A Level Chemistry (9701) — MCQs & Practice Questions
339 multiple-choice questions and 249 exam-style questions with mark schemes, organised by chapter, with answers you can check as you go. Free, no sign-up.
The proton count — the atomic number — is the identity of the element. Change the neutrons and you have an isotope of the same element; change the electrons and you have an ion. Change the protons and it is a different element entirely.
Q2Sodium has configuration 2, 8, 1. Which best predicts its behaviour?
AIt will gain 7 electrons
BIt will lose 1 electron to form Na⁺
CIt will share 1 electron pair
DIt is unreactive
Show answer
Correct answer: B — It will lose 1 electron to form Na⁺
Losing one electron leaves 2, 8 — the neon configuration — and costs far less energy than gaining seven. That is why sodium forms Na⁺ readily and why all group 1 metals are so reactive.
Q3Why does atomic radius decrease across a period?
AElectrons are removed
BNuclear charge rises while electrons stay in the same shell, pulling it inward
CA new shell is added
DNeutrons repel the electrons
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Nuclear charge rises while electrons stay in the same shell, pulling it inward
Across a period you add a proton and an electron each step, but the electron joins the shell already in use. Shielding barely changes while nuclear pull increases, so the whole shell contracts. Going down a group is the opposite: a new shell is added and the atom grows.
Q4Which element has the highest electronegativity?
AOxygen
BFluorine
CChlorine
DCaesium
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Fluorine
Fluorine sits at 3.98 on the Pauling scale — the top-right corner of the reactive elements, small and with a high nuclear charge. Oxygen is second at 3.44. Caesium is at the opposite extreme, giving electrons away rather than attracting them.
Q5Ionisation energy generally decreases down a group because:
AThe nucleus loses protons
BThe outer electron is further away and shielded by inner shells
CAtoms get lighter
DElectronegativity increases
Show answer
Correct answer: B — The outer electron is further away and shielded by inner shells
Two effects work together: the valence electron sits in a shell further from the nucleus, and the filled inner shells screen it from the nuclear charge. Both weaken the hold, so less energy is needed to strip it away.
Q6Two atoms have 17 protons but 18 and 20 neutrons. They are:
ADifferent elements
BIsotopes of chlorine
CIons of chlorine
DImpossible
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Isotopes of chlorine
Same proton count means both are chlorine; different neutron counts make them isotopes — Cl-35 and Cl-37. Chemistry is set by electrons, so they react identically. Only mass-dependent properties like density and diffusion rate differ.
Q7An element has isotopes of mass 63 (69%) and 65 (31%). Its relative atomic mass is about:
A63.0
B63.6
C64.0
D65.0
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 63.6
(63×69 + 65×31)/100 = (4347 + 2015)/100 = 63.6.
Q8Across a period, first ionisation energy generally:
Adecreases
Bincreases
Cstays constant
Ddoubles
Show answer
Correct answer: B — increases
Increasing nuclear charge with similar shielding holds the outer electrons more tightly, so more energy is needed to remove one.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
State the relative charge and relative mass of a proton, a neutron and an electron.
Answer
Proton: charge +1, mass 1. Neutron: charge 0, mass 1. Electron: charge −1, mass negligible (about 1/1840).
Q2[2 marks]
Define the term isotopes.
Answer
Atoms of the same element (same number of protons / same proton number) that have different numbers of neutrons, and so different mass numbers.
Q3[3 marks]
An atom is represented as ³⁵₁₇Cl. State its number of protons, neutrons and electrons.
This question is about the electronic structure of calcium (proton number 20).
Write the full electron configuration of a calcium atom. [2]
Write the electron configuration of a Ca²⁺ ion. [1]
The successive ionisation energies of calcium show a large jump after the second electron is removed. Explain what this tells you. [3]
Mark scheme
1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s²[1]
electron count totals 20[1]
Ca²⁺: 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ (loses the two 4s electrons)[1]
The first two electrons are removed from the outer 4s sub-shell[1]
The third is removed from the 3p, a shell closer to the nucleus[1]
which is held much more strongly, so far more energy is needed — showing two electrons in the outer shell[1]
Ca = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²; Ca²⁺ = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶; the jump after 2 electrons shows only two electrons in the outer shell.
02
Atoms, molecules and stoichiometry
Multiple choice · 8
Q1How many moles are in 88 g of CO₂? (M = 44 g/mol)
A0.5 mol
B2 mol
C44 mol
D88 mol
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 2 mol
n = m/M = 88/44 = 2 mol. Each mole contains 6.022 × 10²³ molecules, so this sample holds about 1.2 × 10²⁴ CO₂ molecules.
Q2In 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O, you have 6 mol H₂ and 2 mol O₂. Which is limiting?
AH₂
BO₂
CNeither — perfect ratio
DBoth equally
Show answer
Correct answer: B — O₂
Divide by coefficients: H₂ gives 6/2 = 3, O₂ gives 2/1 = 2. Oxygen produces the smaller number, so it runs out first and limits the reaction. You get 4 mol of water and 2 mol of H₂ left over.
Q3What does the "2" in 2H₂O tell you?
AThere are 2 hydrogen atoms
BThere are 2 water molecules
CThe mass is 2 grams
DThe reaction happens twice
Show answer
Correct answer: B — There are 2 water molecules
A coefficient in front multiplies the entire formula unit: 2 water molecules, so 4 hydrogen atoms and 2 oxygen atoms in total. A subscript, like the 2 in H₂O, counts atoms within one molecule instead.
Q4A reaction should theoretically produce 50 g but you collect 42 g. The percentage yield is:
A84%
B119%
C8%
D92%
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 84%
(actual / theoretical) × 100 = (42 / 50) × 100 = 84%. Losses of this size are completely normal — product sticks to glassware, reactions do not run to completion, and side reactions consume some reactant.
Q5Why must chemical equations be balanced?
ATo make the numbers neat
BBecause atoms are conserved — they are rearranged, not created or destroyed
CTo make the reaction faster
DBecause moles must always be whole numbers
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Because atoms are conserved — they are rearranged, not created or destroyed
Conservation of mass. Every atom present before the reaction is present after it, just bonded differently. An unbalanced equation implies atoms appeared from nowhere, and any mole calculation built on it would be wrong.
Q6You add excess magnesium to a fixed amount of hydrochloric acid. What limits the hydrogen produced?
AThe magnesium
BThe acid
CBoth equally
DNothing — the reaction continues indefinitely
Show answer
Correct answer: B — The acid
"Excess" means there is more magnesium than can react, so the acid runs out first and is the limiting reagent. Leftover magnesium simply sits at the bottom unreacted — a common sight in this classic school experiment.
Q70.25 mol of gas at r.t.p. occupies a volume of about:
A6 dm³
B12 dm³
C24 dm³
D48 dm³
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 6 dm³
One mole of any gas occupies 24 dm³ at r.t.p., so V = n × 24 = 0.25 × 24 = 6 dm³.
Q8A compound has empirical formula CH₂ and relative molecular mass 42. Its molecular formula is:
ACH₂
BC₂H₄
CC₃H₆
DC₄H₈
Show answer
Correct answer: C — C₃H₆
Empirical mass = 14; 42 ÷ 14 = 3, so C₃H₆.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Calculate the number of moles in 8.0 g of methane, CH₄. (Ar: C = 12, H = 1)
The sum of the relative atomic masses of all the atoms shown in the molecular formula of a substance.
Q3[3 marks]
Balance the equation: __ Al + __ O₂ → __ Al₂O₃.
Answer
4 Al + 3 O₂ → 2 Al₂O₃.
Q4[7 marks]
Calcium carbonate decomposes: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂. (Ar: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)
Calculate the relative formula mass of CaCO₃. [1]
Calculate the mass of CaO produced from 25 g of CaCO₃. [3]
Calculate the volume of CO₂ produced at r.t.p. (1 mole of gas = 24 dm³). [3]
Mark scheme
Mr(CaCO₃) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100[1]
Moles CaCO₃ = 25 ÷ 100 = 0.25 mol[1]
Moles CaO = 0.25 (1:1 ratio); Mr(CaO) = 56[1]
Mass CaO = 0.25 × 56 = 14 g[1]
Moles CO₂ = 0.25 (1:1 ratio)[1]
Volume = moles × 24 = 0.25 × 24[1]
Volume CO₂ = 6.0 dm³[1]
Mr = 100; 14 g CaO; 6.0 dm³ CO₂.
Q5[3 marks]
Calculate the concentration, in mol/dm³, of a solution made by dissolving 0.20 mol of sodium chloride in 500 cm³ of solution.
Answer
V = 500 ÷ 1000 = 0.50 dm³. c = n ÷ V = 0.20 ÷ 0.50 = 0.40 mol/dm³.
Q6[7 marks]
Iron is extracted by reducing iron(III) oxide: Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂. (Ar: Fe = 56, O = 16, C = 12)
Calculate the relative formula mass of Fe₂O₃. [1]
Calculate the mass of iron produced from 320 tonnes of Fe₂O₃. [3]
Calculate the atom economy of this reaction for making iron. [3]
Mark scheme
Mr(Fe₂O₃) = 112 + 48 = 160[1]
Moles Fe₂O₃ = 320 ÷ 160 = 2 (tonne-moles)[1]
Moles Fe = 2 × 2 = 4; Ar(Fe) = 56[1]
Mass Fe = 4 × 56 = 224 tonnes[1]
Desired product mass in equation = 2 × 56 = 112; total product mass = 112 + 3 × 44 = 244[1]
Atom economy = (112 ÷ 244) × 100[1]
= 45.9% (≈ 46%)[1]
Mr = 160; 224 tonnes of iron; atom economy ≈ 46%.
03
Chemical bonding
Multiple choice · 8
Q1Sodium chloride conducts electricity when molten but not when solid. Why?
ASolid NaCl has no ions
BThe ions are locked in the lattice when solid but free to move when molten
CHeating creates new electrons
DSolid NaCl is covalent
Show answer
Correct answer: B — The ions are locked in the lattice when solid but free to move when molten
Conduction needs mobile charge carriers. The ions exist in both states, but in the solid they are held rigidly in the lattice. Melting frees them to drift toward the electrodes, and the same happens when NaCl dissolves in water.
Q2Which pair will most likely form an ionic bond?
ACarbon and hydrogen
BMagnesium and oxygen
CNitrogen and oxygen
DChlorine and chlorine
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Magnesium and oxygen
Magnesium (EN 1.31) and oxygen (EN 3.44) differ by over 2, and it is a metal-plus-non-metal pairing. Mg loses two electrons and O gains two, giving Mg²⁺O²⁻. The other three are all non-metals sharing electrons covalently.
Q3Why are metals malleable?
ATheir bonds are weak
BLayers of positive ions can slide while the electron sea keeps holding them together
CThey contain no bonds
DThey are made of small molecules
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Layers of positive ions can slide while the electron sea keeps holding them together
Metallic bonding is non-directional — the delocalised electrons hold the lattice together from all sides. Shift a layer and the bonding is unchanged, so the metal deforms instead of shattering. Ionic solids are brittle because sliding brings like charges together.
Q4Water has a low boiling point compared with sodium chloride because:
AThe O–H covalent bonds are weak
BOnly the weak forces between molecules need breaking, not the covalent bonds
CWater contains no bonds
DWater is a metal
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Only the weak forces between molecules need breaking, not the covalent bonds
Boiling separates molecules from each other; it does not break them apart. The O–H bonds inside each water molecule survive intact. Only the hydrogen bonding between molecules must be overcome — much weaker than an ionic lattice.
Q5Graphite conducts electricity but diamond does not. Why?
AGraphite contains metal atoms
BEach carbon in graphite bonds to only three neighbours, leaving one delocalised electron
CDiamond has no electrons
DGraphite is ionic
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Each carbon in graphite bonds to only three neighbours, leaving one delocalised electron
In diamond every carbon uses all four valence electrons in covalent bonds, leaving nothing free. In graphite only three are used, and the fourth is delocalised across the layer — a mobile charge carrier, just like in a metal.
Q6In a polar covalent bond such as H–Cl, the electrons are:
ATransferred completely to chlorine
BShared, but pulled closer to the more electronegative chlorine
CShared perfectly equally
DNot shared at all
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Shared, but pulled closer to the more electronegative chlorine
The electronegativity gap (2.20 vs 3.16) is too small for a full transfer but large enough to distort the sharing. Chlorine holds the pair closer, giving it a partial negative charge and hydrogen a partial positive — a dipole.
Q7A molecule with four bonding pairs and no lone pairs on the central atom is:
Alinear
Btrigonal planar
Ctetrahedral
Dbent
Show answer
Correct answer: C — tetrahedral
Four bonding pairs repel to a tetrahedral shape with 109.5° angles, as in methane.
Q8The strongest type of intermolecular force is:
Avan der Waals forces
Bhydrogen bonding
Cdipole–dipole forces
Dionic bonds
Show answer
Correct answer: B — hydrogen bonding
Hydrogen bonding (H bonded to N, O or F) is the strongest of the intermolecular forces.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Describe how an ionic bond forms between sodium and chlorine.
Answer
Sodium loses one electron to chlorine; sodium becomes Na⁺ and chlorine becomes Cl⁻, and the oppositely charged ions attract by strong electrostatic forces.
Q2[2 marks]
Explain why sodium chloride has a high melting point.
Answer
It has a giant ionic lattice; the many strong electrostatic forces between oppositely charged ions need a large amount of energy to overcome.
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why a simple molecular substance such as methane has a low boiling point, whereas diamond has a very high one.
Answer
Methane has weak intermolecular forces between molecules, which need little energy to overcome. Diamond is a giant covalent structure with strong covalent bonds throughout, needing very large energy to break.
Q4[7 marks]
Magnesium oxide (MgO) is ionic; carbon dioxide (CO₂) is simple molecular.
Describe, in terms of electron transfer, how MgO forms. [2]
Explain why MgO conducts electricity when molten but not when solid. [2]
Explain why CO₂ is a gas at room temperature while MgO is a solid. [3]
Mark scheme
Magnesium loses 2 electrons to oxygen, forming Mg²⁺ and O²⁻[1]
The oppositely charged ions attract by strong electrostatic forces[1]
When molten, the ions are free to move and carry charge[1]
When solid, the ions are fixed in the lattice and cannot move[1]
CO₂ is simple molecular with weak intermolecular forces[1]
Little energy is needed to separate the molecules, so it is a gas[1]
MgO is a giant ionic lattice with strong forces needing much energy, so it is a high-melting solid[1]
Mg→Mg²⁺ + O→O²⁻ (electrostatic attraction); MgO conducts molten (mobile ions) not solid (fixed ions); CO₂ gas (weak intermolecular forces) vs MgO solid (giant lattice, strong forces).
Q5[2 marks]
Explain why the boiling points of the noble gases increase down the group.
Answer
Down the group the atoms have more electrons, so the van der Waals (London) forces between them are stronger and need more energy to overcome, raising the boiling point.
Q6[6 marks]
Consider the molecules methane (CH₄) and water (H₂O).
State the shape and bond angle of methane, and explain them. [3]
Explain why water has a much higher boiling point than methane, even though water is a smaller molecule. [3]
Mark scheme
Methane is tetrahedral[1]
with a bond angle of 109.5°[1]
because four bonding pairs repel to get as far apart as possible[1]
Water molecules form hydrogen bonds (O–H, H bonded to O)[1]
methane has only weak van der Waals forces[1]
hydrogen bonds are much stronger, so water needs far more energy to boil[1]
Methane: tetrahedral, 109.5°, four repelling bonding pairs; water boils higher because of strong hydrogen bonding vs methane's weak van der Waals forces.
04
States of matter
Multiple choice · 8
Q1Which state has particles that are far apart and move freely at speed?
ASolid
BLiquid
CGas
DNone of these
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Gas
A gas has widely spaced, fast, randomly moving particles — so it has no fixed shape or volume and compresses easily.
Q2While ice is melting, you keep heating it. The temperature:
ARises steadily
BStays constant until all the ice has melted
CFalls
DRises then falls
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Stays constant until all the ice has melted
During a change of state the energy breaks the forces between particles rather than raising their speed, so the temperature holds at the melting point until melting is complete.
Q3Temperature is a measure of:
AThe number of particles
BThe average kinetic energy of the particles
CThe mass of the substance
DThe pressure
Show answer
Correct answer: B — The average kinetic energy of the particles
Higher temperature means the particles have, on average, more kinetic energy — they move faster.
Q4Heating a fixed volume of gas increases its pressure because the particles:
AGet bigger
BHit the walls harder and more often
CTurn into liquid
DStop moving
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Hit the walls harder and more often
Faster particles collide with the container walls more frequently and with greater force, raising the pressure.
Q5Diffusion is fastest when the particles are:
AHeavy and cold
BLight and hot
CHeavy and hot
DLight and cold
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Light and hot
Lighter particles move faster at a given temperature, and higher temperature raises speed further — both speed up diffusion.
Q6Which change of state goes straight from solid to gas?
AMelting
BCondensing
CSublimation
DFreezing
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Sublimation
Sublimation is the direct solid→gas change (e.g. solid carbon dioxide), skipping the liquid state.
Q7During the melting of ice at 0 °C, the temperature stays constant because the energy supplied is used to:
Amake particles move faster
Bovercome the forces holding the lattice together
Cincrease the pressure
Dcreate new particles
Show answer
Correct answer: B — overcome the forces holding the lattice together
At a change of state the energy breaks the forces between particles rather than raising their kinetic energy, so the temperature is constant.
Q8Heating a fixed volume of gas increases its pressure because the particles:
Aget bigger
Bcollide with the walls harder and more often
Cstop moving
Dturn into liquid
Show answer
Correct answer: B — collide with the walls harder and more often
Faster particles make more frequent, harder collisions with the walls, raising the pressure.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Describe the arrangement and movement of particles in a solid.
Answer
Particles are closely packed in a regular, fixed arrangement and can only vibrate about fixed positions.
Q2[2 marks]
Explain, in terms of particles, why a gas exerts pressure on the walls of its container.
Answer
Gas particles move rapidly in all directions and collide with the walls; the force of these collisions per unit area is the pressure.
Q3[3 marks]
Explain what happens to the particles as a solid is heated until it melts and then boils.
Answer
Heating gives particles more kinetic energy so they vibrate more; at the melting point the forces holding the lattice break and particles move past each other (liquid); at the boiling point particles gain enough energy to escape completely (gas).
Q4[6 marks]
A student investigates diffusion using gas jars.
Define diffusion. [2]
Explain why bromine vapour spreads more slowly than hydrogen gas at the same temperature. [2]
State and explain the effect of raising the temperature on the rate of diffusion. [2]
Mark scheme
Diffusion is the movement of particles from a region of higher concentration to lower concentration[1]
...until they are evenly spread / down a concentration gradient[1]
Bromine molecules are heavier / have greater mass than hydrogen molecules[1]
At the same temperature heavier particles move more slowly, so diffuse more slowly[1]
Raising temperature increases the rate of diffusion[1]
Because particles gain kinetic energy and move faster[1]
Diffusion = spreading down a concentration gradient; lighter particles diffuse faster; higher temperature → faster diffusion.
Q5[3 marks]
A student heats a pure solid until it melts. Sketch-describe what happens to the temperature before, during and after melting, and explain the shape.
Answer
Before melting the temperature rises as particles gain kinetic energy. During melting it stays constant (a plateau) because the energy overcomes the forces holding the lattice. After melting it rises again as the liquid warms.
Q6[6 marks]
A gas is sealed in a container.
Explain, using the kinetic particle model, how the gas exerts pressure on the walls. [2]
Explain what happens to the pressure if the gas is heated at constant volume. [2]
Explain what happens to the pressure if the volume is halved at constant temperature. [2]
Mark scheme
Particles move rapidly and randomly, colliding with the walls[1]
the force of these collisions per unit area is the pressure[1]
Heating gives particles more kinetic energy so they move faster[1]
collisions are harder and more frequent, so pressure rises[1]
Halving the volume means the same particles are in a smaller space[1]
so collisions with the walls are twice as frequent and the pressure doubles[1]
Pressure = wall collisions per area; heating raises it (faster, more frequent collisions); halving the volume doubles it (more frequent collisions).
05
Chemical energetics
Multiple choice · 8
Q1In an exothermic reaction, the temperature of the surroundings:
Afalls
Brises
Cstays the same
Dcannot be measured
Show answer
Correct answer: B — rises
Exothermic reactions release energy to the surroundings, so the temperature goes up.
Q2Which is an endothermic process?
ACombustion
BRespiration
CThermal decomposition
DNeutralisation
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Thermal decomposition
Thermal decomposition takes energy in to break a compound apart; the other three release energy.
Q3For an exothermic reaction, the products are ___ the reactants and ΔH is ___.
Ahigher than; positive
Blower than; negative
Cequal to; zero
Dlower than; positive
Show answer
Correct answer: B — lower than; negative
Energy is released, so products sit lower on the energy profile and ΔH is negative.
Q4Breaking chemical bonds:
Areleases energy
Btakes energy in
Chas no energy change
Dalways makes a reaction exothermic
Show answer
Correct answer: B — takes energy in
Bond breaking is endothermic — energy must be supplied; bond making releases energy.
Q5A reaction is exothermic overall when:
Abreaking bonds releases more than making them
Bmaking bonds releases more than breaking them absorbs
Cno bonds change
Da catalyst is used
Show answer
Correct answer: B — making bonds releases more than breaking them absorbs
If the energy out from forming new bonds exceeds the energy in to break old ones, there is a net release — exothermic.
Q6Adding a catalyst changes:
AΔH
Bthe activation energy only
Cthe products
Dwhether it is exothermic
Show answer
Correct answer: B — the activation energy only
A catalyst lowers the activation energy but leaves the reactants, products and ΔH unchanged.
Q7In the equation q = mcΔT, the mass m refers to the mass of:
Athe fuel burned
Bthe water heated
Cthe container
Dthe products
Show answer
Correct answer: B — the water heated
The heat is measured by the temperature rise of the water, so m is the mass of water.
Q8Hess's law is a direct consequence of the:
Aconservation of mass
Bconservation of energy
Cideal gas law
Dlaw of definite proportions
Show answer
Correct answer: B — conservation of energy
Because energy is conserved, the total enthalpy change depends only on the start and end states, not the route.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Define an exothermic reaction and give one example.
Answer
A reaction that transfers energy to the surroundings (temperature of surroundings rises), e.g. combustion / neutralisation.
Q2[2 marks]
In terms of bond breaking and bond making, explain why a reaction is exothermic.
Answer
Bond breaking absorbs energy and bond making releases energy; in an exothermic reaction more energy is released making bonds than is absorbed breaking them.
Q3[3 marks]
Sketch and label an energy level diagram for an exothermic reaction, marking the activation energy and the enthalpy change (ΔH).
Answer
Reactants at a higher energy than products; a 'hump' above the reactants marks the activation energy; ΔH is the (negative) drop from reactants to products.
State and explain the effect of increasing pressure on the yield of ammonia. [3]
State and explain the effect of increasing temperature on the value of Kc. [3]
Mark scheme
Higher pressure increases the yield of ammonia[1]
the system shifts to the side with fewer gas molecules[1]
4 gas molecules on the left, 2 on the right, so it shifts right[1]
Increasing temperature decreases Kc[1]
the forward reaction is exothermic, so higher temperature favours the endothermic reverse[1]
less product forms, so Kc falls[1]
Higher pressure → more NH₃ (fewer gas moles on the right); higher temperature → lower Kc (favours the endothermic reverse).
08
Reaction kinetics
Multiple choice · 8
Q1In the rate law rate = k[A]^m[B]^n, the powers m and n are found:
Afrom the balanced equation
Bby experiment
Cfrom the molar masses
Dfrom the temperature
Show answer
Correct answer: B — by experiment
Orders are experimental — they reflect the mechanism, not the stoichiometric coefficients.
Q2Doubling [A] doubles the rate. The reaction is ___ order in A.
Azero
Bfirst
Csecond
Dthird
Show answer
Correct answer: B — first
Rate proportional to concentration means first order.
Q3Doubling [B] makes the rate four times larger. The order in B is:
Azero
Bfirst
Csecond
Dhalf
Show answer
Correct answer: C — second
×4 = 2², so the reaction is second order in B.
Q4For rate = k[A][B]², the overall order is:
A1
B2
C3
D0
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 3
The overall order is the sum of the individual orders: first order in A (power 1) plus second order in B (power 2) gives 1 + 2 = 3, so the reaction is third order overall.
Q5The rate constant k increases most when you raise the:
Aconcentration
Btemperature
Cpressure
Dvolume
Show answer
Correct answer: B — temperature
k depends strongly on temperature (Arrhenius); concentration changes the rate but not k.
Q6The rate-determining step of a reaction is the:
Afastest step
Bslowest step
Cfirst step always
Dlast step always
Show answer
Correct answer: B — slowest step
The slowest step is the bottleneck that controls the overall rate.
Q7A reactant's concentration halves every 30 s regardless of its starting value. The reaction is:
Azero order
Bfirst order
Csecond order
Dthird order
Show answer
Correct answer: B — first order
A constant half-life is the signature of a first-order reaction.
Q8The order of a reaction with respect to a reactant is found by:
Athe balanced equation
Bexperiment
Cthe molar mass
Dthe temperature
Show answer
Correct answer: B — experiment
Orders reflect the mechanism, so they must be determined experimentally, not read from the equation.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Define the term rate of reaction.
Answer
The change in concentration of a reactant or product per unit time.
Q2[2 marks]
What is meant by the order of a reaction with respect to a reactant?
Answer
The power to which the concentration of that reactant is raised in the rate equation.
Q3[3 marks]
A reaction has rate equation rate = k[A][B]². State the order with respect to each reactant, the overall order, and the effect on rate of doubling [B].
Answer
First order in A, second order in B, overall third order. Doubling [B] multiplies the rate by 2² = 4.
Q4[6 marks]
The rate of a reaction between A and B was studied by varying concentrations.
Explain how the rate constant k is affected by increasing temperature, and why. [3]
Explain what is meant by the rate-determining step. [2]
State the units of k for a first-order reaction. [1]
Mark scheme
k increases with temperature[1]
Particles have more energy and collide more often[1]
and a greater fraction exceed the activation energy, so more collisions are successful[1]
The rate-determining step is the slowest step in a multi-step reaction[1]
It controls the overall rate[1]
s⁻¹[1]
k rises with temperature (more successful collisions); rate-determining step = the slowest step, which limits overall rate; first-order k has units s⁻¹.
Q5[2 marks]
The rate equation for a reaction is rate = k[A]²[B]. State the overall order and the effect on the rate of doubling [A].
Answer
Overall order = 2 + 1 = 3 (third order). Doubling [A] multiplies the rate by 2² = 4.
Q6[6 marks]
A reaction between P and Q was studied by measuring the initial rate at different concentrations.
Explain what is meant by the rate-determining step. [2]
Explain how a catalyst increases the rate constant k. [2]
Explain why increasing temperature increases k. [2]
Mark scheme
The slowest step in a multi-step reaction[1]
which controls (limits) the overall rate[1]
A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy[1]
so a greater fraction of collisions are successful, raising k[1]
Higher temperature gives molecules more energy[1]
so more exceed the activation energy — more successful collisions and a larger k[1]
Rate-determining step = slowest step controlling the rate; catalyst and higher temperature both raise k by increasing the fraction of successful (Ea-exceeding) collisions.
09
The Periodic Table of Elements
Multiple choice · 8
Q1Elements in the same group have the same:
Anumber of neutrons
Bnumber of outer-shell electrons
Cmass
Dnumber of shells
Show answer
Correct answer: B — number of outer-shell electrons
A group shares outer-electron count, which is what sets chemistry — so a group behaves as a family.
Q2Going DOWN group 1, reactivity:
Adecreases
Bincreases
Cstays the same
Ddisappears
Show answer
Correct answer: B — increases
The outer electron is further out and more shielded lower down, so it is lost more easily — potassium is more reactive than sodium.
Q3Going DOWN group 7, reactivity:
Aincreases
Bdecreases
Cstays the same
Dbecomes metallic
Show answer
Correct answer: B — decreases
Gaining an electron gets harder as the shell moves out, so halogens get less reactive down the group.
Q4Which will happen: chlorine added to potassium bromide solution?
ANothing
BChlorine displaces bromine
CBromine displaces chlorine
DPotassium is released
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Chlorine displaces bromine
Chlorine is the more reactive halogen, so it displaces bromine: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.
Q5Noble gases are unreactive because they have:
Ano electrons
Ba full outer shell
Cone outer electron
Dseven outer electrons
Show answer
Correct answer: B — a full outer shell
A complete outer shell is very stable, so noble gases have no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons.
Q6Which is a typical property of transition metals but NOT group 1 metals?
ABeing solid
BForming ions of more than one charge
CConducting electricity
DBeing metallic
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Forming ions of more than one charge
Transition metals form variable-charge ions (e.g. Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺) and coloured compounds; group 1 metals form only +1 ions.
Q7Across Period 3, atomic radius:
Aincreases
Bdecreases
Cstays constant
Dpeaks in the middle
Show answer
Correct answer: B — decreases
Rising nuclear charge with electrons in the same shell pulls the atom inward, so the radius decreases.
Q8The element in Period 3 with by far the highest melting point is:
Asodium
Bsilicon
Csulfur
Dargon
Show answer
Correct answer: B — silicon
Silicon is a giant covalent structure, so a vast number of strong covalent bonds must be broken to melt it.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
State how the elements are arranged in the modern Periodic Table.
Answer
In order of increasing proton (atomic) number, arranged in periods (rows) and groups (columns) of similar properties.
Q2[2 marks]
Describe the trend in reactivity down Group I and explain it.
Answer
Reactivity increases down Group I because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why the elements in Group VII show similar chemical properties but Group 0 (noble gases) are unreactive.
Answer
Group VII atoms all have 7 outer electrons, so they react similarly (gaining/sharing one electron). Noble gases have a full outer shell, so they have no tendency to gain, lose or share electrons and are unreactive.
Q4[6 marks]
Chlorine, bromine and iodine are Group VII elements.
Describe the trend in reactivity down Group VII and explain it. [3]
Predict what happens when chlorine is added to a solution of potassium bromide, and write an equation. [3]
Mark scheme
Reactivity decreases down the group[1]
The outer shell is further from the nucleus / more shielded[1]
So it is harder to attract/gain an electron[1]
Chlorine is more reactive than bromine, so it displaces bromine[1]
The solution turns orange (bromine formed)[1]
Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂[1]
Reactivity falls down the group (outer shell further/shielded, harder to gain e⁻); chlorine displaces bromine: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.
Q5[2 marks]
State and explain the trend in the reactivity of the Group 1 metals down the group.
Answer
Reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is lost more easily.
Q6[6 marks]
This question is about trends in Period 3 (Na to Ar).
Describe how melting point changes across Period 3 and explain the value for silicon. [3]
State the trend in first ionisation energy across the period and explain it. [3]
Mark scheme
Melting point rises from Na to a peak at Si, then falls sharply to Ar[1]
Silicon is a giant covalent (macromolecular) structure[1]
so a huge number of strong covalent bonds must be broken — very high melting point[1]
First ionisation energy generally increases across the period[1]
because nuclear charge increases while shielding stays similar[1]
so the outer electron is held more tightly and needs more energy to remove[1]
Melting point rises to a giant-covalent peak at Si then falls to molecular Ar; first ionisation energy rises (more nuclear charge, similar shielding).
10
Group 2
Multiple choice · 8
Q1The s-block consists of:
AGroups 1 and 2
BGroups 17 and 18
Cthe transition metals
DGroups 13–16
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Groups 1 and 2
The s-block is Groups 1 (alkali metals) and 2 (alkaline earth metals) — outer electrons in s orbitals.
Q2Reactivity of Group 1 metals down the group:
Adecreases
Bincreases
Cstays constant
Dbecomes zero
Show answer
Correct answer: B — increases
The outer electron is further out and more shielded lower down, so it is lost more easily — more reactive.
Q3Group 1 more reactive than Group 2 (same period) because it:
Ahas more electrons
Bloses one electron rather than two
Cis denser
Dhas coloured ions
Show answer
Correct answer: B — loses one electron rather than two
Losing a single outer electron requires less energy than losing two, so Group 1 reacts more readily.
Q4Sodium in water produces:
Asodium oxide only
Bsodium hydroxide + hydrogen
Csodium chloride
Dno reaction
Show answer
Correct answer: B — sodium hydroxide + hydrogen
Group 1 metals react with water to give a hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Q5A lilac flame colour indicates the presence of:
Asodium
Bpotassium
Ccalcium
Dcopper
Show answer
Correct answer: B — potassium
Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow and calcium brick-red.
Q6The diagonal relationship links lithium most closely with:
Asodium
Bmagnesium
Cpotassium
Dfluorine
Show answer
Correct answer: B — magnesium
Lithium resembles magnesium (diagonally below-right) because of their similar charge densities.
Q7The flame colour of potassium is:
Ayellow
Blilac
Cbrick-red
Dgreen
Show answer
Correct answer: B — lilac
Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow, calcium brick-red, barium green.
Q8Down Group 2, the carbonates become:
Aless thermally stable
Bmore thermally stable
Cmore coloured
Dgaseous
Show answer
Correct answer: B — more thermally stable
Larger cations polarise the carbonate ion less, so the carbonates need more heat to decompose — more stable.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Describe the trend in reactivity down Group 1 (the alkali metals) and explain it.
Answer
Reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.
Q2[2 marks]
Describe what is observed when a small piece of sodium is added to water, and give the equation.
Answer
It floats, melts into a ball, fizzes and moves around, giving off hydrogen: 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂.
Q3[3 marks]
Explain the trend in thermal stability of the Group 2 carbonates down the group.
Answer
Thermal stability increases down the group. The cations get larger with less charge density, so they polarise/distort the carbonate ion less, making it harder to decompose.
Q4[6 marks]
The Group 2 elements magnesium and calcium react with water.
Describe the difference in how magnesium and calcium react with water. [2]
Write the equation for the reaction of calcium with cold water. [2]
Explain the trend in reactivity down Group 2. [2]
Mark scheme
Magnesium reacts very slowly with cold water (faster with steam)[1]
Calcium reacts readily with cold water, fizzing[1]
Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂[1]
balanced equation[1]
Reactivity increases down the group[1]
because the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more easily lost[1]
Mg very slow with cold water, Ca reacts readily; Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂; reactivity rises down the group (electrons lost more easily).
Q5[2 marks]
Explain why the thermal stability of the Group 2 nitrates increases down the group.
Answer
Down the group the cations get larger and have lower charge density, so they polarise (distort) the nitrate ion less. The nitrate is therefore harder to break down, so a higher temperature is needed and thermal stability increases.
Q6[6 marks]
The Group 2 elements and their compounds show clear trends.
Describe and explain the trend in reactivity of the Group 2 metals with water down the group. [3]
State the trends in solubility of the Group 2 hydroxides and sulfates down the group. [3]
Mark scheme
Reactivity increases down the group[1]
the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
so they are lost more easily, making the metal more reactive[1]
Hydroxides become more soluble down the group[1]
sulfates become less soluble down the group[1]
so barium sulfate is highly insoluble (used in the sulfate test)[1]
Reactivity rises down Group 2 (outer electrons lost more easily); hydroxides get more soluble, sulfates less soluble.
11
Group 17
Multiple choice · 8
Q1Down a group in the p-block, elements become:
Amore non-metallic
Bmore metallic
Cmore gaseous
Dmore radioactive
Show answer
Correct answer: B — more metallic
Larger atoms hold outer electrons more loosely, so metallic character increases down a group.
Q2Which Group 14 element is a non-metal with several allotropes?
Alead
Btin
Csilicon
Dcarbon
Show answer
Correct answer: D — carbon
Carbon is the non-metal at the top of Group 14, with allotropes diamond, graphite, graphene and fullerenes.
Q3Nitrogen gas (N₂) is unreactive mainly because of its:
Alow mass
Bstrong triple bond
Cmetallic character
Dhigh electronegativity alone
Show answer
Correct answer: B — strong triple bond
The N≡N triple bond is very strong, so breaking N₂ apart needs a lot of energy.
Q4The most-produced industrial chemical, made from a Group 16 element, is:
Anitric acid
Bsulfuric acid
Cammonia
Dhydrochloric acid
Show answer
Correct answer: B — sulfuric acid
Sulfuric acid (from sulfur) is the highest-tonnage industrial chemical.
Q5The first element of each p-block group is anomalous partly because it:
Ais a metal
Blacks available d orbitals and is small
Chas the most shells
Dis radioactive
Show answer
Correct answer: B — lacks available d orbitals and is small
Being small, very electronegative and without accessible d orbitals limits its bonding, unlike the elements below it.
Q6SiO₂ melts far higher than CO₂ because SiO₂ is:
Aionic
Ba giant covalent network
Cmetallic
Dmade of small molecules
Show answer
Correct answer: B — a giant covalent network
SiO₂ is a giant covalent lattice; melting it breaks strong covalent bonds, unlike molecular CO₂.
Q7Down Group 17, the oxidising power of the halogens:
Aincreases
Bdecreases
Cstays constant
Dpeaks at bromine
Show answer
Correct answer: B — decreases
Gaining an electron gets harder down the group, so oxidising power decreases.
Q8Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is described as:
Abasic
Bacidic
Camphoteric
Dneutral
Show answer
Correct answer: C — amphoteric
An oxide that reacts with both acids and bases is amphoteric.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
State and explain the trend in reactivity down Group 17 (the halogens).
Answer
Reactivity decreases down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is harder to attract an electron.
Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to confirm the presence of ammonia gas.
Answer
Damp red litmus paper turns blue in ammonia gas (ammonia is alkaline).
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why chlorine can displace bromine from potassium bromide solution, and write the ionic equation.
Answer
Chlorine is more reactive (a stronger oxidising agent) than bromine, so it removes electrons from bromide ions: Cl₂ + 2Br⁻ → 2Cl⁻ + Br₂.
Q4[6 marks]
Nitrogen and sulfur form important oxides and acids.
Explain why oxides of nitrogen and sulfur cause acid rain. [3]
State the equation for the reaction between sulfur dioxide and water. [1]
State one environmental effect of acid rain. [2]
Mark scheme
Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released when fossil fuels burn[1]
They dissolve in rainwater[1]
forming acidic solutions (sulfurous/sulfuric and nitric acids)[1]
SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃[1]
Damages plants/forests, or acidifies lakes killing fish[1]
or corrodes buildings/limestone and metals (any valid effect)[1]
SO₂/NOₓ from burning fuels dissolve in rain forming acids; SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃; acid rain damages forests, lakes, buildings.
Q5[3 marks]
Chlorine is bubbled through separate solutions of potassium bromide and potassium iodide. State what you would observe in each and write one equation.
Answer
With potassium bromide the solution turns orange as bromine is displaced; with potassium iodide it turns brown as iodine is displaced. Chlorine is more reactive than both. Equation: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.
Q6[6 marks]
This question is about trends in the p-block.
Explain why the reactivity of the halogens decreases down Group 17. [3]
Explain the inert pair effect and illustrate it with lead. [3]
Mark scheme
Halogens react by gaining one electron[1]
down the group the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
so an electron is attracted/gained less easily — reactivity falls[1]
The inert pair effect is the reluctance of the outer s-electron pair to bond in heavier p-block elements[1]
so they favour an oxidation state two lower than the group maximum[1]
lead is more stable as Pb²⁺ than Pb⁴⁺[1]
Halogen reactivity falls down the group (electron gained less easily); the inert pair effect makes heavier elements like lead favour the lower (+2) state.
12
Nitrogen and sulfur
Multiple choice · 8
Q1Down a group in the p-block, elements become:
Amore non-metallic
Bmore metallic
Cmore gaseous
Dmore radioactive
Show answer
Correct answer: B — more metallic
Larger atoms hold outer electrons more loosely, so metallic character increases down a group.
Q2Which Group 14 element is a non-metal with several allotropes?
Alead
Btin
Csilicon
Dcarbon
Show answer
Correct answer: D — carbon
Carbon is the non-metal at the top of Group 14, with allotropes diamond, graphite, graphene and fullerenes.
Q3Nitrogen gas (N₂) is unreactive mainly because of its:
Alow mass
Bstrong triple bond
Cmetallic character
Dhigh electronegativity alone
Show answer
Correct answer: B — strong triple bond
The N≡N triple bond is very strong, so breaking N₂ apart needs a lot of energy.
Q4The most-produced industrial chemical, made from a Group 16 element, is:
Anitric acid
Bsulfuric acid
Cammonia
Dhydrochloric acid
Show answer
Correct answer: B — sulfuric acid
Sulfuric acid (from sulfur) is the highest-tonnage industrial chemical.
Q5The first element of each p-block group is anomalous partly because it:
Ais a metal
Blacks available d orbitals and is small
Chas the most shells
Dis radioactive
Show answer
Correct answer: B — lacks available d orbitals and is small
Being small, very electronegative and without accessible d orbitals limits its bonding, unlike the elements below it.
Q6SiO₂ melts far higher than CO₂ because SiO₂ is:
Aionic
Ba giant covalent network
Cmetallic
Dmade of small molecules
Show answer
Correct answer: B — a giant covalent network
SiO₂ is a giant covalent lattice; melting it breaks strong covalent bonds, unlike molecular CO₂.
Q7Down Group 17, the oxidising power of the halogens:
Aincreases
Bdecreases
Cstays constant
Dpeaks at bromine
Show answer
Correct answer: B — decreases
Gaining an electron gets harder down the group, so oxidising power decreases.
Q8Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and alkalis, so it is described as:
Abasic
Bacidic
Camphoteric
Dneutral
Show answer
Correct answer: C — amphoteric
An oxide that reacts with both acids and bases is amphoteric.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
State and explain the trend in reactivity down Group 17 (the halogens).
Answer
Reactivity decreases down the group because the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded, so it is harder to attract an electron.
Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test to confirm the presence of ammonia gas.
Answer
Damp red litmus paper turns blue in ammonia gas (ammonia is alkaline).
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why chlorine can displace bromine from potassium bromide solution, and write the ionic equation.
Answer
Chlorine is more reactive (a stronger oxidising agent) than bromine, so it removes electrons from bromide ions: Cl₂ + 2Br⁻ → 2Cl⁻ + Br₂.
Q4[6 marks]
Nitrogen and sulfur form important oxides and acids.
Explain why oxides of nitrogen and sulfur cause acid rain. [3]
State the equation for the reaction between sulfur dioxide and water. [1]
State one environmental effect of acid rain. [2]
Mark scheme
Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released when fossil fuels burn[1]
They dissolve in rainwater[1]
forming acidic solutions (sulfurous/sulfuric and nitric acids)[1]
SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃[1]
Damages plants/forests, or acidifies lakes killing fish[1]
or corrodes buildings/limestone and metals (any valid effect)[1]
SO₂/NOₓ from burning fuels dissolve in rain forming acids; SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃; acid rain damages forests, lakes, buildings.
Q5[3 marks]
Chlorine is bubbled through separate solutions of potassium bromide and potassium iodide. State what you would observe in each and write one equation.
Answer
With potassium bromide the solution turns orange as bromine is displaced; with potassium iodide it turns brown as iodine is displaced. Chlorine is more reactive than both. Equation: Cl₂ + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br₂.
Q6[6 marks]
This question is about trends in the p-block.
Explain why the reactivity of the halogens decreases down Group 17. [3]
Explain the inert pair effect and illustrate it with lead. [3]
Mark scheme
Halogens react by gaining one electron[1]
down the group the outer shell is further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
so an electron is attracted/gained less easily — reactivity falls[1]
The inert pair effect is the reluctance of the outer s-electron pair to bond in heavier p-block elements[1]
so they favour an oxidation state two lower than the group maximum[1]
lead is more stable as Pb²⁺ than Pb⁴⁺[1]
Halogen reactivity falls down the group (electron gained less easily); the inert pair effect makes heavier elements like lead favour the lower (+2) state.
13
An introduction to AS Level organic chemistry
Multiple choice · 10
Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:
Acolour
Bfunctional group and general formula
Cmelting point
Dmolar mass
Show answer
Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula
Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.
Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:
Acarbon skeleton length
Bfunctional group
Ccolour
Dmolar mass
Show answer
Correct answer: B — functional group
The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.
Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:
Athe same compound
Bstructural isomers
Cgeometric isomers
Ddifferent elements
Show answer
Correct answer: B — structural isomers
Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.
Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:
Atwo ions
Bfree radicals
Ca nucleophile only
Dno products
Show answer
Correct answer: B — free radicals
An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.
Q5A nucleophile is a species that:
Aaccepts an electron pair
Bdonates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
Cis always positively charged
Dcontains no electrons
Show answer
Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.
Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.
Asubstitution
Baddition
Celimination
Dcombustion
Show answer
Correct answer: B — addition
Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.
Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:
Aelectron-poor and attacks C=C
Belectron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
Ca free radical
Dalways positively charged
Show answer
Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.
Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:
Aa chiral centre
Ba C=C double bond with no rotation
Ca benzene ring
Dan ionic bond
Show answer
Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation
Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.
Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?
AKCN in ethanol
Bwarm aqueous NaOH
Cacidified dichromate
Dconcentrated H₂SO₄
Show answer
Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH
Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.
Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:
Asodium hydroxide
Bpotassium cyanide
Cammonia
Dwater
Show answer
Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide
Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.
Exam-style questions · 7
Q1[2 marks]
Define the terms structural isomers.
Answer
Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.
Q2[2 marks]
Give the IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH₂CH₂OH and state its functional group.
Answer
Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).
Q3[3 marks]
Distinguish between homolytic and heterolytic bond fission, naming the species formed.
Answer
In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.
Q4[6 marks]
Organic reactions are classified by the type of change and the attacking species.
Explain the difference between an electrophile and a nucleophile. [2]
State the type of reaction (addition, substitution or elimination) when: bromine reacts with ethene; and a haloalkane forms an alkene with hot alcoholic KOH. [2]
Explain what is meant by a functional group. [2]
Mark scheme
An electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor species)[1]
A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich species)[1]
Bromine + ethene is an addition reaction[1]
Haloalkane with hot alcoholic KOH is an elimination reaction[1]
A functional group is the atom or group of atoms[1]
that gives a molecule its characteristic chemical properties[1]
Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.
Q5[2 marks]
Explain why but-2-ene shows cis–trans isomerism but butane does not.
Answer
But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.
Q6[6 marks]
Organic reactions can be classified by mechanism.
Define the terms nucleophile and electrophile. [2]
State the type of species that attacks, and the reaction type, when: (i) bromine reacts with ethene; (ii) hydroxide reacts with bromoethane. [4]
Mark scheme
A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich)[1]
an electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor)[1]
(i) Bromine acts as an electrophile[1]
in an electrophilic addition to the C=C double bond[1]
(ii) Hydroxide acts as a nucleophile[1]
in a nucleophilic substitution of the haloalkane[1]
Describe the test to distinguish ethane from ethene, giving the result for each.
Answer
Add bromine water: ethene (an alkene) decolourises it from orange to colourless; ethane (an alkane) leaves it orange (no reaction).
Q6[6 marks]
Ethene (C₂H₄) is an important product of cracking.
Explain what cracking is and why it is done. [3]
Ethene undergoes addition polymerisation. Describe what this means and name the product. [3]
Mark scheme
Cracking breaks long-chain hydrocarbons into shorter ones[1]
using heat and a catalyst[1]
to make more useful small molecules (fuels) and alkenes for plastics[1]
Many ethene monomers (with C=C double bonds) join together[1]
the double bonds open and link into a long chain, with no other product[1]
The product is poly(ethene)[1]
Cracking breaks long hydrocarbons (heat + catalyst) into useful short molecules and alkenes; addition polymerisation joins many ethene monomers into poly(ethene).
Q7[3 marks]
Methane reacts with chlorine in ultraviolet light. Name the type of mechanism and write the initiation and the two propagation steps.
Name the mechanism and describe the role of the C=C double bond. [2]
Explain, using Markovnikov's rule, which product forms in the greater amount. [4]
Mark scheme
The mechanism is electrophilic addition[1]
the electron-rich C=C double bond attracts the electrophile (the δ+ H of HBr)[1]
The H can add to either carbon, giving either a secondary or a primary carbocation[1]
the secondary carbocation is more stable than the primary[1]
so the H adds to the terminal (CH₂) carbon (Markovnikov's rule)[1]
giving mainly 2-bromobutane[1]
Electrophilic addition; the C=C attracts the electrophile; via the more stable secondary carbocation the major product is 2-bromobutane.
Q9[3 marks]
Ethanol can be made by fermentation. Give the equation, the conditions, and one advantage of this method over hydration of ethene.
Answer
C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂, using yeast at about 30 °C in the absence of air. An advantage is that it uses a renewable resource (sugar/plant crops) rather than crude oil.
Q10[6 marks]
Ethanol, ethanoic acid and their reactions are important in the O Level organic chapter.
Describe how ethanoic acid can be made from ethanol. [2]
State what you would observe when ethanoic acid is added to magnesium, and write the equation. [2]
Name the ester and other product formed when ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, and state the catalyst. [2]
Mark scheme
Oxidise the ethanol with acidified potassium dichromate (warm/reflux)[1]
(or ferment ethanol in air) to give ethanoic acid[1]
The magnesium fizzes / dissolves, giving off hydrogen gas[1]
Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂[1]
Ethyl ethanoate is formed, plus water[1]
using a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]
Oxidise ethanol → ethanoic acid; with magnesium it fizzes giving H₂ (Mg + 2CH₃COOH → (CH₃COO)₂Mg + H₂); with ethanol it makes ethyl ethanoate + water (conc. H₂SO₄ catalyst).
15
Halogen compounds
Multiple choice · 10
Q1The reactive site of a haloalkane is the carbon bonded to the halogen because it is:
Aslightly negative
Bslightly positive (δ+)
Ca free radical
Daromatic
Show answer
Correct answer: B — slightly positive (δ+)
The polar C–X bond leaves that carbon electron-poor (δ+), attracting nucleophiles.
Q2Reacting bromoethane with warm aqueous NaOH gives:
Aethene
Bethanol
Cethane
Dethanoic acid
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ethanol
Aqueous hydroxide substitutes for the bromine — nucleophilic substitution to ethanol.
Q3Hot ethanolic NaOH with a haloalkane favours:
Asubstitution
Belimination (to an alkene)
Cno reaction
Dcombustion
Show answer
Correct answer: B — elimination (to an alkene)
Hot alcoholic base removes HX, forming a double bond — elimination.
Q4A secondary amine has how many carbon groups on nitrogen?
Aone
Btwo
Cthree
Dnone
Show answer
Correct answer: B — two
Primary = 1, secondary = 2, tertiary = 3 carbon groups on the nitrogen.
Q5Amines act as bases because the nitrogen:
Ais positively charged
Bhas a lone pair that accepts H⁺
Chas no electrons
Dis a halogen
Show answer
Correct answer: B — has a lone pair that accepts H⁺
Nitrogen's lone pair accepts a proton, so amines are proton acceptors — bases.
Q6Reacting a haloalkane with ammonia produces a(n):
Aalkene
Bamine
Ccarboxylic acid
Dalcohol
Show answer
Correct answer: B — amine
Ammonia's lone pair substitutes onto the carbon, displacing the halogen to form an amine.
Q7Reacting a haloalkane with potassium cyanide produces a nitrile, which is useful because it:
Ashortens the chain
Badds a carbon atom to the chain
Cremoves the halogen only
Dforms a ring
Show answer
Correct answer: B — adds a carbon atom to the chain
The CN group adds one carbon, lengthening the carbon chain.
The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.
Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:
ASN1
BSN2
Celimination only
Daddition
Show answer
Correct answer: B — SN2
The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.
Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:
Afree radical
Bcarbocation intermediate
Ccarbanion
Dsingle concerted step
Show answer
Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate
In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.
Exam-style questions · 7
Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the carbon–halogen bond in a haloalkane is the site of attack by nucleophiles.
Answer
The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.
Q2[2 marks]
State the product and reaction type when bromoethane is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Answer
Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases.
Answer
The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).
Q4[6 marks]
Bromoethane can react in two different ways depending on conditions.
State the reagent and conditions for converting bromoethane to ethene, and name the reaction type. [3]
State the reagent for converting bromoethane to ethylamine, and name the reaction type. [3]
Mark scheme
Hot ethanolic (alcoholic) potassium hydroxide[1]
under reflux / heat[1]
This is elimination (loss of HBr forms the C=C)[1]
Explain why amines act as bases, and give the product when ethylamine reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Answer
The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).
Q6[6 marks]
Bromoethane can be converted into several products by nucleophilic substitution.
State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to ethanol. [2]
State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to a nitrile, and why this is useful. [2]
Explain why iodoethane reacts faster than bromoethane. [2]
Mark scheme
Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide (or water)[1]
gives ethanol[1]
Potassium cyanide (in ethanol) gives propanenitrile[1]
useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]
The C–I bond is weaker than C–Br[1]
so it breaks more easily, making iodoethane react faster[1]
OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.
Q7[6 marks]
Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkanes can follow an SN1 or an SN2 mechanism.
Describe the SN2 mechanism and the type of haloalkane it favours. [3]
Describe the SN1 mechanism and explain why tertiary haloalkanes favour it. [3]
Mark scheme
In SN2 the nucleophile attacks the δ+ carbon as the halogen leaves[1]
in a single concerted step[1]
favoured by primary haloalkanes (the carbon is easy to approach)[1]
In SN1 the halogen leaves first to form a carbocation[1]
then the nucleophile attacks the carbocation[1]
tertiary haloalkanes form a stable tertiary carbocation, so this route is favoured[1]
SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).
16
Hydroxy compounds
Multiple choice · 8
Q1A primary alcohol is fully oxidised to a:
Aketone
Bcarboxylic acid
Calkene
Dnothing
Show answer
Correct answer: B — carboxylic acid
Primary → aldehyde → carboxylic acid; secondary stops at a ketone; tertiary does not oxidise.
Q2A secondary alcohol oxidises to a:
Acarboxylic acid
Bketone
Caldehyde only, then stops
Dphenol
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ketone
Secondary alcohols oxidise to ketones and no further.
Q3A tertiary alcohol warmed with acidified dichromate:
Aturns it green
Bdoes not react (stays orange)
Cexplodes
Dforms an ester
Show answer
Correct answer: B — does not react (stays orange)
There is no hydrogen on the OH carbon to remove, so it resists oxidation and the dichromate stays orange.
Q4Alcohols have relatively high boiling points because they:
Aare ionic
Bhydrogen-bond
Care large
Dcontain metals
Show answer
Correct answer: B — hydrogen-bond
The O–H group forms hydrogen bonds between molecules, raising the boiling point.
Q5Phenol differs from an ordinary alcohol in that it is:
Abasic
Bweakly acidic
Cunreactive
Da gas
Show answer
Correct answer: B — weakly acidic
The benzene ring stabilises the anion, so phenol loses H⁺ and is weakly acidic (reacts with NaOH).
Q6An alcohol reacting with a carboxylic acid forms an:
Aether
Bester (+ water)
Camine
Dalkane
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ester (+ water)
Esterification gives a sweet-smelling ester and water.
Q7Dehydrating ethanol over a hot catalyst produces:
Aethane
Bethene
Cethanoic acid
Dan ester
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ethene
Dehydration removes water from the alcohol, forming the alkene ethene by elimination.
Q8Which reagent reacts with a carboxylic acid but NOT with phenol?
Asodium hydroxide
Bsodium carbonate
Cwater
Dbromine
Show answer
Correct answer: B — sodium carbonate
A carboxylic acid is strong enough to fizz with a carbonate; phenol is too weak, so carbonate distinguishes them.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Classify butan-2-ol as a primary, secondary or tertiary alcohol and justify your answer.
Answer
Secondary — the carbon bearing the –OH group is attached to two other carbon atoms.
Q2[2 marks]
State the products of oxidising a primary alcohol with acidified potassium dichromate.
Answer
First an aldehyde, then on further oxidation a carboxylic acid; the dichromate turns from orange to green.
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why phenol is acidic but ethanol is essentially neutral.
Answer
When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring, stabilising the ion, so H⁺ is released. Ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺.
Q4[6 marks]
Three alcohols — propan-1-ol, propan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol — are each warmed with acidified potassium dichromate.
State the product (if any) from each alcohol. [3]
Describe the colour change seen for those that react. [1]
Explain why the tertiary alcohol does not react. [2]
Mark scheme
Propan-1-ol (primary) → propanal then propanoic acid[1]
Propan-2-ol (secondary) → propanone (a ketone)[1]
2-methylpropan-2-ol (tertiary) → no reaction[1]
Those that react turn the dichromate from orange to green[1]
The tertiary alcohol has no hydrogen on the carbon bearing the –OH[1]
so there is nothing for the oxidising agent to remove[1]
1° → aldehyde/acid, 2° → ketone, 3° → no reaction (orange→green for the first two); tertiary resists because there is no H on the OH carbon.
Q5[2 marks]
Give one advantage of making ethanol by hydration of ethene rather than by fermentation.
Answer
Hydration is a fast, continuous process that gives pure ethanol directly, whereas fermentation is slow, works in batches and produces a dilute impure mixture that must be distilled.
Q6[6 marks]
Phenol and ethanol both contain an –OH group but behave differently.
Explain why phenol is weakly acidic while ethanol is essentially neutral. [3]
Describe a chemical test, with results, that distinguishes phenol from a carboxylic acid. [3]
Mark scheme
When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring[1]
this stabilises the phenoxide ion, so H⁺ is released — weakly acidic[1]
ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺[1]
Add sodium carbonate solution to each[1]
the carboxylic acid fizzes, releasing CO₂[1]
phenol shows no reaction (too weak an acid)[1]
Phenol is acidic because the ring stabilises the phenoxide ion; ethanol's is not. Sodium carbonate fizzes with a carboxylic acid but not with phenol.
17
Carbonyl compounds
Multiple choice · 8
Q1In a ketone, the carbonyl group is:
Aat the end of the chain
Bin the middle, between two carbon groups
Cabsent
Dbonded to a halogen
Show answer
Correct answer: B — in the middle, between two carbon groups
A ketone has C=O in the middle (R–CO–R); an aldehyde has it at the end (–CHO).
Q2The characteristic reaction of aldehydes and ketones is nucleophilic:
Asubstitution
Baddition
Celimination
Dcombustion
Show answer
Correct answer: B — addition
The polar C=O has a δ+ carbon that nucleophiles add to — nucleophilic addition.
Q3Which is readily oxidised to a carboxylic acid?
Aa ketone
Ban aldehyde
Cboth equally
Dneither
Show answer
Correct answer: B — an aldehyde
Aldehydes have a terminal C–H and oxidise to acids; ketones resist oxidation.
Q4A silver mirror with Tollens' reagent indicates a(n):
Aketone
Baldehyde
Calcohol
Dalkane
Show answer
Correct answer: B — aldehyde
Only an aldehyde reduces the silver ions to a silver mirror.
Q5Fehling's solution with a ketone:
Aturns brick-red
Bstays blue
Cturns green
Dforms a mirror
Show answer
Correct answer: B — stays blue
Ketones do not reduce Fehling's, so it stays blue; aldehydes give a brick-red precipitate.
Q6Reducing a ketone gives a:
Aprimary alcohol
Bsecondary alcohol
Ccarboxylic acid
Daldehyde
Show answer
Correct answer: B — secondary alcohol
A ketone reduces to a secondary alcohol (the reverse of secondary-alcohol oxidation).
Q7Adding HCN to propanone is an example of:
Aoxidation
Bnucleophilic addition
Celectrophilic substitution
Delimination
Show answer
Correct answer: B — nucleophilic addition
The cyanide nucleophile adds to the δ+ carbonyl carbon — nucleophilic addition, giving a hydroxynitrile.
Q8An orange precipitate with 2,4-DNPH but no reaction with Tollens' reagent indicates a:
Acarboxylic acid
Bketone
Caldehyde
Dalcohol
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ketone
2,4-DNPH confirms a carbonyl; no silver mirror with Tollens' means it is a ketone, not an aldehyde.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
State the difference in structure between an aldehyde and a ketone.
Answer
Both contain the carbonyl group C=O; in an aldehyde it is at the end of the chain (–CHO), in a ketone it is in the middle, bonded to two carbon groups.
Q2[2 marks]
Describe a chemical test that distinguishes an aldehyde from a ketone.
Answer
Warm with Tollens' reagent: an aldehyde forms a silver mirror; a ketone gives no change.
Q3[3 marks]
State the type of reaction and the product when propanal is reduced.
Answer
Reduction (e.g. with NaBH₄) gives propan-1-ol; the carbonyl C=O is reduced to a C–OH group (a primary alcohol).
Q4[6 marks]
A student has two unlabelled bottles, one containing propanal and one containing propanone.
Describe the result of adding Fehling's solution to each, on warming. [3]
State the characteristic reaction type of the carbonyl group and why the carbon is attacked. [3]
Mark scheme
Propanal (aldehyde) gives a positive result[1]
the blue solution forms a brick-red precipitate[1]
Propanone (ketone) gives no change (stays blue)[1]
The characteristic reaction is nucleophilic addition[1]
The C=O bond is polar with a δ+ carbon[1]
so nucleophiles are attracted to and attack the carbonyl carbon[1]
Aldehyde → brick-red precipitate with Fehling's; ketone → stays blue; carbonyl undergoes nucleophilic addition at its δ+ carbon.
Q5[2 marks]
State the reagent and the products when propanal and propanone are each reduced.
Answer
Reduction (e.g. with NaBH₄): propanal (an aldehyde) gives propan-1-ol (a primary alcohol); propanone (a ketone) gives propan-2-ol (a secondary alcohol).
Q6[6 marks]
A student has two unlabelled liquids: one is an aldehyde, the other a ketone.
Describe a test that shows both are carbonyl compounds. [2]
Describe a test, with results, that distinguishes the aldehyde from the ketone. [4]
Mark scheme
Add 2,4-DNPH (Brady's reagent) to each[1]
both give an orange precipitate, confirming a carbonyl group[1]
Warm each with Tollens' reagent (ammoniacal silver nitrate)[1]
the aldehyde forms a silver mirror[1]
the ketone gives no change[1]
(alternatively Fehling's: aldehyde gives a brick-red precipitate, ketone stays blue)[1]
2,4-DNPH gives an orange precipitate with both (carbonyl present); Tollens' gives a silver mirror only with the aldehyde.
18
Carboxylic acids and derivatives
Multiple choice · 8
Q1The functional group of a carboxylic acid is:
A–OH
B–CHO
C–COOH
D–NH₂
Show answer
Correct answer: C — –COOH
The carboxyl group –COOH (a carbonyl plus a hydroxyl on one carbon) defines carboxylic acids.
Q2Carboxylic acids are:
Astrong acids
Bweak acids
Cbases
Dneutral
Show answer
Correct answer: B — weak acids
They only partly ionise in water — weak acids — though the stabilised carboxylate makes them acidic at all.
Q3A carboxylic acid added to a carbonate produces:
Asalt + hydrogen
Bsalt + water + carbon dioxide
Can ester
Dno reaction
Show answer
Correct answer: B — salt + water + carbon dioxide
Acid + carbonate → salt + water + CO₂; the fizz (CO₂) confirms a carboxylic acid.
Q4Esterification combines a carboxylic acid with a(n):
Esters have pleasant fruity smells and are used as flavourings and perfumes.
Q6Why is a carboxylic acid acidic but an alcohol is not?
Ait has more carbons
Bthe carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation
Cit contains a metal
Dit is a gas
Show answer
Correct answer: B — the carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation
Spreading the negative charge over both oxygens stabilises the ion, so the H⁺ is lost more readily.
Q7The most reactive derivative of a carboxylic acid, used to make the others, is the:
Aester
Bamide
Cacyl chloride
Dsalt
Show answer
Correct answer: C — acyl chloride
Acyl chlorides are the most reactive derivative and are used to prepare esters and amides.
Q8Boiling a fat with sodium hydroxide to make soap is called:
Aesterification
Bsaponification
Chydrogenation
Dpolymerisation
Show answer
Correct answer: B — saponification
Alkaline hydrolysis of a fat (an ester) to make soap is saponification.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Name the functional group in a carboxylic acid and state whether such acids are strong or weak.
Answer
The carboxyl group, –COOH; carboxylic acids are weak acids (only partly ionised in water).
Q2[2 marks]
Give the products and observation when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
Answer
Sodium ethanoate, water and carbon dioxide are formed; effervescence (fizzing) is seen.
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why a carboxylic acid is more acidic than the corresponding alcohol.
Answer
When a carboxylic acid loses H⁺, the negative charge on the carboxylate ion is delocalised over both oxygen atoms, stabilising it; an alcohol's anion is not stabilised in this way.
Q4[6 marks]
Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of a little concentrated sulfuric acid.
Name the type of reaction and the organic product. [2]
Write the equation for the reaction. [2]
State the role of the concentrated sulfuric acid, and one use of the product. [2]
Mark scheme
The reaction is esterification (condensation)[1]
The product is ethyl ethanoate (an ester)[1]
CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
balanced with water as the other product[1]
The sulfuric acid is a catalyst (and dehydrating agent)[1]
Esters are used as flavourings / perfumes / solvents (any one)[1]
Esterification → ethyl ethanoate; CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O; H₂SO₄ is the catalyst; esters used as flavourings/perfumes/solvents.
Q5[2 marks]
Name the ester formed from ethanoic acid and propan-1-ol, and state the catalyst used.
Answer
Propyl ethanoate, formed with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst (which also removes water).
Q6[6 marks]
Esters can be made from carboxylic acids and hydrolysed back again.
Write the equation and conditions for making ethyl ethanoate from ethanoic acid and ethanol. [3]
State the products of hydrolysing ethyl ethanoate with (i) dilute acid and (ii) sodium hydroxide. [3]
Mark scheme
CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
conditions: warm with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]
The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.
Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:
ASN1
BSN2
Celimination only
Daddition
Show answer
Correct answer: B — SN2
The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.
Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:
Afree radical
Bcarbocation intermediate
Ccarbanion
Dsingle concerted step
Show answer
Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate
In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.
Exam-style questions · 7
Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the carbon–halogen bond in a haloalkane is the site of attack by nucleophiles.
Answer
The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.
Q2[2 marks]
State the product and reaction type when bromoethane is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Answer
Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases.
Answer
The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).
Q4[6 marks]
Bromoethane can react in two different ways depending on conditions.
State the reagent and conditions for converting bromoethane to ethene, and name the reaction type. [3]
State the reagent for converting bromoethane to ethylamine, and name the reaction type. [3]
Mark scheme
Hot ethanolic (alcoholic) potassium hydroxide[1]
under reflux / heat[1]
This is elimination (loss of HBr forms the C=C)[1]
Explain why amines act as bases, and give the product when ethylamine reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Answer
The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).
Q6[6 marks]
Bromoethane can be converted into several products by nucleophilic substitution.
State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to ethanol. [2]
State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to a nitrile, and why this is useful. [2]
Explain why iodoethane reacts faster than bromoethane. [2]
Mark scheme
Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide (or water)[1]
gives ethanol[1]
Potassium cyanide (in ethanol) gives propanenitrile[1]
useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]
The C–I bond is weaker than C–Br[1]
so it breaks more easily, making iodoethane react faster[1]
OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.
Q7[6 marks]
Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkanes can follow an SN1 or an SN2 mechanism.
Describe the SN2 mechanism and the type of haloalkane it favours. [3]
Describe the SN1 mechanism and explain why tertiary haloalkanes favour it. [3]
Mark scheme
In SN2 the nucleophile attacks the δ+ carbon as the halogen leaves[1]
in a single concerted step[1]
favoured by primary haloalkanes (the carbon is easy to approach)[1]
In SN1 the halogen leaves first to form a carbocation[1]
then the nucleophile attacks the carbocation[1]
tertiary haloalkanes form a stable tertiary carbocation, so this route is favoured[1]
SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).
20
Polymerisation
Multiple choice · 10
Q1The building blocks of proteins are:
Amonosaccharides
Bamino acids
Cfatty acids
Dnucleotides
Show answer
Correct answer: B — amino acids
Amino acids join by peptide bonds into protein chains; monosaccharides build carbohydrates and fatty acids build lipids.
Q2Which is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?
AGlucose
BStarch
CCellulose
DGlycerol
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Starch
Starch stores energy in plants; cellulose (also a polysaccharide) is structural, and glucose is the monosaccharide unit.
Q3A protein loses its function when heated strongly because it:
Agains energy
Bdenatures (loses its shape)
Cturns into a carbohydrate
Ddissolves
Show answer
Correct answer: B — denatures (loses its shape)
Heat unfolds the protein's precise shape — denaturing — and the shape is what its function depends on.
Q4Lipids differ from carbohydrates in that they:
Astore more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
Bare made of amino acids
Cdissolve easily in water
Dcannot store energy
Show answer
Correct answer: A — store more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
Fats and oils pack more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are water-insoluble; they also form membranes and insulation.
Q5An enzyme is best described as a:
Acarbohydrate that stores energy
Bbiological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
Ctype of lipid
Dsource of quick energy
Show answer
Correct answer: B — biological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
Enzymes are protein catalysts, each shaped to fit one substrate (lock and key), speeding a reaction without being used up.
Q6Enzyme activity falls sharply far from its optimum pH because the enzyme:
Aruns out
Bdenatures
Cbecomes a substrate
Dgains energy
Show answer
Correct answer: B — denatures
As a protein, an extreme pH unfolds (denatures) the enzyme, destroying the shape it needs to work.
Q7Monomers join to form a polymer in a reaction that releases water. This is:
Ahydrolysis
Bcondensation
Ccombustion
Doxidation
Show answer
Correct answer: B — condensation
Condensation joins monomers and releases a small molecule such as water; hydrolysis is the reverse.
Q8A brick-red precipitate on warming with Benedict's solution shows the presence of:
Astarch
Bprotein
Ca reducing sugar
Da lipid
Show answer
Correct answer: C — a reducing sugar
Benedict's solution turns from blue to brick-red with a reducing sugar such as glucose.
Q9An amino acid normally exists as a zwitterion because:
Ait has two amino groups
Ba proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
Cit is non-polar
Dit contains a benzene ring
Show answer
Correct answer: B — a proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
The acidic –COOH donates a proton to the basic –NH₂, giving a species with + and − charges but no net charge.
Q10At a pH below its isoelectric point, an amino acid will be:
Anegatively charged
Bpositively charged
Cneutral zwitterion only
Duncharged
Show answer
Correct answer: B — positively charged
In more acidic conditions it gains H⁺ on the –COO⁻, giving an overall positive charge.
Exam-style questions · 7
Q1[2 marks]
Name the three main classes of nutrients that are large biological molecules, and the smaller units each is built from.
Answer
Carbohydrates (from simple sugars), proteins (from amino acids) and fats/lipids (from fatty acids and glycerol).
Q2[2 marks]
Describe the test for a protein and its positive result.
Answer
Add biuret reagent (sodium hydroxide then copper(II) sulfate solution); a positive result is a colour change from blue to purple/violet.
Q3[3 marks]
Explain what happens when a carbohydrate such as starch is digested, and why enzymes are needed.
Answer
Starch is broken down (hydrolysed) into simple sugars such as glucose. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up this reaction at body temperature, which would otherwise be far too slow.
Q4[6 marks]
Enzymes control the reactions in living organisms.
Explain what is meant by an enzyme being a catalyst. [2]
Describe and explain the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity up to and beyond the optimum. [4]
Mark scheme
It speeds up a reaction[1]
without being used up / by lowering the activation energy[1]
As temperature rises up to the optimum, activity increases[1]
because particles collide more frequently and with more energy[1]
Above the optimum, activity falls sharply[1]
because the enzyme is denatured — its shape (active site) changes so substrate no longer fits[1]
Catalyst = speeds a reaction without being used up; activity rises to an optimum then falls as the enzyme denatures (active site changes shape).
Q5[2 marks]
Explain the difference between condensation and hydrolysis reactions in biological molecules.
Answer
Condensation joins two monomers together and releases a small molecule (usually water), building a polymer. Hydrolysis is the reverse: it adds water to split a polymer back into its monomers, as in digestion.
Q6[6 marks]
A student is given an unknown food sample to analyse.
Describe the tests for starch and for protein, with their positive results. [4]
The sample gives a cloudy emulsion in the emulsion test. What does this show, and how is the test carried out? [2]
Mark scheme
Starch: add iodine solution[1]
a blue-black colour is a positive result[1]
Protein: add biuret solution[1]
a purple/violet colour is a positive result[1]
A cloudy emulsion shows a lipid (fat) is present[1]
dissolve the sample in ethanol then add water — a cloudy white emulsion forms[1]
Starch → iodine blue-black; protein → biuret purple; lipid → cloudy emulsion (ethanol then water).
Q7[3 marks]
Explain what a zwitterion is and why amino acids can act as buffers.
Answer
A zwitterion is an amino acid that has transferred a proton internally from its –COOH to its –NH₂, giving –NH₃⁺ and –COO⁻ ends and no overall charge. It can accept H⁺ (onto –COO⁻) in acid and donate H⁺ (from –NH₃⁺) in alkali, so it resists pH change — acting as a buffer.
21
Organic synthesis
Multiple choice · 10
Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:
Acolour
Bfunctional group and general formula
Cmelting point
Dmolar mass
Show answer
Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula
Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.
Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:
Acarbon skeleton length
Bfunctional group
Ccolour
Dmolar mass
Show answer
Correct answer: B — functional group
The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.
Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:
Athe same compound
Bstructural isomers
Cgeometric isomers
Ddifferent elements
Show answer
Correct answer: B — structural isomers
Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.
Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:
Atwo ions
Bfree radicals
Ca nucleophile only
Dno products
Show answer
Correct answer: B — free radicals
An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.
Q5A nucleophile is a species that:
Aaccepts an electron pair
Bdonates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
Cis always positively charged
Dcontains no electrons
Show answer
Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.
Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.
Asubstitution
Baddition
Celimination
Dcombustion
Show answer
Correct answer: B — addition
Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.
Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:
Aelectron-poor and attacks C=C
Belectron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
Ca free radical
Dalways positively charged
Show answer
Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.
Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:
Aa chiral centre
Ba C=C double bond with no rotation
Ca benzene ring
Dan ionic bond
Show answer
Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation
Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.
Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?
AKCN in ethanol
Bwarm aqueous NaOH
Cacidified dichromate
Dconcentrated H₂SO₄
Show answer
Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH
Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.
Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:
Asodium hydroxide
Bpotassium cyanide
Cammonia
Dwater
Show answer
Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide
Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.
Exam-style questions · 7
Q1[2 marks]
Define the terms structural isomers.
Answer
Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.
Q2[2 marks]
Give the IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH₂CH₂OH and state its functional group.
Answer
Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).
Q3[3 marks]
Distinguish between homolytic and heterolytic bond fission, naming the species formed.
Answer
In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.
Q4[6 marks]
Organic reactions are classified by the type of change and the attacking species.
Explain the difference between an electrophile and a nucleophile. [2]
State the type of reaction (addition, substitution or elimination) when: bromine reacts with ethene; and a haloalkane forms an alkene with hot alcoholic KOH. [2]
Explain what is meant by a functional group. [2]
Mark scheme
An electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor species)[1]
A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich species)[1]
Bromine + ethene is an addition reaction[1]
Haloalkane with hot alcoholic KOH is an elimination reaction[1]
A functional group is the atom or group of atoms[1]
that gives a molecule its characteristic chemical properties[1]
Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.
Q5[2 marks]
Explain why but-2-ene shows cis–trans isomerism but butane does not.
Answer
But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.
Q6[6 marks]
Organic reactions can be classified by mechanism.
Define the terms nucleophile and electrophile. [2]
State the type of species that attacks, and the reaction type, when: (i) bromine reacts with ethene; (ii) hydroxide reacts with bromoethane. [4]
Mark scheme
A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich)[1]
an electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor)[1]
(i) Bromine acts as an electrophile[1]
in an electrophilic addition to the C=C double bond[1]
(ii) Hydroxide acts as a nucleophile[1]
in a nucleophilic substitution of the haloalkane[1]
Q1In a mass spectrum, the relative molecular mass is given by the:
Atallest peak
Bmolecular ion peak (highest m/z)
Cfirst fragment
Dfingerprint region
Show answer
Correct answer: B — molecular ion peak (highest m/z)
The molecular ion M⁺, at the highest m/z ignoring isotope peaks, equals the relative molecular mass.
Q2Two peaks two m/z units apart in a roughly 3:1 ratio indicate the presence of:
Abromine
Bchlorine
Cnitrogen
Doxygen
Show answer
Correct answer: B — chlorine
Chlorine's ³⁵Cl and ³⁷Cl isotopes (about 3:1) give M and M+2 peaks in that ratio; bromine gives ~1:1.
Q3A strong infrared absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a:
AC–H bond
BC=O group
CC–C bond
Dlone pair
Show answer
Correct answer: B — C=O group
The carbonyl group C=O absorbs strongly around 1680–1750 cm⁻¹.
Q4A broad infrared absorption around 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ suggests a(n):
AC=C bond
BO–H group
Cmetal
Dnoble gas
Show answer
Correct answer: B — O–H group
A broad band at 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ is characteristic of the O–H of alcohols and carboxylic acids.
Q5The number of peaks in a ¹H NMR spectrum tells you the number of:
Acarbon atoms
Bdifferent hydrogen environments
Cdouble bonds
Disotopes
Show answer
Correct answer: B — different hydrogen environments
Each set of equivalent hydrogens (one environment) gives one signal.
Q6A ¹H NMR peak split into a triplet indicates how many hydrogens on the neighbouring carbon?
Aone
Btwo
Cthree
Dnone
Show answer
Correct answer: B — two
By the n+1 rule, a triplet (3 lines) means n = 2 neighbouring hydrogens.
Q7In thin-layer chromatography, the Rf value is:
Aalways greater than 1
Bdistance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent
Cthe retention time
Dthe boiling point
Show answer
Correct answer: B — distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent
Rf compares how far the spot moved with how far the solvent front moved; it is between 0 and 1.
Q8To identify an unknown organic compound fully, a chemist typically uses:
Amass spectrometry alone
BIR alone
CNMR alone
Dmass spec, IR and NMR together
Show answer
Correct answer: D — mass spec, IR and NMR together
Each technique gives different information; combined, they pin down the structure.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
State what the molecular ion peak in a mass spectrum tells you.
Answer
The mass/charge value of the molecular ion peak (highest m/z, ignoring isotope peaks) gives the relative molecular mass of the compound.
Q2[2 marks]
State what an infrared spectrum is used to identify, giving one example absorption.
Answer
It identifies bonds/functional groups present; for example a strong absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a C=O group (or a broad band ~3300 cm⁻¹ indicates O–H).
Q3[3 marks]
In a ¹H NMR spectrum, state what the number of peaks, the integration, and the splitting each tell you.
Answer
Number of peaks = number of different hydrogen environments; integration (area) = the ratio of hydrogens in each environment; splitting = the number of hydrogens on neighbouring carbons (n+1 lines for n neighbours).
Q4[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 46, a broad IR absorption around 3300 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows three peaks.
State the relative molecular mass of X. [1]
State what the broad IR absorption at 3300 cm⁻¹ suggests. [1]
Explain what "three peaks" in the ¹H NMR tells you, and deduce the identity of X. [4]
Mark scheme
Relative molecular mass = 46[1]
The broad ~3300 cm⁻¹ band suggests an O–H group (alcohol)[1]
Three peaks means three different hydrogen environments[1]
Ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH, has Mr 46[1]
It has three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH)[1]
so X is ethanol[1]
Mr = 46; O–H group present; three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH) → X is ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH.
Q5[2 marks]
In a TLC experiment, a spot moves 3.6 cm while the solvent front moves 4.8 cm. Calculate its Rf value.
Answer
Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent = 3.6 ÷ 4.8 = 0.75.
Q6[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 60, a strong IR absorption at 1710 cm⁻¹ and a broad one at 3000 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows two peaks.
State the relative molecular mass and the functional group(s) suggested by the IR. [2]
State what two ¹H NMR peaks tell you. [1]
Deduce the identity of X and justify it. [3]
Mark scheme
Relative molecular mass = 60[1]
1710 cm⁻¹ suggests C=O and the broad 3000 cm⁻¹ suggests the O–H of a carboxylic acid[1]
Two peaks means two hydrogen environments[1]
A carboxylic acid of Mr 60 is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH[1]
it has two H environments (CH₃ and COOH)[1]
and contains both C=O and O–H, matching the IR — so X is ethanoic acid[1]
Mr = 60; C=O + O–H (carboxylic acid); two H environments → X is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH.
23
Chemical energetics (A Level)
Multiple choice · 8
Q1ΔH for an exothermic reaction is:
Apositive
Bnegative
Czero
Dalways 1
Show answer
Correct answer: B — negative
Exothermic reactions release heat, so the enthalpy change is negative.
Q2Hess's law works because enthalpy is:
Aalways positive
Ba state function (route-independent)
Cmeasured directly
Dthe same as temperature
Show answer
Correct answer: B — a state function (route-independent)
Enthalpy depends only on start and end states, so the total ΔH is independent of the path.
Q3The standard enthalpy of formation of O₂(g) is:
Aa large negative number
Bzero
Cpositive
Dunknown
Show answer
Correct answer: B — zero
An element in its standard state has ΔHf° = 0 by definition.
Q4In q = mcΔT, c is the:
Anumber of moles
Bspecific heat capacity
Cconcentration
Dspeed of the reaction
Show answer
Correct answer: B — specific heat capacity
c is the specific heat capacity — the heat needed to raise 1 g of the substance by 1 °C.
Q5If a reaction has ΔH = −200 kJ, the reverse reaction has ΔH =
A−200 kJ
B+200 kJ
C0
D−400 kJ
Show answer
Correct answer: B — +200 kJ
Reversing a reaction reverses the sign of its enthalpy change.
Q6Heat released warms 200 g of water by 10 °C (c = 4.18). The heat is about:
A0.84 kJ
B8.4 kJ
C84 kJ
D0.42 kJ
Show answer
Correct answer: B — 8.4 kJ
q = mcΔT = 200 × 4.18 × 10 = 8360 J ≈ 8.4 kJ.
Q7Using ΔH = Σ(bonds broken) − Σ(bonds made), a reaction is exothermic when:
Amore energy is absorbed breaking bonds than released making them
Bmore energy is released making bonds than absorbed breaking them
Cno bonds break
Dthe temperature falls
Show answer
Correct answer: B — more energy is released making bonds than absorbed breaking them
If bond-making releases more than bond-breaking absorbs, ΔH is negative — exothermic.
Q8Which ionic compound has the most exothermic lattice energy?
ANaCl
BKCl
CMgO
DKBr
Show answer
Correct answer: C — MgO
MgO has doubly-charged, small ions (Mg²⁺, O²⁻), giving the strongest electrostatic attraction and largest lattice energy.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Define the standard enthalpy change of reaction, ΔH.
Answer
The heat energy change for a reaction measured at standard conditions (298 K, 1 atm), with substances in their standard states.
Q2[3 marks]
State Hess's law and explain why it is useful.
Answer
The total enthalpy change of a reaction is independent of the route taken, provided the initial and final conditions are the same. It lets us calculate enthalpy changes that cannot be measured directly.
Q3[2 marks]
Write the expression used to calculate heat energy released when a solution's temperature changes (q = mcΔT), defining each term.
Answer
q = mcΔT, where q = heat energy, m = mass of solution, c = specific heat capacity, ΔT = temperature change.
Q4[7 marks]
Burning 0.50 g of ethanol raises the temperature of 100 g of water by 30 °C. (c of water = 4.2 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹; Mr ethanol = 46)
Calculate the heat energy released to the water. [2]
Calculate the number of moles of ethanol burned. [1]
Calculate the enthalpy change of combustion of ethanol in kJ/mol. [3]
Suggest why the experimental value is smaller in magnitude than the data-book value. [1]
Mark scheme
q = mcΔT = 100 × 4.2 × 30[1]
= 12600 J = 12.6 kJ[1]
Moles ethanol = 0.50 ÷ 46 = 0.0109 mol[1]
ΔH = energy ÷ moles = 12.6 ÷ 0.0109[1]
= 1156 kJ/mol (magnitude)[1]
ΔH is negative (exothermic): ≈ −1160 kJ/mol[1]
Heat is lost to the surroundings / incomplete combustion[1]
q = 12.6 kJ; 0.0109 mol; ΔH ≈ −1160 kJ/mol; lower magnitude due to heat loss / incomplete combustion.
Q5[3 marks]
For the reaction H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl, use the bond enthalpies H–H = 436, Cl–Cl = 242, H–Cl = 431 kJ/mol to calculate ΔH.
Magnesium oxide and sodium chloride are both ionic solids.
Define the term lattice energy. [2]
Explain why the lattice energy of magnesium oxide is much more exothermic than that of sodium chloride. [4]
Mark scheme
The energy released when gaseous ions[1]
combine to form one mole of solid ionic lattice[1]
MgO contains Mg²⁺ and O²⁻ ions with 2+ and 2− charges[1]
NaCl contains only 1+ and 1− ions[1]
the ions in MgO are also smaller[1]
higher charges and smaller radii give stronger electrostatic attraction, so a much larger (more exothermic) lattice energy[1]
Lattice energy = energy released forming a mole of lattice from gaseous ions; MgO's higher charges and smaller ions give much stronger attraction than NaCl.
24
Electrochemistry (A Level)
Multiple choice · 8
Q1In OIL RIG, reduction is:
Aloss of electrons
Bgain of electrons
Closs of protons
Dgain of neutrons
Show answer
Correct answer: B — gain of electrons
Reduction Is Gain of electrons; oxidation is loss.
Q2For electrolysis to work, the ionic compound must be:
Asolid
Bmolten or dissolved
Ca gas
Dpure metal
Show answer
Correct answer: B — molten or dissolved
The ions must be free to move, which they are only when molten or in solution.
Q3At the cathode during electrolysis:
Aanions lose electrons (oxidation)
Bcations gain electrons (reduction)
Cnothing happens
Dwater evaporates
Show answer
Correct answer: B — cations gain electrons (reduction)
The cathode is negative; positive ions are attracted and gain electrons — reduction.
Q4Electrolysing molten lead(II) bromide gives bromine at the:
Acathode
Banode
Cboth electrodes
Dneither
Show answer
Correct answer: B — anode
Br⁻ ions migrate to the positive anode and lose electrons to form bromine (oxidation).
Q5Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis because it is:
Acheap to melt
Btoo reactive to be reduced by carbon
Ca non-metal
Dfound as the pure metal
Show answer
Correct answer: B — too reactive to be reduced by carbon
Aluminium is above carbon in reactivity, so only electrolysis of its molten oxide can extract it.
Q6In electroplating an object with silver, the object is the:
Aanode
Bcathode
Celectrolyte
Dbattery
Show answer
Correct answer: B — cathode
The object to be plated is the negative cathode, where silver ions are reduced and deposit onto it.
Q7The oxidation number of sulfur in SO₂ is:
A−2
B0
C+2
D+4
Show answer
Correct answer: D — +4
Oxygen is −2 (×2 = −4); the total must be 0, so sulfur is +4.
Q8Electrolysing concentrated sodium chloride solution produces chlorine at the:
Acathode
Banode
Csalt bridge
Dboth electrodes
Show answer
Correct answer: B — anode
Chloride ions are oxidised at the positive anode, releasing chlorine gas.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Define oxidation and reduction in terms of electrons.
Answer
Oxidation is loss of electrons; reduction is gain of electrons (OIL RIG).
Q2[2 marks]
State what is meant by electrolysis.
Answer
The breakdown (decomposition) of an ionic compound, when molten or in aqueous solution, by the passage of an electric current.
Q3[3 marks]
During the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide, write the electrode reactions and name the products.
A student prepares dry crystals of copper(II) sulfate from copper(II) oxide and dilute sulfuric acid.
Write the balanced equation for the reaction. [2]
Describe how the student obtains pure dry crystals from the mixture. [4]
Explain why excess copper(II) oxide is used. [1]
Mark scheme
CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O (correct formulae)[1]
Equation balanced[1]
Warm the acid and add excess copper(II) oxide, then filter off the unreacted solid[1]
Heat the filtrate to evaporate some water / to the point of crystallisation[1]
Leave to cool so crystals form[1]
Filter and dry the crystals (e.g. between filter paper)[1]
Excess ensures all the acid reacts, and the excess solid can simply be filtered off[1]
CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O; react with excess base, filter, evaporate to crystallisation, cool, filter, dry; excess guarantees all acid used and is easily removed.
Q5[2 marks]
A solution has a hydrogen-ion concentration of 1 × 10⁻³ mol/dm³. Calculate its pH and state whether it is acidic or alkaline.
Answer
pH = −log₁₀(1 × 10⁻³) = 3. pH 3 is below 7, so the solution is acidic.
Q6[6 marks]
A student is asked to prepare pure, dry crystals of copper(II) sulfate from copper(II) oxide (an insoluble base) and dilute sulfuric acid.
Write the equation for the reaction. [2]
Describe the method to obtain pure dry crystals. [4]
Mark scheme
CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O (correct formulae)[1]
balanced[1]
Warm the acid and add copper(II) oxide in excess until no more reacts[1]
Filter to remove the excess copper(II) oxide[1]
Heat the filtrate to evaporate water to the point of crystallisation, then leave to cool[1]
Filter off the crystals and dry them (e.g. between filter paper)[1]
CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O; react with excess base, filter, evaporate to crystallisation, cool, filter, dry.
26
Reaction kinetics (A Level)
Multiple choice · 8
Q1In the rate law rate = k[A]^m[B]^n, the powers m and n are found:
Afrom the balanced equation
Bby experiment
Cfrom the molar masses
Dfrom the temperature
Show answer
Correct answer: B — by experiment
Orders are experimental — they reflect the mechanism, not the stoichiometric coefficients.
Q2Doubling [A] doubles the rate. The reaction is ___ order in A.
Azero
Bfirst
Csecond
Dthird
Show answer
Correct answer: B — first
Rate proportional to concentration means first order.
Q3Doubling [B] makes the rate four times larger. The order in B is:
Azero
Bfirst
Csecond
Dhalf
Show answer
Correct answer: C — second
×4 = 2², so the reaction is second order in B.
Q4For rate = k[A][B]², the overall order is:
A1
B2
C3
D0
Show answer
Correct answer: C — 3
The overall order is the sum of the individual orders: first order in A (power 1) plus second order in B (power 2) gives 1 + 2 = 3, so the reaction is third order overall.
Q5The rate constant k increases most when you raise the:
Aconcentration
Btemperature
Cpressure
Dvolume
Show answer
Correct answer: B — temperature
k depends strongly on temperature (Arrhenius); concentration changes the rate but not k.
Q6The rate-determining step of a reaction is the:
Afastest step
Bslowest step
Cfirst step always
Dlast step always
Show answer
Correct answer: B — slowest step
The slowest step is the bottleneck that controls the overall rate.
Q7A reactant's concentration halves every 30 s regardless of its starting value. The reaction is:
Azero order
Bfirst order
Csecond order
Dthird order
Show answer
Correct answer: B — first order
A constant half-life is the signature of a first-order reaction.
Q8The order of a reaction with respect to a reactant is found by:
Athe balanced equation
Bexperiment
Cthe molar mass
Dthe temperature
Show answer
Correct answer: B — experiment
Orders reflect the mechanism, so they must be determined experimentally, not read from the equation.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Define the term rate of reaction.
Answer
The change in concentration of a reactant or product per unit time.
Q2[2 marks]
What is meant by the order of a reaction with respect to a reactant?
Answer
The power to which the concentration of that reactant is raised in the rate equation.
Q3[3 marks]
A reaction has rate equation rate = k[A][B]². State the order with respect to each reactant, the overall order, and the effect on rate of doubling [B].
Answer
First order in A, second order in B, overall third order. Doubling [B] multiplies the rate by 2² = 4.
Q4[6 marks]
The rate of a reaction between A and B was studied by varying concentrations.
Explain how the rate constant k is affected by increasing temperature, and why. [3]
Explain what is meant by the rate-determining step. [2]
State the units of k for a first-order reaction. [1]
Mark scheme
k increases with temperature[1]
Particles have more energy and collide more often[1]
and a greater fraction exceed the activation energy, so more collisions are successful[1]
The rate-determining step is the slowest step in a multi-step reaction[1]
It controls the overall rate[1]
s⁻¹[1]
k rises with temperature (more successful collisions); rate-determining step = the slowest step, which limits overall rate; first-order k has units s⁻¹.
Q5[2 marks]
The rate equation for a reaction is rate = k[A]²[B]. State the overall order and the effect on the rate of doubling [A].
Answer
Overall order = 2 + 1 = 3 (third order). Doubling [A] multiplies the rate by 2² = 4.
Q6[6 marks]
A reaction between P and Q was studied by measuring the initial rate at different concentrations.
Explain what is meant by the rate-determining step. [2]
Explain how a catalyst increases the rate constant k. [2]
Explain why increasing temperature increases k. [2]
Mark scheme
The slowest step in a multi-step reaction[1]
which controls (limits) the overall rate[1]
A catalyst provides an alternative pathway with lower activation energy[1]
so a greater fraction of collisions are successful, raising k[1]
Higher temperature gives molecules more energy[1]
so more exceed the activation energy — more successful collisions and a larger k[1]
Rate-determining step = slowest step controlling the rate; catalyst and higher temperature both raise k by increasing the fraction of successful (Ea-exceeding) collisions.
27
Group 2 (A Level)
Multiple choice · 8
Q1The s-block consists of:
AGroups 1 and 2
BGroups 17 and 18
Cthe transition metals
DGroups 13–16
Show answer
Correct answer: A — Groups 1 and 2
The s-block is Groups 1 (alkali metals) and 2 (alkaline earth metals) — outer electrons in s orbitals.
Q2Reactivity of Group 1 metals down the group:
Adecreases
Bincreases
Cstays constant
Dbecomes zero
Show answer
Correct answer: B — increases
The outer electron is further out and more shielded lower down, so it is lost more easily — more reactive.
Q3Group 1 more reactive than Group 2 (same period) because it:
Ahas more electrons
Bloses one electron rather than two
Cis denser
Dhas coloured ions
Show answer
Correct answer: B — loses one electron rather than two
Losing a single outer electron requires less energy than losing two, so Group 1 reacts more readily.
Q4Sodium in water produces:
Asodium oxide only
Bsodium hydroxide + hydrogen
Csodium chloride
Dno reaction
Show answer
Correct answer: B — sodium hydroxide + hydrogen
Group 1 metals react with water to give a hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Q5A lilac flame colour indicates the presence of:
Asodium
Bpotassium
Ccalcium
Dcopper
Show answer
Correct answer: B — potassium
Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow and calcium brick-red.
Q6The diagonal relationship links lithium most closely with:
Asodium
Bmagnesium
Cpotassium
Dfluorine
Show answer
Correct answer: B — magnesium
Lithium resembles magnesium (diagonally below-right) because of their similar charge densities.
Q7The flame colour of potassium is:
Ayellow
Blilac
Cbrick-red
Dgreen
Show answer
Correct answer: B — lilac
Potassium gives a lilac flame; sodium is yellow, calcium brick-red, barium green.
Q8Down Group 2, the carbonates become:
Aless thermally stable
Bmore thermally stable
Cmore coloured
Dgaseous
Show answer
Correct answer: B — more thermally stable
Larger cations polarise the carbonate ion less, so the carbonates need more heat to decompose — more stable.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Describe the trend in reactivity down Group 1 (the alkali metals) and explain it.
Answer
Reactivity increases down the group because the outer electron is further from the nucleus and more easily lost.
Q2[2 marks]
Describe what is observed when a small piece of sodium is added to water, and give the equation.
Answer
It floats, melts into a ball, fizzes and moves around, giving off hydrogen: 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂.
Q3[3 marks]
Explain the trend in thermal stability of the Group 2 carbonates down the group.
Answer
Thermal stability increases down the group. The cations get larger with less charge density, so they polarise/distort the carbonate ion less, making it harder to decompose.
Q4[6 marks]
The Group 2 elements magnesium and calcium react with water.
Describe the difference in how magnesium and calcium react with water. [2]
Write the equation for the reaction of calcium with cold water. [2]
Explain the trend in reactivity down Group 2. [2]
Mark scheme
Magnesium reacts very slowly with cold water (faster with steam)[1]
Calcium reacts readily with cold water, fizzing[1]
Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂[1]
balanced equation[1]
Reactivity increases down the group[1]
because the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more easily lost[1]
Mg very slow with cold water, Ca reacts readily; Ca + 2H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + H₂; reactivity rises down the group (electrons lost more easily).
Q5[2 marks]
Explain why the thermal stability of the Group 2 nitrates increases down the group.
Answer
Down the group the cations get larger and have lower charge density, so they polarise (distort) the nitrate ion less. The nitrate is therefore harder to break down, so a higher temperature is needed and thermal stability increases.
Q6[6 marks]
The Group 2 elements and their compounds show clear trends.
Describe and explain the trend in reactivity of the Group 2 metals with water down the group. [3]
State the trends in solubility of the Group 2 hydroxides and sulfates down the group. [3]
Mark scheme
Reactivity increases down the group[1]
the outer electrons are further from the nucleus and more shielded[1]
so they are lost more easily, making the metal more reactive[1]
Hydroxides become more soluble down the group[1]
sulfates become less soluble down the group[1]
so barium sulfate is highly insoluble (used in the sulfate test)[1]
Reactivity rises down Group 2 (outer electrons lost more easily); hydroxides get more soluble, sulfates less soluble.
28
Chemistry of transition elements
Multiple choice · 8
Q1A transition element is best defined as one that:
Ais in the s-block
Bforms an ion with a partially filled d subshell
Chas one outer electron
Dis a non-metal
Show answer
Correct answer: B — forms an ion with a partially filled d subshell
The defining feature is a partially filled d subshell in at least one of its ions.
Q2Transition metals show variable oxidation states because their:
A4s and 3d electrons are close in energy
Bnuclei are unstable
Catoms are very small
Dions are colourless
Show answer
Correct answer: A — 4s and 3d electrons are close in energy
The small 4s/3d energy gap lets different numbers of electrons be lost, giving several stable ions.
Q3Transition-metal compounds are usually coloured because the d orbitals:
Aemit radioactivity
Babsorb specific visible wavelengths
Care empty
Dare full
Show answer
Correct answer: B — absorb specific visible wavelengths
Partly filled d orbitals absorb particular wavelengths of visible light (d–d transitions), so the compound looks coloured.
Q4A ligand in a complex ion is a species that:
Aremoves the metal
Bdonates a lone pair to the central metal ion
Cis always a metal
Dcarries no charge ever
Show answer
Correct answer: B — donates a lone pair to the central metal ion
Ligands (e.g. water, ammonia, chloride) bond to the central metal ion by donating a lone pair.
Q5Iron acts as a catalyst in the:
AContact process
BHaber process
CSolvay process
Dchlor-alkali process
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Haber process
Iron catalyses the Haber process; vanadium(V) oxide catalyses the Contact process.
Q6Sodium forms only Na⁺ but iron forms Fe²⁺ and Fe³⁺ because iron:
Ais radioactive
Bhas 4s and 3d electrons of similar energy
Cis a non-metal
Dhas one outer electron
Show answer
Correct answer: B — has 4s and 3d electrons of similar energy
The close energies of iron's 4s and 3d electrons make more than one oxidation state accessible.
Q7In a complex ion, the bond between a ligand and the central metal is a:
Aionic bond
Bdative (coordinate) covalent bond
Cmetallic bond
Dhydrogen bond
Show answer
Correct answer: B — dative (coordinate) covalent bond
The ligand donates a lone pair to the metal, forming a dative (coordinate) covalent bond.
Q8Transition-metal compounds are coloured because of:
Aionic bonding
Bd–d electron transitions
Chydrogen bonding
Dtheir high density
Show answer
Correct answer: B — d–d electron transitions
Splitting of the d-orbitals lets a d-electron absorb visible light (a d–d transition), producing colour.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
State three characteristic properties of transition elements.
Answer
They form ions with more than one oxidation state, form coloured compounds, and act as catalysts (any three; also high melting points/densities).
Q2[2 marks]
Give one example of a transition metal used as a catalyst and the process it catalyses.
Answer
Iron in the Haber process (or vanadium(V) oxide in the Contact process, or nickel in hydrogenation).
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why transition metal compounds are often coloured.
Answer
The d-orbitals split into different energy levels; a d-electron absorbs certain wavelengths of visible light to move between them, and the transmitted/reflected light gives the colour.
Q4[6 marks]
Copper shows typical transition-metal behaviour.
State the two common oxidation states of copper and the colour of each aqueous ion. [2]
Explain what is meant by a complex ion. [2]
State what is observed when excess aqueous ammonia is added to copper(II) sulfate solution. [2]
Mark scheme
+1 (Cu⁺) and +2 (Cu²⁺)[1]
Cu²⁺(aq) is blue (Cu⁺ compounds often white/colourless)[1]
A complex ion is a central metal ion[1]
surrounded by ligands bonded by coordinate (dative) bonds[1]
A pale blue precipitate forms first[1]
which dissolves in excess ammonia to give a deep blue solution[1]
Cu⁺ and Cu²⁺ (Cu²⁺ blue); complex = metal ion + ligands (dative bonds); excess NH₃ gives pale blue ppt then deep blue solution.
Q5[2 marks]
Explain what is observed when excess aqueous ammonia is added to copper(II) sulfate solution, in terms of ligand exchange.
Answer
A pale blue precipitate of copper(II) hydroxide forms first, then dissolves in excess ammonia to give a deep blue solution as water ligands are replaced by ammonia ligands (ligand exchange), changing the colour.
Q6[6 marks]
Transition elements have several characteristic properties.
Explain why transition metals show variable oxidation states. [2]
Explain why their compounds are coloured. [2]
Explain why they act as good catalysts, with one named example. [2]
Mark scheme
Their 3d and 4s sub-shells are close in energy[1]
so different numbers of electrons can be lost, giving several stable oxidation states[1]
In a complex the d-orbitals split into two energy levels[1]
a d-electron absorbs visible light to jump the gap (d–d transition); the transmitted light is the colour[1]
They can change oxidation state easily / provide a surface for reaction[1]
e.g. iron in the Haber process (or V₂O₅ in the Contact process)[1]
Variable states: close 3d/4s energies; colour: d–d transitions absorbing visible light; catalysis: easy change of oxidation state, e.g. iron in the Haber process.
29
An introduction to A Level organic chemistry
Multiple choice · 10
Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:
Acolour
Bfunctional group and general formula
Cmelting point
Dmolar mass
Show answer
Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula
Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.
Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:
Acarbon skeleton length
Bfunctional group
Ccolour
Dmolar mass
Show answer
Correct answer: B — functional group
The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.
Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:
Athe same compound
Bstructural isomers
Cgeometric isomers
Ddifferent elements
Show answer
Correct answer: B — structural isomers
Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.
Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:
Atwo ions
Bfree radicals
Ca nucleophile only
Dno products
Show answer
Correct answer: B — free radicals
An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.
Q5A nucleophile is a species that:
Aaccepts an electron pair
Bdonates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
Cis always positively charged
Dcontains no electrons
Show answer
Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.
Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.
Asubstitution
Baddition
Celimination
Dcombustion
Show answer
Correct answer: B — addition
Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.
Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:
Aelectron-poor and attacks C=C
Belectron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
Ca free radical
Dalways positively charged
Show answer
Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.
Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:
Aa chiral centre
Ba C=C double bond with no rotation
Ca benzene ring
Dan ionic bond
Show answer
Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation
Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.
Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?
AKCN in ethanol
Bwarm aqueous NaOH
Cacidified dichromate
Dconcentrated H₂SO₄
Show answer
Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH
Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.
Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:
Asodium hydroxide
Bpotassium cyanide
Cammonia
Dwater
Show answer
Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide
Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.
Exam-style questions · 7
Q1[2 marks]
Define the terms structural isomers.
Answer
Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.
Q2[2 marks]
Give the IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH₂CH₂OH and state its functional group.
Answer
Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).
Q3[3 marks]
Distinguish between homolytic and heterolytic bond fission, naming the species formed.
Answer
In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.
Q4[6 marks]
Organic reactions are classified by the type of change and the attacking species.
Explain the difference between an electrophile and a nucleophile. [2]
State the type of reaction (addition, substitution or elimination) when: bromine reacts with ethene; and a haloalkane forms an alkene with hot alcoholic KOH. [2]
Explain what is meant by a functional group. [2]
Mark scheme
An electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor species)[1]
A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich species)[1]
Bromine + ethene is an addition reaction[1]
Haloalkane with hot alcoholic KOH is an elimination reaction[1]
A functional group is the atom or group of atoms[1]
that gives a molecule its characteristic chemical properties[1]
Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.
Q5[2 marks]
Explain why but-2-ene shows cis–trans isomerism but butane does not.
Answer
But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.
Q6[6 marks]
Organic reactions can be classified by mechanism.
Define the terms nucleophile and electrophile. [2]
State the type of species that attacks, and the reaction type, when: (i) bromine reacts with ethene; (ii) hydroxide reacts with bromoethane. [4]
Mark scheme
A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich)[1]
an electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor)[1]
(i) Bromine acts as an electrophile[1]
in an electrophilic addition to the C=C double bond[1]
(ii) Hydroxide acts as a nucleophile[1]
in a nucleophilic substitution of the haloalkane[1]
Correct answer: B — all identical, between single and double
Delocalisation makes all six C–C bonds equivalent, intermediate between single and double.
Q2Benzene is more stable than expected because its electrons are:
Aremoved
Bdelocalised around the ring
Cin the nucleus
Dionic
Show answer
Correct answer: B — delocalised around the ring
The delocalised ring of electrons lowers benzene's energy — aromatic stability.
Q3Benzene's characteristic reaction is electrophilic:
Aaddition
Bsubstitution
Celimination
Dcombustion only
Show answer
Correct answer: B — substitution
Substitution replaces a hydrogen and keeps the stable aromatic ring intact.
Q4Nitration of benzene uses:
Adilute HCl
Bconcentrated HNO₃ and H₂SO₄
CNaOH
Dbromine water
Show answer
Correct answer: B — concentrated HNO₃ and H₂SO₄
Concentrated nitric and sulfuric acids generate the NO₂⁺ electrophile, giving nitrobenzene.
Q5Benzene resists addition reactions because addition would:
Arelease too much energy
Bdestroy its stable delocalised ring
Cmake it ionic
Dnot change anything
Show answer
Correct answer: B — destroy its stable delocalised ring
Adding across the ring would break the aromatic delocalisation, which is energetically unfavourable.
Q6Compared with an alkene, benzene is:
Afar more reactive toward addition
Bless reactive toward addition
Cunable to react at all
Dionic
Show answer
Correct answer: B — less reactive toward addition
Its aromatic stability makes benzene much less prone to addition than a reactive alkene double bond.
Q7The driving force for benzene undergoing substitution rather than addition is:
Aforming a stronger electrophile
Brestoring the stable delocalised ring
Creleasing hydrogen gas
Dgaining electrons
Show answer
Correct answer: B — restoring the stable delocalised ring
Substitution keeps (restores) the stable aromatic ring; addition would destroy it.
Q8Compared with benzene, phenol is:
Aless reactive toward electrophiles
Bmore reactive toward electrophiles
Cunable to react
Didentical in reactivity
Show answer
Correct answer: B — more reactive toward electrophiles
The –OH lone pair feeds electron density into the ring, making phenol more reactive than benzene.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Describe the bonding in a benzene molecule.
Answer
A ring of six carbons with six delocalised electrons spread above and below the ring; all six C–C bonds are identical, between single and double.
Q2[2 marks]
Explain why benzene undergoes substitution rather than addition reactions.
Answer
Addition would destroy the stable delocalised ring; substitution replaces a hydrogen and preserves the aromatic stability.
Q3[3 marks]
State the reagents and product for the nitration of benzene, and name the type of mechanism.
Answer
Concentrated nitric acid with concentrated sulfuric acid (generating NO₂⁺) gives nitrobenzene, by electrophilic substitution.
Q4[6 marks]
Benzene reacts by electrophilic substitution.
Explain why benzene is more stable than the hypothetical molecule cyclohexatriene (with three separate double bonds). [2]
Give the reagents and conditions for the chlorination of benzene. [2]
State why benzene does not decolourise bromine water, unlike an alkene. [2]
Mark scheme
Benzene's electrons are delocalised around the ring[1]
which lowers its energy / makes it more stable than isolated double bonds[1]
Chlorine (Cl₂) with a halogen carrier catalyst[1]
such as anhydrous AlCl₃ or FeCl₃[1]
Benzene has no localised C=C double bond to undergo addition[1]
its delocalised, stable ring does not react with bromine water[1]
Delocalisation lowers benzene's energy (extra stability); chlorination needs Cl₂ + AlCl₃/FeCl₃; no localised C=C means no addition, so bromine water is not decolourised.
Q5[3 marks]
Describe how the electrophile is generated in the nitration of benzene, and state the overall reaction type.
Answer
Concentrated sulfuric acid protonates concentrated nitric acid, which loses water to form the nitronium ion, NO₂⁺. This electrophile substitutes onto the ring, so the reaction is electrophilic substitution.
Q6[6 marks]
Benzene and phenol both react with electrophiles.
Explain why benzene undergoes substitution rather than addition. [3]
Explain why phenol is more reactive than benzene, and state what you would see when phenol is added to bromine water. [3]
Mark scheme
Benzene has a stable delocalised ring of electrons[1]
addition would destroy that stability, which is unfavourable[1]
substitution replaces an H and restores the stable ring[1]
In phenol the –OH lone pair delocalises into the ring[1]
making the ring more electron-rich / more reactive to electrophiles[1]
with bromine water the orange colour disappears and a white precipitate (2,4,6-tribromophenol) forms[1]
Benzene substitutes to keep its stable ring; phenol is more reactive (–OH lone pair enriches the ring) and decolourises bromine water, forming a white precipitate.
31
Halogen compounds (A Level)
Multiple choice · 10
Q1The reactive site of a haloalkane is the carbon bonded to the halogen because it is:
Aslightly negative
Bslightly positive (δ+)
Ca free radical
Daromatic
Show answer
Correct answer: B — slightly positive (δ+)
The polar C–X bond leaves that carbon electron-poor (δ+), attracting nucleophiles.
Q2Reacting bromoethane with warm aqueous NaOH gives:
Aethene
Bethanol
Cethane
Dethanoic acid
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ethanol
Aqueous hydroxide substitutes for the bromine — nucleophilic substitution to ethanol.
Q3Hot ethanolic NaOH with a haloalkane favours:
Asubstitution
Belimination (to an alkene)
Cno reaction
Dcombustion
Show answer
Correct answer: B — elimination (to an alkene)
Hot alcoholic base removes HX, forming a double bond — elimination.
Q4A secondary amine has how many carbon groups on nitrogen?
Aone
Btwo
Cthree
Dnone
Show answer
Correct answer: B — two
Primary = 1, secondary = 2, tertiary = 3 carbon groups on the nitrogen.
Q5Amines act as bases because the nitrogen:
Ais positively charged
Bhas a lone pair that accepts H⁺
Chas no electrons
Dis a halogen
Show answer
Correct answer: B — has a lone pair that accepts H⁺
Nitrogen's lone pair accepts a proton, so amines are proton acceptors — bases.
Q6Reacting a haloalkane with ammonia produces a(n):
Aalkene
Bamine
Ccarboxylic acid
Dalcohol
Show answer
Correct answer: B — amine
Ammonia's lone pair substitutes onto the carbon, displacing the halogen to form an amine.
Q7Reacting a haloalkane with potassium cyanide produces a nitrile, which is useful because it:
Ashortens the chain
Badds a carbon atom to the chain
Cremoves the halogen only
Dforms a ring
Show answer
Correct answer: B — adds a carbon atom to the chain
The CN group adds one carbon, lengthening the carbon chain.
The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.
Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:
ASN1
BSN2
Celimination only
Daddition
Show answer
Correct answer: B — SN2
The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.
Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:
Afree radical
Bcarbocation intermediate
Ccarbanion
Dsingle concerted step
Show answer
Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate
In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.
Exam-style questions · 7
Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the carbon–halogen bond in a haloalkane is the site of attack by nucleophiles.
Answer
The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.
Q2[2 marks]
State the product and reaction type when bromoethane is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Answer
Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases.
Answer
The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).
Q4[6 marks]
Bromoethane can react in two different ways depending on conditions.
State the reagent and conditions for converting bromoethane to ethene, and name the reaction type. [3]
State the reagent for converting bromoethane to ethylamine, and name the reaction type. [3]
Mark scheme
Hot ethanolic (alcoholic) potassium hydroxide[1]
under reflux / heat[1]
This is elimination (loss of HBr forms the C=C)[1]
Explain why amines act as bases, and give the product when ethylamine reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Answer
The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).
Q6[6 marks]
Bromoethane can be converted into several products by nucleophilic substitution.
State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to ethanol. [2]
State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to a nitrile, and why this is useful. [2]
Explain why iodoethane reacts faster than bromoethane. [2]
Mark scheme
Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide (or water)[1]
gives ethanol[1]
Potassium cyanide (in ethanol) gives propanenitrile[1]
useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]
The C–I bond is weaker than C–Br[1]
so it breaks more easily, making iodoethane react faster[1]
OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.
Q7[6 marks]
Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkanes can follow an SN1 or an SN2 mechanism.
Describe the SN2 mechanism and the type of haloalkane it favours. [3]
Describe the SN1 mechanism and explain why tertiary haloalkanes favour it. [3]
Mark scheme
In SN2 the nucleophile attacks the δ+ carbon as the halogen leaves[1]
in a single concerted step[1]
favoured by primary haloalkanes (the carbon is easy to approach)[1]
In SN1 the halogen leaves first to form a carbocation[1]
then the nucleophile attacks the carbocation[1]
tertiary haloalkanes form a stable tertiary carbocation, so this route is favoured[1]
SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).
32
Hydroxy compounds (A Level)
Multiple choice · 8
Q1A primary alcohol is fully oxidised to a:
Aketone
Bcarboxylic acid
Calkene
Dnothing
Show answer
Correct answer: B — carboxylic acid
Primary → aldehyde → carboxylic acid; secondary stops at a ketone; tertiary does not oxidise.
Q2A secondary alcohol oxidises to a:
Acarboxylic acid
Bketone
Caldehyde only, then stops
Dphenol
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ketone
Secondary alcohols oxidise to ketones and no further.
Q3A tertiary alcohol warmed with acidified dichromate:
Aturns it green
Bdoes not react (stays orange)
Cexplodes
Dforms an ester
Show answer
Correct answer: B — does not react (stays orange)
There is no hydrogen on the OH carbon to remove, so it resists oxidation and the dichromate stays orange.
Q4Alcohols have relatively high boiling points because they:
Aare ionic
Bhydrogen-bond
Care large
Dcontain metals
Show answer
Correct answer: B — hydrogen-bond
The O–H group forms hydrogen bonds between molecules, raising the boiling point.
Q5Phenol differs from an ordinary alcohol in that it is:
Abasic
Bweakly acidic
Cunreactive
Da gas
Show answer
Correct answer: B — weakly acidic
The benzene ring stabilises the anion, so phenol loses H⁺ and is weakly acidic (reacts with NaOH).
Q6An alcohol reacting with a carboxylic acid forms an:
Aether
Bester (+ water)
Camine
Dalkane
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ester (+ water)
Esterification gives a sweet-smelling ester and water.
Q7Dehydrating ethanol over a hot catalyst produces:
Aethane
Bethene
Cethanoic acid
Dan ester
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ethene
Dehydration removes water from the alcohol, forming the alkene ethene by elimination.
Q8Which reagent reacts with a carboxylic acid but NOT with phenol?
Asodium hydroxide
Bsodium carbonate
Cwater
Dbromine
Show answer
Correct answer: B — sodium carbonate
A carboxylic acid is strong enough to fizz with a carbonate; phenol is too weak, so carbonate distinguishes them.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Classify butan-2-ol as a primary, secondary or tertiary alcohol and justify your answer.
Answer
Secondary — the carbon bearing the –OH group is attached to two other carbon atoms.
Q2[2 marks]
State the products of oxidising a primary alcohol with acidified potassium dichromate.
Answer
First an aldehyde, then on further oxidation a carboxylic acid; the dichromate turns from orange to green.
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why phenol is acidic but ethanol is essentially neutral.
Answer
When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring, stabilising the ion, so H⁺ is released. Ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺.
Q4[6 marks]
Three alcohols — propan-1-ol, propan-2-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol — are each warmed with acidified potassium dichromate.
State the product (if any) from each alcohol. [3]
Describe the colour change seen for those that react. [1]
Explain why the tertiary alcohol does not react. [2]
Mark scheme
Propan-1-ol (primary) → propanal then propanoic acid[1]
Propan-2-ol (secondary) → propanone (a ketone)[1]
2-methylpropan-2-ol (tertiary) → no reaction[1]
Those that react turn the dichromate from orange to green[1]
The tertiary alcohol has no hydrogen on the carbon bearing the –OH[1]
so there is nothing for the oxidising agent to remove[1]
1° → aldehyde/acid, 2° → ketone, 3° → no reaction (orange→green for the first two); tertiary resists because there is no H on the OH carbon.
Q5[2 marks]
Give one advantage of making ethanol by hydration of ethene rather than by fermentation.
Answer
Hydration is a fast, continuous process that gives pure ethanol directly, whereas fermentation is slow, works in batches and produces a dilute impure mixture that must be distilled.
Q6[6 marks]
Phenol and ethanol both contain an –OH group but behave differently.
Explain why phenol is weakly acidic while ethanol is essentially neutral. [3]
Describe a chemical test, with results, that distinguishes phenol from a carboxylic acid. [3]
Mark scheme
When phenol loses H⁺, the negative charge is delocalised into the benzene ring[1]
this stabilises the phenoxide ion, so H⁺ is released — weakly acidic[1]
ethanol's anion is not stabilised in this way, so it does not release H⁺[1]
Add sodium carbonate solution to each[1]
the carboxylic acid fizzes, releasing CO₂[1]
phenol shows no reaction (too weak an acid)[1]
Phenol is acidic because the ring stabilises the phenoxide ion; ethanol's is not. Sodium carbonate fizzes with a carboxylic acid but not with phenol.
33
Carboxylic acids and derivatives (A Level)
Multiple choice · 8
Q1The functional group of a carboxylic acid is:
A–OH
B–CHO
C–COOH
D–NH₂
Show answer
Correct answer: C — –COOH
The carboxyl group –COOH (a carbonyl plus a hydroxyl on one carbon) defines carboxylic acids.
Q2Carboxylic acids are:
Astrong acids
Bweak acids
Cbases
Dneutral
Show answer
Correct answer: B — weak acids
They only partly ionise in water — weak acids — though the stabilised carboxylate makes them acidic at all.
Q3A carboxylic acid added to a carbonate produces:
Asalt + hydrogen
Bsalt + water + carbon dioxide
Can ester
Dno reaction
Show answer
Correct answer: B — salt + water + carbon dioxide
Acid + carbonate → salt + water + CO₂; the fizz (CO₂) confirms a carboxylic acid.
Q4Esterification combines a carboxylic acid with a(n):
Esters have pleasant fruity smells and are used as flavourings and perfumes.
Q6Why is a carboxylic acid acidic but an alcohol is not?
Ait has more carbons
Bthe carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation
Cit contains a metal
Dit is a gas
Show answer
Correct answer: B — the carboxylate ion is stabilised by delocalisation
Spreading the negative charge over both oxygens stabilises the ion, so the H⁺ is lost more readily.
Q7The most reactive derivative of a carboxylic acid, used to make the others, is the:
Aester
Bamide
Cacyl chloride
Dsalt
Show answer
Correct answer: C — acyl chloride
Acyl chlorides are the most reactive derivative and are used to prepare esters and amides.
Q8Boiling a fat with sodium hydroxide to make soap is called:
Aesterification
Bsaponification
Chydrogenation
Dpolymerisation
Show answer
Correct answer: B — saponification
Alkaline hydrolysis of a fat (an ester) to make soap is saponification.
Exam-style questions · 6
Q1[2 marks]
Name the functional group in a carboxylic acid and state whether such acids are strong or weak.
Answer
The carboxyl group, –COOH; carboxylic acids are weak acids (only partly ionised in water).
Q2[2 marks]
Give the products and observation when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
Answer
Sodium ethanoate, water and carbon dioxide are formed; effervescence (fizzing) is seen.
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why a carboxylic acid is more acidic than the corresponding alcohol.
Answer
When a carboxylic acid loses H⁺, the negative charge on the carboxylate ion is delocalised over both oxygen atoms, stabilising it; an alcohol's anion is not stabilised in this way.
Q4[6 marks]
Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of a little concentrated sulfuric acid.
Name the type of reaction and the organic product. [2]
Write the equation for the reaction. [2]
State the role of the concentrated sulfuric acid, and one use of the product. [2]
Mark scheme
The reaction is esterification (condensation)[1]
The product is ethyl ethanoate (an ester)[1]
CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
balanced with water as the other product[1]
The sulfuric acid is a catalyst (and dehydrating agent)[1]
Esters are used as flavourings / perfumes / solvents (any one)[1]
Esterification → ethyl ethanoate; CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O; H₂SO₄ is the catalyst; esters used as flavourings/perfumes/solvents.
Q5[2 marks]
Name the ester formed from ethanoic acid and propan-1-ol, and state the catalyst used.
Answer
Propyl ethanoate, formed with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst (which also removes water).
Q6[6 marks]
Esters can be made from carboxylic acids and hydrolysed back again.
Write the equation and conditions for making ethyl ethanoate from ethanoic acid and ethanol. [3]
State the products of hydrolysing ethyl ethanoate with (i) dilute acid and (ii) sodium hydroxide. [3]
Mark scheme
CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O[1]
conditions: warm with a concentrated sulfuric acid catalyst[1]
The C–I bond is the weakest, so it breaks most easily and iodoalkanes react fastest.
Q9A primary haloalkane undergoing nucleophilic substitution typically reacts by:
ASN1
BSN2
Celimination only
Daddition
Show answer
Correct answer: B — SN2
The small, accessible primary carbon favours the one-step SN2 mechanism.
Q10The SN1 mechanism proceeds via a:
Afree radical
Bcarbocation intermediate
Ccarbanion
Dsingle concerted step
Show answer
Correct answer: B — carbocation intermediate
In SN1 the halide leaves first, forming a carbocation that the nucleophile then attacks.
Q11The building blocks of proteins are:
Amonosaccharides
Bamino acids
Cfatty acids
Dnucleotides
Show answer
Correct answer: B — amino acids
Amino acids join by peptide bonds into protein chains; monosaccharides build carbohydrates and fatty acids build lipids.
Q12Which is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?
AGlucose
BStarch
CCellulose
DGlycerol
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Starch
Starch stores energy in plants; cellulose (also a polysaccharide) is structural, and glucose is the monosaccharide unit.
Q13A protein loses its function when heated strongly because it:
Agains energy
Bdenatures (loses its shape)
Cturns into a carbohydrate
Ddissolves
Show answer
Correct answer: B — denatures (loses its shape)
Heat unfolds the protein's precise shape — denaturing — and the shape is what its function depends on.
Q14Lipids differ from carbohydrates in that they:
Astore more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
Bare made of amino acids
Cdissolve easily in water
Dcannot store energy
Show answer
Correct answer: A — store more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
Fats and oils pack more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are water-insoluble; they also form membranes and insulation.
Q15An enzyme is best described as a:
Acarbohydrate that stores energy
Bbiological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
Ctype of lipid
Dsource of quick energy
Show answer
Correct answer: B — biological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
Enzymes are protein catalysts, each shaped to fit one substrate (lock and key), speeding a reaction without being used up.
Q16Enzyme activity falls sharply far from its optimum pH because the enzyme:
Aruns out
Bdenatures
Cbecomes a substrate
Dgains energy
Show answer
Correct answer: B — denatures
As a protein, an extreme pH unfolds (denatures) the enzyme, destroying the shape it needs to work.
Q17Monomers join to form a polymer in a reaction that releases water. This is:
Ahydrolysis
Bcondensation
Ccombustion
Doxidation
Show answer
Correct answer: B — condensation
Condensation joins monomers and releases a small molecule such as water; hydrolysis is the reverse.
Q18A brick-red precipitate on warming with Benedict's solution shows the presence of:
Astarch
Bprotein
Ca reducing sugar
Da lipid
Show answer
Correct answer: C — a reducing sugar
Benedict's solution turns from blue to brick-red with a reducing sugar such as glucose.
Q19An amino acid normally exists as a zwitterion because:
Ait has two amino groups
Ba proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
Cit is non-polar
Dit contains a benzene ring
Show answer
Correct answer: B — a proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
The acidic –COOH donates a proton to the basic –NH₂, giving a species with + and − charges but no net charge.
Q20At a pH below its isoelectric point, an amino acid will be:
Anegatively charged
Bpositively charged
Cneutral zwitterion only
Duncharged
Show answer
Correct answer: B — positively charged
In more acidic conditions it gains H⁺ on the –COO⁻, giving an overall positive charge.
Exam-style questions · 14
Q1[2 marks]
Explain why the carbon–halogen bond in a haloalkane is the site of attack by nucleophiles.
Answer
The bond is polar; the halogen is more electronegative, leaving the carbon slightly positive (δ+), which attracts electron-pair-donating nucleophiles.
Q2[2 marks]
State the product and reaction type when bromoethane is warmed with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Answer
Ethanol is formed by nucleophilic substitution (OH⁻ replaces Br⁻).
Q3[3 marks]
Explain why amines act as bases.
Answer
The nitrogen atom has a lone pair of electrons which can accept a proton (H⁺), forming a positively charged ion; so amines are proton acceptors (bases).
Q4[6 marks]
Bromoethane can react in two different ways depending on conditions.
State the reagent and conditions for converting bromoethane to ethene, and name the reaction type. [3]
State the reagent for converting bromoethane to ethylamine, and name the reaction type. [3]
Mark scheme
Hot ethanolic (alcoholic) potassium hydroxide[1]
under reflux / heat[1]
This is elimination (loss of HBr forms the C=C)[1]
Explain why amines act as bases, and give the product when ethylamine reacts with hydrochloric acid.
Answer
The nitrogen lone pair can accept a proton (H⁺), so amines are bases. Ethylamine + HCl gives the salt ethylammonium chloride (C₂H₅NH₃⁺Cl⁻).
Q6[6 marks]
Bromoethane can be converted into several products by nucleophilic substitution.
State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to ethanol. [2]
State the reagent and product for converting bromoethane to a nitrile, and why this is useful. [2]
Explain why iodoethane reacts faster than bromoethane. [2]
Mark scheme
Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide (or water)[1]
gives ethanol[1]
Potassium cyanide (in ethanol) gives propanenitrile[1]
useful because it adds a carbon, lengthening the chain[1]
The C–I bond is weaker than C–Br[1]
so it breaks more easily, making iodoethane react faster[1]
OH⁻ → ethanol; CN⁻ → propanenitrile (adds a carbon); iodoethane is faster because C–I is weaker than C–Br.
Q7[6 marks]
Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkanes can follow an SN1 or an SN2 mechanism.
Describe the SN2 mechanism and the type of haloalkane it favours. [3]
Describe the SN1 mechanism and explain why tertiary haloalkanes favour it. [3]
Mark scheme
In SN2 the nucleophile attacks the δ+ carbon as the halogen leaves[1]
in a single concerted step[1]
favoured by primary haloalkanes (the carbon is easy to approach)[1]
In SN1 the halogen leaves first to form a carbocation[1]
then the nucleophile attacks the carbocation[1]
tertiary haloalkanes form a stable tertiary carbocation, so this route is favoured[1]
SN2: one-step, nucleophile attacks as halide leaves, favoured by primary. SN1: two-step via a carbocation, favoured by tertiary (stable carbocation).
Q8[2 marks]
Name the three main classes of nutrients that are large biological molecules, and the smaller units each is built from.
Answer
Carbohydrates (from simple sugars), proteins (from amino acids) and fats/lipids (from fatty acids and glycerol).
Q9[2 marks]
Describe the test for a protein and its positive result.
Answer
Add biuret reagent (sodium hydroxide then copper(II) sulfate solution); a positive result is a colour change from blue to purple/violet.
Q10[3 marks]
Explain what happens when a carbohydrate such as starch is digested, and why enzymes are needed.
Answer
Starch is broken down (hydrolysed) into simple sugars such as glucose. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up this reaction at body temperature, which would otherwise be far too slow.
Q11[6 marks]
Enzymes control the reactions in living organisms.
Explain what is meant by an enzyme being a catalyst. [2]
Describe and explain the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity up to and beyond the optimum. [4]
Mark scheme
It speeds up a reaction[1]
without being used up / by lowering the activation energy[1]
As temperature rises up to the optimum, activity increases[1]
because particles collide more frequently and with more energy[1]
Above the optimum, activity falls sharply[1]
because the enzyme is denatured — its shape (active site) changes so substrate no longer fits[1]
Catalyst = speeds a reaction without being used up; activity rises to an optimum then falls as the enzyme denatures (active site changes shape).
Q12[2 marks]
Explain the difference between condensation and hydrolysis reactions in biological molecules.
Answer
Condensation joins two monomers together and releases a small molecule (usually water), building a polymer. Hydrolysis is the reverse: it adds water to split a polymer back into its monomers, as in digestion.
Q13[6 marks]
A student is given an unknown food sample to analyse.
Describe the tests for starch and for protein, with their positive results. [4]
The sample gives a cloudy emulsion in the emulsion test. What does this show, and how is the test carried out? [2]
Mark scheme
Starch: add iodine solution[1]
a blue-black colour is a positive result[1]
Protein: add biuret solution[1]
a purple/violet colour is a positive result[1]
A cloudy emulsion shows a lipid (fat) is present[1]
dissolve the sample in ethanol then add water — a cloudy white emulsion forms[1]
Starch → iodine blue-black; protein → biuret purple; lipid → cloudy emulsion (ethanol then water).
Q14[3 marks]
Explain what a zwitterion is and why amino acids can act as buffers.
Answer
A zwitterion is an amino acid that has transferred a proton internally from its –COOH to its –NH₂, giving –NH₃⁺ and –COO⁻ ends and no overall charge. It can accept H⁺ (onto –COO⁻) in acid and donate H⁺ (from –NH₃⁺) in alkali, so it resists pH change — acting as a buffer.
35
Polymerisation (A Level)
Multiple choice · 10
Q1The building blocks of proteins are:
Amonosaccharides
Bamino acids
Cfatty acids
Dnucleotides
Show answer
Correct answer: B — amino acids
Amino acids join by peptide bonds into protein chains; monosaccharides build carbohydrates and fatty acids build lipids.
Q2Which is a polysaccharide used for energy storage in plants?
AGlucose
BStarch
CCellulose
DGlycerol
Show answer
Correct answer: B — Starch
Starch stores energy in plants; cellulose (also a polysaccharide) is structural, and glucose is the monosaccharide unit.
Q3A protein loses its function when heated strongly because it:
Agains energy
Bdenatures (loses its shape)
Cturns into a carbohydrate
Ddissolves
Show answer
Correct answer: B — denatures (loses its shape)
Heat unfolds the protein's precise shape — denaturing — and the shape is what its function depends on.
Q4Lipids differ from carbohydrates in that they:
Astore more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
Bare made of amino acids
Cdissolve easily in water
Dcannot store energy
Show answer
Correct answer: A — store more energy per gram and are insoluble in water
Fats and oils pack more energy per gram than carbohydrates and are water-insoluble; they also form membranes and insulation.
Q5An enzyme is best described as a:
Acarbohydrate that stores energy
Bbiological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
Ctype of lipid
Dsource of quick energy
Show answer
Correct answer: B — biological catalyst that is specific to its substrate
Enzymes are protein catalysts, each shaped to fit one substrate (lock and key), speeding a reaction without being used up.
Q6Enzyme activity falls sharply far from its optimum pH because the enzyme:
Aruns out
Bdenatures
Cbecomes a substrate
Dgains energy
Show answer
Correct answer: B — denatures
As a protein, an extreme pH unfolds (denatures) the enzyme, destroying the shape it needs to work.
Q7Monomers join to form a polymer in a reaction that releases water. This is:
Ahydrolysis
Bcondensation
Ccombustion
Doxidation
Show answer
Correct answer: B — condensation
Condensation joins monomers and releases a small molecule such as water; hydrolysis is the reverse.
Q8A brick-red precipitate on warming with Benedict's solution shows the presence of:
Astarch
Bprotein
Ca reducing sugar
Da lipid
Show answer
Correct answer: C — a reducing sugar
Benedict's solution turns from blue to brick-red with a reducing sugar such as glucose.
Q9An amino acid normally exists as a zwitterion because:
Ait has two amino groups
Ba proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
Cit is non-polar
Dit contains a benzene ring
Show answer
Correct answer: B — a proton transfers from the –COOH to the –NH₂
The acidic –COOH donates a proton to the basic –NH₂, giving a species with + and − charges but no net charge.
Q10At a pH below its isoelectric point, an amino acid will be:
Anegatively charged
Bpositively charged
Cneutral zwitterion only
Duncharged
Show answer
Correct answer: B — positively charged
In more acidic conditions it gains H⁺ on the –COO⁻, giving an overall positive charge.
Exam-style questions · 7
Q1[2 marks]
Name the three main classes of nutrients that are large biological molecules, and the smaller units each is built from.
Answer
Carbohydrates (from simple sugars), proteins (from amino acids) and fats/lipids (from fatty acids and glycerol).
Q2[2 marks]
Describe the test for a protein and its positive result.
Answer
Add biuret reagent (sodium hydroxide then copper(II) sulfate solution); a positive result is a colour change from blue to purple/violet.
Q3[3 marks]
Explain what happens when a carbohydrate such as starch is digested, and why enzymes are needed.
Answer
Starch is broken down (hydrolysed) into simple sugars such as glucose. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up this reaction at body temperature, which would otherwise be far too slow.
Q4[6 marks]
Enzymes control the reactions in living organisms.
Explain what is meant by an enzyme being a catalyst. [2]
Describe and explain the effect of increasing temperature on enzyme activity up to and beyond the optimum. [4]
Mark scheme
It speeds up a reaction[1]
without being used up / by lowering the activation energy[1]
As temperature rises up to the optimum, activity increases[1]
because particles collide more frequently and with more energy[1]
Above the optimum, activity falls sharply[1]
because the enzyme is denatured — its shape (active site) changes so substrate no longer fits[1]
Catalyst = speeds a reaction without being used up; activity rises to an optimum then falls as the enzyme denatures (active site changes shape).
Q5[2 marks]
Explain the difference between condensation and hydrolysis reactions in biological molecules.
Answer
Condensation joins two monomers together and releases a small molecule (usually water), building a polymer. Hydrolysis is the reverse: it adds water to split a polymer back into its monomers, as in digestion.
Q6[6 marks]
A student is given an unknown food sample to analyse.
Describe the tests for starch and for protein, with their positive results. [4]
The sample gives a cloudy emulsion in the emulsion test. What does this show, and how is the test carried out? [2]
Mark scheme
Starch: add iodine solution[1]
a blue-black colour is a positive result[1]
Protein: add biuret solution[1]
a purple/violet colour is a positive result[1]
A cloudy emulsion shows a lipid (fat) is present[1]
dissolve the sample in ethanol then add water — a cloudy white emulsion forms[1]
Starch → iodine blue-black; protein → biuret purple; lipid → cloudy emulsion (ethanol then water).
Q7[3 marks]
Explain what a zwitterion is and why amino acids can act as buffers.
Answer
A zwitterion is an amino acid that has transferred a proton internally from its –COOH to its –NH₂, giving –NH₃⁺ and –COO⁻ ends and no overall charge. It can accept H⁺ (onto –COO⁻) in acid and donate H⁺ (from –NH₃⁺) in alkali, so it resists pH change — acting as a buffer.
36
Organic synthesis (A Level)
Multiple choice · 10
Q1A homologous series is a family of compounds that share a:
Acolour
Bfunctional group and general formula
Cmelting point
Dmolar mass
Show answer
Correct answer: B — functional group and general formula
Members share the functional group and general formula, differing by CH₂ each step.
Q2A molecule's chemical reactions are mainly decided by its:
Acarbon skeleton length
Bfunctional group
Ccolour
Dmolar mass
Show answer
Correct answer: B — functional group
The functional group is the reactive part; the rest of the skeleton is largely a spectator.
Q3Butane and 2-methylpropane (both C₄H₁₀) are:
Athe same compound
Bstructural isomers
Cgeometric isomers
Ddifferent elements
Show answer
Correct answer: B — structural isomers
Same molecular formula, different connectivity (chain branching) — structural isomers.
Q4Homolytic bond fission produces:
Atwo ions
Bfree radicals
Ca nucleophile only
Dno products
Show answer
Correct answer: B — free radicals
An even split gives each atom one electron — free radicals.
Q5A nucleophile is a species that:
Aaccepts an electron pair
Bdonates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
Cis always positively charged
Dcontains no electrons
Show answer
Correct answer: B — donates an electron pair and attacks positive centres
Nucleophiles are electron-pair donors that attack electron-poor (positive) centres.
Q6Adding atoms across a C=C double bond is a(n) ___ reaction.
Asubstitution
Baddition
Celimination
Dcombustion
Show answer
Correct answer: B — addition
Atoms adding across a double bond, opening it, is an addition reaction — characteristic of alkenes.
Q7A nucleophile is a species that is:
Aelectron-poor and attacks C=C
Belectron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
Ca free radical
Dalways positively charged
Show answer
Correct answer: B — electron-rich and attacks δ+ carbon
A nucleophile donates an electron pair and attacks electron-poor (δ+) carbon; electrophiles do the opposite.
Q8Geometric (cis–trans) isomerism requires:
Aa chiral centre
Ba C=C double bond with no rotation
Ca benzene ring
Dan ionic bond
Show answer
Correct answer: B — a C=C double bond with no rotation
Restricted rotation about the C=C double bond locks groups in fixed positions, giving cis and trans forms.
Q9Which reagent converts a haloalkane into an alcohol?
AKCN in ethanol
Bwarm aqueous NaOH
Cacidified dichromate
Dconcentrated H₂SO₄
Show answer
Correct answer: B — warm aqueous NaOH
Warm aqueous sodium hydroxide substitutes –OH for the halogen, giving an alcohol.
Q10To lengthen a carbon chain by one carbon, react a haloalkane with:
Asodium hydroxide
Bpotassium cyanide
Cammonia
Dwater
Show answer
Correct answer: B — potassium cyanide
Cyanide adds a carbon as a nitrile group, extending the chain.
Exam-style questions · 7
Q1[2 marks]
Define the terms structural isomers.
Answer
Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of their atoms.
Q2[2 marks]
Give the IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CH₂CH₂OH and state its functional group.
Answer
Propan-1-ol; the functional group is the hydroxyl group, –OH (an alcohol).
Q3[3 marks]
Distinguish between homolytic and heterolytic bond fission, naming the species formed.
Answer
In homolytic fission each atom takes one electron, forming two radicals. In heterolytic fission one atom takes both electrons, forming a positive and a negative ion.
Q4[6 marks]
Organic reactions are classified by the type of change and the attacking species.
Explain the difference between an electrophile and a nucleophile. [2]
State the type of reaction (addition, substitution or elimination) when: bromine reacts with ethene; and a haloalkane forms an alkene with hot alcoholic KOH. [2]
Explain what is meant by a functional group. [2]
Mark scheme
An electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor species)[1]
A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich species)[1]
Bromine + ethene is an addition reaction[1]
Haloalkane with hot alcoholic KOH is an elimination reaction[1]
A functional group is the atom or group of atoms[1]
that gives a molecule its characteristic chemical properties[1]
Electrophile accepts an electron pair, nucleophile donates one; Br₂ + ethene = addition, elimination gives the alkene; functional group = the reactive part defining the chemistry.
Q5[2 marks]
Explain why but-2-ene shows cis–trans isomerism but butane does not.
Answer
But-2-ene has a C=C double bond, and there is no rotation about it, so the methyl groups are fixed either on the same side (cis) or opposite sides (trans). Butane has only single bonds, which rotate freely, so no fixed arrangement — and no cis–trans isomers.
Q6[6 marks]
Organic reactions can be classified by mechanism.
Define the terms nucleophile and electrophile. [2]
State the type of species that attacks, and the reaction type, when: (i) bromine reacts with ethene; (ii) hydroxide reacts with bromoethane. [4]
Mark scheme
A nucleophile is an electron-pair donor (electron-rich)[1]
an electrophile is an electron-pair acceptor (electron-poor)[1]
(i) Bromine acts as an electrophile[1]
in an electrophilic addition to the C=C double bond[1]
(ii) Hydroxide acts as a nucleophile[1]
in a nucleophilic substitution of the haloalkane[1]
Q1In a mass spectrum, the relative molecular mass is given by the:
Atallest peak
Bmolecular ion peak (highest m/z)
Cfirst fragment
Dfingerprint region
Show answer
Correct answer: B — molecular ion peak (highest m/z)
The molecular ion M⁺, at the highest m/z ignoring isotope peaks, equals the relative molecular mass.
Q2Two peaks two m/z units apart in a roughly 3:1 ratio indicate the presence of:
Abromine
Bchlorine
Cnitrogen
Doxygen
Show answer
Correct answer: B — chlorine
Chlorine's ³⁵Cl and ³⁷Cl isotopes (about 3:1) give M and M+2 peaks in that ratio; bromine gives ~1:1.
Q3A strong infrared absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a:
AC–H bond
BC=O group
CC–C bond
Dlone pair
Show answer
Correct answer: B — C=O group
The carbonyl group C=O absorbs strongly around 1680–1750 cm⁻¹.
Q4A broad infrared absorption around 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ suggests a(n):
AC=C bond
BO–H group
Cmetal
Dnoble gas
Show answer
Correct answer: B — O–H group
A broad band at 3200–3600 cm⁻¹ is characteristic of the O–H of alcohols and carboxylic acids.
Q5The number of peaks in a ¹H NMR spectrum tells you the number of:
Acarbon atoms
Bdifferent hydrogen environments
Cdouble bonds
Disotopes
Show answer
Correct answer: B — different hydrogen environments
Each set of equivalent hydrogens (one environment) gives one signal.
Q6A ¹H NMR peak split into a triplet indicates how many hydrogens on the neighbouring carbon?
Aone
Btwo
Cthree
Dnone
Show answer
Correct answer: B — two
By the n+1 rule, a triplet (3 lines) means n = 2 neighbouring hydrogens.
Q7In thin-layer chromatography, the Rf value is:
Aalways greater than 1
Bdistance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent
Cthe retention time
Dthe boiling point
Show answer
Correct answer: B — distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent
Rf compares how far the spot moved with how far the solvent front moved; it is between 0 and 1.
Q8To identify an unknown organic compound fully, a chemist typically uses:
Amass spectrometry alone
BIR alone
CNMR alone
Dmass spec, IR and NMR together
Show answer
Correct answer: D — mass spec, IR and NMR together
Each technique gives different information; combined, they pin down the structure.
Q9A pure substance, unlike a mixture, melts:
Aover a wide range
Bsharply at one fixed temperature
Conly when dissolved
Dwithout any heat
Show answer
Correct answer: B — sharply at one fixed temperature
A sharp, fixed melting point is the practical test of purity; mixtures melt over a range.
Q10To separate sand from water you would use:
Adistillation
Bfiltration
Cchromatography
Dcrystallisation
Show answer
Correct answer: B — filtration
Sand is insoluble, so filtration catches it on the paper while the water passes through.
Q11To get pure water from seawater you would use:
Afiltration
Bsimple distillation
Ccrystallisation
Dchromatography
Show answer
Correct answer: B — simple distillation
Distillation boils off the water and condenses it, leaving the dissolved salts behind.
Q12An Rf value is always:
Agreater than 1
Bbetween 0 and 1
Ca whole number
Dnegative
Show answer
Correct answer: B — between 0 and 1
A substance cannot travel further than the solvent, so distance ratio Rf lies between 0 and 1.
Q13Which gas relights a glowing splint?
AHydrogen
BCarbon dioxide
COxygen
DAmmonia
Show answer
Correct answer: C — Oxygen
Oxygen relights a glowing splint; hydrogen gives a squeaky pop with a lit splint.
Q14Limewater turning milky is the test for:
Aoxygen
Bhydrogen
Ccarbon dioxide
Dchlorine
Show answer
Correct answer: C — carbon dioxide
Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky — the standard CO₂ test.
Q15A white precipitate forms when barium chloride and dilute acid are added to a solution. The ion present is:
Achloride
Bcarbonate
Csulfate
Dnitrate
Show answer
Correct answer: C — sulfate
Barium chloride gives a white precipitate of barium sulfate — the test for a sulfate ion.
Q16A cream precipitate with silver nitrate indicates a:
Achloride
Bbromide
Ciodide
Dsulfate
Show answer
Correct answer: B — bromide
Silver bromide is cream (chloride is white, iodide is yellow).
Exam-style questions · 12
Q1[2 marks]
State what the molecular ion peak in a mass spectrum tells you.
Answer
The mass/charge value of the molecular ion peak (highest m/z, ignoring isotope peaks) gives the relative molecular mass of the compound.
Q2[2 marks]
State what an infrared spectrum is used to identify, giving one example absorption.
Answer
It identifies bonds/functional groups present; for example a strong absorption near 1700 cm⁻¹ indicates a C=O group (or a broad band ~3300 cm⁻¹ indicates O–H).
Q3[3 marks]
In a ¹H NMR spectrum, state what the number of peaks, the integration, and the splitting each tell you.
Answer
Number of peaks = number of different hydrogen environments; integration (area) = the ratio of hydrogens in each environment; splitting = the number of hydrogens on neighbouring carbons (n+1 lines for n neighbours).
Q4[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 46, a broad IR absorption around 3300 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows three peaks.
State the relative molecular mass of X. [1]
State what the broad IR absorption at 3300 cm⁻¹ suggests. [1]
Explain what "three peaks" in the ¹H NMR tells you, and deduce the identity of X. [4]
Mark scheme
Relative molecular mass = 46[1]
The broad ~3300 cm⁻¹ band suggests an O–H group (alcohol)[1]
Three peaks means three different hydrogen environments[1]
Ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH, has Mr 46[1]
It has three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH)[1]
so X is ethanol[1]
Mr = 46; O–H group present; three H environments (CH₃, CH₂, OH) → X is ethanol, CH₃CH₂OH.
Q5[2 marks]
In a TLC experiment, a spot moves 3.6 cm while the solvent front moves 4.8 cm. Calculate its Rf value.
Answer
Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent = 3.6 ÷ 4.8 = 0.75.
Q6[6 marks]
An unknown compound X has a molecular ion peak at m/z = 60, a strong IR absorption at 1710 cm⁻¹ and a broad one at 3000 cm⁻¹, and its ¹H NMR shows two peaks.
State the relative molecular mass and the functional group(s) suggested by the IR. [2]
State what two ¹H NMR peaks tell you. [1]
Deduce the identity of X and justify it. [3]
Mark scheme
Relative molecular mass = 60[1]
1710 cm⁻¹ suggests C=O and the broad 3000 cm⁻¹ suggests the O–H of a carboxylic acid[1]
Two peaks means two hydrogen environments[1]
A carboxylic acid of Mr 60 is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH[1]
it has two H environments (CH₃ and COOH)[1]
and contains both C=O and O–H, matching the IR — so X is ethanoic acid[1]
Mr = 60; C=O + O–H (carboxylic acid); two H environments → X is ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH.
Q7[2 marks]
Describe how you would obtain pure water from a mixture of water and salt.
Answer
By simple distillation: heat the solution so water boils off, then condense the vapour back to liquid; the salt remains behind.
Q8[2 marks]
State how a chromatogram can be used to tell whether a dye is a pure substance.
Answer
A pure substance produces a single spot on the chromatogram; a mixture separates into two or more spots.
Q9[3 marks]
Define the term Rf value and state how it is calculated.
Answer
The Rf value is the ratio of the distance moved by the spot to the distance moved by the solvent front. Rf = distance moved by spot ÷ distance moved by solvent.
Q10[6 marks]
A student is given a mixture of sand and copper(II) sulfate.
Describe how to obtain a dry sample of sand from the mixture. [3]
Describe how to obtain pure copper(II) sulfate crystals from the remaining solution. [3]
Mark scheme
Add water and stir to dissolve the copper(II) sulfate[1]
Filter — sand is the residue in the filter paper[1]
Wash and dry the sand[1]
Heat the filtrate to evaporate water to the point of crystallisation[1]
Leave to cool so crystals form[1]
Filter off and dry the crystals[1]
Dissolve, filter (sand = residue), wash and dry it; evaporate the filtrate to crystallisation, cool, filter and dry the crystals.
Q11[2 marks]
Describe how you would use flame tests to distinguish a sodium salt from a potassium salt.
Answer
Dip a clean wire in the salt and hold it in a blue flame: sodium gives a yellow flame, potassium gives a lilac flame.
Q12[6 marks]
An unknown solid is thought to be iron(II) sulfate.
Describe the test and result that would confirm the iron(II) ion. [3]
Describe the test and result that would confirm the sulfate ion. [3]
Mark scheme
Dissolve the solid and add sodium hydroxide solution[1]
a green precipitate forms[1]
confirming the iron(II) ion, Fe²⁺[1]
To a fresh sample add dilute (hydrochloric or nitric) acid, then barium chloride solution[1]
a white precipitate forms[1]
confirming the sulfate ion, SO₄²⁻[1]
Fe²⁺: NaOH gives a green precipitate. SO₄²⁻: acid + barium chloride gives a white precipitate.
These questions come from the A Level Chemistry (9701) lessons — each topic has its own notes, worked examples and an interactive diagram.