A Level Chemistry (9701) — MCQs & Practice Questions

339 multiple-choice questions and 249 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.

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01

Atomic structure

Multiple choice · 8

Q1What determines which element an atom is?

  1. ANumber of neutrons
  2. BNumber of protons
  3. CNumber of electrons
  4. DTotal mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Number of protons

The proton count — the atomic number — is the identity of the element. Change the neutrons and you have an isotope of the same element; change the electrons and you have an ion. Change the protons and it is a different element entirely.

Q2Sodium has configuration 2, 8, 1. Which best predicts its behaviour?

  1. AIt will gain 7 electrons
  2. BIt will lose 1 electron to form Na⁺
  3. CIt will share 1 electron pair
  4. DIt is unreactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — It will lose 1 electron to form Na⁺

Losing one electron leaves 2, 8 — the neon configuration — and costs far less energy than gaining seven. That is why sodium forms Na⁺ readily and why all group 1 metals are so reactive.

Q3Why does atomic radius decrease across a period?

  1. AElectrons are removed
  2. BNuclear charge rises while electrons stay in the same shell, pulling it inward
  3. CA new shell is added
  4. DNeutrons repel the electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nuclear charge rises while electrons stay in the same shell, pulling it inward

Across a period you add a proton and an electron each step, but the electron joins the shell already in use. Shielding barely changes while nuclear pull increases, so the whole shell contracts. Going down a group is the opposite: a new shell is added and the atom grows.

Q4Which element has the highest electronegativity?

  1. AOxygen
  2. BFluorine
  3. CChlorine
  4. DCaesium
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Fluorine

Fluorine sits at 3.98 on the Pauling scale — the top-right corner of the reactive elements, small and with a high nuclear charge. Oxygen is second at 3.44. Caesium is at the opposite extreme, giving electrons away rather than attracting them.

Q5Ionisation energy generally decreases down a group because:

  1. AThe nucleus loses protons
  2. BThe outer electron is further away and shielded by inner shells
  3. CAtoms get lighter
  4. DElectronegativity increases
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The outer electron is further away and shielded by inner shells

Two effects work together: the valence electron sits in a shell further from the nucleus, and the filled inner shells screen it from the nuclear charge. Both weaken the hold, so less energy is needed to strip it away.

Q6Two atoms have 17 protons but 18 and 20 neutrons. They are:

  1. ADifferent elements
  2. BIsotopes of chlorine
  3. CIons of chlorine
  4. DImpossible
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Isotopes of chlorine

Same proton count means both are chlorine; different neutron counts make them isotopes — Cl-35 and Cl-37. Chemistry is set by electrons, so they react identically. Only mass-dependent properties like density and diffusion rate differ.

Q7An element has isotopes of mass 63 (69%) and 65 (31%). Its relative atomic mass is about:

  1. A63.0
  2. B63.6
  3. C64.0
  4. D65.0
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 63.6

(63×69 + 65×31)/100 = (4347 + 2015)/100 = 63.6.

Q8Across a period, first ionisation energy generally:

  1. Adecreases
  2. Bincreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Ddoubles
Show answer

Correct answer: B — increases

Increasing nuclear charge with similar shielding holds the outer electrons more tightly, so more energy is needed to remove one.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State the relative charge and relative mass of a proton, a neutron and an electron.
Answer

Proton: charge +1, mass 1. Neutron: charge 0, mass 1. Electron: charge −1, mass negligible (about 1/1840).

Q2[2 marks]
Define the term isotopes.
Answer

Atoms of the same element (same number of protons / same proton number) that have different numbers of neutrons, and so different mass numbers.

Q3[3 marks]
An atom is represented as ³⁵₁₇Cl. State its number of protons, neutrons and electrons.
Answer

Protons = 17, electrons = 17 (neutral atom), neutrons = 35 − 17 = 18.

Q4[6 marks]
Chlorine exists as two isotopes, chlorine-35 and chlorine-37.
  1. Explain why the two isotopes have identical chemical properties. [2]
  2. A sample is 75% chlorine-35 and 25% chlorine-37. Calculate the relative atomic mass of chlorine. [2]
  3. State how many electrons chlorine has in its outer shell, and hence the charge on a chloride ion. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Both isotopes have the same number of electrons / the same electronic configuration (2,8,7)[1]
  2. Chemical properties depend on the (outer) electrons, so they react identically[1]
  3. Ar = (35 × 75 + 37 × 25) ÷ 100sets up weighted mean[1]
  4. Ar = (2625 + 925)/100 = 35.5[1]
  5. 7 electrons in the outer shell[1]
  6. Gains 1 electron, so the chloride ion is Cl⁻ (charge −1)[1]

Same electron arrangement → identical chemistry; Ar = 35.5; 7 outer electrons, so Cl⁻.

Q5[3 marks]
Boron has two isotopes: boron-10 (20%) and boron-11 (80%). Calculate its relative atomic mass.
Answer

Aᵣ = (10 × 20 + 11 × 80) ÷ 100 = (200 + 880) ÷ 100 = 1080 ÷ 100 = 10.8.

Q6[6 marks]
This question is about the electronic structure of calcium (proton number 20).
  1. Write the full electron configuration of a calcium atom. [2]
  2. Write the electron configuration of a Ca²⁺ ion. [1]
  3. The successive ionisation energies of calcium show a large jump after the second electron is removed. Explain what this tells you. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s²[1]
  2. electron count totals 20[1]
  3. Ca²⁺: 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ (loses the two 4s electrons)[1]
  4. The first two electrons are removed from the outer 4s sub-shell[1]
  5. The third is removed from the 3p, a shell closer to the nucleus[1]
  6. which is held much more strongly, so far more energy is needed — showing two electrons in the outer shell[1]

Ca = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²; Ca²⁺ = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶; the jump after 2 electrons shows only two electrons in the outer shell.

02

Atoms, molecules and stoichiometry

Multiple choice · 8

Q1How many moles are in 88 g of CO₂? (M = 44 g/mol)

  1. A0.5 mol
  2. B2 mol
  3. C44 mol
  4. D88 mol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 mol

n = m/M = 88/44 = 2 mol. Each mole contains 6.022 × 10²³ molecules, so this sample holds about 1.2 × 10²⁴ CO₂ molecules.

Q2In 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O, you have 6 mol H₂ and 2 mol O₂. Which is limiting?

  1. AH₂
  2. BO₂
  3. CNeither — perfect ratio
  4. DBoth equally
Show answer

Correct answer: B — O₂

Divide by coefficients: H₂ gives 6/2 = 3, O₂ gives 2/1 = 2. Oxygen produces the smaller number, so it runs out first and limits the reaction. You get 4 mol of water and 2 mol of H₂ left over.

Q3What does the "2" in 2H₂O tell you?

  1. AThere are 2 hydrogen atoms
  2. BThere are 2 water molecules
  3. CThe mass is 2 grams
  4. DThe reaction happens twice
Show answer

Correct answer: B — There are 2 water molecules

A coefficient in front multiplies the entire formula unit: 2 water molecules, so 4 hydrogen atoms and 2 oxygen atoms in total. A subscript, like the 2 in H₂O, counts atoms within one molecule instead.

Q4A reaction should theoretically produce 50 g but you collect 42 g. The percentage yield is:

  1. A84%
  2. B119%
  3. C8%
  4. D92%
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 84%

(actual / theoretical) × 100 = (42 / 50) × 100 = 84%. Losses of this size are completely normal — product sticks to glassware, reactions do not run to completion, and side reactions consume some reactant.

Q5Why must chemical equations be balanced?

  1. ATo make the numbers neat
  2. BBecause atoms are conserved — they are rearranged, not created or destroyed
  3. CTo make the reaction faster
  4. DBecause moles must always be whole numbers
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Because atoms are conserved — they are rearranged, not created or destroyed

Conservation of mass. Every atom present before the reaction is present after it, just bonded differently. An unbalanced equation implies atoms appeared from nowhere, and any mole calculation built on it would be wrong.

Q6You add excess magnesium to a fixed amount of hydrochloric acid. What limits the hydrogen produced?

  1. AThe magnesium
  2. BThe acid
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNothing — the reaction continues indefinitely
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The acid

"Excess" means there is more magnesium than can react, so the acid runs out first and is the limiting reagent. Leftover magnesium simply sits at the bottom unreacted — a common sight in this classic school experiment.

Q70.25 mol of gas at r.t.p. occupies a volume of about:

  1. A6 dm³
  2. B12 dm³
  3. C24 dm³
  4. D48 dm³
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 6 dm³

One mole of any gas occupies 24 dm³ at r.t.p., so V = n × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm³.

Q8A compound has empirical formula CH₂ and relative molecular mass 42. Its molecular formula is:

  1. ACH₂
  2. BC₂H₄
  3. CC₃H₆
  4. DC₄H₈
Show answer

Correct answer: C — C₃H₆

Empirical mass = 14; 42 ÷ 14 = 3, so C₃H₆.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Calculate the number of moles in 8.0 g of methane, CH₄. (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)
Answer

Mr of CH₄ = 12 + 4 = 16. Moles = mass ÷ Mr = 8.0 ÷ 16 = 0.50 mol.

Q2[2 marks]
Define the term relative molecular mass.
Answer

The sum of the relative atomic masses of all the atoms shown in the molecular formula of a substance.

Q3[3 marks]
Balance the equation: __ Al + __ O₂ → __ Al₂O₃.
Answer

4 Al + 3 O₂ → 2 Al₂O₃.

Q4[7 marks]
Calcium carbonate decomposes: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂. (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
  1. Calculate the relative formula mass of CaCO₃. [1]
  2. Calculate the mass of CaO produced from 25 g of CaCO₃. [3]
  3. Calculate the volume of CO₂ produced at r.t.p. (1 mole of gas = 24 dm³). [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Mr(CaCO₃) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100[1]
  2. Moles CaCO₃ = 25 ÷ 100 = 0.25 mol[1]
  3. Moles CaO = 0.25 (1:1 ratio); Mr(CaO) = 56[1]
  4. Mass CaO = 0.25 × 56 = 14 g[1]
  5. Moles CO₂ = 0.25 (1:1 ratio)[1]
  6. Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24[1]
  7. Volume CO₂ = 6.0 dm³[1]

Mr = 100; 14 g CaO; 6.0 dm³ CO₂.

Q5[3 marks]
Calculate the concentration, in mol/dm³, of a solution made by dissolving 0.20 mol of sodium chloride in 500 cm³ of solution.
Answer

V = 500 ÷ 1000 = 0.50 dm³. c = n ÷ V = 0.20 ÷ 0.50 = 0.40 mol/dm³.

Q6[7 marks]
Iron is extracted by reducing iron(III) oxide: Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂. (Ar: Fe = 56, O = 16, C = 12)
  1. Calculate the relative formula mass of Fe₂O₃. [1]
  2. Calculate the mass of iron produced from 320 tonnes of Fe₂O₃. [3]
  3. Calculate the atom economy of this reaction for making iron. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Mr(Fe₂O₃) = 112 + 48 = 160[1]
  2. Moles Fe₂O₃ = 320 ÷ 160 = 2 (tonne-moles)[1]
  3. Moles Fe = 2 × 2 = 4; Ar(Fe) = 56[1]
  4. Mass Fe = 4 × 56 = 224 tonnes[1]
  5. Desired product mass in equation = 2 × 56 = 112; total product mass = 112 + 3 × 44 = 244[1]
  6. Atom economy = (112 ÷ 244) × 100[1]
  7. = 45.9% (≈ 46%)[1]

Mr = 160; 224 tonnes of iron; atom economy ≈ 46%.

03

Chemical bonding

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Sodium chloride conducts electricity when molten but not when solid. Why?

  1. ASolid NaCl has no ions
  2. BThe ions are locked in the lattice when solid but free to move when molten
  3. CHeating creates new electrons
  4. DSolid NaCl is covalent
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The ions are locked in the lattice when solid but free to move when molten

Conduction needs mobile charge carriers. The ions exist in both states, but in the solid they are held rigidly in the lattice. Melting frees them to drift toward the electrodes, and the same happens when NaCl dissolves in water.

Q2Which pair will most likely form an ionic bond?

  1. ACarbon and hydrogen
  2. BMagnesium and oxygen
  3. CNitrogen and oxygen
  4. DChlorine and chlorine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Magnesium and oxygen

Magnesium (EN 1.31) and oxygen (EN 3.44) differ by over 2, and it is a metal-plus-non-metal pairing. Mg loses two electrons and O gains two, giving Mg²⁺O²⁻. The other three are all non-metals sharing electrons covalently.

Q3Why are metals malleable?

  1. ATheir bonds are weak
  2. BLayers of positive ions can slide while the electron sea keeps holding them together
  3. CThey contain no bonds
  4. DThey are made of small molecules
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Layers of positive ions can slide while the electron sea keeps holding them together

Metallic bonding is non-directional — the delocalised electrons hold the lattice together from all sides. Shift a layer and the bonding is unchanged, so the metal deforms instead of shattering. Ionic solids are brittle because sliding brings like charges together.

Q4Water has a low boiling point compared with sodium chloride because:

  1. AThe O–H covalent bonds are weak
  2. BOnly the weak forces between molecules need breaking, not the covalent bonds
  3. CWater contains no bonds
  4. DWater is a metal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Only the weak forces between molecules need breaking, not the covalent bonds

Boiling separates molecules from each other; it does not break them apart. The O–H bonds inside each water molecule survive intact. Only the hydrogen bonding between molecules must be overcome — much weaker than an ionic lattice.

Q5Graphite conducts electricity but diamond does not. Why?

  1. AGraphite contains metal atoms
  2. BEach carbon in graphite bonds to only three neighbours, leaving one delocalised electron
  3. CDiamond has no electrons
  4. DGraphite is ionic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Each carbon in graphite bonds to only three neighbours, leaving one delocalised electron

In diamond every carbon uses all four valence electrons in covalent bonds, leaving nothing free. In graphite only three are used, and the fourth is delocalised across the layer — a mobile charge carrier, just like in a metal.

Q6In a polar covalent bond such as H–Cl, the electrons are:

  1. ATransferred completely to chlorine
  2. BShared, but pulled closer to the more electronegative chlorine
  3. CShared perfectly equally
  4. DNot shared at all
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Shared, but pulled closer to the more electronegative chlorine

The electronegativity gap (2.20 vs 3.16) is too small for a full transfer but large enough to distort the sharing. Chlorine holds the pair closer, giving it a partial negative charge and hydrogen a partial positive — a dipole.

Q7A molecule with four bonding pairs and no lone pairs on the central atom is:

  1. Alinear
  2. Btrigonal planar
  3. Ctetrahedral
  4. Dbent
Show answer

Correct answer: C — tetrahedral

Four bonding pairs repel to a tetrahedral shape with 109.5° angles, as in methane.

Q8The strongest type of intermolecular force is:

  1. Avan der Waals forces
  2. Bhydrogen bonding
  3. Cdipole–dipole forces
  4. Dionic bonds
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hydrogen bonding

Hydrogen bonding (H bonded to N, O or F) is the strongest of the intermolecular forces.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe how an ionic bond forms between sodium and chlorine.
Answer

Sodium loses one electron to chlorine; sodium becomes Na⁺ and chlorine becomes Cl⁻, and the oppositely charged ions attract by strong electrostatic forces.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why sodium chloride has a high melting point.
Answer

It has a giant ionic lattice; the many strong electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions need a large amount of energy to overcome.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why a simple molecular substance such as methane has a low boiling point, whereas diamond has a very high one.
Answer

Methane has weak intermolecular forces between molecules, which need little energy to overcome. Diamond is a giant covalent structure with strong covalent bonds throughout, needing very large energy to break.

Q4[7 marks]
Magnesium oxide (MgO) is ionic; carbon dioxide (CO₂) is simple molecular.
  1. Describe, in terms of electron transfer, how MgO forms. [2]
  2. Explain why MgO conducts electricity when molten but not when solid. [2]
  3. Explain why CO₂ is a gas at room temperature while MgO is a solid. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Magnesium loses 2 electrons to oxygen, forming Mg²⁺ and O²⁻[1]
  2. The oppositely charged ions attract by strong electrostatic forces[1]
  3. When molten, the ions are free to move and carry charge[1]
  4. When solid, the ions are fixed in the lattice and cannot move[1]
  5. CO₂ is simple molecular with weak intermolecular forces[1]
  6. Little energy is needed to separate the molecules, so it is a gas[1]
  7. MgO is a giant ionic lattice with strong forces needing much energy, so it is a high-melting solid[1]

Mg→Mg²⁺ + O→O²⁻ (electrostatic attraction); MgO conducts molten (mobile ions) not solid (fixed ions); CO₂ gas (weak intermolecular forces) vs MgO solid (giant lattice, strong forces).

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why the boiling points of the noble gases increase down the group.
Answer

Down the group the atoms have more electrons, so the van der Waals (London) forces between them are stronger and need more energy to overcome, raising the boiling point.

Q6[6 marks]
Consider the molecules methane (CH₄) and water (H₂O).
  1. State the shape and bond angle of methane, and explain them. [3]
  2. Explain why water has a much higher boiling point than methane, even though water is a smaller molecule. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Methane is tetrahedral[1]
  2. with a bond angle of 109.5°[1]
  3. because four bonding pairs repel to get as far apart as possible[1]
  4. Water molecules form hydrogen bonds (O–H, H bonded to O)[1]
  5. methane has only weak van der Waals forces[1]
  6. hydrogen bonds are much stronger, so water needs far more energy to boil[1]

Methane: tetrahedral, 109.5°, four repelling bonding pairs; water boils higher because of strong hydrogen bonding vs methane's weak van der Waals forces.

04

States of matter

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Which state has particles that are far apart and move freely at speed?

  1. ASolid
  2. BLiquid
  3. CGas
  4. DNone of these
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gas

A gas has widely spaced, fast, randomly moving particles — so it has no fixed shape or volume and compresses easily.

Q2While ice is melting, you keep heating it. The temperature:

  1. ARises steadily
  2. BStays constant until all the ice has melted
  3. CFalls
  4. DRises then falls
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Stays constant until all the ice has melted

During a change of state the energy breaks the forces between particles rather than raising their speed, so the temperature holds at the melting point until melting is complete.

Q3Temperature is a measure of:

  1. AThe number of particles
  2. BThe average kinetic energy of the particles
  3. CThe mass of the substance
  4. DThe pressure
Show answer

Correct answer: B — The average kinetic energy of the particles

Higher temperature means the particles have, on average, more kinetic energy — they move faster.

Q4Heating a fixed volume of gas increases its pressure because the particles:

  1. AGet bigger
  2. BHit the walls harder and more often
  3. CTurn into liquid
  4. DStop moving
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Hit the walls harder and more often

Faster particles collide with the container walls more frequently and with greater force, raising the pressure.

Q5Diffusion is fastest when the particles are:

  1. AHeavy and cold
  2. BLight and hot
  3. CHeavy and hot
  4. DLight and cold
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Light and hot

Lighter particles move faster at a given temperature, and higher temperature raises speed further — both speed up diffusion.

Q6Which change of state goes straight from solid to gas?

  1. AMelting
  2. BCondensing
  3. CSublimation
  4. DFreezing
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Sublimation

Sublimation is the direct solid→gas change (e.g. solid carbon dioxide), skipping the liquid state.

Q7During the melting of ice at 0 °C, the temperature stays constant because the energy supplied is used to:

  1. Amake particles move faster
  2. Bovercome the forces holding the lattice together
  3. Cincrease the pressure
  4. Dcreate new particles
Show answer

Correct answer: B — overcome the forces holding the lattice together

At a change of state the energy breaks the forces between particles rather than raising their kinetic energy, so the temperature is constant.

Q8Heating a fixed volume of gas increases its pressure because the particles:

  1. Aget bigger
  2. Bcollide with the walls harder and more often
  3. Cstop moving
  4. Dturn into liquid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — collide with the walls harder and more often

Faster particles make more frequent, harder collisions with the walls, raising the pressure.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe the arrangement and movement of particles in a solid.
Answer

Particles are closely packed in a regular, fixed arrangement and can only vibrate about fixed positions.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why a gas exerts pressure on the walls of its container.
Answer

Gas particles move rapidly in all directions and collide with the walls; the force of these collisions per unit area is the pressure.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain what happens to the particles as a solid is heated until it melts and then boils.
Answer

Heating gives particles more kinetic energy so they vibrate more; at the melting point the forces holding the lattice break and particles move past each other (liquid); at the boiling point particles gain enough energy to escape completely (gas).

Q4[6 marks]
A student investigates diffusion using gas jars.
  1. Define diffusion. [2]
  2. Explain why bromine vapour spreads more slowly than hydrogen gas at the same temperature. [2]
  3. State and explain the effect of raising the temperature on the rate of diffusion. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Diffusion is the movement of particles from a region of higher concentration to lower concentration[1]
  2. ...until they are evenly spread / down a concentration gradient[1]
  3. Bromine molecules are heavier / have greater mass than hydrogen molecules[1]
  4. At the same temperature heavier particles move more slowly, so diffuse more slowly[1]
  5. Raising temperature increases the rate of diffusion[1]
  6. Because particles gain kinetic energy and move faster[1]

Diffusion = spreading down a concentration gradient; lighter particles diffuse faster; higher temperature → faster diffusion.

Q5[3 marks]
A student heats a pure solid until it melts. Sketch-describe what happens to the temperature before, during and after melting, and explain the shape.
Answer

Before melting the temperature rises as particles gain kinetic energy. During melting it stays constant (a plateau) because the energy overcomes the forces holding the lattice. After melting it rises again as the liquid warms.

Q6[6 marks]
A gas is sealed in a container.
  1. Explain, using the kinetic particle model, how the gas exerts pressure on the walls. [2]
  2. Explain what happens to the pressure if the gas is heated at constant volume. [2]
  3. Explain what happens to the pressure if the volume is halved at constant temperature. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Particles move rapidly and randomly, colliding with the walls[1]
  2. the force of these collisions per unit area is the pressure[1]
  3. Heating gives particles more kinetic energy so they move faster[1]
  4. collisions are harder and more frequent, so pressure rises[1]
  5. Halving the volume means the same particles are in a smaller space[1]
  6. so collisions with the walls are twice as frequent and the pressure doubles[1]

Pressure = wall collisions per area; heating raises it (faster, more frequent collisions); halving the volume doubles it (more frequent collisions).

05

Chemical energetics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In an exothermic reaction, the temperature of the surroundings:

  1. Afalls
  2. Brises
  3. Cstays the same
  4. Dcannot be measured
Show answer

Correct answer: B — rises

Exothermic reactions release energy to the surroundings, so the temperature goes up.

Q2Which is an endothermic process?

  1. ACombustion
  2. BRespiration
  3. CThermal decomposition
  4. DNeutralisation
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Thermal decomposition

Thermal decomposition takes energy in to break a compound apart; the other three release energy.

Q3For an exothermic reaction, the products are ___ the reactants and ΔH is ___.

  1. Ahigher than; positive
  2. Blower than; negative
  3. Cequal to; zero
  4. Dlower than; positive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lower than; negative

Energy is released, so products sit lower on the energy profile and ΔH is negative.

Q4Breaking chemical bonds:

  1. Areleases energy
  2. Btakes energy in
  3. Chas no energy change
  4. Dalways makes a reaction exothermic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — takes energy in

Bond breaking is endothermic — energy must be supplied; bond making releases energy.

Q5A reaction is exothermic overall when:

  1. Abreaking bonds releases more than making them
  2. Bmaking bonds releases more than breaking them absorbs
  3. Cno bonds change
  4. Da catalyst is used
Show answer

Correct answer: B — making bonds releases more than breaking them absorbs

If the energy out from forming new bonds exceeds the energy in to break old ones, there is a net release — exothermic.

Q6Adding a catalyst changes:

  1. AΔH
  2. Bthe activation energy only
  3. Cthe products
  4. Dwhether it is exothermic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the activation energy only

A catalyst lowers the activation energy but leaves the reactants, products and ΔH unchanged.

Q7In the equation q = mcΔT, the mass m refers to the mass of:

  1. Athe fuel burned
  2. Bthe water heated
  3. Cthe container
  4. Dthe products
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the water heated

The heat is measured by the temperature rise of the water, so m is the mass of water.

Q8Hess's law is a direct consequence of the:

  1. Aconservation of mass
  2. Bconservation of energy
  3. Cideal gas law
  4. Dlaw of definite proportions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — conservation of energy

Because energy is conserved, the total enthalpy change depends only on the start and end states, not the route.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define an exothermic reaction and give one example.
Answer

A reaction that transfers energy to the surroundings (temperature of surroundings rises), e.g. combustion / neutralisation.

Q2[2 marks]
In terms of bond breaking and bond making, explain why a reaction is exothermic.
Answer

Bond breaking absorbs energy and bond making releases energy; in an exothermic reaction more energy is released making bonds than is absorbed breaking them.

Q3[3 marks]
Sketch and label an energy level diagram for an exothermic reaction, marking the activation energy and the enthalpy change (ΔH).
Answer

Reactants at a higher energy than products; a 'hump' above the reactants marks the activation energy; ΔH is the (negative) drop from reactants to products.

Q4[6 marks]
Hydrogen burns in oxygen: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O. Bond energies (kJ/mol): H–H = 436, O=O = 498, O–H = 464.
  1. Calculate the total energy absorbed to break the bonds in the reactants. [2]
  2. Calculate the total energy released when the bonds in the products form. [2]
  3. Calculate ΔH and state whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Bonds broken = 2(H–H) + 1(O=O) = 2(436) + 498[1]
  2. = 872 + 498 = 1370 kJ[1]
  3. Bonds made = 4 O–H = 4 × 464[1]
  4. = 1856 kJ[1]
  5. ΔH = energy in − energy out = 1370 − 1856 = −486 kJ/mol[1]
  6. Negative ΔH, so the reaction is exothermic[1]

Broken = 1370 kJ; made = 1856 kJ; ΔH = −486 kJ/mol → exothermic.

Q5[2 marks]
Burning a fuel raises the temperature of 200 g of water by 25 °C. Calculate the heat energy transferred to the water. (c = 4.2 J/g/°C)
Answer

q = mcΔT = 200 × 4.2 × 25 = 21 000 J = 21 kJ.

Q6[6 marks]
0.32 g of methanol is burned and heats 100 g of water by 24 °C. (c of water = 4.2 J/g/°C; Mr methanol = 32)
  1. Calculate the heat energy released to the water. [2]
  2. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of methanol in kJ/mol. [3]
  3. Suggest one reason the value is less negative than the data-book value. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. q = mcΔT = 100 × 4.2 × 24[1]
  2. = 10 080 J = 10.08 kJ[1]
  3. moles methanol = 0.32 ÷ 32 = 0.010 mol[1]
  4. ΔH = 10.08 ÷ 0.010 = 1008 kJ/mol (magnitude)[1]
  5. ΔH ≈ −1010 kJ/mol (exothermic, so negative)[1]
  6. Heat lost to the surroundings / incomplete combustion / evaporation[1]

q = 10.08 kJ; ΔH ≈ −1010 kJ/mol; less negative than the true value because heat escapes / combustion is incomplete.

06

Electrochemistry

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In a galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at the ___ , which is the ___ terminal.

  1. Acathode; positive
  2. Banode; negative
  3. Canode; positive
  4. Dcathode; negative
Show answer

Correct answer: B — anode; negative

Oxidation is always at the anode; in a galvanic cell the anode is the negative terminal (electrons leave there).

Q2The salt bridge in a cell:

  1. Acarries electrons
  2. Bcompletes the circuit and balances charge with ion flow
  3. Cstores the voltage
  4. Dis the cathode
Show answer

Correct answer: B — completes the circuit and balances charge with ion flow

Electrons go through the wire; the salt bridge lets ions move to keep the half-cells neutral and the circuit complete.

Q3Standard electrode potentials are measured relative to:

  1. Aa copper electrode
  2. Bthe standard hydrogen electrode (0 V)
  3. Czinc
  4. Dabsolute zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the standard hydrogen electrode (0 V)

The standard hydrogen electrode is defined as 0 V, and all other potentials are quoted against it.

Q4E°cell is calculated as:

  1. AE°(anode) − E°(cathode)
  2. BE°(cathode) − E°(anode)
  3. CE°(cathode) + E°(anode)
  4. DE°(anode) × E°(cathode)
Show answer

Correct answer: B — E°(cathode) − E°(anode)

E°cell = E°(cathode) − E°(anode); a positive result indicates a spontaneous reaction.

Q5A cell has E°cell = +1.10 V. The reaction is:

  1. Anon-spontaneous
  2. Bspontaneous
  3. Cat equilibrium
  4. Dimpossible
Show answer

Correct answer: B — spontaneous

A positive cell potential means the redox reaction proceeds spontaneously (as in the Zn/Cu Daniell cell).

Q6Between Zn (E° = −0.76 V) and Cu (E° = +0.34 V), which is oxidised?

  1. Acopper
  2. Bzinc
  3. Cboth
  4. Dneither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — zinc

The more negative electrode (zinc) loses electrons — it is oxidised at the anode.

Q7In a galvanic cell, the negative electrode (anode) is the:

  1. Aless reactive metal
  2. Bmore reactive metal
  3. Csalt bridge
  4. Dcathode
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more reactive metal

The more reactive metal is oxidised, releasing electrons — it is the negative electrode in a galvanic cell.

Q8Given E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V and E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = −0.76 V, the EMF of the cell is:

  1. A+0.42 V
  2. B+1.10 V
  3. C−1.10 V
  4. D+0.34 V
Show answer

Correct answer: B — +1.10 V

E°cell = E°(cathode) − E°(anode) = +0.34 − (−0.76) = +1.10 V.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define oxidation and reduction in terms of oxidation number.
Answer

Oxidation is an increase in oxidation number; reduction is a decrease in oxidation number.

Q2[2 marks]
State what the standard electrode (reduction) potential of a half-cell measures.
Answer

The voltage of that half-cell measured against a standard hydrogen electrode under standard conditions (298 K, 1 mol dm⁻³, 1 atm).

Q3[3 marks]
Given E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V and E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = −0.76 V, calculate the EMF of the cell and state which electrode is the negative terminal.
Answer

EMF = E°(cathode) − E°(anode) = +0.34 − (−0.76) = +1.10 V. The zinc electrode is the negative terminal (it is oxidised).

Q4[6 marks]
A simple cell is made from a zinc half-cell and a copper half-cell.
  1. Write the half-equation occurring at the zinc electrode and state whether it is oxidation or reduction. [2]
  2. State the function of the salt bridge. [2]
  3. State the direction of electron flow in the external circuit and explain why. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻[1]
  2. This is oxidation (loss of electrons)[1]
  3. The salt bridge completes the circuit[1]
  4. and allows ions to flow to balance the charge in each half-cell[1]
  5. Electrons flow from zinc to copper[1]
  6. because zinc is more easily oxidised / has the more negative electrode potential[1]

Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ (oxidation); salt bridge completes circuit and balances charge; electrons flow zinc → copper (zinc more easily oxidised).

Q5[2 marks]
Using E°(Ag⁺/Ag) = +0.80 V and E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V, determine which metal is oxidised in a cell made from these half-cells, and calculate the EMF.
Answer

Silver has the more positive E°, so it is reduced (cathode) and copper is oxidised (anode). E°cell = 0.80 − 0.34 = +0.46 V.

Q6[6 marks]
A cell is set up from a zinc half-cell and a copper half-cell. E°(Zn²⁺/Zn) = −0.76 V, E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V.
  1. State which electrode is negative and write the half-equation there. [2]
  2. Calculate the EMF of the cell. [2]
  3. State the direction of electron flow and explain why. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The zinc electrode is negative[1]
  2. Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻ (oxidation)[1]
  3. E°cell = E°(cathode) − E°(anode) = 0.34 − (−0.76)[1]
  4. = +1.10 V[1]
  5. Electrons flow from zinc to copper in the external circuit[1]
  6. because zinc has the more negative electrode potential, so it is oxidised and releases electrons[1]

Zinc electrode negative (Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻); EMF = +1.10 V; electrons flow zinc → copper (zinc more easily oxidised).

07

Equilibria

Multiple choice · 8

Q1For N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, the Kc expression is:

  1. A[NH₃]² / ([N₂][H₂]³)
  2. B[N₂][H₂]³ / [NH₃]²
  3. C[NH₃] / ([N₂][H₂])
  4. D2[NH₃] / (3[H₂] + [N₂])
Show answer

Correct answer: A — [NH₃]² / ([N₂][H₂]³)

Products over reactants, each raised to its coefficient: [NH₃]² on top, [N₂][H₂]³ underneath.

Q2A large value of K (≫1) means at equilibrium:

  1. Areactants dominate
  2. Bproducts dominate
  3. Cthe reaction is fast
  4. Dno reaction occurs
Show answer

Correct answer: B — products dominate

K ≫ 1 puts products on top as the larger quantity — the reaction goes nearly to completion.

Q3Which of these changes the VALUE of K?

  1. Aconcentration
  2. Bpressure
  3. Ca catalyst
  4. Dtemperature
Show answer

Correct answer: D — temperature

Only temperature changes K; concentration, pressure and catalysts affect position or rate, not the value of K.

Q4Adding a catalyst to a system at equilibrium:

  1. Aincreases K
  2. Bdecreases K
  3. Cdoes not change K
  4. Dreverses the reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: C — does not change K

A catalyst only speeds up reaching equilibrium; the position and K are unchanged.

Q5The size of K tells you about a reaction's ___, not its ___.

  1. Arate; extent
  2. Bextent; rate
  3. Ccolour; mass
  4. Dcost; yield
Show answer

Correct answer: B — extent; rate

K measures how far the reaction goes (extent); how fast it gets there is kinetics.

Q6Kp differs from Kc in that it uses:

  1. Atemperatures
  2. Bpartial pressures of gases
  3. Cmasses
  4. Dvolumes only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — partial pressures of gases

Kp is written with partial pressures rather than concentrations, for gaseous equilibria.

Q7For an exothermic forward reaction, increasing the temperature will:

  1. Aincrease K
  2. Bdecrease K
  3. Cnot change K
  4. Ddouble K
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decrease K

Higher temperature favours the endothermic (backward) direction, lowering the yield and decreasing K.

Q8If the reaction quotient Q is greater than K, the reaction will:

  1. Amove forward
  2. Bmove backward
  3. Cbe at equilibrium
  4. Dstop
Show answer

Correct answer: B — move backward

Q > K means too much product, so the reaction shifts backward until Q = K.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Write the equilibrium constant expression Kc for the reaction N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃.
Answer

Kc = [NH₃]² ÷ ([N₂][H₂]³).

Q2[2 marks]
State what a large value of Kc tells you about the position of equilibrium.
Answer

A large Kc means the equilibrium lies to the right — the mixture contains mostly products.

Q3[3 marks]
For an exothermic forward reaction at equilibrium, state and explain the effect of increasing temperature on Kc.
Answer

Increasing temperature shifts the equilibrium in the endothermic (backward) direction, so the yield of product falls and Kc decreases.

Q4[6 marks]
Consider the equilibrium 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g), forward reaction exothermic.
  1. State and explain the effect of increasing the pressure on the yield of SO₃. [3]
  2. State and explain the effect of adding a catalyst on the yield of SO₃. [2]
  3. State the effect of increasing temperature on the value of Kc. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. Higher pressure increases the yield of SO₃[1]
  2. The equilibrium shifts to the side with fewer gas molecules[1]
  3. 3 gas molecules on the left, 2 on the right, so it shifts right[1]
  4. A catalyst does not change the yield / position of equilibrium[1]
  5. It speeds up the forward and backward reactions equally (equilibrium reached faster)[1]
  6. Increasing temperature decreases Kc[1]

Higher pressure → more SO₃ (fewer gas moles on right); catalyst → no change in yield (faster only); higher temperature → Kc decreases.

Q5[2 marks]
Write the equilibrium expression Kc for: 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g).
Answer

Kc = [SO₃]² ÷ ([SO₂]² [O₂]).

Q6[6 marks]
Consider the equilibrium N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), forward reaction exothermic.
  1. State and explain the effect of increasing pressure on the yield of ammonia. [3]
  2. State and explain the effect of increasing temperature on the value of Kc. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Higher pressure increases the yield of ammonia[1]
  2. the system shifts to the side with fewer gas molecules[1]
  3. 4 gas molecules on the left, 2 on the right, so it shifts right[1]
  4. Increasing temperature decreases Kc[1]
  5. the forward reaction is exothermic, so higher temperature favours the endothermic reverse[1]
  6. less product forms, so Kc falls[1]

Higher pressure → more NH₃ (fewer gas moles on the right); higher temperature → lower Kc (favours the endothermic reverse).

08

Reaction kinetics

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In the rate law rate = k[A]^m[B]^n, the powers m and n are found:

  1. Afrom the balanced equation
  2. Bby experiment
  3. Cfrom the molar masses
  4. Dfrom the temperature
Show answer

Correct answer: B — by experiment

Orders are experimental — they reflect the mechanism, not the stoichiometric coefficients.

Q2Doubling [A] doubles the rate. The reaction is ___ order in A.

  1. Azero
  2. Bfirst
  3. Csecond
  4. Dthird
Show answer

Correct answer: B — first

Rate proportional to concentration means first order.

Q3Doubling [B] makes the rate four times larger. The order in B is:

  1. Azero
  2. Bfirst
  3. Csecond
  4. Dhalf
Show answer

Correct answer: C — second

×4 = 2², so the reaction is second order in B.

Q4For rate = k[A][B]², the overall order is:

  1. A1
  2. B2
  3. C3
  4. D0
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 3

The overall order is the sum of the individual orders: first order in A (power 1) plus second order in B (power 2) gives 1 + 2 = 3, so the reaction is third order overall.

Q5The rate constant k increases most when you raise the:

  1. Aconcentration
  2. Btemperature
  3. Cpressure
  4. Dvolume
Show answer

Correct answer: B — temperature

k depends strongly on temperature (Arrhenius); concentration changes the rate but not k.

Q6The rate-determining step of a reaction is the:

  1. Afastest step
  2. Bslowest step
  3. Cfirst step always
  4. Dlast step always
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slowest step

The slowest step is the bottleneck that controls the overall rate.

Q7A reactant's concentration halves every 30 s regardless of its starting value. The reaction is:

  1. Azero order
  2. Bfirst order
  3. Csecond order
  4. Dthird order
Show answer

Correct answer: B — first order

A constant half-life is the signature of a first-order reaction.

Q8The order of a reaction with respect to a reactant is found by:

  1. Athe balanced equation
  2. Bexperiment
  3. Cthe molar mass
  4. Dthe temperature
Show answer

Correct answer: B — experiment

Orders reflect the mechanism, so they must be determined experimentally, not read from the equation.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define the term rate of reaction.
Answer

The change in concentration of a reactant or product per unit time.

Q2[2 marks]
What is meant by the order of a reaction with respect to a reactant?
Answer

The power to which the concentration of that reactant is raised in the rate equation.

Q3[3 marks]
A reaction has rate equation rate = k[A][B]². State the order with respect to each reactant, the overall order, and the effect on rate of doubling [B].
Answer

First order in A, second order in B, overall third order. Doubling [B] multiplies the rate by 2² = 4.

Q4[6 marks]
The rate of a reaction between A and B was studied by varying concentrations.
  1. Explain how the rate constant k is affected by increasing temperature, and why. [3]
  2. Explain what is meant by the rate-determining step. [2]
  3. State the units of k for a first-order reaction. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. k increases with temperature[1]
  2. Particles have more energy and collide more often[1]
  3. and a greater fraction exceed the activation energy, so more collisions are successful[1]
  4. The rate-determining step is the slowest step in a multi-step reaction[1]
  5. It controls the overall rate[1]
  6. s⁻¹[1]

k rises with temperature (more successful collisions); rate-determining step = the slowest step, which limits overall rate; first-order k has units s⁻¹.

Q5[2 marks]
The rate equation for a reaction is rate = k[A]²[B]. State the overall order and the effect on the rate of doubling [A].
Answer

Overall order = 2 + 1 = 3 (third order). Doubling [A] multiplies the rate by 2² = 4.

Q6[6 marks]
A reaction between P and Q was studied by measuring the initial rate at different concentrations.
  1. Explain what is meant by the rate-determining step. [2]
  2. Explain how a catalyst increases the rate constant k. [2]
  3. Explain why increasing temperature increases k. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The slowest step in a multi-step reaction[1]
  2. which controls (limits) the overall rate[1]
  3. A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy[1]
  4. so a greater fraction of collisions are successful, raising k[1]
  5. Higher temperature gives molecules more energy[1]
  6. so more exceed the activation energy — more successful collisions and a larger k[1]

Rate-determining step = slowest step controlling the rate; catalyst and higher temperature both raise k by increasing the fraction of successful (Ea-exceeding) collisions.

09

The Periodic Table of Elements

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Elements in the same group have the same:

  1. Anumber of neutrons
  2. Bnumber of outer-shell electrons
  3. Cmass
  4. Dnumber of shells
Show answer

Correct answer: B — number of outer-shell electrons

A group shares outer-electron count, which is what sets chemistry — so a group behaves as a family.

Q2Going DOWN group 1, reactivity:

  1. Adecreases
  2. Bincreases
  3. Cstays the same
  4. Ddisappears
Show answer

Correct answer: B — increases

The outer electron is further out and more shielded lower down, so it is lost more easily — potassium is more reactive than sodium.

Q3Going DOWN group 7, reactivity:

  1. Aincreases
  2. Bdecreases
  3. Cstays the same
  4. Dbecomes metallic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decreases

Gaining an electron gets harder as the shell moves out, so halogens get less reactive down the group.

Q4Which will happen: chlorine added to potassium bromide solution?

  1. ANothing
  2. BChlorine displaces bromine
  3. CBromine displaces chlorine
  4. DPotassium is released
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Chlorine displaces bromine

Chlorine is the more reactive halogen, so it displaces bromine: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.

Q5Noble gases are unreactive because they have:

  1. Ano electrons
  2. Ba full outer shell
  3. Cone outer electron
  4. Dseven outer electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a full outer shell

A complete outer shell is very stable, so noble gases have no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons.

Q6Which is a typical property of transition metals but NOT group 1 metals?

  1. ABeing solid
  2. BForming ions of more than one charge
  3. CConducting electricity
  4. DBeing metallic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Forming ions of more than one charge

Transition metals form variable-charge ions (e.g. Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺) and coloured compounds; group 1 metals form only +1 ions.

Q7Across Period 3, atomic radius:

  1. Aincreases
  2. Bdecreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Dpeaks in the middle
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decreases

Rising nuclear charge with electrons in the same shell pulls the atom inward, so the radius decreases.

Q8The element in Period 3 with by far the highest melting point is:

  1. Asodium
  2. Bsilicon
  3. Csulfur
  4. Dargon
Show answer

Correct answer: B — silicon

Silicon is a giant covalent structure, so a vast number of strong covalent bonds must be broken to melt it.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State how the elements are arranged in the modern Periodic Table.
Answer

In order of increasing proton (atomic) number, arranged in periods (rows) and groups (columns) of similar properties.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe the trend in reactivity down Group I and explain it.
Answer

Reactivity increases down Group I because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why the elements in Group VII show similar chemical properties but Group 0 (noble gases) are unreactive.
Answer

Group VII atoms all have 7 outer electrons, so they react similarly (gaining/sharing one electron). Noble gases have a full outer shell, so they have no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons and are unreactive.

Q4[6 marks]
Chlorine, bromine and iodine are Group VII elements.
  1. Describe the trend in reactivity down Group VII and explain it. [3]
  2. Predict what happens when chlorine is added to a solution of potassium bromide, and write an equation. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Reactivity decreases down the group[1]
  2. The outer shell is further from the nucleus / more shielded[1]
  3. So it is harder to attract/gain an electron[1]
  4. Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine[1]
  5. The solution turns orange (bromine formed)[1]
  6. Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂[1]

Reactivity falls down the group (outer shell further/shielded, harder to gain e⁻); chlorine displaces bromine: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.

Q5[2 marks]
State and explain the trend in the reactivity of the Group 1 metals down the group.
Answer

Reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is lost more easily.

Q6[6 marks]
This question is about trends in Period 3 (Na to Ar).
  1. Describe how melting point changes across Period 3 and explain the value for silicon. [3]
  2. State the trend in first ionisation energy across the period and explain it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Melting point rises from Na to a peak at Si, then falls sharply to Ar[1]
  2. Silicon is a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure[1]
  3. so a huge number of strong covalent bonds must be broken — very high melting point[1]
  4. First ionisation energy generally increases across the period[1]
  5. because nuclear charge increases while shielding stays similar[1]
  6. so the outer electron is held more tightly and needs more energy to remove[1]

Melting point rises to a giant-covalent peak at Si then falls to molecular Ar; first ionisation energy rises (more nuclear charge, similar shielding).

10

Group 2

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The s-block consists of:

  1. AGroups 1 and 2
  2. BGroups 17 and 18
  3. Cthe transition metals
  4. DGroups 13–16
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Groups 1 and 2

The s-block is Groups 1 (alkali metals) and 2 (alkaline earth metals) — outer electrons in s orbitals.

Q2Reactivity of Group 1 metals down the group:

  1. Adecreases
  2. Bincreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Dbecomes zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — increases

The outer electron is further out and more shielded lower down, so it is lost more easily — more reactive.

Q3Group 1 more reactive than Group 2 (same period) because it:

  1. Ahas more electrons
  2. Bloses one electron rather than two
  3. Cis denser
  4. Dhas coloured ions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — loses one electron rather than two

Losing a single outer electron requires less energy than losing two, so Group 1 reacts more readily.

Q4Sodium in water produces:

  1. Asodium oxide only
  2. Bsodium hydroxide + hydrogen
  3. Csodium chloride
  4. Dno reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sodium hydroxide + hydrogen

Group 1 metals react with water to give a hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

Q5A lilac flame colour indicates the presence of:

  1. Asodium
  2. Bpotassium
  3. Ccalcium
  4. Dcopper
Show answer

Correct answer: B — potassium

Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow and calcium brick-red.

Q6The diagonal relationship links lithium most closely with:

  1. Asodium
  2. Bmagnesium
  3. Cpotassium
  4. Dfluorine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — magnesium

Lithium resembles magnesium (diagonally below-right) because of their similar charge densities.

Q7The flame colour of potassium is:

  1. Ayellow
  2. Blilac
  3. Cbrick-red
  4. Dgreen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lilac

Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow, calcium brick-red, barium green.

Q8Down Group 2, the carbonates become:

  1. Aless thermally stable
  2. Bmore thermally stable
  3. Cmore coloured
  4. Dgaseous
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more thermally stable

Larger cations polarise the carbonate ion less, so the carbonates need more heat to decompose — more stable.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe the trend in reactivity down Group 1 (the alkali metals) and explain it.
Answer

Reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe what is observed when a small piece of sodium is added to water, and give the equation.
Answer

It floats, melts into a ball, fizzes and moves around, giving off hydrogen: 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain the trend in thermal stability of the Group 2 carbonates down the group.
Answer

Thermal stability increases down the group. The cations get larger with less charge density, so they polarise/distort the carbonate ion less, making it harder to decompose.

Q4[6 marks]
The Group 2 elements magnesium and calcium react with water.
  1. Describe the difference in how magnesium and calcium react with water. [2]
  2. Write the equation for the reaction of calcium with cold water. [2]
  3. Explain the trend in reactivity down Group 2. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Magnesium reacts very slowly with cold water (faster with steam)[1]
  2. Calcium reacts readily with cold water, fizzing[1]
  3. Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂[1]
  4. balanced equation[1]
  5. Reactivity increases down the group[1]
  6. because the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more easily lost[1]

Mg very slow with cold water, Ca reacts readily; Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂; reactivity rises down the group (electrons lost more easily).

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why the thermal stability of the Group 2 nitrates increases down the group.
Answer

Down the group the cations get larger and have lower charge density, so they polarise (distort) the nitrate ion less. The nitrate is therefore harder to break down, so a higher temperature is needed and thermal stability increases.

Q6[6 marks]
The Group 2 elements and their compounds show clear trends.
  1. Describe and explain the trend in reactivity of the Group 2 metals with water down the group. [3]
  2. State the trends in solubility of the Group 2 hydroxides and sulfates down the group. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Reactivity increases down the group[1]
  2. the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
  3. so they are lost more easily, making the metal more reactive[1]
  4. Hydroxides become more soluble down the group[1]
  5. sulfates become less soluble down the group[1]
  6. so barium sulfate is highly insoluble (used in the sulfate test)[1]

Reactivity rises down Group 2 (outer electrons lost more easily); hydroxides get more soluble, sulfates less soluble.

11

Group 17

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Down a group in the p-block, elements become:

  1. Amore non-metallic
  2. Bmore metallic
  3. Cmore gaseous
  4. Dmore radioactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more metallic

Larger atoms hold outer electrons more loosely, so metallic character increases down a group.

Q2Which Group 14 element is a non-metal with several allotropes?

  1. Alead
  2. Btin
  3. Csilicon
  4. Dcarbon
Show answer

Correct answer: D — carbon

Carbon is the non-metal at the top of Group 14, with allotropes diamond, graphite, graphene and fullerenes.

Q3Nitrogen gas (N₂) is unreactive mainly because of its:

  1. Alow mass
  2. Bstrong triple bond
  3. Cmetallic character
  4. Dhigh electronegativity alone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — strong triple bond

The N≡N triple bond is very strong, so breaking N₂ apart needs a lot of energy.

Q4The most-produced industrial chemical, made from a Group 16 element, is:

  1. Anitric acid
  2. Bsulfuric acid
  3. Cammonia
  4. Dhydrochloric acid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sulfuric acid

Sulfuric acid (from sulfur) is the highest-tonnage industrial chemical.

Q5The first element of each p-block group is anomalous partly because it:

  1. Ais a metal
  2. Blacks available d orbitals and is small
  3. Chas the most shells
  4. Dis radioactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lacks available d orbitals and is small

Being small, very electronegative and without accessible d orbitals limits its bonding, unlike the elements below it.

Q6SiO₂ melts far higher than CO₂ because SiO₂ is:

  1. Aionic
  2. Ba giant covalent network
  3. Cmetallic
  4. Dmade of small molecules
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a giant covalent network

SiO₂ is a giant covalent lattice; melting it breaks strong covalent bonds, unlike molecular CO₂.

Q7Down Group 17, the oxidising power of the halogens:

  1. Aincreases
  2. Bdecreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Dpeaks at bromine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decreases

Gaining an electron gets harder down the group, so oxidising power decreases.

Q8Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is described as:

  1. Abasic
  2. Bacidic
  3. Camphoteric
  4. Dneutral
Show answer

Correct answer: C — amphoteric

An oxide that reacts with both acids and bases is amphoteric.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State and explain the trend in reactivity down Group 17 (the halogens).
Answer

Reactivity decreases down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is harder to attract an electron.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to confirm the presence of ammonia gas.
Answer

Damp red litmus paper turns blue in ammonia gas (ammonia is alkaline).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why chlorine can displace bromine from potassium bromide solution, and write the ionic equation.
Answer

Chlorine is more reactive (a stronger oxidising agent) than bromine, so it removes electrons from bromide ions: Cl₂ + 2Br⁻ → 2Cl⁻ + Br₂.

Q4[6 marks]
Nitrogen and sulfur form important oxides and acids.
  1. Explain why oxides of nitrogen and sulfur cause acid rain. [3]
  2. State the equation for the reaction between sulfur dioxide and water. [1]
  3. State one environmental effect of acid rain. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released when fossil fuels burn[1]
  2. They dissolve in rainwater[1]
  3. forming acidic solutions (sulfurous/sulfuric and nitric acids)[1]
  4. SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃[1]
  5. Damages plants/forests, or acidifies lakes killing fish[1]
  6. or corrodes buildings/limestone and metals (any valid effect)[1]

SO₂/NOₓ from burning fuels dissolve in rain forming acids; SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃; acid rain damages forests, lakes, buildings.

Q5[3 marks]
Chlorine is bubbled through separate solutions of potassium bromide and potassium iodide. State what you would observe in each and write one equation.
Answer

With potassium bromide the solution turns orange as bromine is displaced; with potassium iodide it turns brown as iodine is displaced. Chlorine is more reactive than both. Equation: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.

Q6[6 marks]
This question is about trends in the p-block.
  1. Explain why the reactivity of the halogens decreases down Group 17. [3]
  2. Explain the inert pair effect and illustrate it with lead. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Halogens react by gaining one electron[1]
  2. down the group the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
  3. so an electron is attracted/gained less easily — reactivity falls[1]
  4. The inert pair effect is the reluctance of the outer s-electron pair to bond in heavier p-block elements[1]
  5. so they favour an oxidation state two lower than the group maximum[1]
  6. lead is more stable as Pb²⁺ than Pb⁴⁺[1]

Halogen reactivity falls down the group (electron gained less easily); the inert pair effect makes heavier elements like lead favour the lower (+2) state.

12

Nitrogen and sulfur

Multiple choice · 8

Q1Down a group in the p-block, elements become:

  1. Amore non-metallic
  2. Bmore metallic
  3. Cmore gaseous
  4. Dmore radioactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more metallic

Larger atoms hold outer electrons more loosely, so metallic character increases down a group.

Q2Which Group 14 element is a non-metal with several allotropes?

  1. Alead
  2. Btin
  3. Csilicon
  4. Dcarbon
Show answer

Correct answer: D — carbon

Carbon is the non-metal at the top of Group 14, with allotropes diamond, graphite, graphene and fullerenes.

Q3Nitrogen gas (N₂) is unreactive mainly because of its:

  1. Alow mass
  2. Bstrong triple bond
  3. Cmetallic character
  4. Dhigh electronegativity alone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — strong triple bond

The N≡N triple bond is very strong, so breaking N₂ apart needs a lot of energy.

Q4The most-produced industrial chemical, made from a Group 16 element, is:

  1. Anitric acid
  2. Bsulfuric acid
  3. Cammonia
  4. Dhydrochloric acid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sulfuric acid

Sulfuric acid (from sulfur) is the highest-tonnage industrial chemical.

Q5The first element of each p-block group is anomalous partly because it:

  1. Ais a metal
  2. Blacks available d orbitals and is small
  3. Chas the most shells
  4. Dis radioactive
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lacks available d orbitals and is small

Being small, very electronegative and without accessible d orbitals limits its bonding, unlike the elements below it.

Q6SiO₂ melts far higher than CO₂ because SiO₂ is:

  1. Aionic
  2. Ba giant covalent network
  3. Cmetallic
  4. Dmade of small molecules
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a giant covalent network

SiO₂ is a giant covalent lattice; melting it breaks strong covalent bonds, unlike molecular CO₂.

Q7Down Group 17, the oxidising power of the halogens:

  1. Aincreases
  2. Bdecreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Dpeaks at bromine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — decreases

Gaining an electron gets harder down the group, so oxidising power decreases.

Q8Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is described as:

  1. Abasic
  2. Bacidic
  3. Camphoteric
  4. Dneutral
Show answer

Correct answer: C — amphoteric

An oxide that reacts with both acids and bases is amphoteric.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State and explain the trend in reactivity down Group 17 (the halogens).
Answer

Reactivity decreases down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is harder to attract an electron.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to confirm the presence of ammonia gas.
Answer

Damp red litmus paper turns blue in ammonia gas (ammonia is alkaline).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why chlorine can displace bromine from potassium bromide solution, and write the ionic equation.
Answer

Chlorine is more reactive (a stronger oxidising agent) than bromine, so it removes electrons from bromide ions: Cl₂ + 2Br⁻ → 2Cl⁻ + Br₂.

Q4[6 marks]
Nitrogen and sulfur form important oxides and acids.
  1. Explain why oxides of nitrogen and sulfur cause acid rain. [3]
  2. State the equation for the reaction between sulfur dioxide and water. [1]
  3. State one environmental effect of acid rain. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released when fossil fuels burn[1]
  2. They dissolve in rainwater[1]
  3. forming acidic solutions (sulfurous/sulfuric and nitric acids)[1]
  4. SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃[1]
  5. Damages plants/forests, or acidifies lakes killing fish[1]
  6. or corrodes buildings/limestone and metals (any valid effect)[1]

SO₂/NOₓ from burning fuels dissolve in rain forming acids; SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃; acid rain damages forests, lakes, buildings.

Q5[3 marks]
Chlorine is bubbled through separate solutions of potassium bromide and potassium iodide. State what you would observe in each and write one equation.
Answer

With potassium bromide the solution turns orange as bromine is displaced; with potassium iodide it turns brown as iodine is displaced. Chlorine is more reactive than both. Equation: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.

Q6[6 marks]
This question is about trends in the p-block.
  1. Explain why the reactivity of the halogens decreases down Group 17. [3]
  2. Explain the inert pair effect and illustrate it with lead. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Halogens react by gaining one electron[1]
  2. down the group the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
  3. so an electron is attracted/gained less easily — reactivity falls[1]
  4. The inert pair effect is the reluctance of the outer s-electron pair to bond in heavier p-block elements[1]
  5. so they favour an oxidation state two lower than the group maximum[1]
  6. lead is more stable as Pb²⁺ than Pb⁴⁺[1]

Halogen reactivity falls down the group (electron gained less easily); the inert pair effect makes heavier elements like lead favour the lower (+2) state.

13

An introduction to AS Level organic chemistry

Multiple choice · 10

Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:

  1. Acolour
  2. Bfunctional group and general formula
  3. Cmelting point
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula

Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.

Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:

  1. Acarbon skeleton length
  2. Bfunctional group
  3. Ccolour
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group

The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.

Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:

  1. Athe same compound
  2. Bstructural isomers
  3. Cgeometric isomers
  4. Ddifferent elements
Show answer

Correct answer: B — structural isomers

Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.

Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:

  1. Atwo ions
  2. Bfree radicals
  3. Ca nucleophile only
  4. Dno products
Show answer

Correct answer: B — free radicals

An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.

Q5A nucleophile is a species that:

  1. Aaccepts an electron pair
  2. Bdonates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
  3. Cis always positively charged
  4. Dcontains no electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres

Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.

Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Baddition
  3. Celimination
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition

Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.

Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:

  1. Aelectron-poor and attacks C=C
  2. Belectron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Dalways positively charged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon

A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.

Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:

  1. Aa chiral centre
  2. Ba C=C double bond with no rotation
  3. Ca benzene ring
  4. Dan ionic bond
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation

Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.

Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?

  1. AKCN in ethanol
  2. Bwarm aqueous NaOH
  3. Cacidified dichromate
  4. Dconcentrated H₂SO₄
Show answer

Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH

Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.

Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:

  1. Asodium hydroxide
  2. Bpotassium cyanide
  3. Cammonia
  4. Dwater
Show answer

Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide

Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Define the terms structural isomers.
Answer

Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.

Q2[2 marks]
Give the IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH₂CH₂OH and state its functional group.
Answer

Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).

Q3[3 marks]
Distinguish between homolytic and heterolytic bond fission, naming the species formed.
Answer

In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.

Q4[6 marks]
Organic reactions are classified by the type of change and the attacking species.
  1. Explain the difference between an electrophile and a nucleophile. [2]
  2. State the type of reaction (addition, substitution or elimination) when: bromine reacts with ethene; and a haloalkane forms an alkene with hot alcoholic KOH. [2]
  3. Explain what is meant by a functional group. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. An electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor species)[1]
  2. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich species)[1]
  3. Bromine + ethene is an addition reaction[1]
  4. Haloalkane with hot alcoholic KOH is an elimination reaction[1]
  5. A functional group is the atom or group of atoms[1]
  6. that gives a molecule its characteristic chemical properties[1]

Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why but-2-ene shows cis–trans isomerism but butane does not.
Answer

But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.

Q6[6 marks]
Organic reactions can be classified by mechanism.
  1. Define the terms nucleophile and electrophile. [2]
  2. State the type of species that attacks, and the reaction type, when: (i) bromine reacts with ethene; (ii) hydroxide reacts with bromoethane. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich)[1]
  2. an electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor)[1]
  3. (i) Bromine acts as an electrophile[1]
  4. in an electrophilic addition to the C=C double bond[1]
  5. (ii) Hydroxide acts as a nucleophile[1]
  6. in a nucleophilic substitution of the haloalkane[1]

Nucleophile = electron-pair donor, electrophile = acceptor; Br₂/ethene = electrophilic addition; OH⁻/bromoethane = nucleophilic substitution.

Q7[6 marks]
Show how you would carry out the following conversions, giving the reagents and conditions for each step.
  1. Ethene into ethanoic acid (two steps). [4]
  2. Bromoethane into propanenitrile, and state why this conversion is useful. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Step 1: hydrate ethene with steam and an acid catalyst to give ethanol[1]
  2. (~300 °C, ~60 atm, phosphoric acid)[1]
  3. Step 2: oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate[1]
  4. under reflux, to give ethanoic acid[1]
  5. React bromoethane with potassium cyanide in ethanol to give propanenitrile[1]
  6. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]

Ethene → ethanol (steam + acid catalyst) → ethanoic acid (oxidise with acidified dichromate, reflux); bromoethane + KCN → propanenitrile (adds a carbon).

14

Hydrocarbons

Multiple choice · 13

Q1Crude oil is separated into fractions by:

  1. Afiltration
  2. Bfractional distillation by boiling point
  3. Celectrolysis
  4. Dcrystallisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — fractional distillation by boiling point

Hydrocarbons condense at different heights in the column according to their boiling points.

Q2The general formula of an alkane is:

  1. ACₙH₂ₙ
  2. BCₙH₂ₙ₊₂
  3. CCₙHₙ
  4. DCₙH₂ₙ₋₂
Show answer

Correct answer: B — CₙH₂ₙ₊₂

Saturated alkanes follow CₙH₂ₙ₊₂; alkenes (one double bond) follow CₙH₂ₙ.

Q3Incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon is dangerous because it produces:

  1. Acarbon dioxide
  2. Bwater
  3. Ctoxic carbon monoxide
  4. Dhydrogen
Show answer

Correct answer: C — toxic carbon monoxide

Limited oxygen gives carbon monoxide (a toxic, colourless gas) and soot rather than CO₂.

Q4Which decolourises bromine water?

  1. AAn alkane
  2. BAn alkene
  3. CBoth equally
  4. DNeither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — An alkene

The C=C of an alkene adds bromine, using up the colour; a saturated alkane leaves it orange.

Q5Poly(ethene) is made from ethene by:

  1. Acracking
  2. Baddition polymerisation
  3. Cfractional distillation
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition polymerisation

Many ethene monomers join into a long chain as the double bonds open — addition polymerisation.

Q6Most addition polymers are non-biodegradable because:

  1. Athey are made of metal
  2. Btheir unreactive C–C backbone does not break down
  3. Cthey dissolve in water
  4. Dthey contain oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — their unreactive C–C backbone does not break down

The strong, unreactive carbon chain resists breakdown, so the plastics persist in the environment.

Q7Reacting ethene with hydrogen and a nickel catalyst produces:

  1. Aethanol
  2. Bethane
  3. Cpoly(ethene)
  4. Ddibromoethane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethane

Hydrogenation adds H₂ across the C=C double bond, turning the alkene ethene into the alkane ethane.

Q8Addition polymers such as poly(ethene) are hard to dispose of because they are:

  1. Ahighly reactive
  2. Bnon-biodegradable
  3. Csoluble in water
  4. Dmagnetic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — non-biodegradable

Their unreactive carbon backbone is not broken down by microbes, so they persist for a very long time.

Q9The step Cl₂ → 2Cl• in the reaction of methane with chlorine is called:

  1. Apropagation
  2. Binitiation
  3. Ctermination
  4. Dsubstitution
Show answer

Correct answer: B — initiation

UV light splitting the halogen into radicals is the initiation step.

Q10Propene reacts with HBr. The major product predicted by Markovnikov's rule is:

  1. A1-bromopropane
  2. B2-bromopropane
  3. Cpropan-1-ol
  4. Dpropane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2-bromopropane

The H adds to the carbon with more hydrogens, giving the more stable secondary carbocation, so 2-bromopropane is the major product.

Q11The functional group of an alcohol is:

  1. A–COOH
  2. B–OH
  3. CC=C
  4. D–O–
Show answer

Correct answer: B — –OH

Alcohols contain the hydroxyl group –OH; –COOH is a carboxylic acid.

Q12Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to give a salt, water and:

  1. Ahydrogen
  2. Boxygen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dan ester
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + carbon dioxide (the fizz that confirms a carboxylic acid).

Q13An ester is formed by reacting a carboxylic acid with a(n):

  1. Ametal
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Calcohol
  4. Dalkene
Show answer

Correct answer: C — alcohol

Esterification combines a carboxylic acid and an alcohol (with an acid catalyst) to give an ester and water.

Exam-style questions · 10

Q1[2 marks]
Define the term homologous series.
Answer

A family of organic compounds with the same general formula and similar chemical properties, where each member differs from the next by CH₂.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to distinguish an alkane from an alkene.
Answer

Add bromine water: an alkene decolourises it (orange to colourless); an alkane does not (stays orange).

Q3[3 marks]
Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation to form poly(ethene). Explain what this means and give the repeat unit.
Answer

Many ethene monomers (with C=C double bonds) join together, with no other product, to form a long-chain polymer. Repeat unit: –(CH₂–CH₂)–.

Q4[6 marks]
Ethanol can be made by fermentation or by the hydration of ethene.
  1. Write the equation for the fermentation of glucose to ethanol. [2]
  2. State the conditions for making ethanol by hydration of ethene, and write the equation. [3]
  3. Give one advantage of the hydration method over fermentation. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂[1]
  2. correct formulae / balanced[1]
  3. Steam / water, ~300 °C, ~60 atm, phosphoric acid catalyst[1]
  4. C₂H₄ + H₂O → C₂H₅OH[1]
  5. balanced equation[1]
  6. It is a continuous process / faster / gives purer ethanol (any one)[1]

Fermentation: C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂; hydration: C₂H₄ + H₂O → C₂H₅OH (steam, ~300 °C, ~60 atm, H₃PO₄); hydration is continuous/faster/purer.

Q5[2 marks]
Describe the test to distinguish ethane from ethene, giving the result for each.
Answer

Add bromine water: ethene (an alkene) decolourises it from orange to colourless; ethane (an alkane) leaves it orange (no reaction).

Q6[6 marks]
Ethene (C₂H₄) is an important product of cracking.
  1. Explain what cracking is and why it is done. [3]
  2. Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation. Describe what this means and name the product. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Cracking breaks long-chain hydrocarbons into shorter ones[1]
  2. using heat and a catalyst[1]
  3. to make more useful small molecules (fuels) and alkenes for plastics[1]
  4. Many ethene monomers (with C=C double bonds) join together[1]
  5. the double bonds open and link into a long chain, with no other product[1]
  6. The product is poly(ethene)[1]

Cracking breaks long hydrocarbons (heat + catalyst) into useful short molecules and alkenes; addition polymerisation joins many ethene monomers into poly(ethene).

Q7[3 marks]
Methane reacts with chlorine in ultraviolet light. Name the type of mechanism and write the initiation and the two propagation steps.
Answer

Free-radical substitution. Initiation: Cl₂ → 2Cl• (UV). Propagation: Cl• + CH₄ → •CH₃ + HCl, then •CH₃ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + Cl•.

Q8[6 marks]
But-1-ene reacts with hydrogen bromide.
  1. Name the mechanism and describe the role of the C=C double bond. [2]
  2. Explain, using Markovnikov's rule, which product forms in the greater amount. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. The mechanism is electrophilic addition[1]
  2. the electron-rich C=C double bond attracts the electrophile (the δ+ H of HBr)[1]
  3. The H can add to either carbon, giving either a secondary or a primary carbocation[1]
  4. the secondary carbocation is more stable than the primary[1]
  5. so the H adds to the terminal (CH₂) carbon (Markovnikov's rule)[1]
  6. giving mainly 2-bromobutane[1]

Electrophilic addition; the C=C attracts the electrophile; via the more stable secondary carbocation the major product is 2-bromobutane.

Q9[3 marks]
Ethanol can be made by fermentation. Give the equation, the conditions, and one advantage of this method over hydration of ethene.
Answer

C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂, using yeast at about 30 °C in the absence of air. An advantage is that it uses a renewable resource (sugar/plant crops) rather than crude oil.

Q10[6 marks]
Ethanol, ethanoic acid and their reactions are important in the O Level organic chapter.
  1. Describe how ethanoic acid can be made from ethanol. [2]
  2. State what you would observe when ethanoic acid is added to magnesium, and write the equation. [2]
  3. Name the ester and other product formed when ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, and state the catalyst. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate (warm/reflux)[1]
  2. (or ferment ethanol in air) to give ethanoic acid[1]
  3. The magnesium fizzes / dissolves, giving off hydrogen gas[1]
  4. Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂[1]
  5. Ethyl ethanoate is formed, plus water[1]
  6. using a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]

Oxidise ethanol → ethanoic acid; with magnesium it fizzes giving H₂ (Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂); with ethanol it makes ethyl ethanoate + water (conc. H₂SO₄ catalyst).

15

Halogen compounds

Multiple choice · 10

Q1The reactive site of a haloalkane is the carbon bonded to the halogen because it is:

  1. Aslightly negative
  2. Bslightly positive (δ+)
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Daromatic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slightly positive (δ+)

The polar C–X bond leaves that carbon electron-poor (δ+), attracting nucleophiles.

Q2Reacting bromoethane with warm aqueous NaOH gives:

  1. Aethene
  2. Bethanol
  3. Cethane
  4. Dethanoic acid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethanol

Aqueous hydroxide substitutes for the bromine — nucleophilic substitution to ethanol.

Q3Hot ethanolic NaOH with a haloalkane favours:

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Belimination (to an alkene)
  3. Cno reaction
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — elimination (to an alkene)

Hot alcoholic base removes HX, forming a double bond — elimination.

Q4A secondary amine has how many carbon groups on nitrogen?

  1. Aone
  2. Btwo
  3. Cthree
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — two

Primary = 1, secondary = 2, tertiary = 3 carbon groups on the nitrogen.

Q5Amines act as bases because the nitrogen:

  1. Ais positively charged
  2. Bhas a lone pair that accepts H⁺
  3. Chas no electrons
  4. Dis a halogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — has a lone pair that accepts H⁺

Nitrogen's lone pair accepts a proton, so amines are proton acceptors — bases.

Q6Reacting a haloalkane with ammonia produces a(n):

  1. Aalkene
  2. Bamine
  3. Ccarboxylic acid
  4. Dalcohol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amine

Ammonia's lone pair substitutes onto the carbon, displacing the halogen to form an amine.

Q7Reacting a haloalkane with potassium cyanide produces a nitrile, which is useful because it:

  1. Ashortens the chain
  2. Badds a carbon atom to the chain
  3. Cremoves the halogen only
  4. Dforms a ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — adds a carbon atom to the chain

The CN group adds one carbon, lengthening the carbon chain.

Q8Which haloalkane undergoes nucleophilic substitution fastest?

  1. Achloroethane
  2. Bbromoethane
  3. Ciodoethane
  4. Dthey react equally
Show answer

Correct answer: C — iodoethane

The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.

Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:

  1. ASN1
  2. BSN2
  3. Celimination only
  4. Daddition
Show answer

Correct answer: B — SN2

The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.

Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:

  1. Afree radical
  2. Bcarbocation intermediate
  3. Ccarbanion
  4. Dsingle concerted step
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate

In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the carbon–halogen bond in a haloalkane is the site of attack by nucleophiles.
Answer

The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.

Q2[2 marks]
State the product and reaction type when bromoethane is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Answer

Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases.
Answer

The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).

Q4[6 marks]
Bromoethane can react in two different ways depending on conditions.
  1. State the reagent and conditions for converting bromoethane to ethene, and name the reaction type. [3]
  2. State the reagent for converting bromoethane to ethylamine, and name the reaction type. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Hot ethanolic (alcoholic) potassium hydroxide[1]
  2. under reflux / heat[1]
  3. This is elimination (loss of HBr forms the C=C)[1]
  4. Excess ammonia[1]
  5. (in a sealed tube / ethanolic solution)[1]
  6. This is nucleophilic substitution[1]

→ ethene: hot alcoholic KOH, elimination; → ethylamine: excess ammonia, nucleophilic substitution.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases, and give the product when ethylamine reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Answer

The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).

Q6[6 marks]
Bromoethane can be converted into several products by nucleophilic substitution.
  1. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to ethanol. [2]
  2. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to a nitrile, and why this is useful. [2]
  3. Explain why iodoethane reacts faster than bromoethane. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide (or water)[1]
  2. gives ethanol[1]
  3. Potassium cyanide (in ethanol) gives propanenitrile[1]
  4. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]
  5. The C–I bond is weaker than C–Br[1]
  6. so it breaks more easily, making iodoethane react faster[1]

OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.

Q7[6 marks]
Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkanes can follow an SN1 or an SN2 mechanism.
  1. Describe the SN2 mechanism and the type of haloalkane it favours. [3]
  2. Describe the SN1 mechanism and explain why tertiary haloalkanes favour it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. In SN2 the nucleophile attacks the δ+ carbon as the halogen leaves[1]
  2. in a single concerted step[1]
  3. favoured by primary haloalkanes (the carbon is easy to approach)[1]
  4. In SN1 the halogen leaves first to form a carbocation[1]
  5. then the nucleophile attacks the carbocation[1]
  6. tertiary haloalkanes form a stable tertiary carbocation, so this route is favoured[1]

SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).

16

Hydroxy compounds

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A primary alcohol is fully oxidised to a:

  1. Aketone
  2. Bcarboxylic acid
  3. Calkene
  4. Dnothing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carboxylic acid

Primary → aldehyde → carboxylic acid; secondary stops at a ketone; tertiary does not oxidise.

Q2A secondary alcohol oxidises to a:

  1. Acarboxylic acid
  2. Bketone
  3. Caldehyde only, then stops
  4. Dphenol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ketone

Secondary alcohols oxidise to ketones and no further.

Q3A tertiary alcohol warmed with acidified dichromate:

  1. Aturns it green
  2. Bdoes not react (stays orange)
  3. Cexplodes
  4. Dforms an ester
Show answer

Correct answer: B — does not react (stays orange)

There is no hydrogen on the OH carbon to remove, so it resists oxidation and the dichromate stays orange.

Q4Alcohols have relatively high boiling points because they:

  1. Aare ionic
  2. Bhydrogen-bond
  3. Care large
  4. Dcontain metals
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hydrogen-bond

The O–H group forms hydrogen bonds between molecules, raising the boiling point.

Q5Phenol differs from an ordinary alcohol in that it is:

  1. Abasic
  2. Bweakly acidic
  3. Cunreactive
  4. Da gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — weakly acidic

The benzene ring stabilises the anion, so phenol loses H⁺ and is weakly acidic (reacts with NaOH).

Q6An alcohol reacting with a carboxylic acid forms an:

  1. Aether
  2. Bester (+ water)
  3. Camine
  4. Dalkane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ester (+ water)

Esterification gives a sweet-smelling ester and water.

Q7Dehydrating ethanol over a hot catalyst produces:

  1. Aethane
  2. Bethene
  3. Cethanoic acid
  4. Dan ester
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethene

Dehydration removes water from the alcohol, forming the alkene ethene by elimination.

Q8Which reagent reacts with a carboxylic acid but NOT with phenol?

  1. Asodium hydroxide
  2. Bsodium carbonate
  3. Cwater
  4. Dbromine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sodium carbonate

A carboxylic acid is strong enough to fizz with a carbonate; phenol is too weak, so carbonate distinguishes them.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Classify butan-2-ol as a primary, secondary or tertiary alcohol and justify your answer.
Answer

Secondary — the carbon bearing the –OH group is attached to two other carbon atoms.

Q2[2 marks]
State the products of oxidising a primary alcohol with acidified potassium dichromate.
Answer

First an aldehyde, then on further oxidation a carboxylic acid; the dichromate turns from orange to green.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why phenol is acidic but ethanol is essentially neutral.
Answer

When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring, stabilising the ion, so H⁺ is released. Ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺.

Q4[6 marks]
Three alcohols — propan-1-ol, propan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol — are each warmed with acidified potassium dichromate.
  1. State the product (if any) from each alcohol. [3]
  2. Describe the colour change seen for those that react. [1]
  3. Explain why the tertiary alcohol does not react. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Propan-1-ol (primary) → propanal then propanoic acid[1]
  2. Propan-2-ol (secondary) → propanone (a ketone)[1]
  3. 2-methylpropan-2-ol (tertiary) → no reaction[1]
  4. Those that react turn the dichromate from orange to green[1]
  5. The tertiary alcohol has no hydrogen on the carbon bearing the –OH[1]
  6. so there is nothing for the oxidising agent to remove[1]

1° → aldehyde/acid, 2° → ketone, 3° → no reaction (orange→green for the first two); tertiary resists because there is no H on the OH carbon.

Q5[2 marks]
Give one advantage of making ethanol by hydration of ethene rather than by fermentation.
Answer

Hydration is a fast, continuous process that gives pure ethanol directly, whereas fermentation is slow, works in batches and produces a dilute impure mixture that must be distilled.

Q6[6 marks]
Phenol and ethanol both contain an –OH group but behave differently.
  1. Explain why phenol is weakly acidic while ethanol is essentially neutral. [3]
  2. Describe a chemical test, with results, that distinguishes phenol from a carboxylic acid. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring[1]
  2. this stabilises the phenoxide ion, so H⁺ is released — weakly acidic[1]
  3. ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺[1]
  4. Add sodium carbonate solution to each[1]
  5. the carboxylic acid fizzes, releasing CO₂[1]
  6. phenol shows no reaction (too weak an acid)[1]

Phenol is acidic because the ring stabilises the phenoxide ion; ethanol's is not. Sodium carbonate fizzes with a carboxylic acid but not with phenol.

17

Carbonyl compounds

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In a ketone, the carbonyl group is:

  1. Aat the end of the chain
  2. Bin the middle, between two carbon groups
  3. Cabsent
  4. Dbonded to a halogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — in the middle, between two carbon groups

A ketone has C=O in the middle (R–CO–R); an aldehyde has it at the end (–CHO).

Q2The characteristic reaction of aldehydes and ketones is nucleophilic:

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Baddition
  3. Celimination
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition

The polar C=O has a δ+ carbon that nucleophiles add to — nucleophilic addition.

Q3Which is readily oxidised to a carboxylic acid?

  1. Aa ketone
  2. Ban aldehyde
  3. Cboth equally
  4. Dneither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — an aldehyde

Aldehydes have a terminal C–H and oxidise to acids; ketones resist oxidation.

Q4A silver mirror with Tollens' reagent indicates a(n):

  1. Aketone
  2. Baldehyde
  3. Calcohol
  4. Dalkane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — aldehyde

Only an aldehyde reduces the silver ions to a silver mirror.

Q5Fehling's solution with a ketone:

  1. Aturns brick-red
  2. Bstays blue
  3. Cturns green
  4. Dforms a mirror
Show answer

Correct answer: B — stays blue

Ketones do not reduce Fehling's, so it stays blue; aldehydes give a brick-red precipitate.

Q6Reducing a ketone gives a:

  1. Aprimary alcohol
  2. Bsecondary alcohol
  3. Ccarboxylic acid
  4. Daldehyde
Show answer

Correct answer: B — secondary alcohol

A ketone reduces to a secondary alcohol (the reverse of secondary-alcohol oxidation).

Q7Adding HCN to propanone is an example of:

  1. Aoxidation
  2. Bnucleophilic addition
  3. Celectrophilic substitution
  4. Delimination
Show answer

Correct answer: B — nucleophilic addition

The cyanide nucleophile adds to the δ+ carbonyl carbon — nucleophilic addition, giving a hydroxynitrile.

Q8An orange precipitate with 2,4-DNPH but no reaction with Tollens' reagent indicates a:

  1. Acarboxylic acid
  2. Bketone
  3. Caldehyde
  4. Dalcohol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ketone

2,4-DNPH confirms a carbonyl; no silver mirror with Tollens' means it is a ketone, not an aldehyde.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State the difference in structure between an aldehyde and a ketone.
Answer

Both contain the carbonyl group C=O; in an aldehyde it is at the end of the chain (–CHO), in a ketone it is in the middle, bonded to two carbon groups.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test that distinguishes an aldehyde from a ketone.
Answer

Warm with Tollens' reagent: an aldehyde forms a silver mirror; a ketone gives no change.

Q3[3 marks]
State the type of reaction and the product when propanal is reduced.
Answer

Reduction (e.g. with NaBH₄) gives propan-1-ol; the carbonyl C=O is reduced to a C–OH group (a primary alcohol).

Q4[6 marks]
A student has two unlabelled bottles, one containing propanal and one containing propanone.
  1. Describe the result of adding Fehling's solution to each, on warming. [3]
  2. State the characteristic reaction type of the carbonyl group and why the carbon is attacked. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Propanal (aldehyde) gives a positive result[1]
  2. the blue solution forms a brick-red precipitate[1]
  3. Propanone (ketone) gives no change (stays blue)[1]
  4. The characteristic reaction is nucleophilic addition[1]
  5. The C=O bond is polar with a δ+ carbon[1]
  6. so nucleophiles are attracted to and attack the carbonyl carbon[1]

Aldehyde → brick-red precipitate with Fehling's; ketone → stays blue; carbonyl undergoes nucleophilic addition at its δ+ carbon.

Q5[2 marks]
State the reagent and the products when propanal and propanone are each reduced.
Answer

Reduction (e.g. with NaBH₄): propanal (an aldehyde) gives propan-1-ol (a primary alcohol); propanone (a ketone) gives propan-2-ol (a secondary alcohol).

Q6[6 marks]
A student has two unlabelled liquids: one is an aldehyde, the other a ketone.
  1. Describe a test that shows both are carbonyl compounds. [2]
  2. Describe a test, with results, that distinguishes the aldehyde from the ketone. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Add 2,4-DNPH (Brady's reagent) to each[1]
  2. both give an orange precipitate, confirming a carbonyl group[1]
  3. Warm each with Tollens' reagent (ammoniacal silver nitrate)[1]
  4. the aldehyde forms a silver mirror[1]
  5. the ketone gives no change[1]
  6. (alternatively Fehling's: aldehyde gives a brick-red precipitate, ketone stays blue)[1]

2,4-DNPH gives an orange precipitate with both (carbonyl present); Tollens' gives a silver mirror only with the aldehyde.

18

Carboxylic acids and derivatives

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The functional group of a carboxylic acid is:

  1. A–OH
  2. B–CHO
  3. C–COOH
  4. D–NH₂
Show answer

Correct answer: C — –COOH

The carboxyl group –COOH (a carbonyl plus a hydroxyl on one carbon) defines carboxylic acids.

Q2Carboxylic acids are:

  1. Astrong acids
  2. Bweak acids
  3. Cbases
  4. Dneutral
Show answer

Correct answer: B — weak acids

They only partly ionise in water — weak acids — though the stabilised carboxylate makes them acidic at all.

Q3A carboxylic acid added to a carbonate produces:

  1. Asalt + hydrogen
  2. Bsalt + water + carbon dioxide
  3. Can ester
  4. Dno reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — salt + water + carbon dioxide

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + CO₂; the fizz (CO₂) confirms a carboxylic acid.

Q4Esterification combines a carboxylic acid with a(n):

  1. Ametal
  2. Balcohol
  3. Ccarbonate
  4. Dhalogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — alcohol

Acid + alcohol (with an acid catalyst) → ester + water.

Q5Esters are best known for their:

  1. Ahigh acidity
  2. Bsweet, fruity smells
  3. Cmetallic conductivity
  4. Dexplosiveness
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sweet, fruity smells

Esters have pleasant fruity smells and are used as flavourings and perfumes.

Q6Why is a carboxylic acid acidic but an alcohol is not?

  1. Ait has more carbons
  2. Bthe carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation
  3. Cit contains a metal
  4. Dit is a gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation

Spreading the negative charge over both oxygens stabilises the ion, so the H⁺ is lost more readily.

Q7The most reactive derivative of a carboxylic acid, used to make the others, is the:

  1. Aester
  2. Bamide
  3. Cacyl chloride
  4. Dsalt
Show answer

Correct answer: C — acyl chloride

Acyl chlorides are the most reactive derivative and are used to prepare esters and amides.

Q8Boiling a fat with sodium hydroxide to make soap is called:

  1. Aesterification
  2. Bsaponification
  3. Chydrogenation
  4. Dpolymerisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — saponification

Alkaline hydrolysis of a fat (an ester) to make soap is saponification.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Name the functional group in a carboxylic acid and state whether such acids are strong or weak.
Answer

The carboxyl group, –COOH; carboxylic acids are weak acids (only partly ionised in water).

Q2[2 marks]
Give the products and observation when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
Answer

Sodium ethanoate, water and carbon dioxide are formed; effervescence (fizzing) is seen.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why a carboxylic acid is more acidic than the corresponding alcohol.
Answer

When a carboxylic acid loses H⁺, the negative charge on the carboxylate ion is delocalised over both oxygen atoms, stabilising it; an alcohol's anion is not stabilised in this way.

Q4[6 marks]
Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of a little concentrated sulfuric acid.
  1. Name the type of reaction and the organic product. [2]
  2. Write the equation for the reaction. [2]
  3. State the role of the concentrated sulfuric acid, and one use of the product. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The reaction is esterification (condensation)[1]
  2. The product is ethyl ethanoate (an ester)[1]
  3. CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
  4. balanced with water as the other product[1]
  5. The sulfuric acid is a catalyst (and dehydrating agent)[1]
  6. Esters are used as flavourings / perfumes / solvents (any one)[1]

Esterification → ethyl ethanoate; CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O; H₂SO₄ is the catalyst; esters used as flavourings/perfumes/solvents.

Q5[2 marks]
Name the ester formed from ethanoic acid and propan-1-ol, and state the catalyst used.
Answer

Propyl ethanoate, formed with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst (which also removes water).

Q6[6 marks]
Esters can be made from carboxylic acids and hydrolysed back again.
  1. Write the equation and conditions for making ethyl ethanoate from ethanoic acid and ethanol. [3]
  2. State the products of hydrolysing ethyl ethanoate with (i) dilute acid and (ii) sodium hydroxide. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
  2. conditions: warm with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]
  3. the reaction is reversible[1]
  4. (i) with dilute acid: ethanoic acid + ethanol[1]
  5. (ii) with sodium hydroxide: sodium ethanoate[1]
  6. plus ethanol[1]

CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O (conc. H₂SO₄); acid hydrolysis → acid + alcohol; alkaline hydrolysis → sodium ethanoate + ethanol.

19

Nitrogen compounds

Multiple choice · 10

Q1The reactive site of a haloalkane is the carbon bonded to the halogen because it is:

  1. Aslightly negative
  2. Bslightly positive (δ+)
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Daromatic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slightly positive (δ+)

The polar C–X bond leaves that carbon electron-poor (δ+), attracting nucleophiles.

Q2Reacting bromoethane with warm aqueous NaOH gives:

  1. Aethene
  2. Bethanol
  3. Cethane
  4. Dethanoic acid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethanol

Aqueous hydroxide substitutes for the bromine — nucleophilic substitution to ethanol.

Q3Hot ethanolic NaOH with a haloalkane favours:

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Belimination (to an alkene)
  3. Cno reaction
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — elimination (to an alkene)

Hot alcoholic base removes HX, forming a double bond — elimination.

Q4A secondary amine has how many carbon groups on nitrogen?

  1. Aone
  2. Btwo
  3. Cthree
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — two

Primary = 1, secondary = 2, tertiary = 3 carbon groups on the nitrogen.

Q5Amines act as bases because the nitrogen:

  1. Ais positively charged
  2. Bhas a lone pair that accepts H⁺
  3. Chas no electrons
  4. Dis a halogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — has a lone pair that accepts H⁺

Nitrogen's lone pair accepts a proton, so amines are proton acceptors — bases.

Q6Reacting a haloalkane with ammonia produces a(n):

  1. Aalkene
  2. Bamine
  3. Ccarboxylic acid
  4. Dalcohol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amine

Ammonia's lone pair substitutes onto the carbon, displacing the halogen to form an amine.

Q7Reacting a haloalkane with potassium cyanide produces a nitrile, which is useful because it:

  1. Ashortens the chain
  2. Badds a carbon atom to the chain
  3. Cremoves the halogen only
  4. Dforms a ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — adds a carbon atom to the chain

The CN group adds one carbon, lengthening the carbon chain.

Q8Which haloalkane undergoes nucleophilic substitution fastest?

  1. Achloroethane
  2. Bbromoethane
  3. Ciodoethane
  4. Dthey react equally
Show answer

Correct answer: C — iodoethane

The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.

Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:

  1. ASN1
  2. BSN2
  3. Celimination only
  4. Daddition
Show answer

Correct answer: B — SN2

The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.

Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:

  1. Afree radical
  2. Bcarbocation intermediate
  3. Ccarbanion
  4. Dsingle concerted step
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate

In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the carbon–halogen bond in a haloalkane is the site of attack by nucleophiles.
Answer

The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.

Q2[2 marks]
State the product and reaction type when bromoethane is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Answer

Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases.
Answer

The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).

Q4[6 marks]
Bromoethane can react in two different ways depending on conditions.
  1. State the reagent and conditions for converting bromoethane to ethene, and name the reaction type. [3]
  2. State the reagent for converting bromoethane to ethylamine, and name the reaction type. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Hot ethanolic (alcoholic) potassium hydroxide[1]
  2. under reflux / heat[1]
  3. This is elimination (loss of HBr forms the C=C)[1]
  4. Excess ammonia[1]
  5. (in a sealed tube / ethanolic solution)[1]
  6. This is nucleophilic substitution[1]

→ ethene: hot alcoholic KOH, elimination; → ethylamine: excess ammonia, nucleophilic substitution.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases, and give the product when ethylamine reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Answer

The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).

Q6[6 marks]
Bromoethane can be converted into several products by nucleophilic substitution.
  1. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to ethanol. [2]
  2. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to a nitrile, and why this is useful. [2]
  3. Explain why iodoethane reacts faster than bromoethane. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide (or water)[1]
  2. gives ethanol[1]
  3. Potassium cyanide (in ethanol) gives propanenitrile[1]
  4. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]
  5. The C–I bond is weaker than C–Br[1]
  6. so it breaks more easily, making iodoethane react faster[1]

OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.

Q7[6 marks]
Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkanes can follow an SN1 or an SN2 mechanism.
  1. Describe the SN2 mechanism and the type of haloalkane it favours. [3]
  2. Describe the SN1 mechanism and explain why tertiary haloalkanes favour it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. In SN2 the nucleophile attacks the δ+ carbon as the halogen leaves[1]
  2. in a single concerted step[1]
  3. favoured by primary haloalkanes (the carbon is easy to approach)[1]
  4. In SN1 the halogen leaves first to form a carbocation[1]
  5. then the nucleophile attacks the carbocation[1]
  6. tertiary haloalkanes form a stable tertiary carbocation, so this route is favoured[1]

SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).

20

Polymerisation

Multiple choice · 10

Q1The building blocks of proteins are:

  1. Amonosaccharides
  2. Bamino acids
  3. Cfatty acids
  4. Dnucleotides
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amino acids

Amino acids join by peptide bonds into protein chains; monosaccharides build carbohydrates and fatty acids build lipids.

Q2Which is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?

  1. AGlucose
  2. BStarch
  3. CCellulose
  4. DGlycerol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Starch

Starch stores energy in plants; cellulose (also a polysaccharide) is structural, and glucose is the monosaccharide unit.

Q3A protein loses its function when heated strongly because it:

  1. Agains energy
  2. Bdenatures (loses its shape)
  3. Cturns into a carbohydrate
  4. Ddissolves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures (loses its shape)

Heat unfolds the protein's precise shape — denaturing — and the shape is what its function depends on.

Q4Lipids differ from carbohydrates in that they:

  1. Astore more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
  2. Bare made of amino acids
  3. Cdissolve easily in water
  4. Dcannot store energy
Show answer

Correct answer: A — store more energy per gram and are insoluble in water

Fats and oils pack more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are water-insoluble; they also form membranes and insulation.

Q5An enzyme is best described as a:

  1. Acarbohydrate that stores energy
  2. Bbiological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
  3. Ctype of lipid
  4. Dsource of quick energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — biological catalyst that is specific to its substrate

Enzymes are protein catalysts, each shaped to fit one substrate (lock and key), speeding a reaction without being used up.

Q6Enzyme activity falls sharply far from its optimum pH because the enzyme:

  1. Aruns out
  2. Bdenatures
  3. Cbecomes a substrate
  4. Dgains energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures

As a protein, an extreme pH unfolds (denatures) the enzyme, destroying the shape it needs to work.

Q7Monomers join to form a polymer in a reaction that releases water. This is:

  1. Ahydrolysis
  2. Bcondensation
  3. Ccombustion
  4. Doxidation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — condensation

Condensation joins monomers and releases a small molecule such as water; hydrolysis is the reverse.

Q8A brick-red precipitate on warming with Benedict's solution shows the presence of:

  1. Astarch
  2. Bprotein
  3. Ca reducing sugar
  4. Da lipid
Show answer

Correct answer: C — a reducing sugar

Benedict's solution turns from blue to brick-red with a reducing sugar such as glucose.

Q9An amino acid normally exists as a zwitterion because:

  1. Ait has two amino groups
  2. Ba proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
  3. Cit is non-polar
  4. Dit contains a benzene ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂

The acidic –COOH donates a proton to the basic –NH₂, giving a species with + and − charges but no net charge.

Q10At a pH below its isoelectric point, an amino acid will be:

  1. Anegatively charged
  2. Bpositively charged
  3. Cneutral zwitterion only
  4. Duncharged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — positively charged

In more acidic conditions it gains H⁺ on the –COO⁻, giving an overall positive charge.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Name the three main classes of nutrients that are large biological molecules, and the smaller units each is built from.
Answer

Carbohydrates (from simple sugars), proteins (from amino acids) and fats/lipids (from fatty acids and glycerol).

Q2[2 marks]
Describe the test for a protein and its positive result.
Answer

Add biuret reagent (sodium hydroxide then copper(II) sulfate solution); a positive result is a colour change from blue to purple/violet.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain what happens when a carbohydrate such as starch is digested, and why enzymes are needed.
Answer

Starch is broken down (hydrolysed) into simple sugars such as glucose. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up this reaction at body temperature, which would otherwise be far too slow.

Q4[6 marks]
Enzymes control the reactions in living organisms.
  1. Explain what is meant by an enzyme being a catalyst. [2]
  2. Describe and explain the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity up to and beyond the optimum. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. It speeds up a reaction[1]
  2. without being used up / by lowering the activation energy[1]
  3. As temperature rises up to the optimum, activity increases[1]
  4. because particles collide more frequently and with more energy[1]
  5. Above the optimum, activity falls sharply[1]
  6. because the enzyme is denatured — its shape (active site) changes so substrate no longer fits[1]

Catalyst = speeds a reaction without being used up; activity rises to an optimum then falls as the enzyme denatures (active site changes shape).

Q5[2 marks]
Explain the difference between condensation and hydrolysis reactions in biological molecules.
Answer

Condensation joins two monomers together and releases a small molecule (usually water), building a polymer. Hydrolysis is the reverse: it adds water to split a polymer back into its monomers, as in digestion.

Q6[6 marks]
A student is given an unknown food sample to analyse.
  1. Describe the tests for starch and for protein, with their positive results. [4]
  2. The sample gives a cloudy emulsion in the emulsion test. What does this show, and how is the test carried out? [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Starch: add iodine solution[1]
  2. a blue-black colour is a positive result[1]
  3. Protein: add biuret solution[1]
  4. a purple/violet colour is a positive result[1]
  5. A cloudy emulsion shows a lipid (fat) is present[1]
  6. dissolve the sample in ethanol then add water — a cloudy white emulsion forms[1]

Starch → iodine blue-black; protein → biuret purple; lipid → cloudy emulsion (ethanol then water).

Q7[3 marks]
Explain what a zwitterion is and why amino acids can act as buffers.
Answer

A zwitterion is an amino acid that has transferred a proton internally from its –COOH to its –NH₂, giving –NH₃⁺ and –COO⁻ ends and no overall charge. It can accept H⁺ (onto –COO⁻) in acid and donate H⁺ (from –NH₃⁺) in alkali, so it resists pH change — acting as a buffer.

21

Organic synthesis

Multiple choice · 10

Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:

  1. Acolour
  2. Bfunctional group and general formula
  3. Cmelting point
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula

Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.

Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:

  1. Acarbon skeleton length
  2. Bfunctional group
  3. Ccolour
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group

The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.

Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:

  1. Athe same compound
  2. Bstructural isomers
  3. Cgeometric isomers
  4. Ddifferent elements
Show answer

Correct answer: B — structural isomers

Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.

Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:

  1. Atwo ions
  2. Bfree radicals
  3. Ca nucleophile only
  4. Dno products
Show answer

Correct answer: B — free radicals

An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.

Q5A nucleophile is a species that:

  1. Aaccepts an electron pair
  2. Bdonates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
  3. Cis always positively charged
  4. Dcontains no electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres

Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.

Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Baddition
  3. Celimination
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition

Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.

Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:

  1. Aelectron-poor and attacks C=C
  2. Belectron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Dalways positively charged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon

A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.

Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:

  1. Aa chiral centre
  2. Ba C=C double bond with no rotation
  3. Ca benzene ring
  4. Dan ionic bond
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation

Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.

Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?

  1. AKCN in ethanol
  2. Bwarm aqueous NaOH
  3. Cacidified dichromate
  4. Dconcentrated H₂SO₄
Show answer

Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH

Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.

Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:

  1. Asodium hydroxide
  2. Bpotassium cyanide
  3. Cammonia
  4. Dwater
Show answer

Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide

Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Define the terms structural isomers.
Answer

Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.

Q2[2 marks]
Give the IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH₂CH₂OH and state its functional group.
Answer

Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).

Q3[3 marks]
Distinguish between homolytic and heterolytic bond fission, naming the species formed.
Answer

In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.

Q4[6 marks]
Organic reactions are classified by the type of change and the attacking species.
  1. Explain the difference between an electrophile and a nucleophile. [2]
  2. State the type of reaction (addition, substitution or elimination) when: bromine reacts with ethene; and a haloalkane forms an alkene with hot alcoholic KOH. [2]
  3. Explain what is meant by a functional group. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. An electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor species)[1]
  2. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich species)[1]
  3. Bromine + ethene is an addition reaction[1]
  4. Haloalkane with hot alcoholic KOH is an elimination reaction[1]
  5. A functional group is the atom or group of atoms[1]
  6. that gives a molecule its characteristic chemical properties[1]

Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why but-2-ene shows cis–trans isomerism but butane does not.
Answer

But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.

Q6[6 marks]
Organic reactions can be classified by mechanism.
  1. Define the terms nucleophile and electrophile. [2]
  2. State the type of species that attacks, and the reaction type, when: (i) bromine reacts with ethene; (ii) hydroxide reacts with bromoethane. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich)[1]
  2. an electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor)[1]
  3. (i) Bromine acts as an electrophile[1]
  4. in an electrophilic addition to the C=C double bond[1]
  5. (ii) Hydroxide acts as a nucleophile[1]
  6. in a nucleophilic substitution of the haloalkane[1]

Nucleophile = electron-pair donor, electrophile = acceptor; Br₂/ethene = electrophilic addition; OH⁻/bromoethane = nucleophilic substitution.

Q7[6 marks]
Show how you would carry out the following conversions, giving the reagents and conditions for each step.
  1. Ethene into ethanoic acid (two steps). [4]
  2. Bromoethane into propanenitrile, and state why this conversion is useful. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Step 1: hydrate ethene with steam and an acid catalyst to give ethanol[1]
  2. (~300 °C, ~60 atm, phosphoric acid)[1]
  3. Step 2: oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate[1]
  4. under reflux, to give ethanoic acid[1]
  5. React bromoethane with potassium cyanide in ethanol to give propanenitrile[1]
  6. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]

Ethene → ethanol (steam + acid catalyst) → ethanoic acid (oxidise with acidified dichromate, reflux); bromoethane + KCN → propanenitrile (adds a carbon).

22

Analytical techniques

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In a mass spectrum, the relative molecular mass is given by the:

  1. Atallest peak
  2. Bmolecular ion peak (highest m/z)
  3. Cfirst fragment
  4. Dfingerprint region
Show answer

Correct answer: B — molecular ion peak (highest m/z)

The molecular ion M⁺, at the highest m/z ignoring isotope peaks, equals the relative molecular mass.

Q2Two peaks two m/z units apart in a roughly 3:1 ratio indicate the presence of:

  1. Abromine
  2. Bchlorine
  3. Cnitrogen
  4. Doxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — chlorine

Chlorine's ³⁵Cl and ³⁷Cl isotopes (about 3:1) give M and M+2 peaks in that ratio; bromine gives ~1:1.

Q3A strong infrared absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a:

  1. AC–H bond
  2. BC=O group
  3. CC–C bond
  4. Dlone pair
Show answer

Correct answer: B — C=O group

The carbonyl group C=O absorbs strongly around 1680–1750 cm⁻¹.

Q4A broad infrared absorption around 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ suggests a(n):

  1. AC=C bond
  2. BO–H group
  3. Cmetal
  4. Dnoble gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — O–H group

A broad band at 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ is characteristic of the O–H of alcohols and carboxylic acids.

Q5The number of peaks in a ¹H NMR spectrum tells you the number of:

  1. Acarbon atoms
  2. Bdifferent hydrogen environments
  3. Cdouble bonds
  4. Disotopes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — different hydrogen environments

Each set of equivalent hydrogens (one environment) gives one signal.

Q6A ¹H NMR peak split into a triplet indicates how many hydrogens on the neighbouring carbon?

  1. Aone
  2. Btwo
  3. Cthree
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — two

By the n+1 rule, a triplet (3 lines) means n = 2 neighbouring hydrogens.

Q7In thin-layer chromatography, the Rf value is:

  1. Aalways greater than 1
  2. Bdistance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent
  3. Cthe retention time
  4. Dthe boiling point
Show answer

Correct answer: B — distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent

Rf compares how far the spot moved with how far the solvent front moved; it is between 0 and 1.

Q8To identify an unknown organic compound fully, a chemist typically uses:

  1. Amass spectrometry alone
  2. BIR alone
  3. CNMR alone
  4. Dmass spec, IR and NMR together
Show answer

Correct answer: D — mass spec, IR and NMR together

Each technique gives different information; combined, they pin down the structure.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what the molecular ion peak in a mass spectrum tells you.
Answer

The mass/charge value of the molecular ion peak (highest m/z, ignoring isotope peaks) gives the relative molecular mass of the compound.

Q2[2 marks]
State what an infrared spectrum is used to identify, giving one example absorption.
Answer

It identifies bonds/functional groups present; for example a strong absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a C=O group (or a broad band ~3300 cm⁻¹ indicates O–H).

Q3[3 marks]
In a ¹H NMR spectrum, state what the number of peaks, the integration, and the splitting each tell you.
Answer

Number of peaks = number of different hydrogen environments; integration (area) = the ratio of hydrogens in each environment; splitting = the number of hydrogens on neighbouring carbons (n+1 lines for n neighbours).

Q4[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 46, a broad IR absorption around 3300 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows three peaks.
  1. State the relative molecular mass of X. [1]
  2. State what the broad IR absorption at 3300 cm⁻¹ suggests. [1]
  3. Explain what "three peaks" in the ¹H NMR tells you, and deduce the identity of X. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Relative molecular mass = 46[1]
  2. The broad ~3300 cm⁻¹ band suggests an O–H group (alcohol)[1]
  3. Three peaks means three different hydrogen environments[1]
  4. Ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH, has Mr 46[1]
  5. It has three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH)[1]
  6. so X is ethanol[1]

Mr = 46; O–H group present; three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH) → X is ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH.

Q5[2 marks]
In a TLC experiment, a spot moves 3.6 cm while the solvent front moves 4.8 cm. Calculate its Rf value.
Answer

Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent = 3.6 ÷ 4.8 = 0.75.

Q6[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 60, a strong IR absorption at 1710 cm⁻¹ and a broad one at 3000 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows two peaks.
  1. State the relative molecular mass and the functional group(s) suggested by the IR. [2]
  2. State what two ¹H NMR peaks tell you. [1]
  3. Deduce the identity of X and justify it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Relative molecular mass = 60[1]
  2. 1710 cm⁻¹ suggests C=O and the broad 3000 cm⁻¹ suggests the O–H of a carboxylic acid[1]
  3. Two peaks means two hydrogen environments[1]
  4. A carboxylic acid of Mr 60 is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH[1]
  5. it has two H environments (CH₃ and COOH)[1]
  6. and contains both C=O and O–H, matching the IR — so X is ethanoic acid[1]

Mr = 60; C=O + O–H (carboxylic acid); two H environments → X is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH.

23

Chemical energetics (A Level)

Multiple choice · 8

Q1ΔH for an exothermic reaction is:

  1. Apositive
  2. Bnegative
  3. Czero
  4. Dalways 1
Show answer

Correct answer: B — negative

Exothermic reactions release heat, so the enthalpy change is negative.

Q2Hess's law works because enthalpy is:

  1. Aalways positive
  2. Ba state function (route-independent)
  3. Cmeasured directly
  4. Dthe same as temperature
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a state function (route-independent)

Enthalpy depends only on start and end states, so the total ΔH is independent of the path.

Q3The standard enthalpy of formation of O₂(g) is:

  1. Aa large negative number
  2. Bzero
  3. Cpositive
  4. Dunknown
Show answer

Correct answer: B — zero

An element in its standard state has ΔHf° = 0 by definition.

Q4In q = mcΔT, c is the:

  1. Anumber of moles
  2. Bspecific heat capacity
  3. Cconcentration
  4. Dspeed of the reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — specific heat capacity

c is the specific heat capacity — the heat needed to raise 1 g of the substance by 1 °C.

Q5If a reaction has ΔH = −200 kJ, the reverse reaction has ΔH =

  1. A−200 kJ
  2. B+200 kJ
  3. C0
  4. D−400 kJ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — +200 kJ

Reversing a reaction reverses the sign of its enthalpy change.

Q6Heat released warms 200 g of water by 10 °C (c = 4.18). The heat is about:

  1. A0.84 kJ
  2. B8.4 kJ
  3. C84 kJ
  4. D0.42 kJ
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 8.4 kJ

q = mcΔT = 200 × 4.18 × 10 = 8360 J ≈ 8.4 kJ.

Q7Using ΔH = Σ(bonds broken) − Σ(bonds made), a reaction is exothermic when:

  1. Amore energy is absorbed breaking bonds than released making them
  2. Bmore energy is released making bonds than absorbed breaking them
  3. Cno bonds break
  4. Dthe temperature falls
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more energy is released making bonds than absorbed breaking them

If bond-making releases more than bond-breaking absorbs, ΔH is negative — exothermic.

Q8Which ionic compound has the most exothermic lattice energy?

  1. ANaCl
  2. BKCl
  3. CMgO
  4. DKBr
Show answer

Correct answer: C — MgO

MgO has doubly-charged, small ions (Mg²⁺, O²⁻), giving the strongest electrostatic attraction and largest lattice energy.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define the standard enthalpy change of reaction, ΔH.
Answer

The heat energy change for a reaction measured at standard conditions (298 K, 1 atm), with substances in their standard states.

Q2[3 marks]
State Hess's law and explain why it is useful.
Answer

The total enthalpy change of a reaction is independent of the route taken, provided the initial and final conditions are the same. It lets us calculate enthalpy changes that cannot be measured directly.

Q3[2 marks]
Write the expression used to calculate heat energy released when a solution's temperature changes (q = mcΔT), defining each term.
Answer

q = mcΔT, where q = heat energy, m = mass of solution, c = specific heat capacity, ΔT = temperature change.

Q4[7 marks]
Burning 0.50 g of ethanol raises the temperature of 100 g of water by 30 °C. (c of water = 4.2 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹; Mr ethanol = 46)
  1. Calculate the heat energy released to the water. [2]
  2. Calculate the number of moles of ethanol burned. [1]
  3. Calculate the enthalpy change of combustion of ethanol in kJ/mol. [3]
  4. Suggest why the experimental value is smaller in magnitude than the data-book value. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. q = mcΔT = 100 × 4.2 × 30[1]
  2. = 12600 J = 12.6 kJ[1]
  3. Moles ethanol = 0.50 ÷ 46 = 0.0109 mol[1]
  4. ΔH = energy ÷ moles = 12.6 ÷ 0.0109[1]
  5. = 1156 kJ/mol (magnitude)[1]
  6. ΔH is negative (exothermic): ≈ −1160 kJ/mol[1]
  7. Heat is lost to the surroundings / incomplete combustion[1]

q = 12.6 kJ; 0.0109 mol; ΔH ≈ −1160 kJ/mol; lower magnitude due to heat loss / incomplete combustion.

Q5[3 marks]
For the reaction H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl, use the bond enthalpies H–H = 436, Cl–Cl = 242, H–Cl = 431 kJ/mol to calculate ΔH.
Answer

Bonds broken = 436 + 242 = 678 kJ. Bonds made = 2 × 431 = 862 kJ. ΔH = 678 − 862 = −184 kJ/mol (exothermic).

Q6[6 marks]
Magnesium oxide and sodium chloride are both ionic solids.
  1. Define the term lattice energy. [2]
  2. Explain why the lattice energy of magnesium oxide is much more exothermic than that of sodium chloride. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. The energy released when gaseous ions[1]
  2. combine to form one mole of solid ionic lattice[1]
  3. MgO contains Mg²⁺ and O²⁻ ions with 2+ and 2− charges[1]
  4. NaCl contains only 1+ and 1− ions[1]
  5. the ions in MgO are also smaller[1]
  6. higher charges and smaller radii give stronger electrostatic attraction, so a much larger (more exothermic) lattice energy[1]

Lattice energy = energy released forming a mole of lattice from gaseous ions; MgO's higher charges and smaller ions give much stronger attraction than NaCl.

24

Electrochemistry (A Level)

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In OIL RIG, reduction is:

  1. Aloss of electrons
  2. Bgain of electrons
  3. Closs of protons
  4. Dgain of neutrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — gain of electrons

Reduction Is Gain of electrons; oxidation is loss.

Q2For electrolysis to work, the ionic compound must be:

  1. Asolid
  2. Bmolten or dissolved
  3. Ca gas
  4. Dpure metal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — molten or dissolved

The ions must be free to move, which they are only when molten or in solution.

Q3At the cathode during electrolysis:

  1. Aanions lose electrons (oxidation)
  2. Bcations gain electrons (reduction)
  3. Cnothing happens
  4. Dwater evaporates
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cations gain electrons (reduction)

The cathode is negative; positive ions are attracted and gain electrons — reduction.

Q4Electrolysing molten lead(II) bromide gives bromine at the:

  1. Acathode
  2. Banode
  3. Cboth electrodes
  4. Dneither
Show answer

Correct answer: B — anode

Br⁻ ions migrate to the positive anode and lose electrons to form bromine (oxidation).

Q5Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis because it is:

  1. Acheap to melt
  2. Btoo reactive to be reduced by carbon
  3. Ca non-metal
  4. Dfound as the pure metal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — too reactive to be reduced by carbon

Aluminium is above carbon in reactivity, so only electrolysis of its molten oxide can extract it.

Q6In electroplating an object with silver, the object is the:

  1. Aanode
  2. Bcathode
  3. Celectrolyte
  4. Dbattery
Show answer

Correct answer: B — cathode

The object to be plated is the negative cathode, where silver ions are reduced and deposit onto it.

Q7The oxidation number of sulfur in SO₂ is:

  1. A−2
  2. B0
  3. C+2
  4. D+4
Show answer

Correct answer: D — +4

Oxygen is −2 (×2 = −4); the total must be 0, so sulfur is +4.

Q8Electrolysing concentrated sodium chloride solution produces chlorine at the:

  1. Acathode
  2. Banode
  3. Csalt bridge
  4. Dboth electrodes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — anode

Chloride ions are oxidised at the positive anode, releasing chlorine gas.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define oxidation and reduction in terms of electrons.
Answer

Oxidation is loss of electrons; reduction is gain of electrons (OIL RIG).

Q2[2 marks]
State what is meant by electrolysis.
Answer

The breakdown (decomposition) of an ionic compound, when molten or in aqueous solution, by the passage of an electric current.

Q3[3 marks]
During the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide, write the electrode reactions and name the products.
Answer

Cathode (−): Pb²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Pb (lead metal). Anode (+): 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2e⁻ (bromine gas).

Q4[7 marks]
Molten aluminium oxide is electrolysed to extract aluminium.
  1. Explain why the aluminium oxide must be molten. [2]
  2. Write the half-equation for the reaction at the cathode. [2]
  3. State the product at the anode and explain why the carbon anodes must be replaced regularly. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Melting frees the ions[1]
  2. so they can move to the electrodes and carry the current[1]
  3. Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al[1]
  4. balanced with electrons[1]
  5. Oxygen is produced at the anode[1]
  6. The hot oxygen reacts with the carbon anodes forming carbon dioxide[1]
  7. so the anodes burn away and must be replaced[1]

Molten = mobile ions to carry current; cathode Al³⁺ + 3e⁻ → Al; anode makes O₂, which burns the carbon anodes to CO₂ so they wear away.

Q5[2 marks]
Deduce the oxidation number of manganese in the permanganate ion, MnO₄⁻.
Answer

Oxygen is −2, so 4 × (−2) = −8. The whole ion has a charge of −1, so Mn + (−8) = −1, giving Mn = +7.

Q6[6 marks]
Impure copper is purified by electrolysis using copper electrodes in copper(II) sulfate solution.
  1. State which electrode is made of impure copper, and the half-equation there. [2]
  2. State what forms at the other electrode, with its half-equation. [2]
  3. Explain what happens to the impurities. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The anode (positive electrode) is the impure copper[1]
  2. Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ (copper dissolves)[1]
  3. Pure copper deposits on the cathode[1]
  4. Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu[1]
  5. Impurities do not dissolve / are not deposited[1]
  6. they collect below the anode as anode sludge[1]

Anode = impure copper (Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻); cathode gains pure copper (Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu); impurities drop as anode sludge.

25

Equilibria (A Level)

Multiple choice · 8

Q1An acid is a substance that, in water, releases:

  1. AOH⁻ ions
  2. BH⁺ ions
  3. Celectrons
  4. Dsodium ions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — H⁺ ions

Hydrogen ions (H⁺) are responsible for all acidic behaviour; an alkali releases OH⁻ instead.

Q2"Strong acid" means the acid:

  1. Ais very concentrated
  2. Bionises completely in water
  3. Chas a high boiling point
  4. Dis dangerous to touch
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ionises completely in water

Strong vs weak is about complete vs partial ionisation, independent of how concentrated (dilute) the solution is.

Q3A solution of pH 2 compared with pH 4 is:

  1. Atwice as acidic
  2. B100 times more acidic
  3. Chalf as acidic
  4. Dthe same
Show answer

Correct answer: B — 100 times more acidic

The scale is logarithmic: two pH units is 10 × 10 = 100 times the H⁺ concentration.

Q4The products of neutralising an acid with an alkali are:

  1. Asalt + hydrogen
  2. Bsalt + water
  3. Csalt + carbon dioxide
  4. Dhydrogen + oxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — salt + water

Acid + alkali → salt + water; ionically, H⁺ + OH⁻ → H₂O.

Q5Fizzing and limewater turning milky when acid is added tells you the other reactant was a:

  1. Ametal
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Cstrong alkali
  4. Dsalt
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbonate

Acid + carbonate releases carbon dioxide (the fizzing), and CO₂ turns limewater milky.

Q6Zinc reacting with sulfuric acid produces:

  1. Azinc chloride + hydrogen
  2. Bzinc sulfate + hydrogen
  3. Czinc sulfate + water
  4. Dzinc oxide + carbon dioxide
Show answer

Correct answer: B — zinc sulfate + hydrogen

Metal + acid → salt + hydrogen; sulfuric acid makes a sulfate, so it is zinc sulfate + hydrogen.

Q7In a titration, phenolphthalein changes from:

  1. Ared to yellow
  2. Bcolourless to pink
  3. Cblue to red
  4. Dgreen to purple
Show answer

Correct answer: B — colourless to pink

Phenolphthalein is colourless in acid and pink in alkali, giving a sharp end point.

Q8A Brønsted–Lowry base is defined as a substance that:

  1. Adonates protons
  2. Baccepts protons
  3. Cdonates electrons
  4. Dproduces H⁺
Show answer

Correct answer: B — accepts protons

A Brønsted–Lowry base is a proton (H⁺) acceptor; an acid is a proton donor.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State what all acids produce in aqueous solution, and give the pH range of an acid.
Answer

Acids produce hydrogen ions, H⁺, in aqueous solution; their pH is below 7.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain the difference between a strong acid and a weak acid.
Answer

A strong acid is fully ionised in water; a weak acid is only partly ionised. It is about degree of ionisation, not concentration.

Q3[3 marks]
Write a word and balanced symbol equation for the reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide.
Answer

Hydrochloric acid + sodium hydroxide → sodium chloride + water. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O.

Q4[7 marks]
A student prepares dry crystals of copper(II) sulfate from copper(II) oxide and dilute sulfuric acid.
  1. Write the balanced equation for the reaction. [2]
  2. Describe how the student obtains pure dry crystals from the mixture. [4]
  3. Explain why excess copper(II) oxide is used. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O (correct formulae)[1]
  2. Equation balanced[1]
  3. Warm the acid and add excess copper(II) oxide, then filter off the unreacted solid[1]
  4. Heat the filtrate to evaporate some water / to the point of crystallisation[1]
  5. Leave to cool so crystals form[1]
  6. Filter and dry the crystals (e.g. between filter paper)[1]
  7. Excess ensures all the acid reacts, and the excess solid can simply be filtered off[1]

CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O; react with excess base, filter, evaporate to crystallisation, cool, filter, dry; excess guarantees all acid used and is easily removed.

Q5[2 marks]
A solution has a hydrogen-ion concentration of 1 × 10⁻³ mol/dm³. Calculate its pH and state whether it is acidic or alkaline.
Answer

pH = −log₁₀(1 × 10⁻³) = 3. pH 3 is below 7, so the solution is acidic.

Q6[6 marks]
A student is asked to prepare pure, dry crystals of copper(II) sulfate from copper(II) oxide (an insoluble base) and dilute sulfuric acid.
  1. Write the equation for the reaction. [2]
  2. Describe the method to obtain pure dry crystals. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O (correct formulae)[1]
  2. balanced[1]
  3. Warm the acid and add copper(II) oxide in excess until no more reacts[1]
  4. Filter to remove the excess copper(II) oxide[1]
  5. Heat the filtrate to evaporate water to the point of crystallisation, then leave to cool[1]
  6. Filter off the crystals and dry them (e.g. between filter paper)[1]

CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O; react with excess base, filter, evaporate to crystallisation, cool, filter, dry.

26

Reaction kinetics (A Level)

Multiple choice · 8

Q1In the rate law rate = k[A]^m[B]^n, the powers m and n are found:

  1. Afrom the balanced equation
  2. Bby experiment
  3. Cfrom the molar masses
  4. Dfrom the temperature
Show answer

Correct answer: B — by experiment

Orders are experimental — they reflect the mechanism, not the stoichiometric coefficients.

Q2Doubling [A] doubles the rate. The reaction is ___ order in A.

  1. Azero
  2. Bfirst
  3. Csecond
  4. Dthird
Show answer

Correct answer: B — first

Rate proportional to concentration means first order.

Q3Doubling [B] makes the rate four times larger. The order in B is:

  1. Azero
  2. Bfirst
  3. Csecond
  4. Dhalf
Show answer

Correct answer: C — second

×4 = 2², so the reaction is second order in B.

Q4For rate = k[A][B]², the overall order is:

  1. A1
  2. B2
  3. C3
  4. D0
Show answer

Correct answer: C — 3

The overall order is the sum of the individual orders: first order in A (power 1) plus second order in B (power 2) gives 1 + 2 = 3, so the reaction is third order overall.

Q5The rate constant k increases most when you raise the:

  1. Aconcentration
  2. Btemperature
  3. Cpressure
  4. Dvolume
Show answer

Correct answer: B — temperature

k depends strongly on temperature (Arrhenius); concentration changes the rate but not k.

Q6The rate-determining step of a reaction is the:

  1. Afastest step
  2. Bslowest step
  3. Cfirst step always
  4. Dlast step always
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slowest step

The slowest step is the bottleneck that controls the overall rate.

Q7A reactant's concentration halves every 30 s regardless of its starting value. The reaction is:

  1. Azero order
  2. Bfirst order
  3. Csecond order
  4. Dthird order
Show answer

Correct answer: B — first order

A constant half-life is the signature of a first-order reaction.

Q8The order of a reaction with respect to a reactant is found by:

  1. Athe balanced equation
  2. Bexperiment
  3. Cthe molar mass
  4. Dthe temperature
Show answer

Correct answer: B — experiment

Orders reflect the mechanism, so they must be determined experimentally, not read from the equation.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Define the term rate of reaction.
Answer

The change in concentration of a reactant or product per unit time.

Q2[2 marks]
What is meant by the order of a reaction with respect to a reactant?
Answer

The power to which the concentration of that reactant is raised in the rate equation.

Q3[3 marks]
A reaction has rate equation rate = k[A][B]². State the order with respect to each reactant, the overall order, and the effect on rate of doubling [B].
Answer

First order in A, second order in B, overall third order. Doubling [B] multiplies the rate by 2² = 4.

Q4[6 marks]
The rate of a reaction between A and B was studied by varying concentrations.
  1. Explain how the rate constant k is affected by increasing temperature, and why. [3]
  2. Explain what is meant by the rate-determining step. [2]
  3. State the units of k for a first-order reaction. [1]
Mark scheme
  1. k increases with temperature[1]
  2. Particles have more energy and collide more often[1]
  3. and a greater fraction exceed the activation energy, so more collisions are successful[1]
  4. The rate-determining step is the slowest step in a multi-step reaction[1]
  5. It controls the overall rate[1]
  6. s⁻¹[1]

k rises with temperature (more successful collisions); rate-determining step = the slowest step, which limits overall rate; first-order k has units s⁻¹.

Q5[2 marks]
The rate equation for a reaction is rate = k[A]²[B]. State the overall order and the effect on the rate of doubling [A].
Answer

Overall order = 2 + 1 = 3 (third order). Doubling [A] multiplies the rate by 2² = 4.

Q6[6 marks]
A reaction between P and Q was studied by measuring the initial rate at different concentrations.
  1. Explain what is meant by the rate-determining step. [2]
  2. Explain how a catalyst increases the rate constant k. [2]
  3. Explain why increasing temperature increases k. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The slowest step in a multi-step reaction[1]
  2. which controls (limits) the overall rate[1]
  3. A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy[1]
  4. so a greater fraction of collisions are successful, raising k[1]
  5. Higher temperature gives molecules more energy[1]
  6. so more exceed the activation energy — more successful collisions and a larger k[1]

Rate-determining step = slowest step controlling the rate; catalyst and higher temperature both raise k by increasing the fraction of successful (Ea-exceeding) collisions.

27

Group 2 (A Level)

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The s-block consists of:

  1. AGroups 1 and 2
  2. BGroups 17 and 18
  3. Cthe transition metals
  4. DGroups 13–16
Show answer

Correct answer: A — Groups 1 and 2

The s-block is Groups 1 (alkali metals) and 2 (alkaline earth metals) — outer electrons in s orbitals.

Q2Reactivity of Group 1 metals down the group:

  1. Adecreases
  2. Bincreases
  3. Cstays constant
  4. Dbecomes zero
Show answer

Correct answer: B — increases

The outer electron is further out and more shielded lower down, so it is lost more easily — more reactive.

Q3Group 1 more reactive than Group 2 (same period) because it:

  1. Ahas more electrons
  2. Bloses one electron rather than two
  3. Cis denser
  4. Dhas coloured ions
Show answer

Correct answer: B — loses one electron rather than two

Losing a single outer electron requires less energy than losing two, so Group 1 reacts more readily.

Q4Sodium in water produces:

  1. Asodium oxide only
  2. Bsodium hydroxide + hydrogen
  3. Csodium chloride
  4. Dno reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sodium hydroxide + hydrogen

Group 1 metals react with water to give a hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

Q5A lilac flame colour indicates the presence of:

  1. Asodium
  2. Bpotassium
  3. Ccalcium
  4. Dcopper
Show answer

Correct answer: B — potassium

Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow and calcium brick-red.

Q6The diagonal relationship links lithium most closely with:

  1. Asodium
  2. Bmagnesium
  3. Cpotassium
  4. Dfluorine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — magnesium

Lithium resembles magnesium (diagonally below-right) because of their similar charge densities.

Q7The flame colour of potassium is:

  1. Ayellow
  2. Blilac
  3. Cbrick-red
  4. Dgreen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — lilac

Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow, calcium brick-red, barium green.

Q8Down Group 2, the carbonates become:

  1. Aless thermally stable
  2. Bmore thermally stable
  3. Cmore coloured
  4. Dgaseous
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more thermally stable

Larger cations polarise the carbonate ion less, so the carbonates need more heat to decompose — more stable.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe the trend in reactivity down Group 1 (the alkali metals) and explain it.
Answer

Reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.

Q2[2 marks]
Describe what is observed when a small piece of sodium is added to water, and give the equation.
Answer

It floats, melts into a ball, fizzes and moves around, giving off hydrogen: 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain the trend in thermal stability of the Group 2 carbonates down the group.
Answer

Thermal stability increases down the group. The cations get larger with less charge density, so they polarise/distort the carbonate ion less, making it harder to decompose.

Q4[6 marks]
The Group 2 elements magnesium and calcium react with water.
  1. Describe the difference in how magnesium and calcium react with water. [2]
  2. Write the equation for the reaction of calcium with cold water. [2]
  3. Explain the trend in reactivity down Group 2. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Magnesium reacts very slowly with cold water (faster with steam)[1]
  2. Calcium reacts readily with cold water, fizzing[1]
  3. Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂[1]
  4. balanced equation[1]
  5. Reactivity increases down the group[1]
  6. because the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more easily lost[1]

Mg very slow with cold water, Ca reacts readily; Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂; reactivity rises down the group (electrons lost more easily).

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why the thermal stability of the Group 2 nitrates increases down the group.
Answer

Down the group the cations get larger and have lower charge density, so they polarise (distort) the nitrate ion less. The nitrate is therefore harder to break down, so a higher temperature is needed and thermal stability increases.

Q6[6 marks]
The Group 2 elements and their compounds show clear trends.
  1. Describe and explain the trend in reactivity of the Group 2 metals with water down the group. [3]
  2. State the trends in solubility of the Group 2 hydroxides and sulfates down the group. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Reactivity increases down the group[1]
  2. the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
  3. so they are lost more easily, making the metal more reactive[1]
  4. Hydroxides become more soluble down the group[1]
  5. sulfates become less soluble down the group[1]
  6. so barium sulfate is highly insoluble (used in the sulfate test)[1]

Reactivity rises down Group 2 (outer electrons lost more easily); hydroxides get more soluble, sulfates less soluble.

28

Chemistry of transition elements

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A transition element is best defined as one that:

  1. Ais in the s-block
  2. Bforms an ion with a partially filled d subshell
  3. Chas one outer electron
  4. Dis a non-metal
Show answer

Correct answer: B — forms an ion with a partially filled d subshell

The defining feature is a partially filled d subshell in at least one of its ions.

Q2Transition metals show variable oxidation states because their:

  1. A4s and 3d electrons are close in energy
  2. Bnuclei are unstable
  3. Catoms are very small
  4. Dions are colourless
Show answer

Correct answer: A — 4s and 3d electrons are close in energy

The small 4s/3d energy gap lets different numbers of electrons be lost, giving several stable ions.

Q3Transition-metal compounds are usually coloured because the d orbitals:

  1. Aemit radioactivity
  2. Babsorb specific visible wavelengths
  3. Care empty
  4. Dare full
Show answer

Correct answer: B — absorb specific visible wavelengths

Partly filled d orbitals absorb particular wavelengths of visible light (d–d transitions), so the compound looks coloured.

Q4A ligand in a complex ion is a species that:

  1. Aremoves the metal
  2. Bdonates a lone pair to the central metal ion
  3. Cis always a metal
  4. Dcarries no charge ever
Show answer

Correct answer: B — donates a lone pair to the central metal ion

Ligands (e.g. water, ammonia, chloride) bond to the central metal ion by donating a lone pair.

Q5Iron acts as a catalyst in the:

  1. AContact process
  2. BHaber process
  3. CSolvay process
  4. Dchlor-alkali process
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Haber process

Iron catalyses the Haber process; vanadium(V) oxide catalyses the Contact process.

Q6Sodium forms only Na⁺ but iron forms Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ because iron:

  1. Ais radioactive
  2. Bhas 4s and 3d electrons of similar energy
  3. Cis a non-metal
  4. Dhas one outer electron
Show answer

Correct answer: B — has 4s and 3d electrons of similar energy

The close energies of iron's 4s and 3d electrons make more than one oxidation state accessible.

Q7In a complex ion, the bond between a ligand and the central metal is a:

  1. Aionic bond
  2. Bdative (coordinate) covalent bond
  3. Cmetallic bond
  4. Dhydrogen bond
Show answer

Correct answer: B — dative (coordinate) covalent bond

The ligand donates a lone pair to the metal, forming a dative (coordinate) covalent bond.

Q8Transition-metal compounds are coloured because of:

  1. Aionic bonding
  2. Bd–d electron transitions
  3. Chydrogen bonding
  4. Dtheir high density
Show answer

Correct answer: B — d–d electron transitions

Splitting of the d-orbitals lets a d-electron absorb visible light (a d–d transition), producing colour.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
State three characteristic properties of transition elements.
Answer

They form ions with more than one oxidation state, form coloured compounds, and act as catalysts (any three; also high melting points/densities).

Q2[2 marks]
Give one example of a transition metal used as a catalyst and the process it catalyses.
Answer

Iron in the Haber process (or vanadium(V) oxide in the Contact process, or nickel in hydrogenation).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why transition metal compounds are often coloured.
Answer

The d-orbitals split into different energy levels; a d-electron absorbs certain wavelengths of visible light to move between them, and the transmitted/reflected light gives the colour.

Q4[6 marks]
Copper shows typical transition-metal behaviour.
  1. State the two common oxidation states of copper and the colour of each aqueous ion. [2]
  2. Explain what is meant by a complex ion. [2]
  3. State what is observed when excess aqueous ammonia is added to copper(II) sulfate solution. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. +1 (Cu⁺) and +2 (Cu²⁺)[1]
  2. Cu²⁺(aq) is blue (Cu⁺ compounds often white/colourless)[1]
  3. A complex ion is a central metal ion[1]
  4. surrounded by ligands bonded by coordinate (dative) bonds[1]
  5. A pale blue precipitate forms first[1]
  6. which dissolves in excess ammonia to give a deep blue solution[1]

Cu⁺ and Cu²⁺ (Cu²⁺ blue); complex = metal ion + ligands (dative bonds); excess NH₃ gives pale blue ppt then deep blue solution.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain what is observed when excess aqueous ammonia is added to copper(II) sulfate solution, in terms of ligand exchange.
Answer

A pale blue precipitate of copper(II) hydroxide forms first, then dissolves in excess ammonia to give a deep blue solution as water ligands are replaced by ammonia ligands (ligand exchange), changing the colour.

Q6[6 marks]
Transition elements have several characteristic properties.
  1. Explain why transition metals show variable oxidation states. [2]
  2. Explain why their compounds are coloured. [2]
  3. Explain why they act as good catalysts, with one named example. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Their 3d and 4s sub-shells are close in energy[1]
  2. so different numbers of electrons can be lost, giving several stable oxidation states[1]
  3. In a complex the d-orbitals split into two energy levels[1]
  4. a d-electron absorbs visible light to jump the gap (d–d transition); the transmitted light is the colour[1]
  5. They can change oxidation state easily / provide a surface for reaction[1]
  6. e.g. iron in the Haber process (or V₂O₅ in the Contact process)[1]

Variable states: close 3d/4s energies; colour: d–d transitions absorbing visible light; catalysis: easy change of oxidation state, e.g. iron in the Haber process.

29

An introduction to A Level organic chemistry

Multiple choice · 10

Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:

  1. Acolour
  2. Bfunctional group and general formula
  3. Cmelting point
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula

Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.

Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:

  1. Acarbon skeleton length
  2. Bfunctional group
  3. Ccolour
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group

The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.

Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:

  1. Athe same compound
  2. Bstructural isomers
  3. Cgeometric isomers
  4. Ddifferent elements
Show answer

Correct answer: B — structural isomers

Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.

Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:

  1. Atwo ions
  2. Bfree radicals
  3. Ca nucleophile only
  4. Dno products
Show answer

Correct answer: B — free radicals

An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.

Q5A nucleophile is a species that:

  1. Aaccepts an electron pair
  2. Bdonates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
  3. Cis always positively charged
  4. Dcontains no electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres

Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.

Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Baddition
  3. Celimination
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition

Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.

Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:

  1. Aelectron-poor and attacks C=C
  2. Belectron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Dalways positively charged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon

A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.

Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:

  1. Aa chiral centre
  2. Ba C=C double bond with no rotation
  3. Ca benzene ring
  4. Dan ionic bond
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation

Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.

Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?

  1. AKCN in ethanol
  2. Bwarm aqueous NaOH
  3. Cacidified dichromate
  4. Dconcentrated H₂SO₄
Show answer

Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH

Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.

Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:

  1. Asodium hydroxide
  2. Bpotassium cyanide
  3. Cammonia
  4. Dwater
Show answer

Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide

Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Define the terms structural isomers.
Answer

Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.

Q2[2 marks]
Give the IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH₂CH₂OH and state its functional group.
Answer

Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).

Q3[3 marks]
Distinguish between homolytic and heterolytic bond fission, naming the species formed.
Answer

In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.

Q4[6 marks]
Organic reactions are classified by the type of change and the attacking species.
  1. Explain the difference between an electrophile and a nucleophile. [2]
  2. State the type of reaction (addition, substitution or elimination) when: bromine reacts with ethene; and a haloalkane forms an alkene with hot alcoholic KOH. [2]
  3. Explain what is meant by a functional group. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. An electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor species)[1]
  2. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich species)[1]
  3. Bromine + ethene is an addition reaction[1]
  4. Haloalkane with hot alcoholic KOH is an elimination reaction[1]
  5. A functional group is the atom or group of atoms[1]
  6. that gives a molecule its characteristic chemical properties[1]

Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why but-2-ene shows cis–trans isomerism but butane does not.
Answer

But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.

Q6[6 marks]
Organic reactions can be classified by mechanism.
  1. Define the terms nucleophile and electrophile. [2]
  2. State the type of species that attacks, and the reaction type, when: (i) bromine reacts with ethene; (ii) hydroxide reacts with bromoethane. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich)[1]
  2. an electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor)[1]
  3. (i) Bromine acts as an electrophile[1]
  4. in an electrophilic addition to the C=C double bond[1]
  5. (ii) Hydroxide acts as a nucleophile[1]
  6. in a nucleophilic substitution of the haloalkane[1]

Nucleophile = electron-pair donor, electrophile = acceptor; Br₂/ethene = electrophilic addition; OH⁻/bromoethane = nucleophilic substitution.

Q7[6 marks]
Show how you would carry out the following conversions, giving the reagents and conditions for each step.
  1. Ethene into ethanoic acid (two steps). [4]
  2. Bromoethane into propanenitrile, and state why this conversion is useful. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Step 1: hydrate ethene with steam and an acid catalyst to give ethanol[1]
  2. (~300 °C, ~60 atm, phosphoric acid)[1]
  3. Step 2: oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate[1]
  4. under reflux, to give ethanoic acid[1]
  5. React bromoethane with potassium cyanide in ethanol to give propanenitrile[1]
  6. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]

Ethene → ethanol (steam + acid catalyst) → ethanoic acid (oxidise with acidified dichromate, reflux); bromoethane + KCN → propanenitrile (adds a carbon).

30

Hydrocarbons (A Level)

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The carbon–carbon bonds in benzene are:

  1. Aalternating single and double
  2. Ball identical, between single and double
  3. Call triple
  4. Dionic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — all identical, between single and double

Delocalisation makes all six C–C bonds equivalent, intermediate between single and double.

Q2Benzene is more stable than expected because its electrons are:

  1. Aremoved
  2. Bdelocalised around the ring
  3. Cin the nucleus
  4. Dionic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — delocalised around the ring

The delocalised ring of electrons lowers benzene's energy — aromatic stability.

Q3Benzene's characteristic reaction is electrophilic:

  1. Aaddition
  2. Bsubstitution
  3. Celimination
  4. Dcombustion only
Show answer

Correct answer: B — substitution

Substitution replaces a hydrogen and keeps the stable aromatic ring intact.

Q4Nitration of benzene uses:

  1. Adilute HCl
  2. Bconcentrated HNO₃ and H₂SO₄
  3. CNaOH
  4. Dbromine water
Show answer

Correct answer: B — concentrated HNO₃ and H₂SO₄

Concentrated nitric and sulfuric acids generate the NO₂⁺ electrophile, giving nitrobenzene.

Q5Benzene resists addition reactions because addition would:

  1. Arelease too much energy
  2. Bdestroy its stable delocalised ring
  3. Cmake it ionic
  4. Dnot change anything
Show answer

Correct answer: B — destroy its stable delocalised ring

Adding across the ring would break the aromatic delocalisation, which is energetically unfavourable.

Q6Compared with an alkene, benzene is:

  1. Afar more reactive toward addition
  2. Bless reactive toward addition
  3. Cunable to react at all
  4. Dionic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — less reactive toward addition

Its aromatic stability makes benzene much less prone to addition than a reactive alkene double bond.

Q7The driving force for benzene undergoing substitution rather than addition is:

  1. Aforming a stronger electrophile
  2. Brestoring the stable delocalised ring
  3. Creleasing hydrogen gas
  4. Dgaining electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — restoring the stable delocalised ring

Substitution keeps (restores) the stable aromatic ring; addition would destroy it.

Q8Compared with benzene, phenol is:

  1. Aless reactive toward electrophiles
  2. Bmore reactive toward electrophiles
  3. Cunable to react
  4. Didentical in reactivity
Show answer

Correct answer: B — more reactive toward electrophiles

The –OH lone pair feeds electron density into the ring, making phenol more reactive than benzene.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Describe the bonding in a benzene molecule.
Answer

A ring of six carbons with six delocalised electrons spread above and below the ring; all six C–C bonds are identical, between single and double.

Q2[2 marks]
Explain why benzene undergoes substitution rather than addition reactions.
Answer

Addition would destroy the stable delocalised ring; substitution replaces a hydrogen and preserves the aromatic stability.

Q3[3 marks]
State the reagents and product for the nitration of benzene, and name the type of mechanism.
Answer

Concentrated nitric acid with concentrated sulfuric acid (generating NO₂⁺) gives nitrobenzene, by electrophilic substitution.

Q4[6 marks]
Benzene reacts by electrophilic substitution.
  1. Explain why benzene is more stable than the hypothetical molecule cyclohexatriene (with three separate double bonds). [2]
  2. Give the reagents and conditions for the chlorination of benzene. [2]
  3. State why benzene does not decolourise bromine water, unlike an alkene. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Benzene's electrons are delocalised around the ring[1]
  2. which lowers its energy / makes it more stable than isolated double bonds[1]
  3. Chlorine (Cl₂) with a halogen carrier catalyst[1]
  4. such as anhydrous AlCl₃ or FeCl₃[1]
  5. Benzene has no localised C=C double bond to undergo addition[1]
  6. its delocalised, stable ring does not react with bromine water[1]

Delocalisation lowers benzene's energy (extra stability); chlorination needs Cl₂ + AlCl₃/FeCl₃; no localised C=C means no addition, so bromine water is not decolourised.

Q5[3 marks]
Describe how the electrophile is generated in the nitration of benzene, and state the overall reaction type.
Answer

Concentrated sulfuric acid protonates concentrated nitric acid, which loses water to form the nitronium ion, NO₂⁺. This electrophile substitutes onto the ring, so the reaction is electrophilic substitution.

Q6[6 marks]
Benzene and phenol both react with electrophiles.
  1. Explain why benzene undergoes substitution rather than addition. [3]
  2. Explain why phenol is more reactive than benzene, and state what you would see when phenol is added to bromine water. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Benzene has a stable delocalised ring of electrons[1]
  2. addition would destroy that stability, which is unfavourable[1]
  3. substitution replaces an H and restores the stable ring[1]
  4. In phenol the –OH lone pair delocalises into the ring[1]
  5. making the ring more electron-rich / more reactive to electrophiles[1]
  6. with bromine water the orange colour disappears and a white precipitate (2,4,6-tribromophenol) forms[1]

Benzene substitutes to keep its stable ring; phenol is more reactive (–OH lone pair enriches the ring) and decolourises bromine water, forming a white precipitate.

31

Halogen compounds (A Level)

Multiple choice · 10

Q1The reactive site of a haloalkane is the carbon bonded to the halogen because it is:

  1. Aslightly negative
  2. Bslightly positive (δ+)
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Daromatic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slightly positive (δ+)

The polar C–X bond leaves that carbon electron-poor (δ+), attracting nucleophiles.

Q2Reacting bromoethane with warm aqueous NaOH gives:

  1. Aethene
  2. Bethanol
  3. Cethane
  4. Dethanoic acid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethanol

Aqueous hydroxide substitutes for the bromine — nucleophilic substitution to ethanol.

Q3Hot ethanolic NaOH with a haloalkane favours:

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Belimination (to an alkene)
  3. Cno reaction
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — elimination (to an alkene)

Hot alcoholic base removes HX, forming a double bond — elimination.

Q4A secondary amine has how many carbon groups on nitrogen?

  1. Aone
  2. Btwo
  3. Cthree
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — two

Primary = 1, secondary = 2, tertiary = 3 carbon groups on the nitrogen.

Q5Amines act as bases because the nitrogen:

  1. Ais positively charged
  2. Bhas a lone pair that accepts H⁺
  3. Chas no electrons
  4. Dis a halogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — has a lone pair that accepts H⁺

Nitrogen's lone pair accepts a proton, so amines are proton acceptors — bases.

Q6Reacting a haloalkane with ammonia produces a(n):

  1. Aalkene
  2. Bamine
  3. Ccarboxylic acid
  4. Dalcohol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amine

Ammonia's lone pair substitutes onto the carbon, displacing the halogen to form an amine.

Q7Reacting a haloalkane with potassium cyanide produces a nitrile, which is useful because it:

  1. Ashortens the chain
  2. Badds a carbon atom to the chain
  3. Cremoves the halogen only
  4. Dforms a ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — adds a carbon atom to the chain

The CN group adds one carbon, lengthening the carbon chain.

Q8Which haloalkane undergoes nucleophilic substitution fastest?

  1. Achloroethane
  2. Bbromoethane
  3. Ciodoethane
  4. Dthey react equally
Show answer

Correct answer: C — iodoethane

The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.

Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:

  1. ASN1
  2. BSN2
  3. Celimination only
  4. Daddition
Show answer

Correct answer: B — SN2

The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.

Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:

  1. Afree radical
  2. Bcarbocation intermediate
  3. Ccarbanion
  4. Dsingle concerted step
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate

In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the carbon–halogen bond in a haloalkane is the site of attack by nucleophiles.
Answer

The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.

Q2[2 marks]
State the product and reaction type when bromoethane is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Answer

Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases.
Answer

The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).

Q4[6 marks]
Bromoethane can react in two different ways depending on conditions.
  1. State the reagent and conditions for converting bromoethane to ethene, and name the reaction type. [3]
  2. State the reagent for converting bromoethane to ethylamine, and name the reaction type. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Hot ethanolic (alcoholic) potassium hydroxide[1]
  2. under reflux / heat[1]
  3. This is elimination (loss of HBr forms the C=C)[1]
  4. Excess ammonia[1]
  5. (in a sealed tube / ethanolic solution)[1]
  6. This is nucleophilic substitution[1]

→ ethene: hot alcoholic KOH, elimination; → ethylamine: excess ammonia, nucleophilic substitution.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases, and give the product when ethylamine reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Answer

The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).

Q6[6 marks]
Bromoethane can be converted into several products by nucleophilic substitution.
  1. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to ethanol. [2]
  2. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to a nitrile, and why this is useful. [2]
  3. Explain why iodoethane reacts faster than bromoethane. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide (or water)[1]
  2. gives ethanol[1]
  3. Potassium cyanide (in ethanol) gives propanenitrile[1]
  4. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]
  5. The C–I bond is weaker than C–Br[1]
  6. so it breaks more easily, making iodoethane react faster[1]

OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.

Q7[6 marks]
Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkanes can follow an SN1 or an SN2 mechanism.
  1. Describe the SN2 mechanism and the type of haloalkane it favours. [3]
  2. Describe the SN1 mechanism and explain why tertiary haloalkanes favour it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. In SN2 the nucleophile attacks the δ+ carbon as the halogen leaves[1]
  2. in a single concerted step[1]
  3. favoured by primary haloalkanes (the carbon is easy to approach)[1]
  4. In SN1 the halogen leaves first to form a carbocation[1]
  5. then the nucleophile attacks the carbocation[1]
  6. tertiary haloalkanes form a stable tertiary carbocation, so this route is favoured[1]

SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).

32

Hydroxy compounds (A Level)

Multiple choice · 8

Q1A primary alcohol is fully oxidised to a:

  1. Aketone
  2. Bcarboxylic acid
  3. Calkene
  4. Dnothing
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carboxylic acid

Primary → aldehyde → carboxylic acid; secondary stops at a ketone; tertiary does not oxidise.

Q2A secondary alcohol oxidises to a:

  1. Acarboxylic acid
  2. Bketone
  3. Caldehyde only, then stops
  4. Dphenol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ketone

Secondary alcohols oxidise to ketones and no further.

Q3A tertiary alcohol warmed with acidified dichromate:

  1. Aturns it green
  2. Bdoes not react (stays orange)
  3. Cexplodes
  4. Dforms an ester
Show answer

Correct answer: B — does not react (stays orange)

There is no hydrogen on the OH carbon to remove, so it resists oxidation and the dichromate stays orange.

Q4Alcohols have relatively high boiling points because they:

  1. Aare ionic
  2. Bhydrogen-bond
  3. Care large
  4. Dcontain metals
Show answer

Correct answer: B — hydrogen-bond

The O–H group forms hydrogen bonds between molecules, raising the boiling point.

Q5Phenol differs from an ordinary alcohol in that it is:

  1. Abasic
  2. Bweakly acidic
  3. Cunreactive
  4. Da gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — weakly acidic

The benzene ring stabilises the anion, so phenol loses H⁺ and is weakly acidic (reacts with NaOH).

Q6An alcohol reacting with a carboxylic acid forms an:

  1. Aether
  2. Bester (+ water)
  3. Camine
  4. Dalkane
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ester (+ water)

Esterification gives a sweet-smelling ester and water.

Q7Dehydrating ethanol over a hot catalyst produces:

  1. Aethane
  2. Bethene
  3. Cethanoic acid
  4. Dan ester
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethene

Dehydration removes water from the alcohol, forming the alkene ethene by elimination.

Q8Which reagent reacts with a carboxylic acid but NOT with phenol?

  1. Asodium hydroxide
  2. Bsodium carbonate
  3. Cwater
  4. Dbromine
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sodium carbonate

A carboxylic acid is strong enough to fizz with a carbonate; phenol is too weak, so carbonate distinguishes them.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Classify butan-2-ol as a primary, secondary or tertiary alcohol and justify your answer.
Answer

Secondary — the carbon bearing the –OH group is attached to two other carbon atoms.

Q2[2 marks]
State the products of oxidising a primary alcohol with acidified potassium dichromate.
Answer

First an aldehyde, then on further oxidation a carboxylic acid; the dichromate turns from orange to green.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why phenol is acidic but ethanol is essentially neutral.
Answer

When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring, stabilising the ion, so H⁺ is released. Ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺.

Q4[6 marks]
Three alcohols — propan-1-ol, propan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol — are each warmed with acidified potassium dichromate.
  1. State the product (if any) from each alcohol. [3]
  2. Describe the colour change seen for those that react. [1]
  3. Explain why the tertiary alcohol does not react. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Propan-1-ol (primary) → propanal then propanoic acid[1]
  2. Propan-2-ol (secondary) → propanone (a ketone)[1]
  3. 2-methylpropan-2-ol (tertiary) → no reaction[1]
  4. Those that react turn the dichromate from orange to green[1]
  5. The tertiary alcohol has no hydrogen on the carbon bearing the –OH[1]
  6. so there is nothing for the oxidising agent to remove[1]

1° → aldehyde/acid, 2° → ketone, 3° → no reaction (orange→green for the first two); tertiary resists because there is no H on the OH carbon.

Q5[2 marks]
Give one advantage of making ethanol by hydration of ethene rather than by fermentation.
Answer

Hydration is a fast, continuous process that gives pure ethanol directly, whereas fermentation is slow, works in batches and produces a dilute impure mixture that must be distilled.

Q6[6 marks]
Phenol and ethanol both contain an –OH group but behave differently.
  1. Explain why phenol is weakly acidic while ethanol is essentially neutral. [3]
  2. Describe a chemical test, with results, that distinguishes phenol from a carboxylic acid. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring[1]
  2. this stabilises the phenoxide ion, so H⁺ is released — weakly acidic[1]
  3. ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺[1]
  4. Add sodium carbonate solution to each[1]
  5. the carboxylic acid fizzes, releasing CO₂[1]
  6. phenol shows no reaction (too weak an acid)[1]

Phenol is acidic because the ring stabilises the phenoxide ion; ethanol's is not. Sodium carbonate fizzes with a carboxylic acid but not with phenol.

33

Carboxylic acids and derivatives (A Level)

Multiple choice · 8

Q1The functional group of a carboxylic acid is:

  1. A–OH
  2. B–CHO
  3. C–COOH
  4. D–NH₂
Show answer

Correct answer: C — –COOH

The carboxyl group –COOH (a carbonyl plus a hydroxyl on one carbon) defines carboxylic acids.

Q2Carboxylic acids are:

  1. Astrong acids
  2. Bweak acids
  3. Cbases
  4. Dneutral
Show answer

Correct answer: B — weak acids

They only partly ionise in water — weak acids — though the stabilised carboxylate makes them acidic at all.

Q3A carboxylic acid added to a carbonate produces:

  1. Asalt + hydrogen
  2. Bsalt + water + carbon dioxide
  3. Can ester
  4. Dno reaction
Show answer

Correct answer: B — salt + water + carbon dioxide

Acid + carbonate → salt + water + CO₂; the fizz (CO₂) confirms a carboxylic acid.

Q4Esterification combines a carboxylic acid with a(n):

  1. Ametal
  2. Balcohol
  3. Ccarbonate
  4. Dhalogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — alcohol

Acid + alcohol (with an acid catalyst) → ester + water.

Q5Esters are best known for their:

  1. Ahigh acidity
  2. Bsweet, fruity smells
  3. Cmetallic conductivity
  4. Dexplosiveness
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sweet, fruity smells

Esters have pleasant fruity smells and are used as flavourings and perfumes.

Q6Why is a carboxylic acid acidic but an alcohol is not?

  1. Ait has more carbons
  2. Bthe carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation
  3. Cit contains a metal
  4. Dit is a gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — the carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation

Spreading the negative charge over both oxygens stabilises the ion, so the H⁺ is lost more readily.

Q7The most reactive derivative of a carboxylic acid, used to make the others, is the:

  1. Aester
  2. Bamide
  3. Cacyl chloride
  4. Dsalt
Show answer

Correct answer: C — acyl chloride

Acyl chlorides are the most reactive derivative and are used to prepare esters and amides.

Q8Boiling a fat with sodium hydroxide to make soap is called:

  1. Aesterification
  2. Bsaponification
  3. Chydrogenation
  4. Dpolymerisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — saponification

Alkaline hydrolysis of a fat (an ester) to make soap is saponification.

Exam-style questions · 6

Q1[2 marks]
Name the functional group in a carboxylic acid and state whether such acids are strong or weak.
Answer

The carboxyl group, –COOH; carboxylic acids are weak acids (only partly ionised in water).

Q2[2 marks]
Give the products and observation when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
Answer

Sodium ethanoate, water and carbon dioxide are formed; effervescence (fizzing) is seen.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why a carboxylic acid is more acidic than the corresponding alcohol.
Answer

When a carboxylic acid loses H⁺, the negative charge on the carboxylate ion is delocalised over both oxygen atoms, stabilising it; an alcohol's anion is not stabilised in this way.

Q4[6 marks]
Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of a little concentrated sulfuric acid.
  1. Name the type of reaction and the organic product. [2]
  2. Write the equation for the reaction. [2]
  3. State the role of the concentrated sulfuric acid, and one use of the product. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. The reaction is esterification (condensation)[1]
  2. The product is ethyl ethanoate (an ester)[1]
  3. CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
  4. balanced with water as the other product[1]
  5. The sulfuric acid is a catalyst (and dehydrating agent)[1]
  6. Esters are used as flavourings / perfumes / solvents (any one)[1]

Esterification → ethyl ethanoate; CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O; H₂SO₄ is the catalyst; esters used as flavourings/perfumes/solvents.

Q5[2 marks]
Name the ester formed from ethanoic acid and propan-1-ol, and state the catalyst used.
Answer

Propyl ethanoate, formed with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst (which also removes water).

Q6[6 marks]
Esters can be made from carboxylic acids and hydrolysed back again.
  1. Write the equation and conditions for making ethyl ethanoate from ethanoic acid and ethanol. [3]
  2. State the products of hydrolysing ethyl ethanoate with (i) dilute acid and (ii) sodium hydroxide. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
  2. conditions: warm with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]
  3. the reaction is reversible[1]
  4. (i) with dilute acid: ethanoic acid + ethanol[1]
  5. (ii) with sodium hydroxide: sodium ethanoate[1]
  6. plus ethanol[1]

CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O (conc. H₂SO₄); acid hydrolysis → acid + alcohol; alkaline hydrolysis → sodium ethanoate + ethanol.

34

Nitrogen compounds (A Level)

Multiple choice · 20

Q1The reactive site of a haloalkane is the carbon bonded to the halogen because it is:

  1. Aslightly negative
  2. Bslightly positive (δ+)
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Daromatic
Show answer

Correct answer: B — slightly positive (δ+)

The polar C–X bond leaves that carbon electron-poor (δ+), attracting nucleophiles.

Q2Reacting bromoethane with warm aqueous NaOH gives:

  1. Aethene
  2. Bethanol
  3. Cethane
  4. Dethanoic acid
Show answer

Correct answer: B — ethanol

Aqueous hydroxide substitutes for the bromine — nucleophilic substitution to ethanol.

Q3Hot ethanolic NaOH with a haloalkane favours:

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Belimination (to an alkene)
  3. Cno reaction
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — elimination (to an alkene)

Hot alcoholic base removes HX, forming a double bond — elimination.

Q4A secondary amine has how many carbon groups on nitrogen?

  1. Aone
  2. Btwo
  3. Cthree
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — two

Primary = 1, secondary = 2, tertiary = 3 carbon groups on the nitrogen.

Q5Amines act as bases because the nitrogen:

  1. Ais positively charged
  2. Bhas a lone pair that accepts H⁺
  3. Chas no electrons
  4. Dis a halogen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — has a lone pair that accepts H⁺

Nitrogen's lone pair accepts a proton, so amines are proton acceptors — bases.

Q6Reacting a haloalkane with ammonia produces a(n):

  1. Aalkene
  2. Bamine
  3. Ccarboxylic acid
  4. Dalcohol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amine

Ammonia's lone pair substitutes onto the carbon, displacing the halogen to form an amine.

Q7Reacting a haloalkane with potassium cyanide produces a nitrile, which is useful because it:

  1. Ashortens the chain
  2. Badds a carbon atom to the chain
  3. Cremoves the halogen only
  4. Dforms a ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — adds a carbon atom to the chain

The CN group adds one carbon, lengthening the carbon chain.

Q8Which haloalkane undergoes nucleophilic substitution fastest?

  1. Achloroethane
  2. Bbromoethane
  3. Ciodoethane
  4. Dthey react equally
Show answer

Correct answer: C — iodoethane

The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.

Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:

  1. ASN1
  2. BSN2
  3. Celimination only
  4. Daddition
Show answer

Correct answer: B — SN2

The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.

Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:

  1. Afree radical
  2. Bcarbocation intermediate
  3. Ccarbanion
  4. Dsingle concerted step
Show answer

Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate

In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.

Q11The building blocks of proteins are:

  1. Amonosaccharides
  2. Bamino acids
  3. Cfatty acids
  4. Dnucleotides
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amino acids

Amino acids join by peptide bonds into protein chains; monosaccharides build carbohydrates and fatty acids build lipids.

Q12Which is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?

  1. AGlucose
  2. BStarch
  3. CCellulose
  4. DGlycerol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Starch

Starch stores energy in plants; cellulose (also a polysaccharide) is structural, and glucose is the monosaccharide unit.

Q13A protein loses its function when heated strongly because it:

  1. Agains energy
  2. Bdenatures (loses its shape)
  3. Cturns into a carbohydrate
  4. Ddissolves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures (loses its shape)

Heat unfolds the protein's precise shape — denaturing — and the shape is what its function depends on.

Q14Lipids differ from carbohydrates in that they:

  1. Astore more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
  2. Bare made of amino acids
  3. Cdissolve easily in water
  4. Dcannot store energy
Show answer

Correct answer: A — store more energy per gram and are insoluble in water

Fats and oils pack more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are water-insoluble; they also form membranes and insulation.

Q15An enzyme is best described as a:

  1. Acarbohydrate that stores energy
  2. Bbiological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
  3. Ctype of lipid
  4. Dsource of quick energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — biological catalyst that is specific to its substrate

Enzymes are protein catalysts, each shaped to fit one substrate (lock and key), speeding a reaction without being used up.

Q16Enzyme activity falls sharply far from its optimum pH because the enzyme:

  1. Aruns out
  2. Bdenatures
  3. Cbecomes a substrate
  4. Dgains energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures

As a protein, an extreme pH unfolds (denatures) the enzyme, destroying the shape it needs to work.

Q17Monomers join to form a polymer in a reaction that releases water. This is:

  1. Ahydrolysis
  2. Bcondensation
  3. Ccombustion
  4. Doxidation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — condensation

Condensation joins monomers and releases a small molecule such as water; hydrolysis is the reverse.

Q18A brick-red precipitate on warming with Benedict's solution shows the presence of:

  1. Astarch
  2. Bprotein
  3. Ca reducing sugar
  4. Da lipid
Show answer

Correct answer: C — a reducing sugar

Benedict's solution turns from blue to brick-red with a reducing sugar such as glucose.

Q19An amino acid normally exists as a zwitterion because:

  1. Ait has two amino groups
  2. Ba proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
  3. Cit is non-polar
  4. Dit contains a benzene ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂

The acidic –COOH donates a proton to the basic –NH₂, giving a species with + and − charges but no net charge.

Q20At a pH below its isoelectric point, an amino acid will be:

  1. Anegatively charged
  2. Bpositively charged
  3. Cneutral zwitterion only
  4. Duncharged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — positively charged

In more acidic conditions it gains H⁺ on the –COO⁻, giving an overall positive charge.

Exam-style questions · 14

Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the carbon–halogen bond in a haloalkane is the site of attack by nucleophiles.
Answer

The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.

Q2[2 marks]
State the product and reaction type when bromoethane is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Answer

Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).

Q3[3 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases.
Answer

The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).

Q4[6 marks]
Bromoethane can react in two different ways depending on conditions.
  1. State the reagent and conditions for converting bromoethane to ethene, and name the reaction type. [3]
  2. State the reagent for converting bromoethane to ethylamine, and name the reaction type. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Hot ethanolic (alcoholic) potassium hydroxide[1]
  2. under reflux / heat[1]
  3. This is elimination (loss of HBr forms the C=C)[1]
  4. Excess ammonia[1]
  5. (in a sealed tube / ethanolic solution)[1]
  6. This is nucleophilic substitution[1]

→ ethene: hot alcoholic KOH, elimination; → ethylamine: excess ammonia, nucleophilic substitution.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases, and give the product when ethylamine reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Answer

The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).

Q6[6 marks]
Bromoethane can be converted into several products by nucleophilic substitution.
  1. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to ethanol. [2]
  2. State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to a nitrile, and why this is useful. [2]
  3. Explain why iodoethane reacts faster than bromoethane. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide (or water)[1]
  2. gives ethanol[1]
  3. Potassium cyanide (in ethanol) gives propanenitrile[1]
  4. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]
  5. The C–I bond is weaker than C–Br[1]
  6. so it breaks more easily, making iodoethane react faster[1]

OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.

Q7[6 marks]
Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkanes can follow an SN1 or an SN2 mechanism.
  1. Describe the SN2 mechanism and the type of haloalkane it favours. [3]
  2. Describe the SN1 mechanism and explain why tertiary haloalkanes favour it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. In SN2 the nucleophile attacks the δ+ carbon as the halogen leaves[1]
  2. in a single concerted step[1]
  3. favoured by primary haloalkanes (the carbon is easy to approach)[1]
  4. In SN1 the halogen leaves first to form a carbocation[1]
  5. then the nucleophile attacks the carbocation[1]
  6. tertiary haloalkanes form a stable tertiary carbocation, so this route is favoured[1]

SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).

Q8[2 marks]
Name the three main classes of nutrients that are large biological molecules, and the smaller units each is built from.
Answer

Carbohydrates (from simple sugars), proteins (from amino acids) and fats/lipids (from fatty acids and glycerol).

Q9[2 marks]
Describe the test for a protein and its positive result.
Answer

Add biuret reagent (sodium hydroxide then copper(II) sulfate solution); a positive result is a colour change from blue to purple/violet.

Q10[3 marks]
Explain what happens when a carbohydrate such as starch is digested, and why enzymes are needed.
Answer

Starch is broken down (hydrolysed) into simple sugars such as glucose. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up this reaction at body temperature, which would otherwise be far too slow.

Q11[6 marks]
Enzymes control the reactions in living organisms.
  1. Explain what is meant by an enzyme being a catalyst. [2]
  2. Describe and explain the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity up to and beyond the optimum. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. It speeds up a reaction[1]
  2. without being used up / by lowering the activation energy[1]
  3. As temperature rises up to the optimum, activity increases[1]
  4. because particles collide more frequently and with more energy[1]
  5. Above the optimum, activity falls sharply[1]
  6. because the enzyme is denatured — its shape (active site) changes so substrate no longer fits[1]

Catalyst = speeds a reaction without being used up; activity rises to an optimum then falls as the enzyme denatures (active site changes shape).

Q12[2 marks]
Explain the difference between condensation and hydrolysis reactions in biological molecules.
Answer

Condensation joins two monomers together and releases a small molecule (usually water), building a polymer. Hydrolysis is the reverse: it adds water to split a polymer back into its monomers, as in digestion.

Q13[6 marks]
A student is given an unknown food sample to analyse.
  1. Describe the tests for starch and for protein, with their positive results. [4]
  2. The sample gives a cloudy emulsion in the emulsion test. What does this show, and how is the test carried out? [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Starch: add iodine solution[1]
  2. a blue-black colour is a positive result[1]
  3. Protein: add biuret solution[1]
  4. a purple/violet colour is a positive result[1]
  5. A cloudy emulsion shows a lipid (fat) is present[1]
  6. dissolve the sample in ethanol then add water — a cloudy white emulsion forms[1]

Starch → iodine blue-black; protein → biuret purple; lipid → cloudy emulsion (ethanol then water).

Q14[3 marks]
Explain what a zwitterion is and why amino acids can act as buffers.
Answer

A zwitterion is an amino acid that has transferred a proton internally from its –COOH to its –NH₂, giving –NH₃⁺ and –COO⁻ ends and no overall charge. It can accept H⁺ (onto –COO⁻) in acid and donate H⁺ (from –NH₃⁺) in alkali, so it resists pH change — acting as a buffer.

35

Polymerisation (A Level)

Multiple choice · 10

Q1The building blocks of proteins are:

  1. Amonosaccharides
  2. Bamino acids
  3. Cfatty acids
  4. Dnucleotides
Show answer

Correct answer: B — amino acids

Amino acids join by peptide bonds into protein chains; monosaccharides build carbohydrates and fatty acids build lipids.

Q2Which is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?

  1. AGlucose
  2. BStarch
  3. CCellulose
  4. DGlycerol
Show answer

Correct answer: B — Starch

Starch stores energy in plants; cellulose (also a polysaccharide) is structural, and glucose is the monosaccharide unit.

Q3A protein loses its function when heated strongly because it:

  1. Agains energy
  2. Bdenatures (loses its shape)
  3. Cturns into a carbohydrate
  4. Ddissolves
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures (loses its shape)

Heat unfolds the protein's precise shape — denaturing — and the shape is what its function depends on.

Q4Lipids differ from carbohydrates in that they:

  1. Astore more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
  2. Bare made of amino acids
  3. Cdissolve easily in water
  4. Dcannot store energy
Show answer

Correct answer: A — store more energy per gram and are insoluble in water

Fats and oils pack more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are water-insoluble; they also form membranes and insulation.

Q5An enzyme is best described as a:

  1. Acarbohydrate that stores energy
  2. Bbiological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
  3. Ctype of lipid
  4. Dsource of quick energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — biological catalyst that is specific to its substrate

Enzymes are protein catalysts, each shaped to fit one substrate (lock and key), speeding a reaction without being used up.

Q6Enzyme activity falls sharply far from its optimum pH because the enzyme:

  1. Aruns out
  2. Bdenatures
  3. Cbecomes a substrate
  4. Dgains energy
Show answer

Correct answer: B — denatures

As a protein, an extreme pH unfolds (denatures) the enzyme, destroying the shape it needs to work.

Q7Monomers join to form a polymer in a reaction that releases water. This is:

  1. Ahydrolysis
  2. Bcondensation
  3. Ccombustion
  4. Doxidation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — condensation

Condensation joins monomers and releases a small molecule such as water; hydrolysis is the reverse.

Q8A brick-red precipitate on warming with Benedict's solution shows the presence of:

  1. Astarch
  2. Bprotein
  3. Ca reducing sugar
  4. Da lipid
Show answer

Correct answer: C — a reducing sugar

Benedict's solution turns from blue to brick-red with a reducing sugar such as glucose.

Q9An amino acid normally exists as a zwitterion because:

  1. Ait has two amino groups
  2. Ba proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
  3. Cit is non-polar
  4. Dit contains a benzene ring
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂

The acidic –COOH donates a proton to the basic –NH₂, giving a species with + and − charges but no net charge.

Q10At a pH below its isoelectric point, an amino acid will be:

  1. Anegatively charged
  2. Bpositively charged
  3. Cneutral zwitterion only
  4. Duncharged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — positively charged

In more acidic conditions it gains H⁺ on the –COO⁻, giving an overall positive charge.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Name the three main classes of nutrients that are large biological molecules, and the smaller units each is built from.
Answer

Carbohydrates (from simple sugars), proteins (from amino acids) and fats/lipids (from fatty acids and glycerol).

Q2[2 marks]
Describe the test for a protein and its positive result.
Answer

Add biuret reagent (sodium hydroxide then copper(II) sulfate solution); a positive result is a colour change from blue to purple/violet.

Q3[3 marks]
Explain what happens when a carbohydrate such as starch is digested, and why enzymes are needed.
Answer

Starch is broken down (hydrolysed) into simple sugars such as glucose. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up this reaction at body temperature, which would otherwise be far too slow.

Q4[6 marks]
Enzymes control the reactions in living organisms.
  1. Explain what is meant by an enzyme being a catalyst. [2]
  2. Describe and explain the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity up to and beyond the optimum. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. It speeds up a reaction[1]
  2. without being used up / by lowering the activation energy[1]
  3. As temperature rises up to the optimum, activity increases[1]
  4. because particles collide more frequently and with more energy[1]
  5. Above the optimum, activity falls sharply[1]
  6. because the enzyme is denatured — its shape (active site) changes so substrate no longer fits[1]

Catalyst = speeds a reaction without being used up; activity rises to an optimum then falls as the enzyme denatures (active site changes shape).

Q5[2 marks]
Explain the difference between condensation and hydrolysis reactions in biological molecules.
Answer

Condensation joins two monomers together and releases a small molecule (usually water), building a polymer. Hydrolysis is the reverse: it adds water to split a polymer back into its monomers, as in digestion.

Q6[6 marks]
A student is given an unknown food sample to analyse.
  1. Describe the tests for starch and for protein, with their positive results. [4]
  2. The sample gives a cloudy emulsion in the emulsion test. What does this show, and how is the test carried out? [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Starch: add iodine solution[1]
  2. a blue-black colour is a positive result[1]
  3. Protein: add biuret solution[1]
  4. a purple/violet colour is a positive result[1]
  5. A cloudy emulsion shows a lipid (fat) is present[1]
  6. dissolve the sample in ethanol then add water — a cloudy white emulsion forms[1]

Starch → iodine blue-black; protein → biuret purple; lipid → cloudy emulsion (ethanol then water).

Q7[3 marks]
Explain what a zwitterion is and why amino acids can act as buffers.
Answer

A zwitterion is an amino acid that has transferred a proton internally from its –COOH to its –NH₂, giving –NH₃⁺ and –COO⁻ ends and no overall charge. It can accept H⁺ (onto –COO⁻) in acid and donate H⁺ (from –NH₃⁺) in alkali, so it resists pH change — acting as a buffer.

36

Organic synthesis (A Level)

Multiple choice · 10

Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:

  1. Acolour
  2. Bfunctional group and general formula
  3. Cmelting point
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula

Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.

Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:

  1. Acarbon skeleton length
  2. Bfunctional group
  3. Ccolour
  4. Dmolar mass
Show answer

Correct answer: B — functional group

The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.

Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:

  1. Athe same compound
  2. Bstructural isomers
  3. Cgeometric isomers
  4. Ddifferent elements
Show answer

Correct answer: B — structural isomers

Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.

Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:

  1. Atwo ions
  2. Bfree radicals
  3. Ca nucleophile only
  4. Dno products
Show answer

Correct answer: B — free radicals

An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.

Q5A nucleophile is a species that:

  1. Aaccepts an electron pair
  2. Bdonates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
  3. Cis always positively charged
  4. Dcontains no electrons
Show answer

Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres

Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.

Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.

  1. Asubstitution
  2. Baddition
  3. Celimination
  4. Dcombustion
Show answer

Correct answer: B — addition

Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.

Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:

  1. Aelectron-poor and attacks C=C
  2. Belectron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
  3. Ca free radical
  4. Dalways positively charged
Show answer

Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon

A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.

Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:

  1. Aa chiral centre
  2. Ba C=C double bond with no rotation
  3. Ca benzene ring
  4. Dan ionic bond
Show answer

Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation

Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.

Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?

  1. AKCN in ethanol
  2. Bwarm aqueous NaOH
  3. Cacidified dichromate
  4. Dconcentrated H₂SO₄
Show answer

Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH

Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.

Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:

  1. Asodium hydroxide
  2. Bpotassium cyanide
  3. Cammonia
  4. Dwater
Show answer

Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide

Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.

Exam-style questions · 7

Q1[2 marks]
Define the terms structural isomers.
Answer

Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.

Q2[2 marks]
Give the IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH₂CH₂OH and state its functional group.
Answer

Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).

Q3[3 marks]
Distinguish between homolytic and heterolytic bond fission, naming the species formed.
Answer

In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.

Q4[6 marks]
Organic reactions are classified by the type of change and the attacking species.
  1. Explain the difference between an electrophile and a nucleophile. [2]
  2. State the type of reaction (addition, substitution or elimination) when: bromine reacts with ethene; and a haloalkane forms an alkene with hot alcoholic KOH. [2]
  3. Explain what is meant by a functional group. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. An electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor species)[1]
  2. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich species)[1]
  3. Bromine + ethene is an addition reaction[1]
  4. Haloalkane with hot alcoholic KOH is an elimination reaction[1]
  5. A functional group is the atom or group of atoms[1]
  6. that gives a molecule its characteristic chemical properties[1]

Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.

Q5[2 marks]
Explain why but-2-ene shows cis–trans isomerism but butane does not.
Answer

But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.

Q6[6 marks]
Organic reactions can be classified by mechanism.
  1. Define the terms nucleophile and electrophile. [2]
  2. State the type of species that attacks, and the reaction type, when: (i) bromine reacts with ethene; (ii) hydroxide reacts with bromoethane. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich)[1]
  2. an electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor)[1]
  3. (i) Bromine acts as an electrophile[1]
  4. in an electrophilic addition to the C=C double bond[1]
  5. (ii) Hydroxide acts as a nucleophile[1]
  6. in a nucleophilic substitution of the haloalkane[1]

Nucleophile = electron-pair donor, electrophile = acceptor; Br₂/ethene = electrophilic addition; OH⁻/bromoethane = nucleophilic substitution.

Q7[6 marks]
Show how you would carry out the following conversions, giving the reagents and conditions for each step.
  1. Ethene into ethanoic acid (two steps). [4]
  2. Bromoethane into propanenitrile, and state why this conversion is useful. [2]
Mark scheme
  1. Step 1: hydrate ethene with steam and an acid catalyst to give ethanol[1]
  2. (~300 °C, ~60 atm, phosphoric acid)[1]
  3. Step 2: oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate[1]
  4. under reflux, to give ethanoic acid[1]
  5. React bromoethane with potassium cyanide in ethanol to give propanenitrile[1]
  6. useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]

Ethene → ethanol (steam + acid catalyst) → ethanoic acid (oxidise with acidified dichromate, reflux); bromoethane + KCN → propanenitrile (adds a carbon).

37

Analytical techniques (A Level)

Multiple choice · 16

Q1In a mass spectrum, the relative molecular mass is given by the:

  1. Atallest peak
  2. Bmolecular ion peak (highest m/z)
  3. Cfirst fragment
  4. Dfingerprint region
Show answer

Correct answer: B — molecular ion peak (highest m/z)

The molecular ion M⁺, at the highest m/z ignoring isotope peaks, equals the relative molecular mass.

Q2Two peaks two m/z units apart in a roughly 3:1 ratio indicate the presence of:

  1. Abromine
  2. Bchlorine
  3. Cnitrogen
  4. Doxygen
Show answer

Correct answer: B — chlorine

Chlorine's ³⁵Cl and ³⁷Cl isotopes (about 3:1) give M and M+2 peaks in that ratio; bromine gives ~1:1.

Q3A strong infrared absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a:

  1. AC–H bond
  2. BC=O group
  3. CC–C bond
  4. Dlone pair
Show answer

Correct answer: B — C=O group

The carbonyl group C=O absorbs strongly around 1680–1750 cm⁻¹.

Q4A broad infrared absorption around 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ suggests a(n):

  1. AC=C bond
  2. BO–H group
  3. Cmetal
  4. Dnoble gas
Show answer

Correct answer: B — O–H group

A broad band at 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ is characteristic of the O–H of alcohols and carboxylic acids.

Q5The number of peaks in a ¹H NMR spectrum tells you the number of:

  1. Acarbon atoms
  2. Bdifferent hydrogen environments
  3. Cdouble bonds
  4. Disotopes
Show answer

Correct answer: B — different hydrogen environments

Each set of equivalent hydrogens (one environment) gives one signal.

Q6A ¹H NMR peak split into a triplet indicates how many hydrogens on the neighbouring carbon?

  1. Aone
  2. Btwo
  3. Cthree
  4. Dnone
Show answer

Correct answer: B — two

By the n+1 rule, a triplet (3 lines) means n = 2 neighbouring hydrogens.

Q7In thin-layer chromatography, the Rf value is:

  1. Aalways greater than 1
  2. Bdistance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent
  3. Cthe retention time
  4. Dthe boiling point
Show answer

Correct answer: B — distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent

Rf compares how far the spot moved with how far the solvent front moved; it is between 0 and 1.

Q8To identify an unknown organic compound fully, a chemist typically uses:

  1. Amass spectrometry alone
  2. BIR alone
  3. CNMR alone
  4. Dmass spec, IR and NMR together
Show answer

Correct answer: D — mass spec, IR and NMR together

Each technique gives different information; combined, they pin down the structure.

Q9A pure substance, unlike a mixture, melts:

  1. Aover a wide range
  2. Bsharply at one fixed temperature
  3. Conly when dissolved
  4. Dwithout any heat
Show answer

Correct answer: B — sharply at one fixed temperature

A sharp, fixed melting point is the practical test of purity; mixtures melt over a range.

Q10To separate sand from water you would use:

  1. Adistillation
  2. Bfiltration
  3. Cchromatography
  4. Dcrystallisation
Show answer

Correct answer: B — filtration

Sand is insoluble, so filtration catches it on the paper while the water passes through.

Q11To get pure water from seawater you would use:

  1. Afiltration
  2. Bsimple distillation
  3. Ccrystallisation
  4. Dchromatography
Show answer

Correct answer: B — simple distillation

Distillation boils off the water and condenses it, leaving the dissolved salts behind.

Q12An Rf value is always:

  1. Agreater than 1
  2. Bbetween 0 and 1
  3. Ca whole number
  4. Dnegative
Show answer

Correct answer: B — between 0 and 1

A substance cannot travel further than the solvent, so distance ratio Rf lies between 0 and 1.

Q13Which gas relights a glowing splint?

  1. AHydrogen
  2. BCarbon dioxide
  3. COxygen
  4. DAmmonia
Show answer

Correct answer: C — Oxygen

Oxygen relights a glowing splint; hydrogen gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint.

Q14Limewater turning milky is the test for:

  1. Aoxygen
  2. Bhydrogen
  3. Ccarbon dioxide
  4. Dchlorine
Show answer

Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky — the standard CO₂ test.

Q15A white precipitate forms when barium chloride and dilute acid are added to a solution. The ion present is:

  1. Achloride
  2. Bcarbonate
  3. Csulfate
  4. Dnitrate
Show answer

Correct answer: C — sulfate

Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate — the test for a sulfate ion.

Q16A cream precipitate with silver nitrate indicates a:

  1. Achloride
  2. Bbromide
  3. Ciodide
  4. Dsulfate
Show answer

Correct answer: B — bromide

Silver bromide is cream (chloride is white, iodide is yellow).

Exam-style questions · 12

Q1[2 marks]
State what the molecular ion peak in a mass spectrum tells you.
Answer

The mass/charge value of the molecular ion peak (highest m/z, ignoring isotope peaks) gives the relative molecular mass of the compound.

Q2[2 marks]
State what an infrared spectrum is used to identify, giving one example absorption.
Answer

It identifies bonds/functional groups present; for example a strong absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a C=O group (or a broad band ~3300 cm⁻¹ indicates O–H).

Q3[3 marks]
In a ¹H NMR spectrum, state what the number of peaks, the integration, and the splitting each tell you.
Answer

Number of peaks = number of different hydrogen environments; integration (area) = the ratio of hydrogens in each environment; splitting = the number of hydrogens on neighbouring carbons (n+1 lines for n neighbours).

Q4[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 46, a broad IR absorption around 3300 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows three peaks.
  1. State the relative molecular mass of X. [1]
  2. State what the broad IR absorption at 3300 cm⁻¹ suggests. [1]
  3. Explain what "three peaks" in the ¹H NMR tells you, and deduce the identity of X. [4]
Mark scheme
  1. Relative molecular mass = 46[1]
  2. The broad ~3300 cm⁻¹ band suggests an O–H group (alcohol)[1]
  3. Three peaks means three different hydrogen environments[1]
  4. Ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH, has Mr 46[1]
  5. It has three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH)[1]
  6. so X is ethanol[1]

Mr = 46; O–H group present; three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH) → X is ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH.

Q5[2 marks]
In a TLC experiment, a spot moves 3.6 cm while the solvent front moves 4.8 cm. Calculate its Rf value.
Answer

Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent = 3.6 ÷ 4.8 = 0.75.

Q6[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 60, a strong IR absorption at 1710 cm⁻¹ and a broad one at 3000 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows two peaks.
  1. State the relative molecular mass and the functional group(s) suggested by the IR. [2]
  2. State what two ¹H NMR peaks tell you. [1]
  3. Deduce the identity of X and justify it. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Relative molecular mass = 60[1]
  2. 1710 cm⁻¹ suggests C=O and the broad 3000 cm⁻¹ suggests the O–H of a carboxylic acid[1]
  3. Two peaks means two hydrogen environments[1]
  4. A carboxylic acid of Mr 60 is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH[1]
  5. it has two H environments (CH₃ and COOH)[1]
  6. and contains both C=O and O–H, matching the IR — so X is ethanoic acid[1]

Mr = 60; C=O + O–H (carboxylic acid); two H environments → X is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH.

Q7[2 marks]
Describe how you would obtain pure water from a mixture of water and salt.
Answer

By simple distillation: heat the solution so water boils off, then condense the vapour back to liquid; the salt remains behind.

Q8[2 marks]
State how a chromatogram can be used to tell whether a dye is a pure substance.
Answer

A pure substance produces a single spot on the chromatogram; a mixture separates into two or more spots.

Q9[3 marks]
Define the term Rf value and state how it is calculated.
Answer

The Rf value is the ratio of the distance moved by the spot to the distance moved by the solvent front. Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent.

Q10[6 marks]
A student is given a mixture of sand and copper(II) sulfate.
  1. Describe how to obtain a dry sample of sand from the mixture. [3]
  2. Describe how to obtain pure copper(II) sulfate crystals from the remaining solution. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Add water and stir to dissolve the copper(II) sulfate[1]
  2. Filter — sand is the residue in the filter paper[1]
  3. Wash and dry the sand[1]
  4. Heat the filtrate to evaporate water to the point of crystallisation[1]
  5. Leave to cool so crystals form[1]
  6. Filter off and dry the crystals[1]

Dissolve, filter (sand = residue), wash and dry it; evaporate the filtrate to crystallisation, cool, filter and dry the crystals.

Q11[2 marks]
Describe how you would use flame tests to distinguish a sodium salt from a potassium salt.
Answer

Dip a clean wire in the salt and hold it in a blue flame: sodium gives a yellow flame, potassium gives a lilac flame.

Q12[6 marks]
An unknown solid is thought to be iron(II) sulfate.
  1. Describe the test and result that would confirm the iron(II) ion. [3]
  2. Describe the test and result that would confirm the sulfate ion. [3]
Mark scheme
  1. Dissolve the solid and add sodium hydroxide solution[1]
  2. a green precipitate forms[1]
  3. confirming the iron(II) ion, Fe²⁺[1]
  4. To a fresh sample add dilute (hydrochloric or nitric) acid, then barium chloride solution[1]
  5. a white precipitate forms[1]
  6. confirming the sulfate ion, SO₄²⁻[1]

Fe²⁺: NaOH gives a green precipitate. SO₄²⁻: acid + barium chloride gives a white precipitate.

These questions come from the A Level Chemistry (9701) lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.