739; (c) the iteration diverges — use x = cos x instead

03

Pure Mathematics 3

Multiple choice · 100

Q1|−7| equals:

  1. A−7
  2. B7
  3. C0
  4. Dundefined
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 7

The modulus discards the sign and returns the size, which is 7.

Q2The corner of y = |5x − 15| is at:

  1. A(0, 15)
  2. B(3, 0)
  3. C(−3, 0)
  4. D(15, 0)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (3, 0)

The corner is where the bracket is zero: 5x − 15 = 0 gives x = 3, and the y-value there is 0.

Q3How many solutions does |x + 1| = 6 have?

  1. Anone
  2. Bone
  3. Ctwo
  4. Dinfinitely many
Show answer

Correct answer: C — two

Both x + 1 = 6 and x + 1 = −6 are possible, giving x = 5 and x = −7. A horizontal line above the corner cuts the V twice.

Q4|x − 2| < 5 is equivalent to:

  1. Ax < 7
  2. B−3 < x < 7
  3. Cx < −3 or x > 7
  4. Dx > −3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — −3 < x < 7

x is within 5 of 2, so it lies between 2 − 5 = −3 and 2 + 5 = 7. Less-than always gives one interval.

Q5|x + 4| > 2 is equivalent to:

  1. A−6 < x < −2
  2. Bx < −6 or x > −2
  3. Cx > −2
  4. Dno solutions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x < −6 or x > −2

x is further than 2 from −4, so it lies outside the interval, giving two separate regions.

Q6√(x²) is equal to:

  1. Ax
  2. B|x|
  3. C±x
  4. D
Show answer

Correct answer: B — |x|

The square root sign denotes the non-negative root, so for x = −3 it gives 3, not −3. That is exactly what |x| does.

Q7To solve |2x − 1| = |x + 4|, the safest first step is:

  1. Asquare both sides
  2. Bdivide by x
  3. Cremove the bars and solve
  4. Ddifferentiate
Show answer

Correct answer: A — square both sides

With moduli on both sides, |a| = |b| ⟺ a² = b², so squaring removes both bars without introducing false solutions.

Q8A student solves |x − 3| = 2x by squaring and gets x = 1 and x = −3. They should:

  1. Aaccept both
  2. Bcheck both, and reject x = −3
  3. Creject both
  4. Dsquare again
Show answer

Correct answer: B — check both, and reject x = −3

Only one side carried a modulus, so squaring can invent solutions. At x = −3 the right side is −6, and a modulus cannot be negative, so that root must be discarded.

Q9The remainder when x³ − 2x + 4 is divided by (x − 1) is:

  1. A1
  2. B3
  3. C4
  4. D7
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3

f(1) = 1 − 2 + 4 = 3. The remainder theorem replaces the whole long division with one substitution.

Q10(x − 5) is a factor of f(x) if:

  1. Af(5) = 0
  2. Bf(−5) = 0
  3. Cf(0) = 5
  4. Df(5) = 5
Show answer

Correct answer: A — f(5) = 0

The root of x − 5 is +5, so the factor theorem requires f(5) = 0.

Q11Before dividing x⁴ − 1 by (x − 1), you should write it as:

  1. Ax⁴ − 1
  2. Bx⁴ + 0x³ + 0x² + 0x − 1
  3. Cx⁴ + 1
  4. D(x²)² − 1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x⁴ + 0x³ + 0x² + 0x − 1

Long division aligns terms by degree, so every missing power must appear with a zero coefficient or the columns go out of step.

Q12The remainder when f(x) is divided by (2x − 1) is:

  1. Af(2)
  2. Bf(1)
  3. Cf(1/2)
  4. Df(−1/2)
Show answer

Correct answer: C — f(1/2)

Substitute the root of the divisor. 2x − 1 = 0 gives x = 1/2.

Q13If f(x) = x³ + kx − 10 and (x − 2) is a factor, then k is:

  1. A1
  2. B−1
  3. C5
  4. D−5
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1

f(2) = 8 + 2k − 10 = 0 gives 2k = 2, so k = 1.

Q14Dividing a cubic by a linear factor gives a quotient that is:

  1. Alinear
  2. Bquadratic
  3. Ccubic
  4. Dconstant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — quadratic

The degrees subtract: 3 − 1 = 2. That is why factorising a cubic reduces the problem to a quadratic you can already handle.

Q15A whole-number root of x³ + 2x² − 5x − 6 must divide:

  1. A2
  2. B5
  3. C6
  4. D3
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 6

Any integer root divides the constant term, so the candidates are ±1, ±2, ±3, ±6. Testing x = −1 gives 0, so (x + 1) is a factor.

Q16If dividing f(x) by (x − a) leaves remainder 0, then:

  1. Af(x) has no roots
  2. B(x − a) is a factor of f(x)
  3. Ca = 0
  4. Df(x) is linear
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (x − a) is a factor of f(x)

A zero remainder means the division is exact, which is precisely what it means for (x − a) to be a factor.

Q17Which fraction is proper?

  1. A(x² + 1)/(x − 3)
  2. B(x + 5)/(x² − 9)
  3. C(x³)/(x² + 1)
  4. D(x² − 4)/(x² + 4)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (x + 5)/(x² − 9)

Degree 1 over degree 2 is proper. Option D has equal degrees, which counts as improper and must be divided first.

Q18The partial fraction form of 1/[(x−1)(x+4)] is:

  1. AA/(x−1) + B/(x+4)
  2. B(Ax+B)/[(x−1)(x+4)]
  3. CA/(x−1)²
  4. DA/[(x−1)(x+4)]
Show answer

Correct answer: A — A/(x−1) + B/(x+4)

Two distinct linear factors give one constant over each. Option B is just the original fraction rewritten and decomposes nothing.

Q19The form for 1/[(x+2)(x+2)] is:

  1. AA/(x+2)
  2. BA/(x+2) + B/(x+2)²
  3. CA/(x+2) + B/(x+2)
  4. D(Ax+B)/(x+2)²
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A/(x+2) + B/(x+2)²

A repeated factor needs a term for each power up to its multiplicity. Option C writes the same denominator twice, which just gives one constant A + B.

Q20For (2x+3)/[(x−1)(x²+1)], the numerator over x²+1 should be:

  1. AA
  2. BAx
  3. CAx + B
  4. DA/x
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Ax + B

x² + 1 has no real factors, so it takes a numerator one degree lower — a general linear expression Ax + B.

Q21To find A in (3x−2)/[(x−4)(x+1)] = A/(x−4) + B/(x+1), substitute:

  1. Ax = 0
  2. Bx = 4
  3. Cx = −4
  4. Dx = −1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x = 4

x = 4 makes (x − 4) zero, killing the B term and leaving A alone. Substituting x = −1 would isolate B instead.

Q22(x² + 1)/(x² − 1) should first be:

  1. Adecomposed directly
  2. Bdivided out
  3. Cfactorised in the numerator
  4. Dmultiplied by (x² − 1)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — divided out

The degrees are equal, so the fraction is improper. Division gives 1 + 2/(x² − 1), and only that remainder is decomposed.

Q23How many unknown constants does (x+1)/[(x−2)³] require?

  1. A1
  2. B2
  3. C3
  4. D4
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 3

A cubed factor contributes A/(x−2) + B/(x−2)² + C/(x−2)³ — one term for each power from 1 to 3.

Q24If your equations for the constants are inconsistent, the likely cause is:

  1. Aan arithmetic slip only
  2. Bthe wrong decomposition shape
  3. Cthe fraction is proper
  4. Dthe denominator has no roots
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the wrong decomposition shape

An inconsistent system usually means too few unknowns were allowed for — a repeated factor given only one term, or a quadratic given only a constant on top.

Q25In a proof by induction, the basis step establishes:

  1. Athat the statement is true for all n
  2. Bthat the statement is true for the first value of n
  3. Cthat P(k) implies P(k+1)
  4. Dthat the statement is false
Show answer

Correct answer: B — that the statement is true for the first value of n

The basis anchors the chain at its start, usually n = 1. Establishing P(k) ⟹ P(k+1) is the separate inductive step.

Q26The expansion of (x + 2)⁵ has how many terms?

  1. A5
  2. B6
  3. C10
  4. D32
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6

n + 1 = 6. The powers of x run from 5 down to 0, which is six values.

Q27The fourth term of (a + b)⁸ uses which coefficient?

  1. A⁸C₄
  2. B⁸C₃
  3. C⁸C₅
  4. D⁸C₂
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ⁸C₃

T_(r+1) uses ⁿCᵣ, so the fourth term has r = 3 and uses ⁸C₃ = 56. The off-by-one here is examined deliberately.

Q28In (a + b)⁹, the powers of a and b in any term sum to:

  1. A9
  2. B10
  3. C18
  4. Dit varies
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 9

Every term is aⁿ⁻ʳbʳ, and (n − r) + r = n = 9 whatever r is.

Q29The sum of all the entries in row 6 of Pascal's triangle is:

  1. A12
  2. B36
  3. C64
  4. D128
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 64

Setting a = b = 1 in the binomial theorem gives Σ⁶Cᵣ = 2⁶ = 64. Checking: 1+6+15+20+15+6+1 = 64 ✓

Q30To find the coefficient of x³ in (1 + 2x)⁶, you would use:

  1. A⁶C₃ only
  2. B⁶C₃ × 2³
  3. C⁶C₃ × 2
  4. D⁶C₃ × 3²
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ⁶C₃ × 2³

The general term is ⁶Cᵣ(2x)ʳ, so at r = 3 the coefficient is ⁶C₃ × 2³ = 20 × 8 = 160. The 2 must be cubed along with the x.

Q31An induction proof with a valid inductive step but no basis proves:

  1. Athe statement for all n
  2. Bthe statement for n = 1 only
  3. Cnothing about whether the statement is ever true
  4. Dthe statement is false
Show answer

Correct answer: C — nothing about whether the statement is ever true

The step only says truth propagates forwards. Without a starting case that is actually true, the chain never begins — a false statement can have a perfectly valid inductive step.

Q32The term independent of x exists in an expansion when:

  1. An is even
  2. Bthe equation for r has a whole-number solution in range
  3. Cthe coefficients are positive
  4. Dalways
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the equation for r has a whole-number solution in range

Setting the collected power of x to zero gives an equation for r. If its solution is not a whole number between 0 and n, no term has power zero and there is no constant term.

Q33log₄ 64 equals:

  1. A3
  2. B4
  3. C16
  4. D256
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 3

Ask "4 to what power gives 64". 4¹ = 4, 4² = 16, 4³ = 64, so the answer is 3. Option B confuses the base with the answer.

Q34log 2 + log 50 equals:

  1. Alog 52
  2. B2
  3. C1
  4. Dlog 100 / log 2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2

The product law gives log(2 × 50) = log 100 = 2, since 10² = 100. Option A applies a law for sums that does not exist.

Q35The characteristic of log 0.0072 is:

  1. A−2
  2. B2
  3. C−3
  4. D3
Show answer

Correct answer: C — −3

In standard form 0.0072 = 7.2 × 10⁻³, so the characteristic is the power of 10, namely −3, written 3̄. Shortcut for a number below 1: count the zeros between the decimal point and the first significant figure (here 2) and add one.

Q36If log x = 2.4771, and log 3 = 0.4771, then x is:

  1. A300
  2. B30
  3. C3000
  4. D203
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 300

Same mantissa 0.4771 means the same digits as 3. Characteristic 2 means the power of 10 is 2, so x = 3 × 10² = 300. This is exactly how log tables were used for multiplication.

Q37Which expression equals 3 log x − log y?

  1. Alog(3x − y)
  2. Blog(x³/y)
  3. Clog(3x/y)
  4. Dlog(x³ − y)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — log(x³/y)

The multiplier 3 goes back up as a power giving log(x³), and a difference of logs is the log of a quotient. So the answer is log(x³/y).

Q38Solve 2ˣ = 1/8.

  1. Ax = 3
  2. Bx = −3
  3. Cx = 1/3
  4. Dx = −1/3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x = −3

1/8 = 8⁻¹ = (2³)⁻¹ = 2⁻³, so x = −3. A number smaller than 1 always gives a negative logarithm when the base is greater than 1.

Q39log₃ 5 written in common logs is:

  1. Alog 5 − log 3
  2. Blog 5 / log 3
  3. Clog 5 × log 3
  4. Dlog(5/3)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — log 5 / log 3

Change of base: logₐ b = log b / log a. A quotient of two logarithms is not the same as the logarithm of a quotient — that would be option A or D.

Q40For log₁₀ x to exist, x must be:

  1. Aany real number
  2. Bgreater than 0
  3. Cgreater than or equal to 0
  4. Dan integer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — greater than 0

10 raised to any real power is strictly positive, so no exponent produces 0 or a negative number. The domain of the log function is x > 0, with zero excluded as well as the negatives.

Q41sec θ is equal to:

  1. A1/sin θ
  2. B1/cos θ
  3. C1/tan θ
  4. Dcos θ/sin θ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1/cos θ

The third letter of "sec" is c, which points to cosine. Matching the first letters instead gives the standard wrong answer.

Q42The identity 1 + cot²θ = cosec²θ comes from dividing sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 by:

  1. Acos²θ
  2. Bsin²θ
  3. Ctan²θ
  4. Dsin θ cos θ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sin²θ

Dividing by sin²θ turns the first term into 1, the second into cot²θ, and the right side into cosec²θ.

Q43cos(A + B) equals:

  1. Acos A cos B + sin A sin B
  2. Bcos A cos B − sin A sin B
  3. Ccos A + cos B
  4. Dsin A cos B + cos A sin B
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cos A cos B − sin A sin B

The cosine formula reverses the sign: a plus inside gives a minus outside. The last option is sin(A + B).

Q44Which is NOT a valid form of cos 2A?

  1. Acos²A − sin²A
  2. B2cos²A − 1
  3. C1 − 2sin²A
  4. D2 sin A cos A
Show answer

Correct answer: D — 2 sin A cos A

2 sin A cos A is sin 2A, not cos 2A. The other three are equivalent forms of cos 2A.

Q45For 8 sin θ + 6 cos θ = R sin(θ + α), the value of R is:

  1. A14
  2. B10
  3. C48
  4. D2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10

R = √(8² + 6²) = √100 = 10. Adding the coefficients instead of using Pythagoras gives 14, the tempting wrong answer.

Q46The maximum value of 7 sin θ − 24 cos θ is:

  1. A31
  2. B25
  3. C24
  4. D7
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 25

The maximum is R = √(49 + 576) = √625 = 25, since the combined wave has amplitude R.

Q47Solving sin 2θ = 0.5 for 0° ⩽ θ ⩽ 360°, the interval you should search is:

  1. A0° to 360°
  2. B0° to 720°
  3. C0° to 180°
  4. D−360° to 360°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0° to 720°

If θ reaches 360° then 2θ reaches 720°, so all solutions must be found across two revolutions before halving.

Q48To solve 2 sin θ cos θ = sin θ, you should:

  1. Adivide both sides by sin θ
  2. Bfactorise as sin θ(2cos θ − 1) = 0
  3. Csquare both sides
  4. Dreplace sin θ with √(1 − cos²θ)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — factorise as sin θ(2cos θ − 1) = 0

Dividing by sin θ throws away every solution where sin θ = 0. Factorising keeps both families of solutions.

Q49What does f′(3) = 5 tell you about the graph of f?

  1. AThe graph passes through the point (3, 5)
  2. BAt x = 3 the curve is rising with slope 5
  3. CThe area under the curve up to x = 3 is 5
  4. DThe function equals 5 whenever x = 3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — At x = 3 the curve is rising with slope 5

A derivative is a slope, not a height. f′(3) = 5 says that at the instant x = 3, the curve climbs 5 units of y for every 1 unit of x. The actual height at x = 3 is f(3), which is a completely different number.

Q50Differentiate f(x) = 4x³ − 7x + 2.

  1. A12x² − 7
  2. B12x² − 7x
  3. C4x² − 7
  4. D12x³ − 7
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 12x² − 7

Power rule on each term: 4x³ → 3·4x² = 12x². Then −7x → −7 (the x disappears). The constant +2 → 0, because a constant never changes, so its rate of change is zero.

Q51In the limit definition, why must h approach 0 rather than simply equal 0?

  1. ABecause 0 is not a real number
  2. BBecause the formula would give 0/0, which is undefined
  3. CBecause the secant line would become vertical
  4. DBecause f(x) must stay positive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because the formula would give 0/0, which is undefined

Substituting h = 0 directly gives [f(x) − f(x)]/0 = 0/0 — meaningless. The limit lets us ask what the expression heads toward as h shrinks, without ever dividing by zero.

Q52What is the derivative of sin(5x)?

  1. Acos(5x)
  2. B5 cos(5x)
  3. C5 sin(5x)
  4. D−5 cos(5x)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 5 cos(5x)

Chain rule. Outer function sin → cos(5x). Inner function 5x has derivative 5. Multiply them: 5 cos(5x). Forgetting the inner 5 is the single most common slip in calculus.

Q53A Riemann sum with n = 10 left rectangles underestimates the area under an increasing curve. What happens as n increases?

  1. AThe underestimate gets worse
  2. BThe estimate converges toward the true area
  3. CThe estimate overshoots and stays above
  4. DNothing changes; n does not matter
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The estimate converges toward the true area

Each rectangle misses a small triangular sliver above it. Narrower rectangles mean smaller slivers, so the total gap shrinks toward zero. That convergence is exactly what the integral is defined as.

Q54Evaluate ∫₁³ 2x dx.

  1. A4
  2. B8
  3. C9
  4. D6
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 8

The antiderivative of 2x is x². Apply the Fundamental Theorem: F(3) − F(1) = 9 − 1 = 8. Sanity check: the region is a trapezium with parallel sides 2 and 6 and width 2, giving ½(2+6)(2) = 8.

Q55∫ x³ dx equals:

  1. A3x² + C
  2. Bx⁴ + C
  3. Cx⁴/4 + C
  4. D4x⁴ + C
Show answer

Correct answer: C — x⁴/4 + C

Raise the power by one and divide by the new power: x⁴/4 + C. Answer A is the derivative rather than the integral — the classic direction error. Check any integration by differentiating your answer: d/dx (x⁴/4) = x³. ✓

Q56Why does the power rule for integration exclude n = −1?

  1. ANegative powers cannot be integrated
  2. BIt would require dividing by zero
  3. CThe result would be imaginary
  4. DThe integral does not exist
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It would require dividing by zero

The rule divides by n + 1, which is zero when n = −1. The integral certainly exists — it is ln|x| + C. The modulus signs matter, since 1/x is defined for negative x but the logarithm is not.

Q57∫₀² 3x² dx equals:

  1. A8
  2. B12
  3. C4
  4. D6
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 8

The antiderivative is x³, so the value is 2³ − 0³ = 8. A common slip is forgetting to subtract the lower limit, or integrating to x³/3 by dividing by the new power while ignoring the 3 already in front.

Q58The "+C" appears in indefinite integrals because:

  1. AIt makes the answer look complete
  2. BDifferentiation destroys constants, so many functions share one derivative
  3. CIt represents the area under the curve
  4. DIt cancels the dx
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Differentiation destroys constants, so many functions share one derivative

x², x² + 5 and x² − 100 all differentiate to 2x, so reversing the process cannot recover which one you started from. C stands for that whole family. It disappears in definite integrals because it cancels in F(b) − F(a).

Q59Which technique is the reverse of the chain rule?

  1. AIntegration by parts
  2. BIntegration by substitution
  3. CPartial fractions
  4. DTrigonometric identities
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Integration by substitution

Substitution undoes the chain rule; integration by parts undoes the product rule. Recognising which rule created the expression is usually the fastest route to choosing the right technique.

Q60A velocity–time graph is integrated with respect to time. The result represents:

  1. AAcceleration
  2. BDisplacement
  3. CForce
  4. DPower
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Displacement

Integrating velocity accumulates distance travelled, giving displacement — the same thing as the area under the graph. Differentiating instead would give acceleration, which is the mirror-image operation.

Q61f is continuous, f(2) = −3 and f(3) = 4. This shows that:

  1. Af has no root between 2 and 3
  2. Bf has a root between 2 and 3
  3. Cf has exactly one root between 2 and 3
  4. Df has a turning point between 2 and 3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — f has a root between 2 and 3

A sign change guarantees at least one root, not exactly one — there could be three. The word "exactly" makes the third option a stronger claim than the evidence supports.

Q62The sign-change test can fail to indicate a root when:

  1. Athe interval is too wide
  2. Bthe function is not continuous
  3. Cthe root is irrational
  4. Df(a) and f(b) are both large
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the function is not continuous

A discontinuity such as an asymptote lets the function change sign without ever taking the value zero. 1/(x − 2) is the standard counter-example.

Q63For the iteration x₍ₙ₊₁₎ = F(xₙ), the value it converges to satisfies:

  1. AF(x) = 0
  2. Bx = F(x)
  3. CF′(x) = 0
  4. Dx = 0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x = F(x)

If the sequence settles, the input and output stop differing, so the limit satisfies x = F(x). That is why the rearrangement had to be into this form.

Q64An iteration produces 2, 5, 122, 1815848. This means:

  1. Ait has converged
  2. Bit has diverged
  3. Cthe root is very large
  4. Dyou should keep going
Show answer

Correct answer: B — it has diverged

The values are growing without limit, so this rearrangement diverges. Continuing will not help — a different rearrangement is needed.

Q65To show x³ − 5x + 1 = 0 can be written as x = ∛(5x − 1), you should:

  1. Astart from x = ∛(5x − 1) and cube it
  2. Bstart from the given equation and rearrange forwards
  3. Csubstitute a value into both
  4. Ddifferentiate both sides
Show answer

Correct answer: B — start from the given equation and rearrange forwards

Examiners want the given equation transformed into the target. Working backwards from the answer proves the same thing but can lose the mark for direction.

Q66Iterating gives x₄ = 2.4471 and x₅ = 2.4468. To 3 decimal places the root is:

  1. A2.447
  2. B2.446
  3. C2.4470
  4. Dnot yet determined
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 2.447

Both values round to 2.447, so they agree at 3 d.p. and the iteration can stop. Quoting 2.4470 gives four decimal places, which is more than was asked for.

Q67Why keep more decimal places than the final answer needs?

  1. Ato look more accurate
  2. Bbecause rounding each step lets the error build up
  3. Cbecause the calculator requires it
  4. Dto make the sequence converge faster
Show answer

Correct answer: B — because rounding each step lets the error build up

Each rounded value is fed back into the formula, so an early rounding error is carried into every subsequent term and can shift the final digit.

Q68Near the root, an iteration converges when the graph of y = F(x) is:

  1. Asteeper than y = x
  2. Bshallower than y = x
  3. Cparallel to the x-axis
  4. Dabove y = x
Show answer

Correct answer: B — shallower than y = x

A shallower curve means each bounce between the curve and the line lands nearer the root. A steeper one magnifies the gap each time, which is the diverging case.

Q69The magnitude of 2i − 3j + 6k is:

  1. A5
  2. B7
  3. C11
  4. D49
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 7

Square each component, add, then take the root: √(2² + (−3)² + 6²) = √(4 + 9 + 36) = √49 = 7. The minus sign on the j component disappears when it is squared, so a negative component never reduces the magnitude.

Q70The dot product of two perpendicular vectors is:

  1. A1
  2. B0
  3. Ctheir magnitudes multiplied
  4. Dundefined
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0

a · b = |a||b| cos 90° = 0. This is the standard test for perpendicularity.

Q71a × b is:

  1. Aa scalar
  2. Ba vector perpendicular to both
  3. Ca vector parallel to a
  4. Dalways zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a vector perpendicular to both

The cross product returns a vector at right angles to the plane containing a and b, with direction given by the right-hand rule.

Q72If a × b = 0 for non-zero vectors, then a and b are:

  1. Aperpendicular
  2. Bparallel
  3. Cequal
  4. Dunit vectors
Show answer

Correct answer: B — parallel

|a × b| = |a||b| sin θ, which vanishes only when sin θ = 0, so θ is 0° or 180° — the vectors are parallel. Perpendicular is the condition for the dot product.

Q73i · j equals:

  1. A0
  2. B1
  3. Ck
  4. Di
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0

i and j are perpendicular unit vectors, so their dot product is 1 × 1 × cos 90° = 0. Note that i × j = k, which is a different product entirely.

Q74The area of the triangle formed by vectors a and b is:

  1. A|a × b|
  2. B½|a × b|
  3. Ca · b
  4. D½(a · b)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ½|a × b|

The cross product magnitude gives the parallelogram area, and a triangle is half of that parallelogram.

Q75If a · (b × c) = 0, the three vectors are:

  1. Amutually perpendicular
  2. Bcoplanar
  3. Call zero
  4. Dunit vectors
Show answer

Correct answer: B — coplanar

The triple product is the volume of the solid they span. Zero volume means they all lie in one plane.

Q76Which is true?

  1. Aa · b = b · a and a × b = b × a
  2. Ba · b = b · a but a × b = −(b × a)
  3. Cboth anticommute
  4. Dboth are vectors
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a · b = b · a but a × b = −(b × a)

The dot product is commutative because multiplication of components is. The cross product reverses direction when the order is swapped, which is why the order must be preserved exactly as the question gives it.

Q77The solution of a differential equation is:

  1. Aa number
  2. Ba function
  3. Ca gradient
  4. Da constant of proportionality
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a function

The equation describes how a quantity changes; solving it recovers the quantity itself as a function of the independent variable.

Q78"A population grows at a rate proportional to its size" is:

  1. AdP/dt = k
  2. BdP/dt = kP
  3. CdP/dt = k/P
  4. DP = kt
Show answer

Correct answer: B — dP/dt = kP

Proportional to its size means the right-hand side is k times P. The first option would be constant growth, and the third would be growth that slows as the population rises.

Q79A body cools in surroundings at 15 °C. The correct model is:

  1. Adθ/dt = −kθ
  2. Bdθ/dt = −k(θ − 15)
  3. Cdθ/dt = −k(15 − θ)
  4. Ddθ/dt = kθ − 15
Show answer

Correct answer: B — dθ/dt = −k(θ − 15)

Cooling is proportional to the excess over the surroundings. The second option correctly gives dθ/dt = 0 when θ = 15, so the body stops cooling at room temperature.

Q80Separating the variables in dy/dx = xy² gives:

  1. Ay² dy = x dx
  2. By⁻² dy = x dx
  3. C(1/y) dy = x² dx
  4. Ddy = xy² dx
Show answer

Correct answer: B — y⁻² dy = x dx

Dividing both sides by y² moves it to the left as 1/y², which is y⁻². The first option multiplies instead of divides.

Q81Integrating (1/y) dy gives:

  1. A1/y²
  2. Bln|y|
  3. Cy ln y
  4. D−1/y
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ln|y|

The integral of 1/y is ln|y| + c. The modulus can usually be dropped once a condition shows the sign of y is fixed.

Q82How many arbitrary constants does a first order differential equation need?

  1. Anone
  2. Bone
  3. Ctwo
  4. Done for each side
Show answer

Correct answer: B — one

Integrating once introduces one constant. Writing one on each side is not wrong but they immediately combine, so a single c is standard.

Q83For V = 400e^(−0.05t), as t becomes large V approaches:

  1. A400
  2. B0
  3. C−0.05
  4. Dinfinity
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0

e^(−0.05t) tends to 0 as t grows, so the whole product tends to 0. The value 400 is the starting volume at t = 0, not the limit.

Q84A student solves a cooling problem and gets θ → −40 °C in a room at 18 °C. The most likely error is:

  1. Aa rounding mistake
  2. Bthe model used θ rather than the excess θ − 18
  3. Cthe calculator was in degrees
  4. Dtoo few decimal places
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the model used θ rather than the excess θ − 18

Using dθ/dt = −kθ makes the temperature decay towards zero and beyond rather than towards room temperature. Checking the long-run value against common sense catches this immediately.

Q85Simplify i⁵⁰.

  1. A1
  2. Bi
  3. C−1
  4. D−i
Show answer

Correct answer: C — −1

50 ÷ 4 leaves remainder 2, so i⁵⁰ = i² = −1. Only the remainder matters, because i⁴ = 1.

Q86(2 + 3i)(2 − 3i) equals:

  1. A4 − 9i
  2. B13
  3. C−5
  4. D4 + 9i²
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 13

This is a² − (bi)² = 4 − 9i² = 4 + 9 = 13. A complex number times its conjugate is always the real number a² + b².

Q87The modulus of 3 − 4i is:

  1. A1
  2. B7
  3. C5
  4. D25
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5

√(9 + 16) = √25 = 5. Squaring removes the sign of each part, so 3 − 4i and 3 + 4i have the same modulus.

Q88√(−16) equals:

  1. A−4
  2. B4i
  3. C−4i
  4. Dnot defined
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4i

√(−16) = √16 × √(−1) = 4i. It is defined perfectly well in ℂ, which is the entire reason complex numbers were introduced.

Q89(5 + 2i) − (3 − 4i) equals:

  1. A2 − 2i
  2. B2 + 6i
  3. C8 − 2i
  4. D2 + 2i
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 + 6i

Real parts: 5 − 3 = 2. Imaginary parts: 2 − (−4) = 6. So the answer is 2 + 6i; the double negative is where marks are lost.

Q90The conjugate of −7i is:

  1. A7i
  2. B−7i
  3. C7
  4. D0 + 7i
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 7i

Write it as 0 − 7i. Flipping the sign of the imaginary part gives 0 + 7i = 7i.

Q91If x² + 9 = 0, then x equals:

  1. A±3
  2. B±3i
  3. C±9i
  4. Dno solution
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ±3i

x² = −9, so x = ±√(−9) = ±3i. In ℝ there is no solution, but in ℂ there are exactly two.

Q92To divide by (3 + 2i), multiply top and bottom by:

  1. A(3 + 2i)
  2. B(3 − 2i)
  3. C(2 + 3i)
  4. D(−3 − 2i)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — (3 − 2i)

The conjugate 3 − 2i gives a denominator of 9 + 4 = 13, which is real. Multiplying by 3 + 2i itself would leave an imaginary part behind.

Q93The modulus of −3 + 4i is:

  1. A1
  2. B5
  3. C7
  4. D25
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 5

√(9 + 16) = √25 = 5. The signs disappear because both parts are squared.

Q94The argument of the complex number i is:

  1. A
  2. B45°
  3. C90°
  4. D180°
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 90°

i = 0 + 1i sits on the positive imaginary axis, a quarter turn anticlockwise from the positive real axis.

Q95If z₁ = 2 cis 40° and z₂ = 3 cis 50°, then z₁z₂ is:

  1. A5 cis 90°
  2. B6 cis 90°
  3. C6 cis 2000°
  4. D5 cis 2000°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6 cis 90°

Multiply the moduli (2 × 3 = 6) and add the arguments (40 + 50 = 90). Adding the moduli, as option A does, is the standard error.

Q96(cis 30°)⁶ equals:

  1. Acis 180°
  2. Bcis 36°
  3. C6 cis 30°
  4. Dcis 5°
Show answer

Correct answer: A — cis 180°

De Moivre multiplies the argument by the power: 6 × 30° = 180°. The modulus is 1⁶ = 1, so the answer is cis 180° = −1.

Q97The argument of −1 − i is:

  1. A45°
  2. B135°
  3. C−45°
  4. D−135°
Show answer

Correct answer: D — −135°

Both parts negative puts it in the third quadrant, so θ = α − 180° = 45 − 180 = −135°. The calculator would return +45°, which points the opposite way.

Q98How many distinct fourth roots does 16 have in ℂ?

  1. A1
  2. B2
  3. C4
  4. Dinfinitely many
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 4

An n-th root has exactly n values in ℂ. Here they are 2, 2i, −2 and −2i — the vertices of a square of radius 2.

Q99Dividing z₁ = 12 cis 100° by z₂ = 4 cis 30° gives:

  1. A3 cis 70°
  2. B8 cis 70°
  3. C3 cis 130°
  4. D48 cis 130°
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 3 cis 70°

Divide the moduli (12 ÷ 4 = 3) and subtract the arguments (100 − 30 = 70).

Q100The n distinct n-th roots of a complex number lie:

  1. Aon a straight line
  2. Bevenly spaced on a circle
  3. Cat the origin
  4. Don the real axis
Show answer

Correct answer: B — evenly spaced on a circle

They all share the modulus r^(1/n), so they are equidistant from the origin, and their arguments differ by 360°/n, so they are evenly spaced around that circle.

Exam-style questions · 74

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the equation |2x + 1| = −3 has no solutions.
Answer

A modulus measures a distance, so |2x + 1| is never negative for any real x. It can therefore never equal −3, and the equation has no solutions.

Q2[3 marks]
Solve |x − 4| = 7.
Mark scheme
  1. Either x − 4 = 7 or x − 4 = −7Both cases must be written down; this is where the second solution comes from.[1]
  2. x = 11From the positive case.[1]
  3. x = −3From the negative case. Giving only x = 11 scores one mark out of three.[1]

x = 11 or x = −3

Q3[4 marks]
Solve the inequality |2x − 5| < 3.
Mark scheme
  1. Write as a double inequality: −3 < 2x − 5 < 3A less-than modulus gives a single interval, so this form is available immediately.[1]
  2. Add 5 throughout: 2 < 2x < 8Whatever is done must be done to all three parts.[1]
  3. Divide by 2: 1 < x < 4Dividing by a positive number leaves the inequality signs unchanged.[1]
  4. Solution set: 1 < x < 4Stated as an interval. Writing it as two separate inequalities joined by "or" would be the answer to the greater-than version and is wrong here.[1]

1 < x < 4

Q4[6 marks]
The functions f and g are given by f(x) = |x + 2| and g(x) = |3x − 6|.
(a) Sketch both graphs on the same axes, stating the coordinates of each corner.
(b) Solve f(x) = g(x).
(c) Hence state the set of values of x for which f(x) > g(x).
Mark scheme
  1. (a) f is a V with corner at (−2, 0); g is a V with corner at (2, 0) and steeper arms of gradient ±3.The corner is where each bracket equals zero.[1]
  2. Both graphs sketched with correct V shapes and corners on the x-axis.Relative steepness matters for reading off part (c).[1]
  3. (b) Square both sides: (x + 2)² = (3x − 6)²Valid since both sides are moduli.[1]
  4. x² + 4x + 4 = 9x² − 36x + 36, so 8x² − 40x + 32 = 0, that is x² − 5x + 4 = 0Dividing by 8 simplifies the factorising.[1]
  5. (x − 1)(x − 4) = 0, so x = 1 or x = 4Two intersection points, as the sketch predicts.[1]
  6. (c) From the sketch f is above g between the intersections, so 1 < x < 4.The sketch decides which region, which is why part (a) came first.[1]

(a) corners (−2, 0) and (2, 0); (b) x = 1 or x = 4; (c) 1 < x < 4

Q5[2 marks]
State the coordinates of the corner of the graph y = |4x + 10|, and the gradients of its two arms.
Answer

The bracket is zero when 4x + 10 = 0, so x = −2.5 and the corner is at (−2.5, 0). The arms have gradients 4 and −4.

Q6[2 marks]
State the remainder theorem.
Answer

When a polynomial f(x) is divided by (x − a), the remainder is f(a) — the value obtained by substituting x = a into the polynomial.

Q7[2 marks]
Find the remainder when x³ + 2x² − 5x + 1 is divided by (x − 2).
Answer

f(2) = 8 + 8 − 10 + 1 = 7.

Q8[2 marks]
Show that (x + 1) is a factor of x³ + 3x² + 3x + 1.
Answer

f(−1) = −1 + 3 − 3 + 1 = 0. Since the remainder is zero, by the factor theorem (x + 1) is a factor. (In fact the polynomial is (x + 1)³.)

Q9[4 marks]
When f(x) = 2x³ + ax² + bx − 6 is divided by (x − 1) the remainder is −6, and (x + 2) is a factor. Find a and b.
Mark scheme
  1. f(1) = 2 + a + b − 6 = −6, so a + b = −2remainder theorem[1]
  2. f(−2) = −16 + 4a − 2b − 6 = 0, so 4a − 2b = 22 and 2a − b = 11factor theorem: the remainder is zero[1]
  3. Adding the two equations eliminates b: 3a = 9, so a = 3the b terms cancel because their coefficients are +1 and −1[1]
  4. b = −2 − 3 = −5check: f(1) = 2 + 3 − 5 − 6 = −6 ✓ and f(−2) = −16 + 12 + 10 − 6 = 0 ✓[1]

a = 3, b = −5

Q10[4 marks]
Divide x³ − 4x² + x + 6 by (x − 3) and hence factorise the polynomial completely.
Mark scheme
  1. f(3) = 27 − 36 + 3 + 6 = 0, so (x − 3) is a factorconfirming the division will be exact[1]
  2. Division gives the quotient x² − x − 2by long or synthetic division[1]
  3. x² − x − 2 = (x − 2)(x + 1)[1]
  4. f(x) = (x − 3)(x − 2)(x + 1)[1]

(x − 3)(x − 2)(x + 1)

Q11[6 marks]
The polynomial p(x) = x³ + px² + qx + 12 has (x − 2) and (x + 3) as factors.
  1. Form two equations in p and q.
  2. Solve them.
  3. Find the third factor of p(x).
Mark scheme
  1. p(2) = 8 + 4p + 2q + 12 = 0, so 4p + 2q = −20 and 2p + q = −10factor theorem[1]
  2. p(−3) = −27 + 9p − 3q + 12 = 0, so 9p − 3q = 15 and 3p − q = 5[1]
  3. Adding: 5p = −5, so p = −1the q terms cancel[1]
  4. q = −10 − 2(−1) = −8so p(x) = x³ − x² − 8x + 12[1]
  5. The product of all three roots is −12 (from −constant/leading coefficient), and two roots are 2 and −3or divide out both known factors[1]
  6. Third root = −12 / (2 × −3) = 2, so the third factor is (x − 2) and p(x) = (x − 2)²(x + 3)check: p(x) = (x−2)²(x+3) expands to x³ − x² − 8x + 12 ✓[1]

(a) 2p + q = −10 and 3p − q = 5 (b) p = −1, q = −8 (c) (x − 2), giving p(x) = (x − 2)²(x + 3)

Q12[2 marks]
Define a proper rational fraction and give one example of an improper one.
Answer

A proper rational fraction has a numerator of lower degree than its denominator, such as (x + 1)/(x² − 4). (x² + 3)/(x − 1) is improper, because the numerator has the higher degree.

Q13[2 marks]
Write down, without evaluating the constants, the partial fraction form of 1 / [(x + 3)(x − 2)²].
Answer

A/(x + 3) + B/(x − 2) + C/(x − 2)².

Q14[2 marks]
Why does an irreducible quadratic factor take a numerator of the form Ax + B?
Answer

The numerator over any factor must be permitted to be one degree lower than that factor. A quadratic denominator therefore takes a linear numerator, Ax + B. A single constant would give too few unknowns and the resulting equations would be inconsistent.

Q15[4 marks]
Resolve (7x − 1) / [(x − 3)(x + 1)] into partial fractions.
Mark scheme
  1. Writes A/(x − 3) + B/(x + 1) and multiplies up to 7x − 1 = A(x + 1) + B(x − 3)correct shape[1]
  2. Substituting x = 3: 20 = 4A, so A = 5x = 3 kills the B term[1]
  3. Substituting x = −1: −8 = −4B, so B = 2[1]
  4. Answer 5/(x − 3) + 2/(x + 1)accept a verification by recombining[1]

5/(x − 3) + 2/(x + 1)

Q16[4 marks]
Resolve (x + 4) / (x − 2)² into partial fractions.
Mark scheme
  1. Shape A/(x − 2) + B/(x − 2)², giving x + 4 = A(x − 2) + Ba repeated factor needs both powers[1]
  2. Substituting x = 2: 6 = B[1]
  3. Comparing coefficients of x: 1 = Ano substitution can isolate A here[1]
  4. Answer 1/(x − 2) + 6/(x − 2)²[1]

1/(x − 2) + 6/(x − 2)²

Q17[6 marks]
Consider f(x) = (2x² + 5x + 3) / (x² + 2x + 1).
  1. Explain why f(x) must be divided before decomposing, and carry out the division.
  2. Resolve the remaining proper fraction into partial fractions.
  3. Write down the complete decomposition of f(x).
Mark scheme
  1. Numerator and denominator are both of degree 2, so the fraction is improper and partial fractions do not apply to it directlythe reason must reference the degrees[1]
  2. Dividing: 2x² + 5x + 3 = 2(x² + 2x + 1) + (x + 1), so f(x) = 2 + (x + 1)/(x + 1)²x² + 2x + 1 = (x + 1)²[1]
  3. The remainder simplifies: (x + 1)/(x + 1)² = 1/(x + 1)cancelling one factor, valid for x ≠ −1[1]
  4. So the proper part is already a single partial fraction, 1/(x + 1)accept working through A/(x+1) + B/(x+1)² and finding B = 0[1]
  5. f(x) = 2 + 1/(x + 1)[1]
  6. Valid for x ≠ −1the excluded value must be stated[1]

f(x) = 2 + 1/(x + 1), for x ≠ −1

Q18[2 marks]
State the two steps of a proof by mathematical induction.
Answer

Basis: show the statement is true for the first value, usually n = 1. Inductive step: assume it is true for n = k and prove it must then be true for n = k + 1. Together these prove it for every natural number.

Q19[2 marks]
How many terms are there in the expansion of (x + y)¹², and what is the coefficient of the third term?
Answer

There are 12 + 1 = 13 terms. The third term uses r = 2, so its coefficient is ¹²C₂ = 66.

Q20[2 marks]
Write down the general term in the expansion of (3x − 2)ⁿ.
Answer

T_(r+1) = ⁿCᵣ (3x)ⁿ⁻ʳ (−2)ʳ.

Q21[4 marks]
Prove by mathematical induction that 2ⁿ > n for all natural numbers n.
Mark scheme
  1. Basis: for n = 1, 2¹ = 2 > 1, so P(1) is trueboth sides evaluated[1]
  2. Assume 2ᵏ > k for some k ≥ 1the hypothesis stated as an assumption[1]
  3. Then 2ᵏ⁺¹ = 2 × 2ᵏ > 2k, using the hypothesisthe hypothesis is used here and must be visible[1]
  4. Since k ≥ 1, 2k = k + k ≥ k + 1, so 2ᵏ⁺¹ > k + 1; hence by induction the result holds for all nthe k ≥ 1 is what makes the last inequality work[1]

Proved by induction for all n ≥ 1.

Q22[4 marks]
Find the coefficient of x⁴ in the expansion of (2 + x)⁷.
Mark scheme
  1. General term T_(r+1) = ⁷Cᵣ (2)⁷⁻ʳ xʳ[1]
  2. The power of x is r, so r = 4[1]
  3. ⁷C₄ = 35 and 2³ = 87 − 4 = 3, so the 2 is cubed[1]
  4. Coefficient = 35 × 8 = 280[1]

280

Q23[6 marks]
Consider the expansion of (x² − 2/x)⁶.
  1. Write down the general term.
  2. Find the term independent of x.
  3. State how many terms the full expansion has, and explain why not every expansion of this kind contains a constant term.
Mark scheme
  1. T_(r+1) = ⁶Cᵣ (x²)⁶⁻ʳ (−2/x)ʳthe minus stays with the 2[1]
  2. Powers of x: x¹²⁻²ʳ × x⁻ʳ = x¹²⁻³ʳ[1]
  3. Setting 12 − 3r = 0 gives r = 4[1]
  4. Term = ⁶C₄ (−2)⁴ = 15 × 16 = 240the power 4 is even, so the result is positive[1]
  5. The expansion has 6 + 1 = 7 terms[1]
  6. A constant term exists only if the equation for r has a solution that is a whole number between 0 and n; otherwise no term has power zero and there is no constant term[1]

(b) 240 (c) 7 terms; a constant term requires an integer solution for r

Q24[2 marks]
Define the logarithm of a number to a given base.
Answer

If ax = y, where a > 0 and a ≠ 1, then x is called the logarithm of y to the base a, written loga y = x. It is the power to which the base must be raised to give the number.

Q25[2 marks]
Why is the base of a logarithm never taken as 1?
Answer

Because 1x = 1 for every value of x. No power of 1 can produce any number other than 1, so log₁ y would have no value for y ≠ 1 and infinitely many for y = 1.

Q26[2 marks]
Find the characteristic of log 0.00456 and explain how you obtained it.
Answer

In standard form 0.00456 = 4.56 × 10⁻³, so the characteristic is −3, written . The characteristic equals the power of 10 in standard form.

Q27[3 marks]
Evaluate log₂ 64 + log₃ 81 − log₅ 125 without tables.
Mark scheme
  1. log₂ 64 = 6 because 2⁶ = 64[1]
  2. log₃ 81 = 4 because 3⁴ = 81[1]
  3. log₅ 125 = 3, so the value is 6 + 4 − 3 = 7final answer required[1]

7

Q28[4 marks]
Solve for x: log₂(x + 3) + log₂(x − 3) = 4.
Mark scheme
  1. Combine using the product law: log₂[(x+3)(x−3)] = 4sum of logs with the same base becomes the log of a product[1]
  2. Convert to exponential form: (x+3)(x−3) = 2⁴ = 16[1]
  3. x² − 9 = 16, so x² = 25 and x = ±5difference of two squares[1]
  4. Reject x = −5 because it makes x − 3 negative and the log undefined; x = 5the rejection must be stated with a reason[1]

x = 5

Q29[6 marks]
The number of bacteria in a culture doubles every hour. Starting from 500 bacteria, the number after t hours is N = 500 × 2t.
  1. Find the number of bacteria after 6 hours.
  2. Find, using logarithms, the time taken for the culture to reach 32 000 bacteria. Give your answer to two decimal places.
  3. Explain why logarithms are needed for part (b) but not for part (a).
Mark scheme
  1. N = 500 × 2⁶ = 500 × 64[1]
  2. N = 32 000 bacteria[1]
  3. 32 000 = 500 × 2ᵗ so 2ᵗ = 64divide by the initial amount first[1]
  4. Take logs: t log 2 = log 64power law brings t down[1]
  5. t = log 64 / log 2 = 1.8062 / 0.3010 = 6.00 hoursaccept t = 6 from inspection with working shown[1]
  6. In (a) the exponent is known and the answer is a direct calculation; in (b) the unknown is the exponent itself, and logarithms are the only way to bring it down to where it can be solvedthe explanation must mention that the unknown is in the exponent[1]

(a) 32 000 (b) t = 6.00 hours (c) in (b) the unknown is the exponent

Q30[2 marks]
Starting from sin²θ + cos²θ = 1, derive the identity tan²θ + 1 = sec²θ.
Answer

Dividing every term of sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 by cos²θ gives sin²θ/cos²θ + 1 = 1/cos²θ. Since sin θ/cos θ = tan θ and 1/cos θ = sec θ, this is tan²θ + 1 = sec²θ.

Q31[2 marks]
Explain why sec θ is undefined at θ = 90°, and state what happens to the graph there.
Answer

sec θ = 1/cos θ, and cos 90° = 0. Division by zero is undefined, so sec 90° does not exist. The graph has a vertical asymptote at θ = 90°, with the curve tending to +∞ on one side and −∞ on the other.

Q32[4 marks]
Solve 2sin²θ + 3cos θ = 3 for 0° ⩽ θ ⩽ 360°.
Mark scheme
  1. Replace sin²θ using sin²θ = 1 − cos²θ: 2(1 − cos²θ) + 3cos θ = 3Reducing to a single trigonometric function is always the first move.[1]
  2. Rearrange: 2 − 2cos²θ + 3cos θ − 3 = 0, so 2cos²θ − 3cos θ + 1 = 0A quadratic in cos θ. Multiplying by −1 makes the leading coefficient positive.[1]
  3. Factorise: (2cos θ − 1)(cos θ − 1) = 0, so cos θ = ½ or cos θ = 1Both roots are valid since each lies between −1 and 1.[1]
  4. cos θ = ½ gives θ = 60° and 300°; cos θ = 1 gives θ = 0° and 360°Cosine is positive in the first and fourth quadrants, so the second solution is 360 − 60. Both endpoints are included by the stated interval.[1]

θ = 0°, 60°, 300°, 360°

Q33[7 marks]
(a) Express 5 sin θ − 12 cos θ in the form R sin(θ − α), where R > 0 and 0° < α < 90°.
(b) Hence solve 5 sin θ − 12 cos θ = 6.5 for 0° ⩽ θ ⩽ 360°.
(c) State the maximum value of 5 sin θ − 12 cos θ and the value of θ at which it occurs.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) R sin(θ − α) = R sin θ cos α − R cos θ sin α, so R cos α = 5 and R sin α = 12The minus in the target form matches the minus in the expression, so both comparison equations are positive.[1]
  2. R = √(25 + 144) = 13, and tan α = 12/5 so α = 67.4°A 5-12-13 triangle. α is in the first quadrant as required.[1]
  3. So the expression is 13 sin(θ − 67.4°)Worth stating explicitly before using it in part (b).[1]
  4. (b) 13 sin(θ − 67.4°) = 6.5, so sin(θ − 67.4°) = 0.5Dividing by R reduces it to a standard equation.[1]
  5. Interval for θ − 67.4° is −67.4° to 292.6°. Solutions: 30° and 150°Adjusting the interval before solving is what prevents solutions being missed.[1]
  6. θ = 97.4° and θ = 217.4°Adding 67.4° to each, then checking both lie in the original range.[1]
  7. (c) Maximum is 13, when sin(θ − 67.4°) = 1, so θ − 67.4° = 90° and θ = 157.4°The maximum of the combined wave is R, which is the main reason for using this form.[1]

(a) 13 sin(θ − 67.4°); (b) θ = 97.4°, 217.4°; (c) maximum 13 at θ = 157.4°

Q34[3 marks]
Prove the identity (1 − cos 2θ) / sin 2θ = tan θ.
Answer

Using cos 2θ = 1 − 2sin²θ, the numerator becomes 1 − (1 − 2sin²θ) = 2sin²θ. Using sin 2θ = 2 sin θ cos θ, the denominator is 2 sin θ cos θ. So the fraction is 2sin²θ / (2 sin θ cos θ) = sin θ / cos θ = tan θ.

Q35[2 marks]
Differentiate y = 5x³ − 2/x with respect to x.
Answer

Write it as 5x³ − 2x⁻¹. Then dy/dx = 15x² + 2x⁻², that is 15x² + 2/x².

Q36[3 marks]
Find the gradient of the curve y = x² − 4x + 1 at the point where x = 3.
Answer

dy/dx = 2x − 4, so at x = 3 the gradient is 2(3) − 4 = 2.

Q37[2 marks]
Explain how the second derivative distinguishes a maximum from a minimum.
Answer

At a stationary point, if d²y/dx² < 0 it is a maximum; if d²y/dx² > 0 it is a minimum.

Q38[7 marks]
A curve has equation y = x³ − 3x² − 9x + 5.
  1. Find dy/dx. [1]
  2. Find the coordinates of both stationary points. [4]
  3. Determine the nature of each. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. dy/dx = 3x² − 6x − 9[1]
  2. Sets it to zero: 3(x² − 2x − 3) = 0[1]
  3. Factorises: (x − 3)(x + 1) = 0, so x = 3 or x = −1[1]
  4. At x = 3: y = 27 − 27 − 27 + 5 = −22[1]
  5. At x = −1: y = −1 − 3 + 9 + 5 = 10[1]
  6. d²y/dx² = 6x − 6; at x = 3 it is +12, a minimum[1]
  7. At x = −1 it is −12, a maximum[1]

Minimum at (3, −22), maximum at (−1, 10)

Q39[8 marks]
An open-topped box is made from a square sheet of card of side 24 cm by cutting a square of side x cm from each corner and folding up the sides.
  1. Show that the volume is V = x(24 − 2x)². [2]
  2. Find the value of x that maximises the volume. [4]
  3. Calculate that maximum volume. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The base is a square of side 24 − 2xa square is removed from both ends[1]
  2. The height is x, so V = x(24 − 2x)²[1]
  3. Expands: V = 576x − 96x² + 4x³[1]
  4. dV/dx = 576 − 192x + 12x²[1]
  5. Sets to zero: 12(x² − 16x + 48) = 0 → (x − 4)(x − 12) = 0[1]
  6. x = 4; x = 12 is rejected because it leaves no base[1]
  7. V = 4 × 16² = 4 × 256[1]
  8. V = 1024 cm³[1]

x = 4 cm giving V = 1024 cm³

Q40[5 marks]
The displacement of a particle is s = 2t³ − 9t² + 12t metres after t seconds.
  1. Find expressions for the velocity and the acceleration. [2]
  2. Find the times at which the particle is instantaneously at rest. [2]
  3. Find the acceleration at the later of those times. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. v = ds/dt = 6t² − 18t + 12[1]
  2. a = dv/dt = 12t − 18[1]
  3. Sets v = 0: 6(t² − 3t + 2) = 0 → (t − 1)(t − 2) = 0[1]
  4. t = 1 s and t = 2 s[1]
  5. At t = 2: a = 24 − 18 = 6 m s⁻²[1]

v = 6t² − 18t + 12, a = 12t − 18; at rest at t = 1 s and 2 s; a = 6 m s⁻² at t = 2 s

Q41[2 marks]
Find ∫ (6x² − 4x + 3) dx.
Answer

2x³ − 2x² + 3x + c

Q42[3 marks]
Evaluate ∫₁³ (2x + 1) dx.
Answer

[x² + x]₁³ = (9 + 3) − (1 + 1) = 10

Q43[2 marks]
Explain what a definite integral represents geometrically.
Answer

The area between the curve and the x axis, between the two limits. Area below the axis counts as negative.

Q44[6 marks]
The curve y = x² − 4x crosses the x axis at two points.
  1. Find the two points of intersection. [2]
  2. Find the area enclosed between the curve and the x axis. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Sets y = 0: x(x − 4) = 0[1]
  2. x = 0 and x = 4[1]
  3. Integrates: ∫(x² − 4x) dx = x³/3 − 2x²[1]
  4. Evaluates: (64/3 − 32) − 0 = −32/3[1]
  5. Recognises the curve is below the axis on this interval[1]
  6. Area = 32/3 ≈ 10.7 square unitsthe magnitude is taken[1]

(a) x = 0 and x = 4 (b) 32/3 square units

Q45[7 marks]
A curve passes through the point (2, 9) and has gradient dy/dx = 3x² − 2x.
  1. Find the equation of the curve. [4]
  2. Find the area under the curve between x = 0 and x = 2. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Integrates: y = x³ − x² + c[1]
  2. Substitutes the point: 9 = 8 − 4 + c[1]
  3. c = 5[1]
  4. y = x³ − x² + 5[1]
  5. Integrates again: ∫₀² (x³ − x² + 5) dx = [x⁴/4 − x³/3 + 5x]₀²[1]
  6. = 4 − 8/3 + 10[1]
  7. = 34/3 ≈ 11.3 square units[1]

(a) y = x³ − x² + 5 (b) 34/3 square units

Q46[6 marks]
The region bounded by y = x + 2 and y = x² is to be found.
  1. Find the x coordinates of the points of intersection. [2]
  2. Write down the integral that gives the enclosed area. [2]
  3. Evaluate it. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Sets x + 2 = x² → x² − x − 2 = 0[1]
  2. (x − 2)(x + 1) = 0, so x = −1 and x = 2[1]
  3. Recognises the line is above the curve between them[1]
  4. Area = ∫₋₁² [(x + 2) − x²] dx[1]
  5. = [x²/2 + 2x − x³/3]₋₁²[1]
  6. = (2 + 4 − 8/3) − (1/2 − 2 + 1/3) = 9/2[1]

x = −1 and 2; area = 9/2 square units

Q47[2 marks]
Explain how a sign change shows that an equation has a root in a given interval, and state the condition that must hold for the argument to be valid.
Answer

If f(a) and f(b) have opposite signs then the curve must cross zero somewhere between a and b, so a root lies in that interval. The argument requires f to be continuous on the interval — otherwise the sign change could be caused by an asymptote rather than a root.

Q48[3 marks]
Show that the equation x³ + 2x − 7 = 0 has a root between x = 1 and x = 2.
Mark scheme
  1. f(1) = 1 + 2 − 7 = −4Substituting the lower end and evaluating.[1]
  2. f(2) = 8 + 4 − 7 = 5Substituting the upper end. Both values must be shown, not just described.[1]
  3. f is continuous and changes sign from negative to positive, so a root lies between 1 and 2.The concluding statement is a mark of its own, and must mention continuity and the sign change.[1]

f(1) = −4, f(2) = 5; f continuous with a sign change, so a root lies in (1, 2)

Q49[4 marks]
Use the iteration x₍ₙ₊₁₎ = ∛(7 − 2xₙ) with x₀ = 1.5 to find a root of x³ + 2x − 7 = 0, correct to 2 decimal places. Show the value of each approximation.
Mark scheme
  1. x₁ = ∛(7 − 3) = ∛4 = 1.5874Correct substitution of the starting value.[1]
  2. x₂ = ∛(7 − 3.1748) = ∛3.8252 = 1.5637Feeding the previous value back into the same formula.[1]
  3. x₃ = 1.5708, x₄ = 1.5687Continuing until successive values agree to the required accuracy.[1]
  4. x₃ and x₄ both round to 1.57, so the root is 1.57 to 2 d.p.Stating the stopping justification and rounding only at the end.[1]

1.57 (2 d.p.)

Q50[3 marks]
Show that the equation 3x³ − 4x + 2 = 0 can be rearranged into the form x = ∛((4x − 2)/3).
Answer

Starting from 3x³ − 4x + 2 = 0, move the terms across to get 3x³ = 4x − 2. Dividing by 3 gives x³ = (4x − 2)/3, and taking the cube root of both sides gives x = ∛((4x − 2)/3).

Q51[6 marks]
The equation x = cos x has a single root α.
(a) Show that α lies between 0.7 and 0.8.
(b) The iteration x₍ₙ₊₁₎ = cos xₙ is used with x₀ = 0.7. Find α correct to 3 decimal places.
(c) A student instead tries the rearrangement x₍ₙ₊₁₎ = cos⁻¹(xₙ) with x₀ = 0.7 and finds the values move away from α. State what has happened and what the student should do.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) Let f(x) = x − cos x. f(0.7) = 0.7 − 0.7648 = −0.0648Rewriting as f(x) = 0 first is what makes a sign change meaningful. Calculator in radians.[1]
  2. f(0.8) = 0.8 − 0.6967 = +0.1033, so f is continuous with a sign change and α lies between 0.7 and 0.8.Both values plus the concluding statement.[1]
  3. (b) x₁ = cos 0.7 = 0.7648, x₂ = cos 0.7648 = 0.7215The sequence alternates either side of the root — a spiral rather than a staircase, which is still convergence.[1]
  4. x₃ = 0.7508, x₄ = 0.7311, x₅ = 0.7444, … x₁₆ ≈ 0.7391This one converges slowly, so several more steps are needed than usual.[1]
  5. α = 0.739 to 3 d.p.Rounding only once successive values agree at that accuracy.[1]
  6. (c) The iteration has diverged: this rearrangement is unsuitable even though it is algebraically valid. The student should use the rearrangement that converges, x₍ₙ₊₁₎ = cos xₙ.The mark is for recognising divergence as a property of the rearrangement, not an arithmetic mistake.[1]

(a) sign change between 0.7 and 0.8; (b) α = 0.739; (c) the iteration diverges — use x = cos x instead

Q52[2 marks]
Find the magnitude of v = 3i − 4j + 12k.
Answer

|v| = √(9 + 16 + 144) = √169 = 13.

Q53[2 marks]
State two differences between the dot product and the cross product.
Answer

The dot product gives a scalar and is commutative; the cross product gives a vector perpendicular to both, and reversing the order reverses its direction. The dot product is zero for perpendicular vectors, the cross product for parallel ones.

Q54[2 marks]
If a · b = 0 and neither vector is zero, what can you conclude?
Answer

Since a · b = |a||b| cos θ and neither magnitude is zero, cos θ = 0, so θ = 90° — the vectors are perpendicular.

Q55[4 marks]
Given a = i + 2j − k and b = 3i − j + 2k, find a · b and the angle between them.
Mark scheme
  1. a · b = (1)(3) + (2)(−1) + (−1)(2) = 3 − 2 − 2 = −1a negative dot product means an obtuse angle[1]
  2. |a| = √(1 + 4 + 1) = √6[1]
  3. |b| = √(9 + 1 + 4) = √14[1]
  4. cos θ = −1/(√6 √14) = −1/9.165 = −0.109, so θ = 96.3°obtuse, as the negative dot product predicted[1]

a · b = −1; θ ≈ 96.3°

Q56[4 marks]
Find a × b for a = 2i + j + k and b = i − j + 3k, and hence the area of the triangle they form.
Mark scheme
  1. i component: (1)(3) − (1)(−1) = 3 + 1 = 4[1]
  2. j component: −[(2)(3) − (1)(1)] = −5the minus sign on j is where marks are lost[1]
  3. k component: (2)(−1) − (1)(1) = −3, so a × b = 4i − 5j − 3k[1]
  4. Area = ½|a × b| = ½√(16 + 25 + 9) = ½√50 = 3.54accept (5√2)/2[1]

a × b = 4i − 5j − 3k; area ≈ 3.54 square units

Q57[6 marks]
Three vectors are given: a = i + j, b = j + k and c = i + k.
  1. Find b × c.
  2. Hence find the scalar triple product a · (b × c).
  3. State what your answer tells you about the three vectors, and give the volume of the parallelepiped they span.
Mark scheme
  1. b = ⟨0, 1, 1⟩ and c = ⟨1, 0, 1⟩; i component = (1)(1) − (1)(0) = 1[1]
  2. j component = −[(0)(1) − (1)(1)] = 1; k component = (0)(0) − (1)(1) = −1so b × c = i + j − k[1]
  3. a · (b × c) = (1)(1) + (1)(1) + (0)(−1)a = ⟨1, 1, 0⟩[1]
  4. = 2[1]
  5. The triple product is non-zero, so the three vectors are NOT coplanara zero value would have meant they all lay in one plane[1]
  6. Volume = |2| = 2 cubic units[1]

(a) i + j − k (b) 2 (c) not coplanar; volume 2 cubic units

Q58[2 marks]
Explain the difference between the general solution and a particular solution of a differential equation.
Answer

The general solution contains an arbitrary constant and therefore describes a whole family of curves. A particular solution is the single member of that family obtained by using a given condition to find the value of the constant.

Q59[2 marks]
A colony of bacteria decreases at a rate proportional to the number present. Write down a differential equation for the number N at time t, explaining your notation.
Answer

dN/dt = −kN, where k is a positive constant. The minus sign is needed because the colony is decreasing, so the rate of change is negative while N and k are both positive.

Q60[4 marks]
Solve the differential equation dy/dx = 3x²y, given that y = 2 when x = 0.
Mark scheme
  1. Separate: (1/y) dy = 3x² dxEach variable with its own differential.[1]
  2. Integrate: ln|y| = x³ + cA single arbitrary constant is enough.[1]
  3. x = 0, y = 2 gives ln 2 = cApplying the condition before rearranging keeps the algebra simple.[1]
  4. ln(y/2) = x³, so y = 2e^(x³)Exponentiating both sides; y stays positive so the modulus can be dropped.[1]

y = 2e^(x³)

Q61[7 marks]
A tank contains 500 litres of water. Water leaks out so that the volume V litres at time t minutes satisfies dV/dt = −0.02V.
(a) Find V in terms of t.
(b) Find the volume after 30 minutes.
(c) Find the time taken for the volume to halve.
(d) State, with a reason, whether the tank ever empties according to this model.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) Separate and integrate: (1/V) dV = −0.02 dt gives ln V = −0.02t + cV is positive throughout, so the modulus is unnecessary.[1]
  2. At t = 0, V = 500, so c = ln 500, giving V = 500e^(−0.02t)The standard exponential-decay shape.[1]
  3. (b) V = 500e^(−0.6) = 500 × 0.5488 = 274 litresTo 3 significant figures.[1]
  4. (c) 250 = 500e^(−0.02t), so e^(−0.02t) = 0.5Halving means setting V to 250, not subtracting 250.[1]
  5. −0.02t = ln 0.5, so t = 34.7 minutesln 0.5 is negative, and dividing by −0.02 makes t positive — a useful sign check.[1]
  6. (d) As t → ∞, e^(−0.02t) → 0, so V → 0 but never reaches it.An exponential decay approaches zero asymptotically.[1]
  7. So according to this model the tank never completely empties, which shows the model is unrealistic for very small volumes.The final mark is for the interpretation, including the comment on the model's limitation.[1]

(a) V = 500e^(−0.02t); (b) 274 litres; (c) 34.7 min; (d) V → 0 but never reaches it

Q62[4 marks]
Solve dy/dx = (1 + y²)/x for x > 0, given that y = 1 when x = 1.
Mark scheme
  1. Separate: 1/(1 + y²) dy = (1/x) dxRecognising that the right side factorises into a function of x times a function of y.[1]
  2. Integrate: tan⁻¹ y = ln x + cThe integral of 1/(1 + y²) is arctan y — a standard result worth knowing on sight.[1]
  3. x = 1, y = 1: tan⁻¹1 = ln 1 + c, so c = π/4ln 1 = 0, and tan⁻¹1 = π/4 in radians.[1]
  4. y = tan(ln x + π/4)Rearranged with y as the subject, as required.[1]

y = tan(ln x + π/4)

Q63[2 marks]
Define a complex number and state its real and imaginary parts.
Answer

A complex number is any number of the form z = a + bi, where a and b are real and i = √(−1). The real part is a and the imaginary part is b.

Q64[2 marks]
Simplify i¹⁰³.
Answer

The powers of i repeat every four. 103 = 4 × 25 + 3, so i¹⁰³ = i³ = −i.

Q65[2 marks]
Find the modulus of z = −5 + 12i.
Answer

|z| = √((−5)² + 12²) = √(25 + 144) = √169 = 13.

Q66[4 marks]
Express (3 + 2i) / (1 − 4i) in the form a + bi.
Mark scheme
  1. Multiplies numerator and denominator by the conjugate 1 + 4i[1]
  2. Denominator: (1 − 4i)(1 + 4i) = 1 + 16 = 17a² + b², because −16i² = +16[1]
  3. Numerator: (3 + 2i)(1 + 4i) = 3 + 12i + 2i + 8i² = −5 + 14i[1]
  4. = −5/17 + (14/17)imust be split into a + bi form[1]

−5/17 + (14/17)i

Q67[4 marks]
If z₁ = 2 + 3i and z₂ = 4 − i, find z₁z₂ and verify that |z₁z₂| = |z₁||z₂|.
Mark scheme
  1. z₁z₂ = (2 + 3i)(4 − i) = 8 − 2i + 12i − 3i² = 11 + 10i−3i² = +3, which combines with the 8[1]
  2. |z₁z₂| = √(121 + 100) = √221[1]
  3. |z₁| = √13 and |z₂| = √17[1]
  4. |z₁||z₂| = √13 × √17 = √221, equal to |z₁z₂|, so the result is verifiedthe concluding comparison is required[1]

z₁z₂ = 11 + 10i, and both sides equal √221.

Q68[6 marks]
Consider the quadratic equation x² − 6x + 25 = 0.
  1. Show that the equation has no real roots.
  2. Solve the equation, giving the roots in the form a ± bi.
  3. Verify that the sum of the roots is 6 and their product is 25.
Mark scheme
  1. Discriminant = (−6)² − 4(1)(25) = 36 − 100 = −64[1]
  2. The discriminant is negative, so there are no real rootsthe conclusion must be stated, not just the number[1]
  3. x = [6 ± √(−64)] / 2 with √(−64) = 8i[1]
  4. x = 3 ± 4i[1]
  5. Sum = (3 + 4i) + (3 − 4i) = 6the imaginary parts cancel[1]
  6. Product = (3 + 4i)(3 − 4i) = 9 − 16i² = 9 + 16 = 25difference of two squares, with i² = −1[1]

(a) discriminant = −64 < 0 (b) x = 3 ± 4i (c) sum 6, product 25

Q69[2 marks]
Define the modulus and the argument of a complex number.
Answer

The modulus |z| = √(a² + b²) is the distance of the point from the origin on the Argand diagram. The argument is the angle the line from the origin to the point makes with the positive real axis, measured anticlockwise.

Q70[2 marks]
Find the modulus and argument of z = 1 − i.
Answer

r = √(1 + 1) = √2. The point is in the fourth quadrant with α = tan⁻¹(1) = 45°, so θ = −45°.

Q71[2 marks]
What is the geometrical effect of multiplying a complex number by i?
Answer

i has modulus 1 and argument 90°, so multiplying leaves the modulus unchanged and adds 90° to the argument: the point is rotated a quarter turn anticlockwise about the origin.

Q72[4 marks]
Express z = −2 − 2i in polar form.
Mark scheme
  1. r = √(4 + 4) = √8 = 2√2[1]
  2. Acute angle α = tan⁻¹(2/2) = 45°use the absolute values to get the acute angle[1]
  3. Both parts are negative, so the point is in the third quadrant and θ = 45° − 180° = −135°accept 225° if the range is not restricted[1]
  4. z = 2√2 (cos(−135°) + i sin(−135°))[1]

z = 2√2 cis(−135°)

Q73[4 marks]
Use De Moivre's theorem to evaluate (1 + i)⁸.
Mark scheme
  1. r = √2 and θ = 45°, so 1 + i = √2 cis 45°first quadrant, so no adjustment needed[1]
  2. De Moivre: (√2)⁸ cis(8 × 45°)[1]
  3. (√2)⁸ = 2⁴ = 16 and 8 × 45° = 360°[1]
  4. 16(cos 360° + i sin 360°) = 16a real answer, since the argument came back to a full turn[1]

16

Q74[6 marks]
Consider the equation z³ = 8.
  1. Write 8 in polar form.
  2. Find all three cube roots of 8, giving your answers in polar form.
  3. Show that the three roots are equally spaced on a circle, and state its radius.
Mark scheme
  1. 8 = 8(cos 0° + i sin 0°)8 lies on the positive real axis, so its argument is 0°[1]
  2. Roots have modulus 8^(1/3) = 2[1]
  3. Arguments (0 + 360k)/3 for k = 0, 1, 2, giving 0°, 120°, 240°adding 360° each time before dividing is what produces the extra roots[1]
  4. Roots: 2 cis 0°, 2 cis 120°, 2 cis 240°the first is the obvious real root 2[1]
  5. The arguments differ by 120° = 360°/3, so the roots are equally spacedthey form an equilateral triangle[1]
  6. All three have modulus 2, so they lie on a circle of radius 2 centred at the origin[1]

(b) 2 cis 0°, 2 cis 120°, 2 cis 240° (c) equally spaced 120° apart on a circle of radius 2

04

Mechanics

Multiple choice · 46

Q1Two forces of 3 N and 4 N act at a point. Which resultant is IMPOSSIBLE?

  1. A1 N
  2. B5 N
  3. C7 N
  4. D8 N
Show answer

Correct answer: D — 8 N

The resultant of two vectors ranges from |4 − 3| = 1 N when they are antiparallel to 4 + 3 = 7 N when they are parallel. 8 N lies outside that range and cannot be produced at any angle. 5 N is the perpendicular case.

Q2A force of 20 N acts at 60° above the horizontal. Its horizontal component is:

  1. A10 N
  2. B17.3 N
  3. C20 N
  4. D11.5 N
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 10 N

20 cos 60° = 20 × 0.5 = 10 N. The 17.3 N answer is 20 sin 60°, the vertical component — swapping sine and cosine is the most common slip here. Check by asking which component should be smaller: at a steep 60°, most of the force points upward.

Q3Which of these is a scalar?

  1. AMomentum
  2. BWork
  3. CTorque
  4. DElectric field
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Work

Work is a scalar, even though it is calculated from two vectors — the dot product of force and displacement returns a plain number. Momentum, torque and electric field all carry direction.

Q4A body is in equilibrium under three forces. This means:

  1. AAll three forces are equal
  2. BThe three forces form a closed triangle when drawn head to tail
  3. CNo forces act on the body
  4. DThe forces are all perpendicular
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The three forces form a closed triangle when drawn head to tail

Zero resultant means that placing the three vectors head to tail brings you back to the starting point — a closed triangle. They need not be equal in magnitude or perpendicular, and "no forces act" describes a different situation entirely.

Q5A 10 N weight hangs on a string. The tension in the string is 10 N. This is because:

  1. ATension always equals weight
  2. BThe forces are an action–reaction pair
  3. CThe weight is in equilibrium, so the upward and downward forces must cancel
  4. DStrings cannot stretch
Show answer

Correct answer: C — The weight is in equilibrium, so the upward and downward forces must cancel

It follows from equilibrium: ΣF = 0 vertically, so tension must equal weight here. It is not a general rule — accelerate the weight upward and the tension exceeds 10 N. And the two forces act on the same object, so they are not an action–reaction pair.

Q6On an inclined plane at angle θ, the component of weight acting down the slope is:

  1. Amg cos θ
  2. Bmg sin θ
  3. Cmg tan θ
  4. Dmg
Show answer

Correct answer: B — mg sin θ

mg sin θ acts along the slope and mg cos θ presses perpendicular into it. Sanity check with θ = 0: a flat surface should give zero force along it, and sin 0° = 0. The cos version would wrongly give the full weight.

Q7A 10 kg block sits still on a rough floor with μ = 0.4 and no applied force. The friction acting on it is:

  1. A39.2 N
  2. B98 N
  3. C0 N
  4. D4 N
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 0 N

Friction opposes motion or attempted motion. With nothing pushing the block there is nothing to oppose, so friction is zero. μR = 39.2 N is only the maximum available, not the actual value.

Q8For a block on a slope of angle θ, the normal reaction is:

  1. Amg
  2. Bmg sin θ
  3. Cmg cos θ
  4. Dmg tan θ
Show answer

Correct answer: C — mg cos θ

R balances the component of weight perpendicular to the surface, which is mg cos θ. At θ = 0 this correctly reduces to mg.

Q9A block just begins to slide when the slope reaches 30°. The coefficient of friction is:

  1. A0.50
  2. B0.58
  3. C0.87
  4. D30
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0.58

μ = tan 30° = 0.577. Using sin 30° = 0.5 gives the tempting wrong answer.

Q10Doubling the mass of a block on an adjustable slope changes the angle at which it slips by:

  1. Adoubling it
  2. Bhalving it
  3. Cnot at all
  4. Ddepends on μ
Show answer

Correct answer: C — not at all

At the point of slipping mg sin θ = μmg cos θ, and mg cancels. The critical angle depends only on μ.

Q11Two particles are connected over a smooth pulley by a light inextensible string. Which is true?

  1. Athe tensions differ on each side
  2. Bthe accelerations differ
  3. Cboth share one acceleration magnitude
  4. Dthe heavier one has a larger acceleration
Show answer

Correct answer: C — both share one acceleration magnitude

An inextensible string forces both to move together, so the magnitudes of their accelerations are equal. A light string over a smooth pulley also gives equal tension throughout.

Q12Masses of 7 kg and 3 kg hang over a smooth pulley. The tension must be:

  1. Aless than 3g
  2. Bbetween 3g and 7g
  3. Cmore than 7g
  4. Dexactly 5g
Show answer

Correct answer: B — between 3g and 7g

If T were outside that range one of the particles could not accelerate in the observed direction. Checking this catches sign errors quickly.

Q13A block slides down a rough slope. The friction acting on it is:

  1. Aless than μR
  2. Bexactly μR
  3. Cgreater than μR
  4. Dzero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — exactly μR

Once sliding, friction takes its maximum value μR and acts up the slope. The inequality only applies while the block is still static.

Q14A particle on a rough table is pulled horizontally by a string. Its weight appears in the horizontal equation of motion:

  1. Aas mg
  2. Bas mg sin θ
  3. Cnot at all
  4. Das μmg
Show answer

Correct answer: C — not at all

The weight is vertical and is balanced by the normal reaction. It enters only indirectly, through R, which sets the size of the friction.

Q15An athlete runs exactly one lap of a 400 m circular track in 50 s. Their average velocity is:

  1. A8 m s⁻¹
  2. B0 m s⁻¹
  3. C400 m s⁻¹
  4. D4 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0 m s⁻¹

Average velocity is displacement ÷ time, and after a complete lap the displacement is zero — start and finish are the same point. The 8 m s⁻¹ answer is the average speed, which uses distance instead.

Q16A car moves at a constant 20 m s⁻¹ around a circular bend. Which statement is true?

  1. AIts velocity is constant
  2. BIts acceleration is zero
  3. CIt is accelerating because its direction is changing
  4. DIt cannot accelerate while its speed is constant
Show answer

Correct answer: C — It is accelerating because its direction is changing

Velocity is a vector, so changing direction changes the velocity even at constant speed — and a changing velocity is what acceleration means. The acceleration points toward the centre of the bend.

Q17An object has negative velocity and negative acceleration. It is:

  1. AMoving forwards and slowing down
  2. BMoving backwards and speeding up
  3. CMoving backwards and slowing down
  4. DStationary
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Moving backwards and speeding up

Matching signs mean the acceleration acts in the same direction as the motion, so the object speeds up. The common error is reading "negative acceleration" as "deceleration", which is only true when the velocity is positive.

Q18On a velocity–time graph, the area between the line and the time axis represents:

  1. AAcceleration
  2. BDisplacement
  3. CSpeed
  4. DForce
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Displacement

Velocity × time = displacement, and the area is that product accumulated. The gradient of the same graph gives acceleration — the two are the pair most often swapped.

Q19A horizontal line on a velocity–time graph means the object is:

  1. AStationary
  2. BMoving at constant velocity
  3. CAccelerating uniformly
  4. DChanging direction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Moving at constant velocity

Constant velocity, so zero acceleration. A stationary object would be a horizontal line sitting on the time axis itself, at v = 0 — a special case, not the general meaning.

Q20A stone is dropped from rest and falls for 3.0 s. Taking g = 10 m s⁻², how far does it fall?

  1. A15 m
  2. B30 m
  3. C45 m
  4. D90 m
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 45 m

s = ut + ½at² with u = 0 gives s = ½ × 10 × 3.0² = 45 m. Answer B is the mistake of calculating v = at = 30 and calling it a distance; answer A comes from forgetting to square the time.

Q21Which equation of motion would you choose if the question gives u, a and s, and asks for v?

  1. Av = u + at
  2. Bs = ut + ½at²
  3. Cv² = u² + 2as
  4. Ds = ½(u + v)t
Show answer

Correct answer: C — v² = u² + 2as

The unknown you neither have nor want is t, so use the equation that omits t. Options A and B both contain t and would need it to be found first — twice the work and twice the chance of an arithmetic slip.

Q22Two balls leave a table edge at the same moment — one dropped, one thrown horizontally at 5 m s⁻¹. Ignoring air resistance:

  1. AThe dropped ball lands first
  2. BThe thrown ball lands first
  3. CThey land at the same time
  4. DIt depends on their masses
Show answer

Correct answer: C — They land at the same time

Vertical and horizontal motion are independent. Both start with zero vertical velocity and fall the same height under the same g, so both take the same time. The thrown ball merely covers ground while it falls.

Q23At the highest point of a projectile's path, its velocity is:

  1. AZero
  2. BEqual to the horizontal component of the launch velocity
  3. CEqual to the launch velocity
  4. DDirected vertically upward
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Equal to the horizontal component of the launch velocity

Only the vertical component reaches zero at the top. Nothing acts horizontally, so that component is unchanged throughout the flight and is the whole of the velocity at the peak.

Q24A projectile is launched on level ground. Which launch angle gives the greatest range?

  1. A30°
  2. B45°
  3. C60°
  4. D90°
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 45°

Range = u² sin 2θ / g, largest when sin 2θ = 1, so 2θ = 90° and θ = 45°. A 90° launch goes straight up and lands back at the launch point with zero range — the answer that catches anyone reasoning "higher must be further".

Q25The SUVAT equations may only be used when:

  1. AThe object is falling freely
  2. BThe acceleration is constant
  3. CThe velocity is constant
  4. DAir resistance is present
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The acceleration is constant

Constant acceleration is the one condition. Free fall is a common case of it, not the requirement. Where acceleration varies, you need the gradient and area of a graph, or calculus.

Q26Air resistance acts on a projectile. Compared with the ideal path, the actual path has:

  1. AA longer range and a symmetric shape
  2. BA shorter range and a steeper descent than ascent
  3. CThe same range but a lower peak
  4. DA longer time of flight
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A shorter range and a steeper descent than ascent

Drag opposes the motion throughout, cutting both range and maximum height, and the descent becomes steeper than the ascent — so the path is no longer a symmetric parabola.

Q27The unit of momentum is:

  1. AN s⁻¹
  2. Bkg m s⁻¹
  3. CJ
  4. DN m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — kg m s⁻¹

p = mv gives kg × m s⁻¹. It is also equal to the newton second, since impulse and momentum share a unit.

Q28Momentum is conserved in:

  1. AElastic collisions only
  2. BInelastic collisions only
  3. CAll collisions with no external resultant force
  4. DNo collisions
Show answer

Correct answer: C — All collisions with no external resultant force

Momentum is always conserved provided no external resultant force acts. Kinetic energy is the quantity that separates elastic from inelastic.

Q29Two objects stick together after colliding. The collision is:

  1. AElastic
  2. BInelastic
  3. CImpossible
  4. DFrictionless
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Inelastic

Sticking together always means kinetic energy was lost to heat, sound and deformation. Momentum is still conserved.

Q30A 2 kg object moves at 3 m s⁻¹. Its momentum is:

  1. A1.5 kg m s⁻¹
  2. B6 kg m s⁻¹
  3. C9 kg m s⁻¹
  4. D0.67 kg m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6 kg m s⁻¹

p = mv = 2 × 3 = 6 kg m s⁻¹. Dividing gives 0.67 and confuses momentum with something that has no physical meaning here.

Q31Airbags reduce injury mainly because they:

  1. AReduce the change in momentum
  2. BIncrease the time of the collision, reducing the force
  3. CIncrease the mass of the passenger
  4. DAbsorb the momentum
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Increase the time of the collision, reducing the force

The change in momentum is fixed by the crash. Extending Δt reduces F, since F = Δp/Δt. Nothing "absorbs" momentum — it is transferred, not destroyed.

Q32A stationary object explodes into two fragments. Their total momentum afterwards is:

  1. AZero
  2. BEqual to the mass of the object
  3. CDoubled
  4. DImpossible to determine
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Zero

It was zero before, and momentum is conserved, so it must be zero after. The two fragments carry equal and opposite momenta.

Q33A ball of mass 0.2 kg hits a wall at 5 m s⁻¹ and rebounds at 5 m s⁻¹. The magnitude of its change in momentum is:

  1. A0
  2. B1 kg m s⁻¹
  3. C2 kg m s⁻¹
  4. D0.5 kg m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 2 kg m s⁻¹

The velocity changes from +5 to −5, a change of 10 m s⁻¹, so Δp = 0.2 × 10 = 2 kg m s⁻¹. Answer A treats the speeds as equal and therefore unchanged, which ignores direction.

Q34Force is best defined as the rate of change of:

  1. AVelocity
  2. BMomentum
  3. CEnergy
  4. DDisplacement
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Momentum

F = Δp/Δt is the general form of Newton's second law, and reduces to F = ma when the mass is constant.

Q35A bullet is fired horizontally at the same instant an identical bullet is dropped from the same height. Which lands first?

  1. AThe fired bullet
  2. BThe dropped bullet
  3. CThey land at the same time
  4. DIt depends on the bullet mass
Show answer

Correct answer: C — They land at the same time

Vertical and horizontal motion are independent. Both bullets start with zero vertical velocity and fall under the same gravity, so both take identical time to reach the ground. The fired bullet simply travels much further horizontally while doing it.

Q36A projectile is launched at 30°. Which other angle gives the same horizontal range at the same speed?

  1. A45°
  2. B60°
  3. C75°
  4. DNone — 30° is unique
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 60°

Range depends on sin(2θ), and sin(60°) = sin(120°), so 30° and 60° pair up. The 60° shot goes higher and stays in the air longer but moves more slowly across; the two effects cancel exactly. Maximum range is at 45°.

Q37You push a wall and it pushes back equally. Why does nothing accelerate?

  1. AThe forces cancel out on the same object
  2. BThe two forces act on different objects, and the wall is anchored to the Earth
  3. CNewton's third law does not apply to walls
  4. DFriction removes both forces
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The two forces act on different objects, and the wall is anchored to the Earth

Your push acts on the wall; the wall's push acts on you. They never appear on the same free-body diagram, so they cannot cancel. Nothing accelerates because the wall is bolted to the ground and friction on your feet balances the force on you.

Q38A 2 kg ball is dropped from 5 m. Ignoring air resistance, its speed just before landing is about:

  1. A5 m/s
  2. B10 m/s
  3. C14 m/s
  4. D20 m/s
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10 m/s

Energy conservation: mgh = ½mv², and the mass cancels from both sides. So v = √(2gh) = √(2 × 9.81 × 5) = √98.1 ≈ 9.9 m/s, which rounds to 10 m/s. Note that a 5 kg ball dropped from the same height arrives at exactly the same speed.

Q39A pendulum swings with friction. What happens to the total energy?

  1. AIt is destroyed
  2. BIt converts to heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls
  3. CIt stays exactly constant
  4. DIt increases as the pendulum slows
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It converts to heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls

Energy is never destroyed. Friction converts the ordered kinetic energy into disordered thermal energy in the air and pivot. The mechanical total (KE + PE) falls, but the total including heat is unchanged.

Q40Two cars collide and lock together. Which quantity is definitely conserved?

  1. AKinetic energy only
  2. BMomentum only
  3. CBoth momentum and kinetic energy
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Momentum only

Momentum is conserved in every collision, since no external horizontal force acts during the impact. Kinetic energy is not: this is a perfectly inelastic collision, and a large fraction of it goes into crumpling metal, heat and noise.

Q41A waiter carries a tray horizontally at constant speed across a room. The work done by the waiter on the tray is:

  1. ALarge and positive
  2. BZero
  3. CNegative
  4. DEqual to the weight of the tray
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Zero

The supporting force is vertical and the movement is horizontal, so θ = 90° and cos 90° = 0. Effort is not the same as work — your arm gets tired maintaining the force, but no energy is transferred to the tray.

Q42A car doubles its speed. Its kinetic energy:

  1. ADoubles
  2. BHalves
  3. CQuadruples
  4. DStays the same
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Quadruples

KE = ½mv², so v → 2v gives (2v)² = 4v². This is why braking distance grows roughly fourfold when speed doubles: the brakes must dissipate four times the energy.

Q43A 2 kg ball is dropped from 5 m. Taking g = 10 m s⁻² and ignoring air resistance, its speed on landing is:

  1. A5 m s⁻¹
  2. B10 m s⁻¹
  3. C20 m s⁻¹
  4. D100 m s⁻¹
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10 m s⁻¹

mgh = ½mv², and the mass cancels: v = √(2gh) = √(2 × 10 × 5) = 10 m s⁻¹. The 100 answer is v² left un-square-rooted, and the mass being given at all is a deliberate distraction.

Q44A motor lifts a 50 kg load 4 m in 10 s. Taking g = 10 m s⁻², its useful power output is:

  1. A20 W
  2. B200 W
  3. C2000 W
  4. D500 W
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 200 W

Work = mgh = 50 × 10 × 4 = 2000 J, and power = 2000 ÷ 10 = 200 W. The 2000 W answer is the work in joules read off as watts — always check whether you have divided by the time.

Q45A pendulum swings back and forth with friction present. Over time:

  1. ATotal energy is destroyed
  2. BKE and PE both fall, and the difference becomes heat
  3. CPE is converted entirely into KE with no loss
  4. DThe period grows steadily longer
Show answer

Correct answer: B — KE and PE both fall, and the difference becomes heat

Energy is never destroyed — it leaves the pendulum as heat and sound, so the mechanical total falls. The period, notably, stays essentially the same as the swing dies away, which is the isochronism that made pendulum clocks work.

Q46A machine takes in 500 J and delivers 350 J of useful output. Its efficiency is:

  1. A70%
  2. B143%
  3. C150%
  4. D35%
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 70%

350 ÷ 500 × 100 = 70%. The remaining 150 J has not vanished; it has been dissipated as heat, sound and vibration. Any efficiency above 100% means you have divided the wrong way round.

Exam-style questions · 35

Q1[2 marks]
State the difference between a scalar and a vector quantity, and give one example of each.
Answer

A scalar has magnitude only, for example mass. A vector has both magnitude and direction, for example velocity.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why displacement can be zero when the distance travelled is not.
Answer

Distance is the total path length, a scalar that only ever grows. Displacement is the straight line from start to finish, so returning to the starting point makes it zero.

Q3[2 marks]
State what is meant by the resultant of two forces.
Answer

The single force that has the same effect on the body as the two forces acting together.

Q4[5 marks]
A force of 8.0 N acts due east and a force of 6.0 N acts due north on the same object. Calculate the magnitude and direction of the resultant.
Mark scheme
  1. Recognises the forces are perpendicular, so Pythagoras applies[1]
  2. R = √(8.0² + 6.0²)[1]
  3. R = 10.0 N[1]
  4. Uses tan θ = 6.0 / 8.0[1]
  5. θ = 36.9° north of easta direction with no reference line scores nothing[1]

10.0 N at 36.9° north of east

Q5[8 marks]
A box of weight 250 N rests on a slope inclined at 20° to the horizontal.
  1. Explain what is meant by resolving a vector. [2]
  2. Calculate the component of the weight acting down the slope. [3]
  3. Calculate the component acting perpendicular to the slope. [2]
  4. State what the perpendicular component is balanced by. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Replacing one vector by two components at right angles to each other[1]
  2. Which together have the same effect as the original vector[1]
  3. Uses W sin θ for the component along the slope[1]
  4. = 250 × sin 20°[1]
  5. = 85.5 N[1]
  6. Uses W cos θ = 250 × cos 20°[1]
  7. = 235 N[1]
  8. The normal contact force from the surface of the slope[1]

(b) 85.5 N (c) 235 N

Q6[6 marks]
A swimmer can swim at 1.2 m s⁻¹ in still water. She heads straight across a river 30 m wide that flows at 0.90 m s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the time taken to cross. [2]
  2. Calculate how far downstream she lands. [2]
  3. Calculate her resultant speed relative to the bank. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The current does not affect the crossing time: t = 30 / 1.2perpendicular components are independent[1]
  2. t = 25 s[1]
  3. Uses distance = 0.90 × 25[1]
  4. = 22.5 m downstream[1]
  5. Uses √(1.2² + 0.90²)[1]
  6. = 1.5 m s⁻¹[1]

(a) 25 s (b) 22.5 m (c) 1.5 m s⁻¹

Q7[2 marks]
A block rests on a rough horizontal table and is not moving. Explain why it is wrong to write F = μR for the friction acting on it.
Answer

F = μR gives the maximum friction available, which occurs only when the block is on the point of slipping or already sliding. A stationary block that is not on the point of moving experiences only as much friction as is needed to balance the other forces, so F < μR.

Q8[3 marks]
A block is on the point of sliding down a rough slope inclined at angle θ. Show that tan θ = μ.
Answer

Resolving perpendicular to the slope: R = mg cos θ. On the point of sliding, friction is at its maximum and acts up the slope, so resolving along the slope gives mg sin θ = μR = μ mg cos θ. Dividing both sides by mg cos θ gives tan θ = μ.

Q9[4 marks]
A box of mass 12 kg rests on a rough horizontal floor with μ = 0.35. A horizontal force of 50 N is applied. Determine whether the box moves, and if so find its acceleration. Take g = 9.8 m s⁻².
Mark scheme
  1. R = mg = 12 × 9.8 = 117.6 NHorizontal surface, so the normal reaction equals the weight.[1]
  2. Maximum friction = μR = 0.35 × 117.6 = 41.16 NThis is the largest force friction can supply.[1]
  3. 50 N > 41.16 N, so the box moves.The comparison is the answer to the first part and must be stated.[1]
  4. Resultant = 50 − 41.16 = 8.84 N, so a = 8.84/12 = 0.737 m s⁻²Once sliding, friction is exactly μR, so it can be subtracted directly.[1]

It moves, with a = 0.737 m s⁻²

Q10[7 marks]
Particles A of mass 4 kg and B of mass 6 kg are connected by a light inextensible string over a smooth pulley at the edge of a table. A lies on the rough horizontal table with μ = 0.2; B hangs freely. The system is released from rest. Take g = 9.8 m s⁻².
(a) Find the acceleration of the system.
(b) Find the tension in the string.
(c) State one assumption made in modelling the string, and explain its effect.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) For A on the table: R = 4g = 39.2 N, so friction = μR = 0.2 × 39.2 = 7.84 NA slides, so friction is at its maximum and opposes the motion.[1]
  2. For A, along the table: T − 7.84 = 4aA's weight is balanced by R and does not enter the horizontal equation.[1]
  3. For B, taking down as positive: 6g − T = 6a, that is 58.8 − T = 6aB falls, so down is the positive direction for B.[1]
  4. Adding: 58.8 − 7.84 = 10aAdding eliminates T, as always with connected particles.[1]
  5. a = 50.96/10 = 5.10 m s⁻²Less than g, as it must be, since friction and A's inertia both resist.[1]
  6. (b) T = 4a + 7.84 = 20.38 + 7.84 = 28.2 NSubstituting into A's equation. T is less than B's weight of 58.8 N, as expected.[1]
  7. (c) The string is light, so its mass need not be accelerated and the tension is the same throughout; and inextensible, so both particles share one acceleration.Either assumption earns the mark provided its consequence is explained.[1]

(a) 5.10 m s⁻²; (b) 28.2 N; (c) light and inextensible — equal tension, equal acceleration

Q11[2 marks]
Two blocks of the same material, one of mass 2 kg and one of mass 20 kg, rest on identical adjustable slopes. Which slips first as the slopes are slowly raised? Justify your answer.
Answer

Neither — they slip at the same angle. At the point of slipping tan θ = μ, and the mass cancels out of that derivation entirely. Since both blocks are of the same material on the same surface, μ is identical, so the critical angle is identical.

Q12[4 marks]
A cyclist travelling at 4.0 m s⁻¹ accelerates uniformly to 10.0 m s⁻¹ over a distance of 42 m.
  1. Calculate the acceleration of the cyclist.
  2. Calculate the time taken.
Mark scheme
  1. Selects v² = u² + 2asthe equation without t, since t is not given in part (a)[1]
  2. 10.0² = 4.0² + 2 × a × 42100 = 16 + 84aa = 1.0 m s⁻²unit required for the mark[1]
  3. Selects v = u + at (or s = ½(u+v)t)[1]
  4. 10.0 = 4.0 + 1.0tt = 6.0 s[1]

(a) 1.0 m s⁻² (b) 6.0 s

Q13[5 marks]
A stone is dropped from rest at the top of a cliff and hits the sea 3.2 s later. Take g = 9.81 m s⁻² and ignore air resistance.
  1. Calculate the height of the cliff.
  2. Calculate the speed at which the stone hits the water.
  3. State one effect of air resistance on your answer to (b).
Mark scheme
  1. Uses s = ut + ½at² with u = 0"dropped from rest" is what tells you u = 0[1]
  2. s = ½ × 9.81 × 3.2² = 50.2 ≈ 50 m[1]
  3. Uses v = u + ator v² = u² + 2as[1]
  4. v = 9.81 × 3.2 = 31.4 ≈ 31 m s⁻¹[1]
  5. The actual speed would be lower / the stone would reach terminal velocitya statement about direction of change is enough[1]

(a) 50 m (b) 31 m s⁻¹ (c) the speed would be less

Q14[6 marks]
The velocity–time graph of a train shows: a uniform rise from 0 to 20 m s⁻¹ over the first 40 s, a constant 20 m s⁻¹ for the next 60 s, then a uniform fall to rest over the final 30 s.
  1. Calculate the acceleration during the first 40 s.
  2. Calculate the total distance travelled.
  3. Calculate the average speed for the whole journey.
Mark scheme
  1. Acceleration = gradient = (20 − 0) / 40gradient of a velocity–time graph is acceleration[1]
  2. = 0.50 m s⁻²[1]
  3. Recognises distance = area under the graphthis is the mark most often missed[1]
  4. Triangle ½ × 40 × 20 = 400; rectangle 60 × 20 = 1200; triangle ½ × 30 × 20 = 300all three areas needed[1]
  5. Total = 1900 m[1]
  6. Average speed = 1900 / 130 = 14.6 ≈ 15 m s⁻¹total distance ÷ total time, not the mean of the velocities[1]

(a) 0.50 m s⁻² (b) 1900 m (c) 15 m s⁻¹

Q15[5 marks]
A ball is thrown horizontally at 15 m s⁻¹ from the top of a building 45 m high. Take g = 10 m s⁻² and ignore air resistance.
  1. Calculate the time the ball takes to reach the ground.
  2. Calculate the horizontal distance travelled.
  3. Explain why the time in (a) does not depend on the horizontal speed.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses vertical motion with u_y = 0: 45 = ½ × 10 × t²"thrown horizontally" means the initial vertical velocity is zero[1]
  2. t² = 9.0, t = 3.0 s[1]
  3. Uses s_x = u_x t with constant horizontal velocity[1]
  4. s_x = 15 × 3.0 = 45 m[1]
  5. Horizontal and vertical motion are independent / gravity acts only vertically, so the vertical motion is unaffected by the horizontal velocity[1]

(a) 3.0 s (b) 45 m (c) the two components are independent

Q16[3 marks]
Define displacement, and state one situation in which the magnitude of an object's displacement is smaller than the distance it has travelled.
Mark scheme
  1. Displacement is the straight-line distance from the starting point to the finishing point[1]
  2. …together with its direction / it is a vector quantitythe direction is required for the second mark[1]
  3. Any curved or non-straight path, e.g. a runner going round a bend, a car following a winding roada full circular lap, where displacement is zero, also earns this[1]
Q17[2 marks]
Differentiate between distance and displacement.
Answer

Distance is the total length of the path travelled, a scalar. Displacement is the straight line from start to finish together with its direction, a vector.

Q18[2 marks]
Can a body have zero velocity and non-zero acceleration? Explain.
Answer

Yes. A ball thrown vertically upward is momentarily at rest at the top of its flight, but gravity still acts, so its acceleration is g downward.

Q19[4 marks]
A car travelling at 25 m s⁻¹ brakes uniformly and stops in 5.0 s. Calculate the deceleration and the distance travelled while braking.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses a = (v − u)/t = (0 − 25)/5.0[1]
  2. a = −5.0 m s⁻², a deceleration of 5.0 m s⁻²the negative sign or the word deceleration, not both required[1]
  3. Uses s = ½(u + v)t or v² = u² + 2as[1]
  4. s = ½(25 + 0) × 5.0 = 62.5 m[1]

deceleration 5.0 m s⁻², distance 62.5 m

Q20[6 marks]
A 1200 kg car travelling at 15 m s⁻¹ collides with a stationary 800 kg car. The two lock together.
  1. Calculate the total momentum before the collision.
  2. Calculate their common velocity immediately after.
  3. State whether kinetic energy is conserved, and name the type of collision.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses p = mv[1]
  2. p = 1200 × 15 = 18 000 kg m s⁻¹the stationary car contributes nothing[1]
  3. Applies conservation: total after = 18 000 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  4. Combined mass 2000 kg, so v = 18 000 / 2000 = 9.0 m s⁻¹[1]
  5. Kinetic energy is not conserved[1]
  6. Inelastic collisionobjects sticking together is always inelastic[1]

(a) 1.8 × 10⁴ kg m s⁻¹ (b) 9.0 m s⁻¹ (c) not conserved; inelastic

Q21[5 marks]
A rifle of mass 4.0 kg fires a bullet of mass 0.020 kg at 400 m s⁻¹.
  1. Calculate the recoil velocity of the rifle.
  2. Explain, using momentum, why a heavier rifle recoils more slowly.
Mark scheme
  1. Total momentum before is zeronothing is moving[1]
  2. 0 = 0.020 × 400 + 4.0 × v[1]
  3. v = −8.0 / 4.0 = −2.0 m s⁻¹, i.e. 2.0 m s⁻¹ backwardsdirection required[1]
  4. The rifle's momentum must equal the bullet's in size and be opposite in direction[1]
  5. Since p = mv is fixed, a larger m gives a smaller v[1]

2.0 m s⁻¹ backwards

Q22[4 marks]
A 0.15 kg ball hits a wall at 12 m s⁻¹ and rebounds at 8.0 m s⁻¹. The contact lasts 0.050 s. Calculate the average force on the ball.
Mark scheme
  1. Takes the initial direction as positive, so the rebound velocity is −8.0 m s⁻¹the sign is the whole question[1]
  2. Δp = m(v − u) = 0.15 × (−8.0 − 12) = −3.0 kg m s⁻¹a change of 20 m s⁻¹, not 4[1]
  3. Uses F = Δp/Δt[1]
  4. F = −3.0 / 0.050 = −60 N, i.e. 60 N away from the wall[1]

60 N, directed away from the wall

Q23[2 marks]
State the principle of conservation of momentum, including the condition under which it applies.
Answer

The total momentum of a system before an interaction equals the total momentum after it, provided no resultant external force acts on the system.

Q24[2 marks]
Explain why a cricketer moves their hands backwards while catching a fast ball.
Answer

It increases the time over which the ball is brought to rest. Since F = Δp/Δt and the change in momentum is fixed, a longer time means a smaller force on the hands.

Q25[9 marks]
A 0.045 kg golf ball is struck by a club. The ball leaves the tee at 60 m s⁻¹ and the contact lasts 0.50 ms.
  1. Calculate the change in momentum of the ball. [2]
  2. Calculate the average force exerted by the club. [3]
  3. The club has a mass of 0.30 kg and was moving at 70 m s⁻¹ before impact. Calculate its speed immediately afterwards. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Uses Δp = m(v − u) with u = 0the ball starts at rest on the tee[1]
  2. Δp = 0.045 × 60 = 2.7 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  3. Converts the time: 0.50 ms = 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ s[1]
  4. Uses F = Δp/Δt[1]
  5. F = 2.7 / 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ = 5400 N[1]
  6. Applies conservation of momentum to club and ball together[1]
  7. Before: 0.30 × 70 = 21 kg m s⁻¹the ball contributes nothing[1]
  8. After: 21 = 0.30 × v + 2.7[1]
  9. v = 18.3 / 0.30 = 61 m s⁻¹[1]

(a) 2.7 kg m s⁻¹ (b) 5400 N (c) 61 m s⁻¹

Q26[2 marks]
State Newton's third law and give the two conditions an action–reaction pair must satisfy.
Answer

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The two forces are of the same type and act on different bodies.

Q27[2 marks]
Why does a passenger lurch forward when a bus brakes suddenly?
Answer

By Newton's first law the passenger continues moving at the same velocity because no resultant force acts on them; the bus decelerates beneath them, so they move forward relative to it.

Q28[2 marks]
Define momentum and state its SI unit.
Answer

The product of mass and velocity, p = mv. A vector quantity. SI unit: kg m s⁻¹.

Q29[4 marks]
A trolley of mass 2.0 kg moving at 3.0 m s⁻¹ collides with a stationary trolley of mass 4.0 kg. They stick together. Calculate their common velocity after the collision.
Mark scheme
  1. States conservation of momentum: total before = total after[1]
  2. Before: p = 2.0 × 3.0 + 4.0 × 0 = 6.0 kg m s⁻¹[1]
  3. After: combined mass = 6.0 kg, so 6.0 = 6.0 × vthey stick together, so they share one velocity[1]
  4. v = 1.0 m s⁻¹ in the original directiondirection expected for full marks[1]

1.0 m s⁻¹ in the direction of the original motion

Q30[4 marks]
A force of 15 N acts on a 3.0 kg block resting on a surface. Friction opposing the motion is 6.0 N. Calculate the acceleration of the block.
Mark scheme
  1. Resultant force = 15 − 6.0 = 9.0 Nfriction opposes, so it subtracts[1]
  2. Uses F = ma[1]
  3. a = F/m = 9.0 / 3.0[1]
  4. a = 3.0 m s⁻²unit required[1]

3.0 m s⁻²

Q31[2 marks]
Define work done and state the condition under which it is zero even though a force acts.
Answer

Work = force × distance moved in the direction of the force, W = Fs cos θ. It is zero when the force is perpendicular to the motion, since cos 90° = 0.

Q32[2 marks]
State the law of conservation of energy.
Answer

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred from one store to another. The total energy of a closed system remains constant.

Q33[2 marks]
A ball bounces to a lower height each time. Has energy been destroyed? Explain.
Answer

No. Energy is transferred to heat and sound in the ball and the floor at each bounce, so less remains as gravitational potential energy. The total is unchanged.

Q34[4 marks]
A pump raises 300 kg of water through a height of 12 m in 40 s. Calculate the useful power output. Take g = 10 N kg⁻¹.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses E = mghthe useful energy is the gravitational potential energy gained[1]
  2. E = 300 × 10 × 12 = 36 000 J[1]
  3. Uses P = E/t[1]
  4. P = 36 000 / 40 = 900 Wunit required[1]

900 W

Q35[4 marks]
A 1200 kg car accelerates from rest to 20 m s⁻¹. Calculate its gain in kinetic energy, and the average power developed if this takes 8.0 s.
Mark scheme
  1. Uses KE = ½mv²[1]
  2. KE = ½ × 1200 × 20² = 240 000 Jsquare the velocity before multiplying[1]
  3. Gain in KE = 240 000 J since it started from rest[1]
  4. P = 240 000 / 8.0 = 30 000 W = 30 kW[1]

2.4 × 10⁵ J and 30 kW

05

Probability & Statistics 1

Multiple choice · 64

Q1The median of 3, 7, 9, 15, 21 is:

  1. A9
  2. B11
  3. C7
  4. D15
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 9

The data is already in order and there are five values, so the middle one is the third: 9. Option B is the mean, which is a different statistic.

Q2The class boundaries of the class 30–39 are:

  1. A30 and 39
  2. B29.5 and 39.5
  3. C30.5 and 38.5
  4. D29 and 40
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 29.5 and 39.5

Boundaries lie half a unit outside the limits so that consecutive classes meet without a gap. The class 30–39 really covers everything from 29.5 up to 39.5.

Q3Which average is most affected by an extreme value?

  1. AMode
  2. BMedian
  3. CMean
  4. DRange
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Mean

The mean is calculated from every value, so a single very large or very small one shifts it substantially. The median depends only on position, and the mode only on frequency.

Q4For grouped data, the mean is calculated using:

  1. Aclass limits
  2. Bclass midpoints
  3. Cclass boundaries
  4. Dthe modal class
Show answer

Correct answer: B — class midpoints

The original values are lost after grouping, so every value in a class is assumed to sit at its midpoint. This is why the answer is an estimate rather than the exact mean.

Q5A shopkeeper wants to know which size of shirt to order most of. He should use the:

  1. Amean
  2. Bmedian
  3. Cmode
  4. Drange
Show answer

Correct answer: C — mode

The mode is the most frequently occurring size, which is exactly what "order most of" asks for. A mean size of 39.6 would not correspond to any shirt he can buy.

Q6The range of 14, 22, 9, 30, 18 is:

  1. A21
  2. B16
  3. C30
  4. D9
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 21

Largest 30 minus smallest 9 gives 21. The range is a single number, not an interval, so writing "9 to 30" would not be accepted.

Q7Two data sets have the same mean but different standard deviations. This tells you:

  1. Athey are identical
  2. Bone is more spread out than the other
  3. Cone has more values
  4. Done has a larger range only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — one is more spread out than the other

The standard deviation measures spread. A larger one means values sit typically further from the mean, even though the centres of the two sets coincide.

Q8Why are deviations squared when calculating variance?

  1. ATo make the arithmetic easier
  2. BBecause the deviations would otherwise total zero
  3. CTo convert to percentages
  4. DTo remove the frequencies
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because the deviations would otherwise total zero

By the definition of the mean, the positive and negative deviations cancel exactly, so their sum is always zero. Squaring makes them all positive so the spread survives the addition.

Q9On a histogram with unequal class widths, the vertical axis shows:

  1. Afrequency
  2. Bfrequency density
  3. Ccumulative frequency
  4. Dclass width
Show answer

Correct answer: B — frequency density

Area must represent frequency, so height must be frequency ÷ width. Plotting raw frequency would exaggerate the wider classes.

Q10Cumulative frequency is plotted against:

  1. Athe class midpoint
  2. Bthe lower class boundary
  3. Cthe upper class boundary
  4. Dthe frequency
Show answer

Correct answer: C — the upper class boundary

The running total for a class is only complete at the top of that class, so the upper boundary is the correct horizontal position.

Q11For 60 observations, the median is read from the ogive at a cumulative frequency of:

  1. A30
  2. B15
  3. C45
  4. D60
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 30

N/2 = 30. Q₁ would be read at 15 and Q₃ at 45.

Q12If Q₁ = 12 and Q₃ = 28, the interquartile range is:

  1. A40
  2. B16
  3. C8
  4. D20
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 16

IQR = Q₃ − Q₁ = 28 − 12 = 16. Option C is the semi-interquartile range, which is half of it.

Q13A class 20–30 has frequency 24 and a class 30–50 has frequency 24. On a histogram:

  1. Aboth bars have the same height
  2. Bthe second bar is half as tall
  3. Cthe second bar is twice as tall
  4. Dthe bars have equal area but different heights
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the second bar is half as tall

Densities are 24/10 = 2.4 and 24/20 = 1.2, so the second bar is half as tall. Its double width keeps the areas equal, which is exactly the point of frequency density.

Q14The mean of grouped data is described as an estimate because:

  1. Athe frequencies are approximate
  2. Bindividual values are replaced by class midpoints
  3. Cthe classes overlap
  4. Dthe total is rounded
Show answer

Correct answer: B — individual values are replaced by class midpoints

Grouping discards the actual values, so every observation in a class is assumed to sit at its midpoint. That assumption is what makes the answer an estimate.

Q15If the mean is noticeably greater than the median, the distribution is:

  1. Asymmetrical
  2. Bskewed with a tail to the right
  3. Cskewed with a tail to the left
  4. Dbimodal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — skewed with a tail to the right

A few unusually large values pull the mean up while leaving the median where it is. That long right-hand tail is positive skew.

Q16Which measure of spread is least affected by an extreme value?

  1. ARange
  2. BInterquartile range
  3. CMean
  4. DClass width
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Interquartile range

The IQR is built only from Q₁ and Q₃, so the top and bottom quarters of the data — where any extreme value lives — have no effect on it.

Q17Points falling from top left to bottom right show:

  1. Apositive correlation
  2. Bnegative correlation
  3. Cno correlation
  4. Dcausation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — negative correlation

As one variable increases the other decreases, which is negative correlation. Its strength depends on how closely the points follow the trend.

Q18A line of best fit should pass through:

  1. Athe origin
  2. Bthe first and last points
  3. Cthe middle of the points and the two means
  4. Dthe highest point
Show answer

Correct answer: C — the middle of the points and the two means

It summarises the trend, so it belongs among the points with roughly equal numbers above and below. There is no reason for it to pass through the origin.

Q19Predicting beyond the range of the data is called:

  1. Ainterpolation
  2. Bextrapolation
  3. Ccorrelation
  4. Dregression
Show answer

Correct answer: B — extrapolation

It assumes the relationship continues where nothing was measured, and is the less reliable of the two.

Q20A prediction from a line of best fit is most reliable when:

  1. Athe correlation is weak
  2. Bthe value is far outside the range
  3. Cthe correlation is strong and the value is inside the range
  4. Dthere are few points
Show answer

Correct answer: C — the correlation is strong and the value is inside the range

Strong correlation means the points lie close to the line, and staying inside the range means the pattern has actually been observed there.

Q21Ice cream sales correlate with drowning deaths because:

  1. Aice cream causes drowning
  2. Bhot weather causes both
  3. Cdrowning causes ice cream sales
  4. Dthe data is wrong
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hot weather causes both

Temperature is a third factor driving both independently — the standard illustration that correlation is not causation.

Q22Towns with more doctors have more illness. The likely explanation is:

  1. Adoctors cause illness
  2. Bpopulation size causes both
  3. Cillness causes doctors to be born
  4. Dcoincidence only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — population size causes both

Bigger towns have more of everything. Comparing doctors and illness per head of population would test whether any real relationship remains.

Q23On a scatter diagram showing no correlation, you should:

  1. Adraw a horizontal line of best fit
  2. Bdraw no line of best fit
  3. Cextrapolate carefully
  4. Dplot more axes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — draw no line of best fit

There is no trend to summarise, so a line would suggest a relationship the data does not support.

Q24Correlation between two variables means:

  1. Aone causes the other
  2. Bthey tend to change together
  3. Cthey are equal
  4. Dthe data is reliable
Show answer

Correct answer: B — they tend to change together

It describes a tendency to move together and nothing more. Establishing a cause requires a controlled investigation.

Q25⁶P₂ equals:

  1. A15
  2. B30
  3. C36
  4. D12
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 30

6 × 5 = 30. Option A is ⁶C₂, which does not distinguish the order of the two chosen items.

Q26How many ways can 4 people be seated around a round table?

  1. A24
  2. B12
  3. C6
  4. D4
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 6

(4 − 1)! = 3! = 6. Rotating everyone one seat clockwise is not a new arrangement, so one person is fixed.

Q27A committee of 4 from 9 people can be chosen in:

  1. A3024 ways
  2. B126 ways
  3. C36 ways
  4. D24 ways
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 126 ways

⁹C₄ = 126, because a committee has no internal order. 3024 is ⁹P₄, which would treat the four roles as distinct.

Q28The number of arrangements of the letters in LEVEL is:

  1. A120
  2. B60
  3. C30
  4. D20
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 30

5 letters with L twice and E twice, so 5!/(2!2!) = 120/4 = 30.

Q29¹²C₁₀ is quickest to evaluate as:

  1. A¹²C₂ = 66
  2. B12 × 10
  3. C12!/10!
  4. D¹²P₁₀
Show answer

Correct answer: A — ¹²C₂ = 66

ⁿCᵣ = ⁿCₙ₋ᵣ, so ¹²C₁₀ = ¹²C₂ = (12 × 11)/2 = 66 — two lines instead of ten.

Q30How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 1–5 with no repeats?

  1. A10
  2. B125
  3. C60
  4. D15
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 60

Order matters in a number, so ⁵P₃ = 5 × 4 × 3 = 60. Option B would allow repeated digits.

Q31Five books are arranged on a shelf with two particular ones always together. The number of arrangements is:

  1. A120
  2. B48
  3. C24
  4. D60
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 48

Glue the pair into one block: 4 items arrange in 4! = 24 ways, and the pair can swap internally in 2 ways, giving 48.

Q32Choosing 3 flavours from 8 for a bowl of ice cream is a:

  1. Apermutation, ⁸P₃
  2. Bcombination, ⁸C₃
  3. Ccircular arrangement
  4. Drepetition problem
Show answer

Correct answer: B — combination, ⁸C₃

The scoops end up in one bowl, so the order they were chosen in makes no difference — a selection, counted by ⁸C₃ = 56.

Q33A fair die is rolled. P(an even number) is:

  1. A1/6
  2. B1/3
  3. C1/2
  4. D2/3
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/2

Three of the six faces (2, 4, 6) are even, so P = 3/6 = 1/2.

Q34If P(E) = 0.28, then P(E′) is:

  1. A0.72
  2. B0.28
  3. C1.28
  4. D0.5
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 0.72

The complement rule gives 1 − 0.28 = 0.72. An event and its complement always account for the whole sample space, so they must total 1.

Q35Two coins are tossed. P(exactly one head) is:

  1. A1/4
  2. B1/2
  3. C1/3
  4. D3/4
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1/2

The sample space is {HH, HT, TH, TT}. Two of the four outcomes have exactly one head, so P = 2/4 = 1/2. Treating HT and TH as the same outcome gives the wrong answer 1/3.

Q36A card is drawn from 52. P(a red king) is:

  1. A2/52
  2. B4/52
  3. C13/52
  4. D26/52
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 2/52

There are exactly two red kings, hearts and diamonds, so P = 2/52 = 1/26. Option B counts all four kings, including the black ones.

Q37Which value could NOT be a probability?

  1. A0
  2. B0.999
  3. C5/4
  4. D1
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5/4

5/4 = 1.25 exceeds 1, which is impossible: an event cannot be more than certain. Zero and one are both perfectly valid, representing impossible and certain events.

Q38A bag has 4 red and 6 blue balls. Two are drawn with replacement. P(both red) is:

  1. A16/100
  2. B12/90
  3. C4/10
  4. D2/5
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 16/100

With replacement the bag is restored, so both draws have P(red) = 4/10 and the events are independent: (4/10)(4/10) = 16/100 = 4/25. Option B would be the answer without replacement.

Q39Events A and B are mutually exclusive with P(A) = 0.3 and P(B) = 0.45. P(A or B) is:

  1. A0.135
  2. B0.75
  3. C0.615
  4. D0.15
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 0.75

Mutually exclusive means the overlap is zero, so the general rule reduces to simple addition: 0.3 + 0.45 = 0.75. Option A multiplies instead of adding.

Q40P(at least one head in three tosses of a fair coin) is:

  1. A3/8
  2. B1/2
  3. C7/8
  4. D1/8
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 7/8

Use the complement: P(no heads) = (1/2)³ = 1/8, so P(at least one) = 1 − 1/8 = 7/8. Listing all the favourable cases would take seven lines to reach the same answer.

Q41Two events are mutually exclusive when:

  1. Athey are independent
  2. Bthey cannot occur together
  3. Cthey always occur together
  4. Dthey have equal probability
Show answer

Correct answer: B — they cannot occur together

Mutual exclusivity means the intersection is empty, so P(A ∩ B) = 0. It says nothing about the events being equally likely.

Q42A fair die is rolled twice. P(two sixes) is:

  1. A1/3
  2. B1/12
  3. C1/36
  4. D2/6
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1/36

The rolls are independent, so multiply: (1/6)(1/6) = 1/36. Adding would be the rule for OR, which is a different question.

Q43For independent events with P(A) = 0.5 and P(B) = 0.4, P(A ∪ B) is:

  1. A0.9
  2. B0.2
  3. C0.7
  4. D0.1
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 0.7

P(A ∩ B) = 0.5 × 0.4 = 0.2, so P(A ∪ B) = 0.5 + 0.4 − 0.2 = 0.7. Simply adding gives 0.9, which double-counts the overlap.

Q44From a bag of 3 red and 2 blue, two are drawn without replacement. P(both red) is:

  1. A9/25
  2. B3/10
  3. C6/20
  4. D1/2
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3/10

(3/5) × (2/4) = 6/20 = 3/10. Option A is the answer with replacement, and option C is the same value unsimplified — the paper expects lowest terms.

Q45P(at least one head in 4 tosses of a fair coin) is:

  1. A1/16
  2. B4/16
  3. C15/16
  4. D1/2
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 15/16

P(no heads) = (1/2)⁴ = 1/16, so P(at least one) = 1 − 1/16 = 15/16.

Q46On a tree diagram, the probabilities on the branches from one node must:

  1. Asum to 1
  2. Bbe equal
  3. Cmultiply to 1
  4. Dsum to the number of branches
Show answer

Correct answer: A — sum to 1

Those branches cover every possibility at that stage, so their probabilities must total exactly 1. It is the fastest check for an error before you go further.

Q47P(B|A) = P(B) tells you that:

  1. AA and B are mutually exclusive
  2. BA and B are independent
  3. CB is impossible
  4. DA implies B
Show answer

Correct answer: B — A and B are independent

The occurrence of A has left the probability of B unchanged, which is exactly the definition of independence.

Q48A coin has landed tails eight times. The probability of tails on the ninth toss is:

  1. Aless than 1/2
  2. Bmore than 1/2
  3. Cexactly 1/2
  4. Dimpossible to say
Show answer

Correct answer: C — exactly 1/2

Tosses are independent, so the coin carries no memory of what has already happened. Expecting a correction is the gambler's fallacy.

Q49For any discrete random variable, ΣP(X = x) equals:

  1. A0
  2. B1
  3. CE(X)
  4. Dn
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1

The list of values covers every possibility and they are mutually exclusive, so the probabilities must total 1.

Q50E(X) is best described as:

  1. Athe most likely value
  2. Bthe long-run average
  3. Cthe middle value
  4. Dthe largest probability
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the long-run average

It is the mean over many repetitions — the balance point. It need not be likely, or even possible.

Q51Var(X) is given by:

  1. AE(X²) − [E(X)]²
  2. B[E(X)]² − E(X²)
  3. CE(X) − E(X²)
  4. D√(E(X²))
Show answer

Correct answer: A — E(X²) − [E(X)]²

The mean of the squares minus the square of the mean. Reversing the order gives a negative number, which cannot be a variance.

Q52X takes values 1, 2, 3 with probabilities 0.5, 0.3, 0.2. E(X) is:

  1. A2.0
  2. B1.7
  3. C2.3
  4. D6.0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1.7

1(0.5) + 2(0.3) + 3(0.2) = 0.5 + 0.6 + 0.6 = 1.7. The value 2.0 would be the unweighted average, which ignores the probabilities.

Q53Which situation is NOT binomial?

  1. A20 coin tosses, counting heads
  2. Bdrawing 5 cards without replacement, counting aces
  3. C10 dice rolls, counting sixes
  4. D15 components tested, counting faults
Show answer

Correct answer: B — drawing 5 cards without replacement, counting aces

Drawing without replacement changes the probability with each draw and makes the trials dependent, breaking two of the four conditions.

Q54For X ~ B(30, 0.2), the mean and variance are:

  1. A6 and 6
  2. B6 and 4.8
  3. C0.2 and 30
  4. D6 and 24
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6 and 4.8

E(X) = np = 6 and Var(X) = np(1 − p) = 30 × 0.2 × 0.8 = 4.8. Forgetting the (1 − p) factor gives 6.

Q55P(X ⩾ 3) is equal to:

  1. A1 − P(X ⩽ 3)
  2. B1 − P(X ⩽ 2)
  3. CP(X > 3)
  4. D1 − P(X = 3)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 − P(X ⩽ 2)

"At least 3" includes 3, so the complement is everything up to and including 2. Using P(X ⩽ 3) would wrongly remove the value 3 as well.

Q56A student computes Var(X) = −0.6. This means:

  1. Athe spread is small
  2. Bthere is an arithmetic error
  3. Cthe distribution is skewed
  4. DX is continuous
Show answer

Correct answer: B — there is an arithmetic error

Variance is an average of squares and can never be negative. The usual causes are squaring the probabilities or forgetting to square the mean.

Q57For X ~ N(100, 36), the standard deviation is:

  1. A36
  2. B6
  3. C18
  4. D10
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6

The second parameter is the variance, so σ = √36 = 6. Using 36 directly is the most common error in the topic.

Q58For a continuous distribution, P(X < 7) compared with P(X ⩽ 7) is:

  1. Asmaller
  2. Blarger
  3. Cequal
  4. Dimpossible to say
Show answer

Correct answer: C — equal

P(X = 7) = 0 because a single point encloses no area, so including or excluding the endpoint changes nothing.

Q59If z = −1.5, then P(Z < −1.5) equals:

  1. AΦ(1.5)
  2. B1 − Φ(1.5)
  3. C−Φ(1.5)
  4. DΦ(1.5) − 1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 − Φ(1.5)

By symmetry the area left of −1.5 equals the area right of +1.5, which is 1 − Φ(1.5). A probability can never be negative, ruling out two options immediately.

Q60X ~ N(50, 16) and x = 58. The z-score is:

  1. A0.5
  2. B2
  3. C8
  4. D1.6
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2

σ = √16 = 4, so z = (58 − 50)/4 = 2. Dividing by 16 instead of 4 gives 0.5.

Q61P(a < Z < b) is given by:

  1. AΦ(b) + Φ(a)
  2. BΦ(b) − Φ(a)
  3. CΦ(b − a)
  4. D1 − Φ(b) − Φ(a)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Φ(b) − Φ(a)

Both table values are areas to the left, so subtracting leaves the strip between them.

Q62About what proportion lies within two standard deviations of the mean?

  1. A68%
  2. B90%
  3. C95%
  4. D99.7%
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 95%

The 68-95-99.7 rule gives about 95% within two standard deviations. 68% is one, and 99.7% is three.

Q63To find the mark exceeded by the top 5%, you need the z value:

  1. A1.645
  2. B1.960
  3. C−1.645
  4. D0.95
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1.645

The top 5% lies above the 95th percentile, whose z-score is 1.645. The value 1.960 corresponds to the top 2.5%.

Q64Standardising a normal distribution changes:

  1. Athe shape of the curve
  2. Bonly the labelling of the axis
  3. Cthe total area
  4. Dthe symmetry
Show answer

Correct answer: B — only the labelling of the axis

The curve is identical; only the scale beneath it is renamed in standard deviations. That is precisely why a single table can serve every normal distribution.

Exam-style questions · 46

Q1[2 marks]
Define class boundaries and explain how they differ from class limits.
Answer

Class limits are the values written in the table, such as 20–29. Class boundaries are the true dividing values, 19.5 and 29.5, obtained by going half a unit beyond each limit so that consecutive classes meet with no gap.

Q2[2 marks]
Why is the mean unsuitable as an average for a data set containing one extremely large value?
Answer

The mean uses every value in its calculation, so one very large value pulls it far above the bulk of the data and it no longer represents a typical member of the set. The median should be used instead, because it depends only on position and is unaffected by extremes.

Q3[2 marks]
The shoe sizes sold in a shop in one day were: 7, 8, 8, 9, 8, 10, 7. Which average should the manager use for restocking, and why?
Answer

The mode, which is size 8. The manager needs to know which size sells most often; a mean of 8.14 is not a size that can be ordered.

Q4[4 marks]
Find the mean, median and mode of: 12, 15, 11, 15, 18, 14, 15, 20.
Mark scheme
  1. Σx = 12 + 15 + 11 + 15 + 18 + 14 + 15 + 20 = 120, n = 8[1]
  2. Mean = 120/8 = 15[1]
  3. In order: 11, 12, 14, 15, 15, 15, 18, 20. Median is the mean of the 4th and 5th values = (15 + 15)/2 = 15the data must be ordered first — this is where marks are lost[1]
  4. Mode = 15, occurring three times[1]

Mean = 15, median = 15, mode = 15

Q5[4 marks]
The heights of 30 plants are grouped as: 10–14 (f = 4), 15–19 (f = 7), 20–24 (f = 11), 25–29 (f = 6), 30–34 (f = 2). Estimate the mean height and state the modal class.
Mark scheme
  1. Midpoints 12, 17, 22, 27, 32midpoint of 10–14 is (10 + 14)/2 = 12[1]
  2. fx values 48, 119, 242, 162, 64, so Σfx = 635[1]
  3. x̄ = 635 / 30 = 21.2 cm (1 d.p.)accept 21.17[1]
  4. Modal class is 20–24, the class with the highest frequencythe class is required, not a single value[1]

Estimated mean ≈ 21.2 cm; modal class 20–24

Q6[6 marks]
Two students have the following marks in five tests. Ali: 60, 62, 58, 61, 59. Bilal: 40, 80, 55, 75, 50.
  1. Find the mean mark of each student.
  2. Find the range for each student.
  3. Which student is more consistent? Justify your answer using both statistics.
Mark scheme
  1. Ali: Σx = 300, mean = 300/5 = 60[1]
  2. Bilal: Σx = 300, mean = 300/5 = 60the means are identical, which is the point of the question[1]
  3. Ali's range = 62 − 58 = 4[1]
  4. Bilal's range = 80 − 40 = 40[1]
  5. Ali is more consistent[1]
  6. Both have the same mean, so the mean cannot separate them; Ali's much smaller range shows his marks are clustered close together, while Bilal's vary widelythe justification must refer to the equal means as well as the ranges[1]

(a) both 60 (b) Ali 4, Bilal 40 (c) Ali — same mean but far smaller spread

Q7[2 marks]
State two differences between a bar chart and a histogram.
Answer

A bar chart displays discrete categories with gaps between the bars, and only the heights are meaningful. A histogram displays continuous data with no gaps, and it is the area of each bar that represents the frequency.

Q8[2 marks]
Why is cumulative frequency plotted against the upper class boundary?
Answer

Because the cumulative total for a class counts every observation up to and including the top of that class. The count "36 or fewer" is only complete at the upper boundary, so plotting at the midpoint would claim the total was reached earlier than it was.

Q9[2 marks]
Define the interquartile range and state one advantage it has over the range.
Answer

IQR = Q₃ − Q₁, the spread of the middle 50% of the data. Unlike the range it is unaffected by extreme values, since it depends only on the quartiles and ignores the top and bottom quarters entirely.

Q10[4 marks]
The masses of 50 parcels are grouped: 0–5 kg (6), 5–10 kg (14), 10–15 kg (18), 15–20 kg (9), 20–25 kg (3). Estimate the mean mass and state the modal class.
Mark scheme
  1. Midpoints 2.5, 7.5, 12.5, 17.5, 22.5[1]
  2. fx values 15, 105, 225, 157.5, 67.5 with Σfx = 570[1]
  3. x̄ = 570 / 50 = 11.4 kgaccept 11.4 kg[1]
  4. Modal class 10–15 kg, having the greatest frequency of 18a class, not a single value[1]

Estimated mean 11.4 kg; modal class 10–15 kg

Q11[4 marks]
A cumulative frequency curve for 80 students gives Q₁ = 42, median = 55 and Q₃ = 68 marks. Find the interquartile range, the semi-interquartile range, and estimate how many students scored above 68.
Mark scheme
  1. IQR = 68 − 42 = 26 marks[1]
  2. Semi-IQR = 26 / 2 = 13 marks[1]
  3. Q₃ is the value below which three quarters of the data lie, so 3/4 × 80 = 60 students scored 68 or less[1]
  4. 80 − 60 = 20 students scored above 68a quarter of the data lies above Q₃, by definition[1]

IQR 26 marks; semi-IQR 13 marks; 20 students above 68

Q12[6 marks]
The lifetimes of 100 bulbs in hours are grouped: 0–200 (10), 200–400 (25), 400–600 (35), 600–800 (20), 800–1000 (10).
  1. Construct the cumulative frequency table.
  2. Describe how you would use the ogive to estimate the median.
  3. Estimate the mean lifetime and comment on how it compares with the median.
Mark scheme
  1. Cumulative frequencies 10, 35, 70, 90, 100the last value must equal 100[1]
  2. Points plotted at the upper boundaries 200, 400, 600, 800, 1000, starting from (0, 0)[1]
  3. Draw a horizontal line at N/2 = 50 to the curve and read down to the horizontal axisthe median is about 490 hours[1]
  4. Midpoints 100, 300, 500, 700, 900 with Σfx = 1000 + 7500 + 17500 + 14000 + 9000 = 49 000[1]
  5. x̄ = 49 000 / 100 = 490 hours[1]
  6. The mean and median are almost identical, which indicates that the distribution is roughly symmetrical with no strong skewthe comment is required, not just the two numbers[1]

(a) 10, 35, 70, 90, 100 (b) read across at 50 and down to the axis (c) mean ≈ 490 h, almost equal to the median, so the data is nearly symmetrical

Q13[2 marks]
Describe the correlation you would expect between a car's age and its value.
Answer

Negative correlation — as age increases, value decreases. It would likely be fairly strong, since age is one of the main determinants of a used car's price.

Q14[2 marks]
What does it mean if a scatter diagram shows no correlation?
Answer

The points show no pattern — as one variable changes the other does not tend to change in any particular direction. The two appear unrelated, and no line of best fit should be drawn.

Q15[2 marks]
Why should a line of best fit not be used to predict far outside the plotted data?
Answer

That is extrapolation: it assumes the relationship continues into a region where nothing was measured. The pattern may change or stop, and the prediction may be impossible — such as a predicted mark above 100%.

Q16[4 marks]
A scatter diagram of revision hours against exam mark shows strong positive correlation, with data ranging from 2 to 12 hours.
  1. A student revises for 8 hours. Comment on the reliability of a prediction from the line.
  2. Another revises for 30 hours. Comment on that prediction.
Mark scheme
  1. 8 hours lies within the data range of 2 to 12interpolation[1]
  2. and the correlation is strong, so the points lie close to the line — the prediction is reasonably reliableboth conditions must be checked[1]
  3. 30 hours is far outside the range, so this is extrapolation[1]
  4. The relationship may not continue — marks are capped at 100%, and returns from extra revision are likely to diminish — so the prediction is unreliablea concrete reason is needed[1]

(a) reliable — inside the range and strong correlation (b) unreliable — extrapolation beyond the evidence

Q17[4 marks]
A newspaper reports that towns with more libraries have higher crime rates, and concludes that libraries cause crime. Evaluate this conclusion.
Mark scheme
  1. The conclusion is not justified — correlation does not establish causation[1]
  2. A third factor explains both: population sizenaming it is the key mark[1]
  3. Larger towns have more libraries and also more crime simply because more people live there[1]
  4. Comparing crime and libraries per head of population would test whether any real relationship existsproposing the fix earns the fourth mark[1]

Unjustified — population size causes both. Compare per head of population instead.

Q18[6 marks]
A teacher records the number of days each of 30 students was absent and their end-of-year mark. The scatter diagram shows moderate negative correlation.
  1. Explain what "moderate negative correlation" means here.
  2. Describe how to draw and use a line of best fit to estimate the mark of a student absent for 6 days.
  3. A colleague concludes that absence causes low marks. Give two reasons this may not follow.
Mark scheme
  1. As the number of absences increases, marks tend to decreasethe direction[1]
  2. "Moderate" means the points are somewhat scattered about the trend, so the relationship is real but not tightthe strength[1]
  3. Draw a straight line through the middle of the points, with roughly equal numbers above and below, passing through the point of the two means[1]
  4. Read up from 6 on the absence axis to the line, then across to the mark axis, showing both construction linesshowing the lines is usually a mark[1]
  5. Reason 1: a third factor such as prolonged illness or difficulty at home could cause both the absence and the lower marks[1]
  6. Reason 2: the causation could run the other way — a student who is struggling may become discouraged and stop attendingaccept that moderate correlation means many students do not fit the trend[1]

(a) marks tend to fall as absence rises, with noticeable scatter (b) line through the middle, read up then across (c) a third factor such as illness, or reversed causation

Q19[2 marks]
Distinguish between a permutation and a combination.
Answer

A permutation is an arrangement in which the order matters, counted by ⁿPᵣ. A combination is a selection in which order is irrelevant, counted by ⁿCᵣ. Since each selection of r objects can be arranged in r! ways, ⁿPᵣ = r! ⁿCᵣ.

Q20[2 marks]
Evaluate ⁸C₃ and ⁸P₃.
Answer

⁸C₃ = 8!/(3!5!) = 56 and ⁸P₃ = 8!/5! = 8 × 7 × 6 = 336. Note that 336 = 3! × 56.

Q21[2 marks]
In how many ways can 7 people be seated around a circular table?
Answer

(7 − 1)! = 6! = 720. One person is fixed to remove the rotations, and the remaining six are arranged around them.

Q22[4 marks]
How many different arrangements are there of the letters of the word STATISTICS?
Mark scheme
  1. 10 letters in total[1]
  2. Repeats: S three times, T three times, I twiceA and C appear once each[1]
  3. 10! / (3! 3! 2!)one factorial for each repeated letter[1]
  4. = 3 628 800 / 72 = 50 400[1]

50 400

Q23[4 marks]
A committee of 5 is to be chosen from 6 men and 4 women. In how many ways can this be done if the committee must contain at least 3 women?
Mark scheme
  1. Order does not matter, so combinations are useda committee is a selection[1]
  2. Case 3 women: ⁴C₃ × ⁶C₂ = 4 × 15 = 60choose the women, then the men to fill the rest[1]
  3. Case 4 women: ⁴C₄ × ⁶C₁ = 1 × 6 = 6there are only 4 women, so this is the last case[1]
  4. Total = 60 + 6 = 66add the cases, never multiply them[1]

66

Q24[6 marks]
Six students, including Ali and Sara, are to be arranged in a row for a photograph.
  1. In how many ways can they be arranged?
  2. In how many of these are Ali and Sara standing next to each other?
  3. In how many are they NOT next to each other?
Mark scheme
  1. Six distinct people in a row: 6! = 720order matters, and nothing is repeated[1]
  2. Treat Ali and Sara as one block, giving 5 items to arrange: 5! = 120the glue technique[1]
  3. Ali and Sara can swap within the block: × 2! = 2the internal arrangement is easy to forget[1]
  4. Together in 120 × 2 = 240 ways[1]
  5. Not together = total − togethercounting the complement is far quicker than counting directly[1]
  6. = 720 − 240 = 480[1]

(a) 720 (b) 240 (c) 480

Q25[2 marks]
Define the sample space of an experiment, and write the sample space for tossing two coins.
Answer

The sample space is the set of all possible outcomes of the experiment. For two coins, S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}, so n(S) = 4.

Q26[2 marks]
What does it mean for two events to be mutually exclusive? Give an example.
Answer

Two events are mutually exclusive if they cannot occur at the same time, so P(A and B) = 0. Example: on a single roll of a die, "getting a 2" and "getting a 5".

Q27[2 marks]
The probability that it rains tomorrow is 0.35. What is the probability that it does not rain?
Answer

P(no rain) = 1 − 0.35 = 0.65, using the complement rule P(E′) = 1 − P(E).

Q28[3 marks]
A bag holds 5 red, 4 green and 3 blue marbles. One marble is drawn at random. Find the probability that it is (i) green, (ii) not blue.
Mark scheme
  1. Total n(S) = 5 + 4 + 3 = 12the total is the denominator throughout[1]
  2. P(green) = 4/12 = 1/3lowest terms expected[1]
  3. P(not blue) = 1 − 3/12 = 9/12 = 3/4accept counting 5 + 4 = 9 favourable outcomes directly[1]

(i) 1/3 (ii) 3/4

Q29[4 marks]
Two dice are rolled. Find the probability that (i) the total is 7, (ii) the total is at least 10.
Mark scheme
  1. n(S) = 6 × 6 = 36ordered pairs, so (2,5) and (5,2) both count[1]
  2. Total 7 arises from (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), (6,1) — six ways, so P = 6/36 = 1/67 is the most likely total on two dice[1]
  3. At least 10 means 10, 11 or 12: (4,6), (5,5), (6,4), (5,6), (6,5), (6,6) — six wayslisting them is safer than trying to count in your head[1]
  4. P = 6/36 = 1/6[1]

(i) 1/6 (ii) 1/6

Q30[6 marks]
A box contains 7 white and 3 black balls. Two balls are drawn one after the other without replacement.
  1. Draw a tree diagram showing the probabilities.
  2. Find the probability that both balls are white.
  3. Find the probability that the two balls are of different colours.
Mark scheme
  1. First-stage branches 7/10 white and 3/10 black[1]
  2. Second-stage branches with denominator 9 throughout: 6/9, 3/9 after white; 7/9, 2/9 after blackone ball fewer, so the denominator drops to 9[1]
  3. P(both white) = (7/10) × (6/9)multiply along the branch[1]
  4. = 42/90 = 7/15[1]
  5. Different colours = white then black, or black then white: (7/10)(3/9) + (3/10)(7/9)both orders are needed[1]
  6. = 21/90 + 21/90 = 42/90 = 7/15[1]

(b) 7/15 (c) 7/15

Q31[2 marks]
Distinguish between mutually exclusive and independent events.
Answer

Mutually exclusive events cannot occur together, so P(A ∩ B) = 0. Independent events can occur together, but one occurring does not affect the probability of the other, so P(A ∩ B) = P(A) × P(B).

Q32[2 marks]
A fair coin is tossed 6 times and lands heads every time. What is the probability of heads on the seventh toss? Explain.
Answer

1/2. Successive tosses are independent, so the coin has no memory of previous results and the probability is unchanged. Expecting a tail to "even things out" is the gambler's fallacy.

Q33[2 marks]
Two balls are drawn from a bag without replacement. Are the two draws independent? Explain.
Answer

No. Removing the first ball changes both the number of balls left and the composition of the bag, so the probability for the second draw depends on what the first was. The draws are dependent, and the second-stage probabilities are conditional.

Q34[4 marks]
A card is drawn from a standard pack of 52. Find the probability that it is a heart or a face card (jack, queen or king).
Mark scheme
  1. P(heart) = 13/52 and P(face) = 12/52twelve face cards: three in each of four suits[1]
  2. The events are not mutually exclusive; there are 3 cards that are bothjack, queen and king of hearts[1]
  3. Uses P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B) − P(A ∩ B) = 13/52 + 12/52 − 3/52[1]
  4. = 22/52 = 11/26[1]

11/26

Q35[4 marks]
The probability that Aisha passes an exam is 0.8 and that Bilal passes is 0.6. The results are independent. Find the probability that (i) both pass, (ii) at least one passes.
Mark scheme
  1. Independent, so P(both) = 0.8 × 0.6[1]
  2. = 0.48[1]
  3. P(neither) = 0.2 × 0.4 = 0.08multiply the two failure probabilities[1]
  4. P(at least one) = 1 − 0.08 = 0.92accept the direct route 0.48 + 0.32 + 0.12 = 0.92[1]

(i) 0.48 (ii) 0.92

Q36[6 marks]
A box contains 4 defective and 6 good bulbs. Two bulbs are chosen at random without replacement.
  1. Draw a tree diagram for the two selections.
  2. Find the probability that both bulbs are good.
  3. Find the probability that at least one bulb is defective.
Mark scheme
  1. First stage: P(good) = 6/10, P(defective) = 4/10the two branches must sum to 1[1]
  2. Second stage after a good bulb: 5/9 good, 4/9 defective; after a defective: 6/9 good, 3/9 defectivedenominator 9 throughout, since one bulb has gone[1]
  3. P(both good) = (6/10) × (5/9)multiply along the branch[1]
  4. = 30/90 = 1/3[1]
  5. Uses the complement: P(at least one defective) = 1 − P(both good)"at least one defective" is the exact opposite of "both good"[1]
  6. = 1 − 1/3 = 2/3[1]

(b) 1/3 (c) 2/3

Q37[2 marks]
State two conditions that must hold for a situation to be modelled by a binomial distribution.
Answer

Any two of: a fixed number of trials; each trial has only two outcomes; the trials are independent; the probability of success is constant for every trial.

Q38[4 marks]
The discrete random variable X has the distribution P(X = 0) = 0.1, P(X = 1) = 0.4, P(X = 2) = 0.3, P(X = 3) = c. Find c, E(X) and Var(X).
Mark scheme
  1. 0.1 + 0.4 + 0.3 + c = 1, so c = 0.2Using the fact that the probabilities total 1.[1]
  2. E(X) = 0(0.1) + 1(0.4) + 2(0.3) + 3(0.2) = 1.6Each value weighted by its probability.[1]
  3. E(X²) = 0 + 1(0.4) + 4(0.3) + 9(0.2) = 3.4Values squared, probabilities unchanged.[1]
  4. Var(X) = 3.4 − 1.6² = 3.4 − 2.56 = 0.84E(X²) minus the square of the mean.[1]

c = 0.2, E(X) = 1.6, Var(X) = 0.84

Q39[4 marks]
A fair six-sided die is rolled 8 times. Find the probability of getting exactly 3 sixes, and the expected number of sixes.
Mark scheme
  1. X ~ B(8, 1/6), since the rolls are independent with constant pIdentifying the distribution and its parameters.[1]
  2. P(X = 3) = ⁸C₃ (1/6)³ (5/6)⁵The powers must add to 8: three successes and five failures.[1]
  3. = 56 × 0.004630 × 0.401878 = 0.104To 3 significant figures.[1]
  4. E(X) = np = 8 × 1/6 = 1.33The expected number need not be a whole number.[1]

P(X = 3) = 0.104, E(X) = 1.33

Q40[6 marks]
12% of components produced by a machine are faulty. A sample of 20 is taken.
(a) Find the probability that exactly 2 are faulty.
(b) Find the probability that at least 2 are faulty.
(c) Find the mean and variance of the number of faulty components.
(d) State an assumption required for the binomial model to be valid here.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) X ~ B(20, 0.12); P(X = 2) = ²⁰C₂(0.12)²(0.88)¹⁸ = 190 × 0.0144 × 0.1002 = 0.274Correct parameters and formula.[1]
  2. Value 0.274 to 3 s.f.Full evaluation.[1]
  3. (b) P(X ⩾ 2) = 1 − P(X = 0) − P(X = 1)The complement is much shorter than summing 19 terms.[1]
  4. P(X = 0) = 0.88²⁰ = 0.0776; P(X = 1) = 20(0.12)(0.88)¹⁹ = 0.2115Both terms needed before subtracting.[1]
  5. P(X ⩾ 2) = 1 − 0.0776 − 0.2115 = 0.711"At least 2" includes 2, so only 0 and 1 are removed.[1]
  6. (c) E(X) = 20 × 0.12 = 2.4; Var(X) = 20 × 0.12 × 0.88 = 2.112. (d) Faults occur independently, and the probability stays constant at 0.12 for every component.The assumption mark needs a statement about independence or constant probability, in context.[1]

(a) 0.274; (b) 0.711; (c) mean 2.4, variance 2.112; (d) independence with constant p

Q41[2 marks]
Explain why the expected score when rolling a fair die is 3.5, even though a die can never show 3.5.
Answer

E(X) is the long-run average of many rolls, not a value of a single roll. Averaging the six equally likely scores gives (1+2+3+4+5+6)/6 = 3.5. An average need not be one of the values being averaged.

Q42[2 marks]
Explain why P(X = 5) = 0 for a continuous random variable, and state what this means for P(X < 5) compared with P(X ⩽ 5).
Answer

Probability for a continuous variable is the area under the curve, and a single point has no width, so it encloses zero area. Consequently P(X < 5) and P(X ⩽ 5) are equal, unlike for a discrete variable.

Q43[3 marks]
X ~ N(60, 25). Find P(X < 68).
Mark scheme
  1. σ = √25 = 5The bracket gives the variance, so the square root must be taken first.[1]
  2. z = (68 − 60)/5 = 1.6Standardising the value of interest.[1]
  3. P(X < 68) = Φ(1.6) = 0.945Read directly from the table as the area to the left.[1]

0.945

Q44[4 marks]
The lifetimes of bulbs are normally distributed with mean 800 hours and standard deviation 60 hours. Find the lifetime exceeded by 90% of bulbs.
Mark scheme
  1. If 90% exceed it, the value has 10% below it, so Φ(z) = 0.10A sketch shows the point lies below the mean, so z will be negative.[1]
  2. From tables, z = −1.282Using symmetry: the 10th percentile is the negative of the 90th.[1]
  3. x = μ + zσ = 800 + (−1.282)(60)Unstandardising with the negative z.[1]
  4. x = 800 − 76.9 = 723 hoursBelow the mean, which matches the sketch.[1]

723 hours

Q45[7 marks]
The heights of a species of plant are normally distributed. 20% are shorter than 25 cm and 10% are taller than 40 cm.
(a) Write down two equations involving μ and σ.
(b) Solve them to find μ and σ.
(c) Find the proportion of plants between 30 cm and 35 cm.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) 20% below 25 means Φ(z) = 0.2, so z = −0.842: (25 − μ)/σ = −0.842Below the mean gives a negative z.[1]
  2. 10% above 40 means Φ(z) = 0.9, so z = 1.282: (40 − μ)/σ = 1.282Above the mean gives a positive z.[1]
  3. (b) From the first: 25 − μ = −0.842σ. From the second: 40 − μ = 1.282σTwo linear equations in μ and σ.[1]
  4. Subtracting: 15 = 2.124σ, so σ = 7.06Subtracting eliminates μ immediately.[1]
  5. μ = 25 + 0.842(7.06) = 30.9 cmSubstituting back into either equation.[1]
  6. (c) z₁ = (30 − 30.9)/7.06 = −0.128; z₂ = (35 − 30.9)/7.06 = 0.581Standardising both boundaries with the values just found.[1]
  7. Φ(0.581) − Φ(−0.128) = 0.7194 − 0.4491 = 0.270The strip between two cuts is the difference of the left-areas.[1]

(a) two z equations; (b) μ = 30.9 cm, σ = 7.06 cm; (c) 0.270

Q46[2 marks]
X ~ N(40, 9). A student calculates z = (46 − 40)/9 = 0.667. Identify and correct the error.
Answer

The bracket in N(40, 9) gives the variance, so σ = √9 = 3, not 9. The correct standardisation is z = (46 − 40)/3 = 2.

06

Probability & Statistics 2

Multiple choice · 40

Q1The Poisson distribution is appropriate when:

  1. Athere is a fixed number of trials
  2. Bevents occur at a constant rate over an interval
  3. Cthere are exactly two outcomes
  4. Dthe data is continuous
Show answer

Correct answer: B — events occur at a constant rate over an interval

A fixed number of trials with two outcomes describes the binomial. Poisson applies when there is no n, only a rate.

Q2For Po(6), the variance is:

  1. A6
  2. B√6
  3. C36
  4. D3
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 6

For a Poisson the mean and variance are both λ. This equality is what distinguishes it from other discrete distributions.

Q3Defects occur at 1.5 per metre. For a 4-metre length, λ is:

  1. A1.5
  2. B4
  3. C6
  4. D0.375
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 6

λ scales with the interval: 1.5 × 4 = 6. Failing to scale is the most common error in the topic.

Q4For Po(λ), P(X = 0) equals:

  1. A0
  2. Be^(−λ)
  3. Cλe^(−λ)
  4. D1 − λ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — e^(−λ)

Putting r = 0 gives e^(−λ)λ⁰/0! = e^(−λ), since both λ⁰ and 0! equal 1.

Q5X ~ Po(3) and Y ~ Po(5) are independent. X + Y follows:

  1. APo(8)
  2. BPo(15)
  3. CPo(4)
  4. Dnot a Poisson distribution
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Po(8)

Independent Poissons add by adding their means, giving Po(8).

Q6B(600, 0.004) is best approximated by:

  1. APo(600)
  2. BPo(2.4)
  3. CN(2.4, 2.4)
  4. DPo(0.004)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Po(2.4)

n is large and p small, so use Po(np) = Po(2.4). λ is too small here for a normal approximation.

Q7For Po(4), P(X ⩾ 2) is best found as:

  1. AP(0) + P(1)
  2. B1 − P(0) − P(1)
  3. C1 − P(0) − P(1) − P(2)
  4. DP(2) + P(3)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 − P(0) − P(1)

The upper tail is infinite, so the complement must be used. "At least 2" includes 2, so only 0 and 1 are removed.

Q8A sample has mean 3.0 and variance 9.2. This suggests:

  1. Aa good Poisson fit
  2. Bthe events are clustered, so Poisson is inappropriate
  3. Cthe mean was miscalculated
  4. Da binomial model with n = 9
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the events are clustered, so Poisson is inappropriate

Poisson requires the mean and variance to be roughly equal. A variance three times the mean indicates the events are not occurring singly and independently.

Q9If Var(X) = 4, then Var(5X) equals:

  1. A20
  2. B100
  3. C9
  4. D4
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 100

Var(aX) = a²Var(X) = 25 × 4 = 100. Multiplying by 5 instead of 25 gives the tempting wrong answer of 20.

Q10If Var(X) = 7, then Var(X + 10) equals:

  1. A17
  2. B70
  3. C7
  4. D107
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 7

Adding a constant slides the distribution without changing its spread, so the variance is unchanged.

Q11For independent X and Y with variances 9 and 16, Var(X − Y) is:

  1. A−7
  2. B7
  3. C25
  4. D5
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 25

Variances add even when the variables are subtracted: 9 + 16 = 25. A variance could never be negative, which immediately rules out the first option.

Q12X has variance σ². The variance of X₁ + X₂ + X₃ is:

  1. A3σ²
  2. B9σ²
  3. Cσ²/3
  4. Dσ²
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 3σ²

Three independent observations give 3σ². Getting 9σ² would be the variance of 3X, a single observation tripled.

Q13The variance of the mean of 25 observations, each with variance 100, is:

  1. A100
  2. B4
  3. C2
  4. D2500
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

Var(X̄) = σ²/n = 100/25 = 4, so the standard deviation of the mean is 2 rather than 10.

Q14"The total weight of three boxes" corresponds to:

  1. A3X
  2. BX₁ + X₂ + X₃
  3. CX/3
  4. D3X + 3
Show answer

Correct answer: B — X₁ + X₂ + X₃

Three separate boxes are three independent observations. 3X would mean weighing one box and tripling the reading.

Q15X ~ N(20, 9) and Y ~ N(15, 16) independently. X + Y is distributed as:

  1. AN(35, 25)
  2. BN(35, 5)
  3. CN(35, 7)
  4. Dnot normal
Show answer

Correct answer: A — N(35, 25)

Means add to 35 and variances add to 25. A linear combination of independent normals is itself normal.

Q16Every variance rule in this topic requires that the variables are:

  1. Anormally distributed
  2. Bindependent
  3. Cidentically distributed
  4. Ddiscrete
Show answer

Correct answer: B — independent

Independence is the essential condition. Without it a covariance term appears and the simple addition of variances is no longer valid.

Q17For a continuous random variable, probability corresponds to:

  1. Athe height of f(x)
  2. Bthe area under f(x)
  3. Cthe value of f(x) at a point
  4. Dthe gradient of f(x)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the area under f(x)

f is a density. Only the area between two values is a probability, which is why every formula uses an integral.

Q18Which is NOT required of a probability density function?

  1. Af(x) ⩾ 0 everywhere
  2. Bthe total integral is 1
  3. Cf(x) ⩽ 1 everywhere
  4. Df(x) = 0 outside its range
Show answer

Correct answer: C — f(x) ⩽ 1 everywhere

The density may exceed 1; only the area is limited to 1. A density on a very short interval must be tall.

Q19E(X) for a continuous variable is:

  1. A∫ f(x) dx
  2. B∫ x·f(x) dx
  3. CΣ x·P(X = x)
  4. D∫ x² f(x) dx
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ∫ x·f(x) dx

The discrete Σx·P(X = x) becomes ∫x·f(x)dx. The first option is the total probability, which is always 1.

Q20If F(x) = x³/27 on [0, 3], then f(x) is:

  1. Ax⁴/108
  2. Bx²/9
  3. C3x²/27
  4. Dx³/27
Show answer

Correct answer: B — x²/9

Differentiating F gives 3x²/27 = x²/9. The third option is the same value unsimplified but is written before cancelling, so x²/9 is the expected form.

Q21The median m of a continuous variable satisfies:

  1. AF(m) = 1
  2. BF(m) = 0.5
  3. Cf(m) = 0.5
  4. DE(X) = m
Show answer

Correct answer: B — F(m) = 0.5

The median splits the total area in half, so the cumulative function reaches 0.5 there.

Q22For a continuous variable, P(X < 4) compared with P(X ⩽ 4) is:

  1. Asmaller
  2. Blarger
  3. Cequal
  4. Ddepends on f
Show answer

Correct answer: C — equal

P(X = 4) = 0 because a point has no width, so including the endpoint changes nothing.

Q23f(x) is defined only on [0, 5]. To find P(X > 3) you integrate from:

  1. A3 to ∞
  2. B3 to 5
  3. C0 to 3
  4. D0 to 5
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3 to 5

Beyond 5 the density is zero, so the upper limit is the top of the range. Using ∞ risks an incorrect or divergent answer.

Q24Var(X) for a continuous variable is found by:

  1. A∫x²f dx only
  2. B∫x²f dx − [∫xf dx]²
  3. C[∫xf dx]² − ∫x²f dx
  4. D∫(x − μ)f dx
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ∫x²f dx − [∫xf dx]²

It is E(X²) − [E(X)]², exactly as in the discrete case, with both expectations computed as integrals.

Q25The standard error of the sample mean is:

  1. Aσ
  2. Bσ/n
  3. Cσ/√n
  4. Dσ²/n
Show answer

Correct answer: C — σ/√n

The variance of X̄ is σ²/n, so the standard deviation is σ/√n. Using σ itself ignores that averaging reduces variability.

Q26The central limit theorem allows you to assume X̄ is approximately normal when:

  1. Athe population is normal
  2. Bn is large
  3. Cσ is known
  4. Dthe sample is biased
Show answer

Correct answer: B — n is large

The theorem applies for large n whatever the population shape. If the population is already normal, X̄ is exactly normal and the theorem is not needed.

Q27The unbiased estimate of population variance divides by:

  1. An
  2. Bn − 1
  3. Cn + 1
  4. D√n
Show answer

Correct answer: B — n − 1

Dividing by n underestimates, because deviations are taken from the sample mean. n − 1 corrects that bias exactly.

Q28A population has σ = 20. For a sample of 25, the standard error is:

  1. A20
  2. B4
  3. C0.8
  4. D5
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

20/√25 = 20/5 = 4. Dividing by 25 rather than 5 gives 0.8.

Q29Increasing the confidence level from 95% to 99% makes the interval:

  1. Anarrower
  2. Bwider
  3. Cunchanged
  4. Dcentred elsewhere
Show answer

Correct answer: B — wider

A larger z is needed to capture more of the distribution, so the interval widens. More confidence costs precision.

Q30To halve the width of a confidence interval you should multiply the sample size by:

  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C½
  4. D16
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 4

The width is proportional to 1/√n, so n must be quadrupled for √n to double.

Q31A 95% confidence interval of (10, 14) means:

  1. Athere is a 95% chance μ lies between 10 and 14
  2. B95% of the data lies between 10 and 14
  3. C95% of such intervals would contain μ
  4. Dthe sample mean is 95% accurate
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 95% of such intervals would contain μ

μ is a fixed number, so it is either inside this interval or not. The 95% refers to the long-run success rate of the procedure.

Q32When standardising a sample mean, the denominator should be:

  1. Aσ
  2. Bσ/√n
  3. Cσ²
  4. Dσ√n
Show answer

Correct answer: B — σ/√n

A sample mean varies less than a single observation, so the standard error σ/√n is the correct denominator. Using σ makes z too small by a factor of √n.

Q33The null hypothesis is the statement that:

  1. Athe researcher hopes to prove
  2. Bnothing unusual is happening
  3. Cthe sample is biased
  4. Dthe test will be significant
Show answer

Correct answer: B — nothing unusual is happening

H₀ is the conservative position. The test looks for evidence against it, and H₁ is what the researcher suspects instead.

Q34A 5% significance level means the probability of:

  1. AH₀ being true is 0.05
  2. Brejecting H₀ when it is true is 0.05
  3. Cthe sample being wrong is 0.05
  4. DH₁ being true is 0.95
Show answer

Correct answer: B — rejecting H₀ when it is true is 0.05

It is the Type I error rate — the chance of a false alarm. It says nothing about the probability that H₀ itself is true.

Q35H₁: μ ≠ 50 at the 5% level requires a critical z of:

  1. A1.645
  2. B1.960
  3. C2.326
  4. D2.576
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1.960

The ≠ makes it two-tailed, so 5% splits into 2.5% per tail, giving 1.960.

Q36A p-value of 0.07 at the 5% level means:

  1. Areject H₀
  2. Bdo not reject H₀
  3. Cthe test is invalid
  4. DH₀ is true
Show answer

Correct answer: B — do not reject H₀

0.07 > 0.05, so the data is not surprising enough. Note this is not the same as showing H₀ is true.

Q37A Type II error occurs when you:

  1. Areject a true H₀
  2. Bfail to reject a false H₀
  3. Cuse the wrong significance level
  4. Dchoose a one-tailed test wrongly
Show answer

Correct answer: B — fail to reject a false H₀

It is the missed detection — a real effect exists but the test did not find enough evidence for it.

Q38Lowering the significance level from 5% to 1%:

  1. Areduces both error types
  2. Bmakes Type I rarer and Type II more likely
  3. Cmakes Type II rarer
  4. Dhas no effect on errors
Show answer

Correct answer: B — makes Type I rarer and Type II more likely

Demanding stronger evidence means fewer false alarms but more missed real effects. Only a larger sample reduces both together.

Q39When testing a sample mean, the denominator of the test statistic is:

  1. Aσ
  2. Bσ/√n
  3. Cσ²
  4. Dn
Show answer

Correct answer: B — σ/√n

The sample mean varies less than a single observation, so the standard error σ/√n is correct. Using σ makes z too small by a factor of √n.

Q40The final mark in a hypothesis test is usually for:

  1. Athe value of z
  2. Bthe critical value
  3. Ca conclusion stated in context
  4. Dthe hypotheses
Show answer

Correct answer: C — a conclusion stated in context

Examiners reserve a mark for interpreting the result in the situation described. "Reject H₀" alone does not earn it.

Exam-style questions · 25

Q1[2 marks]
State two conditions needed for a Poisson model to be appropriate.
Answer

Any two of: events occur independently of one another; they occur at a constant average rate; and they occur singly rather than in clusters.

Q2[3 marks]
Calls arrive at a switchboard at an average of 9 per hour. Find the probability that exactly 4 calls arrive in a 20-minute period.
Mark scheme
  1. 20 minutes is one third of an hour, so λ = 9/3 = 3Scaling the mean to the stated interval is a mark in its own right.[1]
  2. P(X = 4) = e⁻³ × 3⁴ / 4!Substituting into the Poisson formula.[1]
  3. = 0.049787 × 81 / 24 = 0.168To 3 significant figures.[1]

0.168

Q3[4 marks]
A book has misprints at an average rate of 0.4 per page. Find the probability that a 10-page chapter contains at least 3 misprints.
Mark scheme
  1. λ = 0.4 × 10 = 4Scaling to the ten-page interval.[1]
  2. P(X ⩾ 3) = 1 − P(0) − P(1) − P(2)The complement, since the upper tail is unbounded.[1]
  3. P(0) = e⁻⁴ = 0.0183; P(1) = 4e⁻⁴ = 0.0733; P(2) = 8e⁻⁴ = 0.1465P(2) uses 4²/2! = 8, not 16.[1]
  4. P(X ⩾ 3) = 1 − 0.2381 = 0.762"At least 3" excludes only 0, 1 and 2.[1]

0.762

Q4[6 marks]
A factory produces items of which 0.5% are defective. A random sample of 400 is taken.
(a) State the exact distribution of the number of defectives.
(b) Explain why a Poisson approximation is appropriate, and state its parameter.
(c) Use the approximation to find the probability of at most 1 defective.
(d) Find the probability of exactly 2 defectives.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) X ~ B(400, 0.005)A fixed number of trials with constant probability, so binomial exactly.[1]
  2. (b) n = 400 is large (> 50) and np = 2 is small (< 5), so Po(2) is appropriateBoth conditions must be quoted with their values, not just named.[1]
  3. λ = np = 400 × 0.005 = 2The approximating mean is the binomial mean.[1]
  4. (c) P(X ⩽ 1) = P(0) + P(1) = e⁻² + 2e⁻²"At most 1" means 0 or 1.[1]
  5. = 0.1353 + 0.2707 = 0.406To 3 significant figures.[1]
  6. (d) P(X = 2) = e⁻² × 2²/2! = 0.1353 × 2 = 0.2712²/2! = 2, so this equals P(X = 1) — a coincidence that occurs whenever λ = 2.[1]

(a) B(400, 0.005); (b) Po(2); (c) 0.406; (d) 0.271

Q5[2 marks]
A student is told a data set has mean 4.1 and variance 4.0. Explain why this suggests a Poisson model, and state what a variance of 12 would have suggested instead.
Answer

For a Poisson distribution the mean and variance are equal, both λ. A mean of 4.1 and variance of 4.0 are close enough to support that model. A variance of 12 would be far larger than the mean, so the events would not be occurring independently at a constant rate — they would be clustered, and a Poisson model would be inappropriate.

Q6[2 marks]
X has mean 12 and variance 5. Find the mean and variance of 3X − 4.
Answer

Mean: E(3X − 4) = 3(12) − 4 = 32. Variance: Var(3X − 4) = 3² × 5 = 45 — the −4 has no effect on the variance, and the 3 is squared.

Q7[2 marks]
X and Y are independent with Var(X) = 10 and Var(Y) = 6. Explain why Var(X − Y) is 16 rather than 4.
Answer

Variances of independent variables add regardless of whether the variables are added or subtracted, so Var(X − Y) = 10 + 6 = 16. Subtracting makes the difference more variable, not less: an unusually large X combined with an unusually small Y produces an extreme difference, so both variabilities contribute.

Q8[4 marks]
The masses of apples are N(120, 25) and the masses of oranges are N(150, 36), independently. Find the probability that a randomly chosen orange is more than 40 g heavier than a randomly chosen apple.
Mark scheme
  1. Let D = Y − X. E(D) = 150 − 120 = 30Defining the difference variable explicitly.[1]
  2. Var(D) = 36 + 25 = 61, so σ = 7.81Variances add despite the subtraction.[1]
  3. z = (40 − 30)/7.81 = 1.281Standardising with the new parameters.[1]
  4. P(D > 40) = 1 − Φ(1.281) = 1 − 0.8999 = 0.100Upper tail.[1]

0.100

Q9[6 marks]
The mass of a single bag of flour is normally distributed with mean 1.02 kg and standard deviation 0.04 kg.
(a) Find the probability that a single bag weighs less than 1 kg.
(b) Find the distribution of the total mass of 4 bags, and the probability it exceeds 4.15 kg.
(c) Explain why the variance of the total of 4 bags is not the same as the variance of 4 times one bag.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) z = (1 − 1.02)/0.04 = −0.5, so P = 1 − Φ(0.5) = 0.309A negative z handled by symmetry.[1]
  2. (b) T = X₁ + X₂ + X₃ + X₄, so E(T) = 4 × 1.02 = 4.08Means add across the four bags.[1]
  3. Var(T) = 4 × 0.04² = 4 × 0.0016 = 0.0064, so σ = 0.08Four independent observations, so the variance multiplies by 4 and the standard deviation by 2.[1]
  4. T ~ N(4.08, 0.0064); z = (4.15 − 4.08)/0.08 = 0.875Standardising the total.[1]
  5. P(T > 4.15) = 1 − Φ(0.875) = 0.191Upper tail.[1]
  6. (c) 4X doubles a single deviation, giving variance 16σ² = 0.0256. The total of four separate bags allows deviations to cancel, giving only 4σ² = 0.0064.The mark is for the cancellation argument, not just the two numbers.[1]

(a) 0.309; (b) N(4.08, 0.0064), P = 0.191; (c) 16σ² versus 4σ²

Q10[2 marks]
State the condition required for Var(X + Y) = Var(X) + Var(Y), and explain what would change without it.
Answer

X and Y must be independent. Without independence the variables move together to some degree, and a covariance term would have to be added, so the simple sum would no longer be correct.

Q11[2 marks]
Explain why a probability density function may take values greater than 1, while a probability may not.
Answer

f(x) is a density — a height, not a probability. Probability is the area under the curve, and a tall narrow curve can enclose an area of 1 while having heights above 1. Only the area is constrained to lie between 0 and 1.

Q12[4 marks]
X has probability density function f(x) = k(4 − x) for 0 ⩽ x ⩽ 4, and 0 otherwise. Find k and E(X).
Mark scheme
  1. ∫₀⁴ k(4 − x) dx = k[4x − x²/2]₀⁴ = k(16 − 8) = 8kSetting up the total-area integral.[1]
  2. 8k = 1, so k = 1/8The density must integrate to 1.[1]
  3. E(X) = ∫₀⁴ x·(4 − x)/8 dx = (1/8)[2x² − x³/3]₀⁴ = (1/8)(32 − 64/3)Multiplying by x before integrating.[1]
  4. = (1/8)(32/3) = 4/3 = 1.33Left of centre, as expected for a density that decreases with x.[1]

k = 1/8, E(X) = 4/3

Q13[4 marks]
X has f(x) = 3x²/8 for 0 ⩽ x ⩽ 2. Find the cumulative distribution function F(x) for 0 ⩽ x ⩽ 2, and hence the median.
Mark scheme
  1. F(x) = ∫₀ˣ 3t²/8 dt = [t³/8]₀ˣIntegrating the density from the lower end of the range.[1]
  2. F(x) = x³/8 for 0 ⩽ x ⩽ 2Check: F(2) = 1 as required, which confirms the constant is right.[1]
  3. Median m satisfies m³/8 = 0.5, so m³ = 4The median splits the area into two halves.[1]
  4. m = ∛4 = 1.59Within the range [0, 2], which is a useful sanity check.[1]

F(x) = x³/8; median = 1.59

Q14[6 marks]
The lifetime X hours of a component has f(x) = x/50 for 0 ⩽ x ⩽ 10, and 0 otherwise.
(a) Verify that f is a valid probability density function.
(b) Find P(X > 6).
(c) Find E(X) and Var(X).
Mark scheme
  1. (a) f(x) ⩾ 0 on the range, and ∫₀¹⁰ x/50 dx = [x²/100]₀¹⁰ = 1Both conditions must be checked: non-negative, and total area 1.[1]
  2. (b) P(X > 6) = ∫₆¹⁰ x/50 dx = [x²/100]₆¹⁰ = 1 − 0.36 = 0.64Integrating to 10, the top of the range — not to infinity.[1]
  3. (c) E(X) = ∫₀¹⁰ x²/50 dx = [x³/150]₀¹⁰ = 1000/150Multiplying the density by x.[1]
  4. E(X) = 6.67 hoursRight of centre, matching a density that increases with x.[1]
  5. E(X²) = ∫₀¹⁰ x³/50 dx = [x⁴/200]₀¹⁰ = 50Multiplying by x² this time.[1]
  6. Var(X) = 50 − (6.67)² = 50 − 44.44 = 5.56Positive, as any variance must be.[1]

(a) verified; (b) 0.64; (c) E(X) = 6.67, Var(X) = 5.56

Q15[2 marks]
A cumulative distribution function is given by F(x) = x²/16 for 0 ⩽ x ⩽ 4. Find the probability density function.
Answer

Differentiate: f(x) = dF/dx = 2x/16 = x/8 for 0 ⩽ x ⩽ 4, and zero elsewhere.

Q16[2 marks]
Explain what is meant by a random sample, and why a non-random sample cannot be corrected afterwards.
Answer

A random sample is one in which every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected and the selections are independent. A non-random sample is biased — it systematically over- or under-represents part of the population — and since the direction and size of that bias are unknown, no calculation performed afterwards can remove it.

Q17[2 marks]
State the mean and variance of the sample mean X̄ for a sample of size n from a population with mean μ and variance σ².
Answer

E(X̄) = μ and Var(X̄) = σ²/n. The standard deviation of X̄, called the standard error, is therefore σ/√n.

Q18[4 marks]
A sample of 8 measurements gives Σx = 96 and Σx² = 1180. Calculate unbiased estimates of the population mean and variance.
Mark scheme
  1. x̄ = 96/8 = 12The sample mean is already unbiased and needs no correction.[1]
  2. s² = (Σx² − (Σx)²/n)/(n − 1) = (1180 − 96²/8)/7Setting up with n − 1 in the denominator.[1]
  3. = (1180 − 1152)/7 = 28/796²/8 = 9216/8 = 1152.[1]
  4. s² = 4Dividing by 8 instead of 7 would give 3.5, the standard wrong answer.[1]

x̄ = 12, s² = 4

Q19[6 marks]
The masses of bags of sugar have standard deviation 12 g. A random sample of 64 bags has mean 1002 g.
(a) Calculate a 99% confidence interval for the population mean.
(b) State the width of the interval.
(c) Find the sample size needed to halve that width.
(d) Interpret the interval correctly.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) Standard error = 12/√64 = 1.5 g√64 = 8, so the standard error is much smaller than σ.[1]
  2. z = 2.576 for 99% confidence, so interval = 1002 ± 2.576 × 1.5 = 1002 ± 3.864A higher confidence level needs a larger z and gives a wider interval.[1]
  3. = (998.1, 1005.9) gQuoted to one decimal place.[1]
  4. (b) Width = 2 × 3.864 = 7.73 gThe full width is twice the half-width.[1]
  5. (c) Width is proportional to 1/√n, so halving it needs n multiplied by 4: n = 256The √n is why the cost of precision grows so quickly.[1]
  6. (d) If the sampling procedure were repeated many times, 99% of the intervals constructed would contain the true population mean.Phrasing it as a probability about this one interval loses the mark, since μ is fixed.[1]

(a) (998.1, 1005.9) g; (b) 7.73 g; (c) n = 256; (d) repeated-sampling interpretation

Q20[2 marks]
Why is the population variance estimated by dividing by n − 1 rather than n?
Answer

The deviations are measured from the sample mean, which sits in the middle of the sample by construction. This makes the sum of squared deviations systematically smaller than it would be about the true population mean, so dividing by n would underestimate the variance. Dividing by n − 1 corrects the bias exactly.

Q21[2 marks]
Explain why the conclusion of a hypothesis test should say "insufficient evidence to reject H₀" rather than "accept H₀".
Answer

A test only measures whether the data is surprising under H₀; it can never demonstrate that H₀ is true. Failing to find evidence may simply mean the sample was too small to detect a real effect. So the correct conclusion is that the evidence was insufficient, not that H₀ has been shown correct.

Q22[2 marks]
Define a Type I error and state its probability.
Answer

A Type I error occurs when H₀ is rejected even though it is actually true — a false alarm. Its probability is exactly the significance level of the test, α.

Q23[5 marks]
A manufacturer claims the mean lifetime of its batteries is 40 hours, with standard deviation 5 hours. A sample of 50 batteries has mean 38.4 hours. Test at the 5% level whether the mean lifetime is less than claimed.
Mark scheme
  1. H₀: μ = 40; H₁: μ < 40, where μ is the mean lifetime"Less than claimed" makes this one-tailed in the lower direction.[1]
  2. Standard error = 5/√50 = 0.7071Using the standard error, not σ.[1]
  3. z = (38.4 − 40)/0.7071 = −2.263Negative, since the sample mean is below the claimed value.[1]
  4. Critical value for a 5% one-tailed lower test is −1.645; −2.263 < −1.645The test statistic is further into the tail than the boundary.[1]
  5. Reject H₀: there is sufficient evidence at the 5% level that the mean lifetime is less than 40 hours.Conclusion in context. Simply writing "reject H₀" does not earn this mark.[1]

z = −2.26 < −1.645; reject H₀ — evidence the mean is below 40 hours

Q24[7 marks]
A coin is suspected of being biased. It is tossed 200 times and gives 115 heads.
(a) State suitable hypotheses.
(b) Explain why a two-tailed test is appropriate.
(c) Carry out the test at the 5% level using a normal approximation.
(d) State what a Type II error would mean in this context.
Mark scheme
  1. (a) H₀: p = 0.5; H₁: p ≠ 0.5, where p is the probability of a head"Biased" does not specify a direction, so H₁ uses ≠.[1]
  2. (b) Bias could be towards heads or towards tails, so evidence in either tail counts against H₀The reason must reference the lack of a stated direction.[1]
  3. (c) Under H₀, X ~ B(200, 0.5) with mean 100 and variance 50, so σ = 7.071np = 100 and np(1 − p) = 50, both large enough for a normal approximation.[1]
  4. With continuity correction: z = (114.5 − 100)/7.071 = 2.051The correction uses 114.5 because a discrete count of 115 or more spans from 114.5 upwards.[1]
  5. Two-tailed at 5%, so the critical value is 1.960The 5% splits into 2.5% in each tail.[1]
  6. 2.051 > 1.960, so reject H₀: there is evidence at the 5% level that the coin is biased.Just significant — with a one-tailed test it would have been more comfortably so.[1]
  7. (d) A Type II error would mean concluding there is insufficient evidence of bias when the coin is in fact biased.It must be stated in context, not just as the general definition.[1]

(a) H₀: p = 0.5, H₁: p ≠ 0.5; (c) z = 2.05 > 1.96, reject H₀; (d) missing a real bias

Q25[2 marks]
A test at the 5% level gives a p-value of 0.032. State the conclusion, and say whether it would change at the 1% level.
Answer

At 5%: 0.032 < 0.05, so H₀ is rejected — there is sufficient evidence against it. At 1%: 0.032 > 0.01, so H₀ would not be rejected. The same data supports different conclusions because the level sets how much evidence is demanded.

These questions come from the A Level Mathematics (9709) lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.